PRE-BOARD

PHYSICAL SCIENCE
RATIONALIZATION
A. 100 mL
B. 10 L
C. 1 quart
D. 1 L
A. 100 mL
B. 10 L
C. 1 quart
D. 1 L
2. The meter is slightly longer than
the ____________.
A. inch
B. foot
C. mile
D. yard
1 inch - 0.0254 m
1 foot - 0.3048 m
1 mile - 1609.34 m
1 yard - 0.9144 m
2. The meter is slightly longer than
the ____________.
A. inch
B. foot
C. mile
D. yard
3. Matter waves were first
hypothesized by which of the
following scientists?
[Link]
B. de Broglie
C. Heisenberg
[Link]
3. Matter waves were first
hypothesized by which of the
following scientists?
[Link]
B. de Broglie
C. Heisenberg
[Link]
4. According to the scientific method, what needs to be done
to move beyond conjecture or simple
hypothesis in a person's understanding of his or her physical
surroundings?

A. conduct a controlled experiment

B. find an understood model with answers
C. make an educated guess
D. search for answers on the Internet
4. According to the scientific method, what needs to be done
to move beyond conjecture or simple
hypothesis in a person's understanding of his or her physical
surroundings?

A. conduct a controlled experiment

B. find an understood model with answers
C. make an educated guess
D. search for answers on the Internet
5. Which of the following is the
best example of the use of a
referent?
[Link] textbook
B. the planet Mars
C. big as a dump truck
D.a red bicycle
5. Which of the following is the
best example of the use of a
referent?
[Link] textbook
B. the planet Mars
C. big as a dump truck
D.a red bicycle
6. If the speed of a moving object is
doubled, which quantity associated
with the object must also double?

A. its acceleration
B. its momentum
C. its gravitational potential energy
D. its kinetic energy
6. If the speed of a moving object is
doubled, which quantity associated
with the object must also double?

A. its acceleration
B. its momentum
C. its gravitational potential energy
D. its kinetic energy
7. Which of the following units
can be used to express the
strength of a magnetic field?

A. Newton
B. Tesla
C. Galileo
D. Edison
7. Which of the following units
can be used to express the
strength of a magnetic field?

A. Newton
B. Tesla
C. Galileo
D. Edison
8. Sound vibration below 20
vibrations per second is
considered ___________________.
A. hypersonic
B. infrasonic
C. supersonic
D. ultrasonic
8. Sound vibration below 20
vibrations per second is
considered ___________________.
A. hypersonic
B. infrasonic
C. supersonic
D. ultrasonic
9. The following situations illustrate
acceleration, EXCEPT _______________________.

A. drum rolls down on an inclined plane

B. a body travels around the curved road with a
constant speed of 20 m/s
C. the bus increases its speed from 70 kph to 120 kph
D. a car travels at constant speed along a highway
9. The following situations illustrate
acceleration, EXCEPT _______________________.

A. drum rolls down on an inclined plane

B. a body travels around the curved road with a
constant speed of 20 m/s
C. the bus increases its speed from 70 kph to 120 kph
D. a car travels at constant speed along a highway
10. Cobalt-60 is a strong source of gamma
rays and is used in the treatment of
____________.

[Link]'s Disease
B. High Blood Pressure
C. Osteoporosis
[Link]
10. Cobalt-60 is a strong source of gamma
rays and is used in the treatment of
____________.

[Link]'s Disease
B. High Blood Pressure
C. Osteoporosis
[Link]
11. What are the organic
compounds that are used in
perfumes and for artificial
flavors?
A. ethers
B. carboxylic acids
C. esters
D. alcohols
A. Ethers - have wide use as commercial solvents and extractants for
esters, gums, hydrocarbons, alkaloids, oils, resins, dyes, plastics,
lacquers, and paints.
B. carboxylic acids - are used in the production of polymers,
biopolymers, coatings, adhesives, and pharmaceutical drugs
C. Esters - have fragrant odours are used as a constituent of perfumes,
essential oils, food flavourings, cosmetics, etc
D. Alcohols - Common uses include cleaners, cosmetics, fuels,
pharmaceuticals, textiles and much more.
11. What are the organic
compounds that are used in
perfumes and for artificial
flavors?
A. ethers
B. carboxylic acids
C. esters
D. alcohols
12. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a radius of
curvature of 30 cm. The magnification
of a man's face when it is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror
is ________________.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
 b. Image distance Magnification = di
Given: do
R = 30 cm 1 + 1 = 1 m = 60
do = 12 cm do di f 12
m=5
1 + 1 = 1
a. Focal length 12 di 15
f=R 1 = 1 - 1
2 di 15 12
f = 30 1 = -3
2 di 180
f = 15 cm
di = 180/3 = 60 cm
12. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a radius of
curvature of 30 cm. The magnification
of a man's face when it is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror
is ________________.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
13. When rocks and geologic events are put
into chronologic order without regard to the
actual dates, what is obtained is _______________.

A. geologic formation
B. absolute numerical geologic time
C. relative geologic time
D. correlation period
13. When rocks and geologic events are put
into chronologic order without regard to the
actual dates, what is obtained is _______________.

A. geologic formation
B. absolute numerical geologic time
C. relative geologic time
D. correlation period
14. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a radius or
curvature of 30 cm. The magnification
of a man's face when it is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror
is ______________.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
14. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a radius or
curvature of 30 cm. The magnification
of a man's face when it is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror
is ______________.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
15. A hardened tree resin in which ancient
insects have sometimes been preserved is
____________________.

A. cast
B. amber
C. carbon
D. mold
15. A hardened tree resin in which ancient
insects have sometimes been preserved is
____________________.

A. cast
B. amber
C. carbon
D. mold
A. Alkali metal
B. Halogen
C. Inert gas
D. Coinage
A. Alkali metal
B. Halogen
C. Inert gas
D. Coinage
17. Which material/s has/have large thermal
conductivity?
I. Gel
II. Copper
III. Concrete
IV. Home Insulations

A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. I and III
D. I only
The thermal conductivity of a material is
a measure of its ability to conduct heat.
17. Which material/s has/have large thermal
conductivity?
I. Gel
II. Copper
III. Concrete
IV. Home Insulations

A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. I and III
D. I only
18. When the equation MnO2 + CO ------>
Mn2O3 + CO2 is balanced, what is the sum of all
written and "understood" coefficients?

A. 4
B. 9
C. 8
D. 5
MnO2 + CO ------> Mn2O3 + CO2 2MnO2 + CO ------> Mn2O3 + CO2

1 Mn 2 2 Mn 2
3 O 5 5 O 5
1 C 1 1 C 1
18. When the equation MnO2 + CO ------>
Mn2O3 + CO2 is balanced, what is the sum of all
written and "understood" coefficients?

A. 4
B. 9
C. 8
D. 5
19. An atom contains 70 protons , 10
electrons and 99 neutrons. What is the mass
number ?
A. 169
B. 130
C. 140
D. 159
Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
Mass number = 70 + 99
Mass number = 169
19. An atom contains 70 protons , 10
electrons and 99 neutrons. What is the mass
number ?
A. 169
B. 130
C. 140
D. 159
20. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0
cm to the right of a concave spherical
mirror having
a radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The
position and orientation of the image is

A. 35 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted

B. 35 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
C. 25 cm to the left of the mirror, inverted
D. 25 cm to the right of the mirror, inverted
Given: 1 =1 - 1
ho = 2 cm di 10 14
do = 14 cm
R = 20 cm 1 =4
di 140

f=R di = 35
2
f = 20 = 10
2
20. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0
cm to the right of a concave spherical
mirror having
a radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The
position and orientation of the image is

A. 35 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted

B. 35 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
C. 25 cm to the left of the mirror, inverted
D. 25 cm to the right of the mirror, inverted
21. The speed of light in crown glass is 2x10^8m/s.
The index of refraction of crown glass is

A. 2.5
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. 1.5
n = 3 x 10^8 m/s
2x10^8 m/s
n = 1.5
21. The speed of light in crown glass is 2x108m/s.
The index of refraction of crown glass is

A. 2.5
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. 1.5
22. You won the jackpot prize in a lottery. The
prize money cannot be paid in currency but
only in gold. Applying your knowledge in
chemistry, select the largest amount of gold
from
the choice below. (Au = 197)

A. 22.5 moles of gold

B. 23.5 moles of gold
C. 50 kg of gold
D. 40 kg of gold
23.5 moles of gold x ( 197 g of Au ) = 4,629.5 g of Au
1 mol Au

4,629.5 g of Au = 4.63 kg of Au
1000 g
22. You won the jackpot prize in a lottery. The
prize money cannot be paid in currency but
only in gold. Applying your knowledge in
chemistry, select the largest amount of gold
from
the choice below. (Au = 197)

A. 22.5 moles of gold

B. 23.5 moles of gold
C. 50 kg of gold
D. 40 kg of gold
23. An object 1.50 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm to the
left of the vertex of a convex spherical
mirror whose radius of curvature has a magnitude
of 20.0 cm. The position of the image is
_____________________.

A. 2.75 cm to the left of the mirror

B. 3.75 to the right of the mirror
C. 2.75 cm to the right of the mirror
D. 3.75 to the left of the mirror
Given: 1 =1 + 1
ho = 1.50 cm di 10 6
do = 6.0 cm
R = 20 cm 1 = 16
di 60

f=R di = 3.75
2
f = 20 = 10
2
23. An object 1.50 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm to the
left of the vertex of a convex spherical
mirror whose radius of curvature has a magnitude
of 20.0 cm. The position of the image is
_____________________.

A. 2.75 cm to the left of the mirror

B. 3.75 to the right of the mirror
C. 2.75 cm to the right of the mirror
D. 3.75 to the left of the mirror
24. A feature of coastal
disposition is ____________.
A. sea arch
B. spit
C. sea stack
D. wave-cut cliff
• When the sea loses energy, it drops the sand, rock particles, and
pebbles it has been carrying. This is called deposition.
A. sea arch - A sea arch is a natural arch or bridge made of stone that
has been created when water wears away the underside of a rock,
leaving just the top behind.
B. Spit - A spit or sandspit is a deposition bar or beach landform off
coasts or lake shores.
C. sea stack - is a geological landform consisting of a steep and often
vertical column or columns of rock in the sea near a coast, formed by
wave erosion.
D. wave-cut cliff - he narrow flat area often found at the base of a sea
cliff or along the shoreline of a lake, bay, or sea that was created by
erosion.
24. A feature of coastal
disposition is ____________.
A. sea arch
B. spit
C. sea stack
D. wave-cut cliff
25. An object 1.50 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm to the
left of the vertex of a convex spherical
mirror whose radius of curvature has a magnitude
of 20.0 cm. The size of the image is________.

A. 0.838 cm
B. 1.838 cm
C. 1.938 cm
D. 0.938 cm
Given: 1 =1 + 1
ho = 1.50 cm m = di m = hi
di 10 6
do ho
do = 6 cm
R = 20 cm 1 = 16
m = 3.75 0.625 = hi
di 60
6 1.50
f=R m = 0.625 hi = 0.938
di = 3.75
2
f = 20 = 10
2
25. An object 1.50 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm to the
left of the vertex of a convex spherical
mirror whose radius of curvature has a magnitude
of 20.0 cm. The size of the image is________.

A. 0.838 cm
B. 1.838 cm
C. 1.938 cm
D. 0.938 cm
26. Fossils from Precambrian
time could include
__________________.

A. leaf impression and shark teeth

B. dinosaur bones and giant birds
C. human skulls and skeletons
D. algae, bacteria, and sea worms
26. Fossils from Precambrian
time could include
__________________.

A. leaf impression and shark teeth

B. dinosaur bones and giant birds
C. human skulls and skeletons
D. algae, bacteria, and sea worms
27. What principle explains why
airplanes can fly and curve balls
curve?
A. Bernoulli
B. Archimedes
C. Pascal
D. Torricelli
What is Bernoulli principle in simple terms?
Bernoulli's principle states the following, Bernoulli's principle: Within a
horizontal flow of fluid, points of higher fluid speed will have less
pressure than points of slower fluid speed.

What are examples of Bernoulli's principle?

• How an airplane takes off?
• Why a fast-moving train pulls nearby objects?
• Why a spinning ball curves.
• Why roofs are blown away in heavy winds?
• How atomizer works?
• How chimney works?
Torricelli’s law has practical applications in daily life. The
physical law describes a major relationship between liquid
exit velocity and its height in the container.
27. What principle explains why
airplanes can fly and curve balls
curve?
A. Bernoulli
B. Archimedes
C. Pascal
D. Torricelli
28. A rock dropped off a bridge takes 5
seconds to hit the water. Approximately
what was the
rock's velocity just before impact?

A. 10 m/s
B. 30 m/s
C. 50 m/s
D. 25 m/s
vf = vi + at
vf = (0 m/s) + (9.8 m/s2)(5 s)
vf = 49 m/s
28. A rock dropped off a bridge takes 5
seconds to hit the water. Approximately
what was the
rock's velocity just before impact?

A. 10 m/s
B. 30 m/s
C. 50 m/s
D. 25 m/s
29. Any flow of water between well-defined
banks is called __________________.

A. Aquifer
B. stream
C. river flow
D. water table
A. Aquifer - a body of rock and/or sediment that holds
groundwater.
B. Stream - a small, narrow river.
C. river flow - water that flows along a river
D. water table - also called groundwater table, upper
level of an underground surface in which the soil or
rocks are permanently saturated with water.
29. Any flow of water between well-defined
banks is called __________________.

A. aquifer
B. stream
C. river flow
D. water table
30. Sodium Chloride conducts electricity when
dissolved in water. What type of bond is
present in NaCl?

A. hydrogen
B. nonpolar
C. ionic
D. polar
30. Sodium Chloride conducts electricity when
dissolved in water. What type of bond is
present in NaCl?

A. hydrogen
B. nonpolar
C. ionic
D. polar
31. Fossils from Precambrian
time could include ___________.

A. dinosaur bones and giant birds

B. human skulls and skeletons
C. leaf impression and shark teeth
D. algae, bacteria, and sea worms
31. Fossils from Precambrian
time could include ___________.

A. dinosaur bones and giant birds

B. human skulls and skeletons
C. leaf impression and shark teeth
D. algae, bacteria, and sea worms
32. Of the following, the copper conductor
that has the least resistance is
_________________.

A. thick, short and cool

B. thin, long and hot
C. thin, short and cool
D. thick, long and cool
32. Of the following, the copper conductor
that has the least resistance is
_________________.

A. thick, short and cool

B. thin, long and hot
C. thin, short and cool
D. thick, long and cool
33. An empty garbage truck moving at a speed
of 4 m/sec enters a tunnel where a bale of
garbage half as massive as the truck is
dropped onto the truck. What is the speed of
the
truck when coming out of the tunnel?
A. 5.8 m/sec
B. 2.7 m/sec
C. 2.8 m/sec
D. 5.7 m/sec
KE = 1mv^2
2

1 (1)(4)^2 = 1 (0.5)(v)^2
2 2

V = 5.67 m/s
33. An empty garbage truck moving at a speed
of 4 m/sec enters a tunnel where a bale of
garbage half as massive as the truck is
dropped onto the truck. What is the speed of
the
truck when coming out of the tunnel?
A. 5.8 m/sec
B. 2.7 m/sec
C. 2.8 m/sec
D. 5.7 m/sec
34. What is the formula for
lithium nitride?
A. Li3N
B. LiN
C. LI2N2
D. Li3N3
34. What is the formula for
lithium nitride?
A. Li3N
B. LiN
C. LI2N2
D. Li3N3
35. The term which denotes the continuous
circulation of the Earth's water is described as

A. hydrothermal equilibrium
B. hydrologic cycle
C. aqua cycle
D. redistribution process
35. The term which denotes the continuous
circulation of the Earth's water is described as

A. hydrothermal equilibrium
B. hydrologic cycle
C. aqua cycle
D. redistribution process
36. A drinking glass is one-fourth filled
with water and is repeatedly tapped at
the side with a
metal spoon. What will happen to the
pitch of the sound when the water
inside the glass is
increased? The pitch of the sound
__________.
A. alternately increases and decreases
B. increases
C. decreases
D. remains unchanged
• The glass with the most water has the lowest pitch.
• The glass with the least amount of water has the
highest pitch.
• Tapping the glasses causes the air to vibrate. When
the air column is shorter, the air vibrates faster and
the pitch is higher. As the height of the air column
gets higher, the pitch of the sound gets lower.
36. A drinking glass is one-fourth filled
with water and is repeatedly tapped at
the side with a
metal spoon. What will happen to the
pitch of the sound when the water
inside the glass is
increased? The pitch of the sound
__________.
A. alternately increases and decreases
B. increases
C. decreases
D. remains unchanged
37. Which of the following situations does NOT
show work being done?

A. a girls kicks the ball

B. a boy presses his hands on the door
C. a girl picks up her doll
D. a boy pushes his car forward
37. Which of the following situations does NOT
show work being done?

A. a girls kicks the ball

B. a boy presses his hands on the door
C. a girl picks up her doll
D. a boy pushes his car forward
38. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm
to the right of a convex spherical mirror
having a
radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The position
and orientation of the image is_______.

A. 4.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect

B. 5.83 to the right of the mirror; erect
C. 4.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
D. 5.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
Given: 1 =1 + 1
ho = 2 cm di 14 10
do = 14 cm
R = 20 cm 1 = 24
di 140
f=R di = 5.83
2
f = 20 = 10
2
38. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm
to the right of a convex spherical mirror
having a
radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The position
and orientation of the image is_______.

A. 4.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect

B. 5.83 to the right of the mirror; erect
C. 4.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
D. 5.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
39. Which of the following is an
ethyl group?
A. CH3--
B. CH2
C. CH3CH2--
D. CH2 CH3--
39. Which of the following is an
ethyl group?
A. CH3--
B. CH2
C. CH3CH2--
D. CH2 CH3--
40. The boiling point of water changes with the
height above sea level. The table shows the
elevation of different mountains in the Philippines.
In which of the following mountains is boiling
point the LEAST?
Mountain - Height (highest peak) above sea level
Mt. Arayat - 1125
Mt. Makiling - 1130
Mt. Banahaw - 2450
Mt. Apo - 3143
A. Mt. Apo
B. Mt. Banahaw
C. Mt. Makiling
D. Mt. Arayat
40. The boiling point of water changes with the
height above sea level. The table shows the
elevation of different mountains in the Philippines.
In which of the following mountains is boiling
point the LEAST?
Mountain - Height (highest peak) above sea level
Mt. Arayat - 1125
Mt. Makiling - 1130
Mt. Banahaw - 2450
Mt. Apo - 3143
A. Mt. Apo
B. Mt. Banahaw
C. Mt. Makiling
D. Mt. Arayat
41. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0
cm to the right of a concave spherical
mirror having
a radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The
position and orientation of the image is

A. 25 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted

B. 25 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
C. 35 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted
D. 35 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
Given: 1 =1 - 1
ho = 2 cm di 10 14
do = 14 cm
R = 20 cm 1 =4
di 140
f=R di = 35
2
f = 20 = 10
2
41. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0
cm to the right of a concave spherical
mirror having
a radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The
position and orientation of the image is

A. 25 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted

B. 25 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
C. 35 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted
D. 35 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
42. Which of the following is
NOT true?
A. the greater the impact time, the lesser the impact
force
B. the increase of the mass of the moving body will
result to a change in momentum
C. the decrease of the velocity will result to a change in
momentum
D. there is momentum for a body at rest
42. Which of the following is
NOT true?
A. the greater the impact time, the lesser the impact
force
B. the increase of the mass of the moving body will
result to a change in momentum
C. the decrease of the velocity will result to a change in
momentum
D. there is momentum for a body at rest
43. The age of the Earth, as
determined by radiometric
dating is ________________.
A. 1200 . 2 years
B. 150 million years
C. 320 million years
D. 4.56 billion years
43. The age of the Earth, as
determined by radiometric
dating is ________________.
A. 1200 . 2 years
B. 150 million years
C. 320 million years
D. 4.56 billion years
44. Which of the following is an
alkaloid?
A. nicotine
B. oil of wintergreen
C. bakelite
D. aspirin
Alkaloids are a class of basic, naturally occurring
organic compounds that contain at least one
nitrogen atom.

Nicotine is the chemical in tobacco that keeps you smoking. Nicotine reaches the brain within
seconds of taking a puff. In the brain, nicotine increases the release of brain chemicals called
neurotransmitters, which help regulate mood and behavior.
44. Which of the following is an
alkaloid?
A. nicotine
B. oil of wintergreen
C. bakelite
D. aspirin
45. Monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and
polysaccharides are types of ______________.

A. nucleotides
B. carbohydrates
C. proteins
D. lipids
45. Monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and
polysaccharides are types of ______________.

A. nucleotides
B. carbohydrates
C. proteins
D. lipids
46. How many sodium atoms are
in 2 moles of sodium?
A. 22
B. 1.20 x 10 ̂24
C. 6.02 x 10 ̂23
D. 11
2 mol of Na x ( 6.02 x 10^23 atoms Na) = 1.20 x 10^24
1 mol Na
46. How many sodium atoms are
in 2 moles of sodium?
A. 22
B. 1.20 x 10 ̂24
C. 6.02 x 10 ̂23
D. 11
47. His work, The Skeptical Chemist, is seen
as a cornerstone book in the field of
chemistry.

A. Boyle
B. Davy
C. Berzelius
D. Mendeleev
47. His work, The Skeptical Chemist, is seen
as a cornerstone book in the field of
chemistry.

A. Boyle
B. Davy
C. Berzelius
D. Mendeleev
48. Diffraction occurs best in a wave when
the slit width is less than the _________________.

A. wavelength
B. light
C. interference
D. refraction
• When the gap width is larger than the wavelength (bottom movie),
the wave passes through the gap and does not spread out much on
the other side.
• When the gap size is smaller than the wavelength (top movie), more
diffraction occurs and the waves spread out greatly – the wavefronts
are almost semicircular.
48. Diffraction occurs best in a wave when
the slit width is less than the _________________.

A. wavelength
B. light
C. interference
D. refraction
49. How many covalent bonds does a carbon
form?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
49. How many covalent bonds does a carbon
form?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
50. Which of the following is the
preferred name for Na2S?
A. disodium sulphide
B. disodium sulfate
C. sodium sulphide
D. sodium sulphate
50. Which of the following is the
preferred name for Na2S?
A. disodium sulphide
B. disodium sulfate
C. sodium sulphide
D. sodium sulphate (Na2SO4)
51. What would be the appropriate
procedure to decrease the heat
output of a fission reactor
core?
A. remove a few fuel rods
B. increase the level of coolant
C. insert the control rods further
D. decrease the amount of moderator
• In a power reactor, the heat generated in the fuel as a result of fission
is removed by passing a coolant through the reactor core. The
coolants most commonly used are water, heavy water, carbon dioxide,
and liquid sodium.
51. What would be the appropriate
procedure to decrease the heat
output of a fission reactor
core?
A. remove a few fuel rods
B. increase the level of coolant
C. insert the control rods further
D. decrease the amount of moderator
52. Which of the following describe physical
change as a process?
I. Usually reversible
II. Usually irreversible
III. Produce new substances
IV. Cause changes in the arrangement of the
particles
A. II and IV
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and IV
52. Which of the following describe physical
change as a process?
I. Usually reversible
II. Usually irreversible
III. Produce new substances
IV. Cause changes in the arrangement of the
particles
A. II and IV
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and IV
53. The era when dinosaurs
were common was the
_________________________.
A. Mesozoic
B. Cenozoic
C. Cambrian
D. Paleozoic
53. The era when dinosaurs
were common was the
_________________________.
A. Mesozoic
B. Cenozoic
C. Cambrian
D. Paleozoic
54. The image for which light rays diverge and
cannot form an image is ___________________.

A. imaginative
B. concave
C. real
D. virtual
• If the light rays diverge (spread apart) after reflection, then the image is referred to as a virtual
image. If the light rays converge (come together) after reflection, then the image is referred to as a
real image.
54. The image for which light rays diverge and
cannot form an image is ___________________.

A. imaginative
B. concave
C. real
D. virtual
55. The process which is NOT a type of
mechanical disintegration is _________________.

A. frost wedging
B. oxidation
C. abrasion
D. roof penetration
55. The process which is NOT a type of
mechanical disintegration is _________________.

A. frost wedging
B. oxidation
C. abrasion
D. roof penetration
56. Which electromagnetic
source is LEAST harmful to
humans?
A. radio transformer
B. UV lamp
C. x-ray machine
D. microwave oven
56. Which electromagnetic
source is LEAST harmful to
humans?
A. radio transformer
B. UV lamp
C. x-ray machine
D. microwave oven
57. Chemical weathering can be
determined by analyzing the
rock's ___________.
A. composition
B. density
C. mass
D. temperature
57. Chemical weathering can be
determined by analyzing the
rock's ___________.
A. composition
B. density
C. mass
D. temperature
58. What is pH of natural
rainwater?
A. 5.0 and 6.0
B. 5.6 to 6.2
C. 4.2 to 5.2
D. 4.0 to 5.0
Normal, clean rain has a
pH value of between 5.0
and 5.5, which is slightly
acidic. However, when rain
combines with sulfur
dioxide or nitrogen oxides
—produced from power
plants and automobiles—
the rain becomes much
more acidic. Typical acid
rain has a pH value of 4.0.
58. What is pH of natural
rainwater?
A. 5.0 and 6.0
B. 5.6 to 6.2
C. 4.2 to 5.2
D. 4.0 to 5.0
59. Which set of coefficients will balance this
equation?
?P+? Br2 ---> ? PBr3

A. 2 , 6 , 2
B. 2 , 3 , 6
C. 3 , 1 , 1
D. 3 , 2 , 3
2P + 3Br2 ---> 2PBr3

2 P 2
6 Br 6
59. Which set of coefficients will balance this
equation?
?P+? Br2 ---> ? PBr3

A. 2 , 6 , 2
B. 2 , 3 , 6
C. 3 , 1 , 1
D. 3 , 2 , 3
E. 2, 3, 2
60. Which of the following is the
preferred name for Na2SO4?
A. sodium sulphide
B. disodium sulfide
C. sodium sulphate
D. disodium sulphate
60. Which of the following is the
preferred name for Na2SO4?
A. sodium sulphide
B. disodium sulfide
C. sodium sulphate
D. disodium sulphate
61. What is the formula weight
of magnesium hydroxide, an
ingredient found in antacid

A. 89.0 u
B. 72.0 u
C. 41.3 u
D. 58.3 u
Magnesium hydroxide- Mg(OH)2
Mg – 1 x 24.305 = 24.305
O – 2 x 16 = 32
H–1x2= 2
58.305
61. What is the formula weight
of magnesium hydroxide, an
ingredient found in antacid

A. 89.0 u
B. 72.0 u
C. 41.3 u
D. 58.3 u
62. The largest units of geologic
time are _______________.
A. eras
B. epochs
C. eons
D. periods
62. The largest units of geologic
time are _______________.
A. eras
B. epochs
C. eons
D. periods
63. Balance this equation, CaC2
+ H2O ---> Ca (OH) 2 + C2H2

A. 1 , 1 , 1 , 1
B. 2 , 1 , 1 , 2
C. 1 , 2 , 1 , 1
D. 1 , 1 , 2 , 1
CaC2 + 2H2O ---> Ca(OH)2 + C2H2

1 Ca 1
2 C 2
4 H 4
2 O 2
63. Balance this equation, CaC2
+ H2O ---> Ca (OH) 2 + C2H2

A. 1 , 1 , 1 , 1
B. 2 , 1 , 1 , 2
C. 1 , 2 , 1 , 1
D. 1 , 1 , 2 , 1
64. A heat engine operates with 65.0 kcal of
heat and exhausts 40.0 kcal of heat. How
much
work did the engine do?

A. 130 kJ
B. 120 kJ
C. 110 kJ
D. 105 kJ
65 kcal – 40 kcal = 25 kcal
64. A heat engine operates with 65.0 kcal of
heat and exhausts 40.0 kcal of heat. How
much
work did the engine do?

A. 130 kJ
B. 120 kJ
C. 110 kJ
D. 105 kJ
65. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to
the right of a convex spherical mirror having
a
radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The position
and orientation of the image is_______.

A. 5.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect

B. 4.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect
C. 5.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect
D. 4.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
Given: 1 =1 + 1
ho = 2 cm di 14 10
do = 14 cm
R = 20 cm 1 = 24
di 140
f=R di = 5.83
2
f = 20 = 10
2
65. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to
the right of a convex spherical mirror having
a
radius of curvature of 20.0 cm. The position
and orientation of the image is_______.

A. 5.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect

B. 4.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect
C. 5.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect
D. 4.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
66. In a desert, the prime mover of the land
material is ______________.

A. gravity
B. creep
C. wind
D. rain
66. In a desert, the prime mover of the land
material is ______________.

A. gravity
B. creep
C. wind
D. rain
67. What is the formula for
lithium hydrogen carbonate?
A. LiHCO2
B. LiHCO4
C. LiHCO
D. LiHCO3
67. What is the formula for
lithium hydrogen carbonate?
A. LiHCO2
B. LiHCO4
C. LiHCO
D. LiHCO3
68. Gases can be compressed
because molecules are
___________________.
A. always moving
B. stationary
C. small
D. fall apart
68. Gases can be compressed
because molecules are
___________________.
A. always moving
B. stationary
C. small
D. fall apart
 69. The following combinations of atom
(mixture, compound, molecule) if arranged
in an
ASCENDING order in terms of molecules
are _________________.
I. mixture
II. compound
III. molecule
A. II, III and I
B. III, I and II
C. III, II and I
D. I, II and III
 69. The following combinations of atom
(mixture, compound, molecule) if arranged
in an
ASCENDING order in terms of molecules
are _________________.
I. mixture
II. compound
III. molecule
A. II, III and I
B. III, I and II
C. III, II and I
D. I, II and III
70. A bar magnet was broken into four equal
parts. The total number of magnetic poles
existing in the four parts is ______________.

A. 6
B. 2
C. 8
D. 4
70. A bar magnet was broken into four equal
parts. The total number of magnetic poles
existing in the four parts is ______________.

A. 6
B. 2
C. 8
D. 4
71. The polarization directions of two polarizing
sheets are at an angle of 90˚ to each other
what happens is _______________________.

A. There is maximum transmission.

B. No light gets through.
C. Transmission is reduced by 50%.
D. Transmission is reduced by 30%.
• Two ideal polarizers would eliminate all light if their transmission
directions are placed at right angles.
71. The polarization directions of two polarizing
sheets are at an angle of 90˚ to each other
what happens is _______________________.

A. There is maximum transmission.

B. No light gets through.
C. Transmission is reduced by 50%.
D. Transmission is reduced by 30%.
72. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a
radius of curvature of 30 cm. When it is 12 cm
from the vertex, of the mirror. The distance and
the position of the image of the person is __.

A. 60 cm behind the mirror; real

B. 60 cm behind the mirror; virtual
C. 6 cm behind the mirror; real
D. 6 cm behind the mirror; virtual
Given: 1 =1 - 1
do = 12 cm di 15 12
R = 30 cm
1 = -3
di 180
f=R
2 di = 60
f = 30 = 15
2
72. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a
radius of curvature of 30 cm. When it is 12 cm
from the vertex, of the mirror. The distance and
the position of the image of the person is __.

A. 60 cm behind the mirror; real

B. 60 cm behind the mirror; virtual
C. 6 cm behind the mirror; real
D. 6 cm behind the mirror; virtual
73. Earthquake vibrations are
detected, measured and
recorded y instruments called
A. sonorgraphs
B. richter scales
C. seismographs
D. magnetometers
73. Earthquake vibrations are
detected, measured and
recorded y instruments called
A. Sonorgraphs
B. richter scales
C. seismographs
D. magnetometers
74. The agents that cause
erosion are ___________________.
A. glaciers and waves only
B. waves only
C. streams and waves only
D. streams, glaciers and waves
74. The agents that cause
erosion are ___________________.
A. glaciers and waves only
B. waves only
C. streams and waves only
D. streams, glaciers and waves
75. The power rating of an electric motor that
draws current of 4A when operated at 110 v is

A. 400 W
B. 1000 W
C. 40 W
D. 440 W
P = IV
P = 4 A (110 V)
P = 440 watts
75. The power rating of an electric motor that
draws current of 4A when operated at 110 v is

A. 400 W
B. 1000 W
C. 40 W
D. 440 W
76. What is the radius in nm of
the electron orbit of a hydrogen
atom for n = 3?
A. 0.377 nm
B. 0.456 nm
C.0.356 nm
D. 0.477 nm
76. What is the radius in nm of
the electron orbit of a hydrogen
atom for n = 3?
A. 0.377 nm
B. 0.456 nm
C.0.356 nm
D. 0.477 nm
77. An observer is standing on the eastern side of
a cliff where a sailing ship can be seen. As
the ship sails away it seems to sink slowly from
the observer's point of view. This is because
the ___________________.

A. surface of the Earth is flat

B. distance between the observer and the ship
increases
C. observer is looking towards the eastern shore
D. earth is an oblate spheroid
77. An observer is standing on the eastern side of
a cliff where a sailing ship can be seen. As
the ship sails away it seems to sink slowly from
the observer's point of view. This is because
the ___________________.

A. surface of the Earth is flat

B. distance between the observer and the ship
increases
C. observer is looking towards the eastern shore
D. earth is an oblate spheroid
78. Earth's magnetic field is
most likely due to
________________.
A. convection currents in the molten part of
Earth's interior
B. the rotation of Earth acting on all of Earth's
electrons
C. the revolution of Earth
D. millions of small magnets buried in Earth
78. Earth's magnetic field is
most likely due to
________________.
A. convection currents in the molten part of
Earth's interior
B. the rotation of Earth acting on all of Earth's
electrons
C. the revolution of Earth
D. millions of small magnets buried in Earth
79. Which of the following is
NOT common feature of
sedimentary rock?
A. discordant
B. stratification
C. ripple marks
D. bedding
• Sedimentary structures include features like bedding, ripple marks,
fossil tracks and trails, and mud cracks. They conventionally are
subdivided into categories based on mode of genesis. Structures that
are produced at the same time as the sedimentary rock in which they
occur are called primary sedimentary structures.
79. Which of the following is
NOT common feature of
sedimentary rock?
A. Discordant – igneous
B. stratification
C. ripple marks
D. bedding
80. A generator is a device that
converts _________________.
A. chemical energy to mechanical energy
B. mechanical energy to electrical energy
C. electrical energy to mechanical energy
D. mechanical energy to chemical energy
80. A generator is a device that
converts _________________.
A. chemical energy to mechanical energy
B. mechanical energy to electrical energy
C. electrical energy to mechanical energy
D. mechanical energy to chemical energy
81. Energy can NOT be
________________.
A. transferred
B. transformed
C. created
D. conserved
81. Energy can NOT be
________________.
A. transferred
B. transformed
C. created
D. conserved
82. The two most abundant elements in Earth's
crust are ____________________.

A. silicon and oxygen

B. silicon and aluminum
C. aluminum and iron
D. oxygen and iron
82. The two most abundant elements in Earth's
crust are ____________________.

A. silicon and oxygen

B. silicon and aluminum
C. aluminum and iron
D. oxygen and iron
83. When a negative work is done on a
moving object, its kinetic energy
_______________.
A. remains constant
B. decreases
C. depends on the reference point
D. increases
What happens when negative work is done?
Negative work follows when the force has a component opposite or
against the displacement. Negative work removes or dissipates energy
from the system.

When you do negative work on an object its kinetic energy?

If the net work done on an object is negative, the kinetic energy of that
object is going to decrease, which means it's going to slow down.
83. When a negative work is done on a
moving object, its kinetic energy
_______________.
A. remains constant
B. decreases
C. depends on the reference point
D. increases
84. Only about 50% of the solar
directed toward Earth penetrates
directly to the surface. What
happens to the rest of the radiation?

A. it loses energy travelling through space

B. it is absorbed or reflected by the atmosphere
C. it loses energy overcoming the sun's gravity
D. it is reflected off the moon and back into space
• Not all of this light is absorbed by the Earth. Roughly 30 percent of
the total solar energy that strikes the Earth is reflected back into
space by clouds, atmospheric aerosols, snow, ice, desert sand,
rooftops, and even ocean surf.
• The remaining 70 percent of the TSI is absorbed by the land, ocean,
and atmosphere. In addition, different layers of the Earth and
atmosphere tend to absorb different wavelengths of light. Only one
percent of the TSI, mostly in the form of UV radiation, is absorbed by
the upper atmosphere, mainly by stratospheric ozone. Twenty to 24
percent of the TSI and a majority of the near infrared radiation is
absorbed in the lower atmosphere (troposphere), mainly by water
vapor, trace gases, clouds, and darker aerosols. The remaining 46 to
50 percent of predominately visible light penetrates the atmosphere
and is taken in by the land and the oceans.
84. Only about 50% of the solar
directed toward Earth penetrates
directly to the surface. What
happens to the rest of the radiation?

A. it loses energy travelling through space

B. it is absorbed or reflected by the atmosphere
C. it loses energy overcoming the sun's gravity
D. it is reflected off the moon and back into space
85. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball,
which has a speed (leaving his hand) of 42 m/s.
The mass of the baseball is 0.180 kg. How much
work has the pitcher done on the ball in
throwing it?

A. 159 J
B. 149 J
C. 139 J
D. 169 J
85. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball,
which has a speed (leaving his hand) of 42 m/s.
The mass of the baseball is 0.180 kg. How much
work has the pitcher done on the ball in
throwing it?

A. 159 J
B. 149 J
C. 139 J
D. 169 J
86. Fuel sources other than fossil fuels
and nuclear reactors are _______________.

A. alternative energy sources

B. renewable power sources
C. alternative power sources
D. renewable energy sources
Alternative energy refers to energy sources other
than fossil fuels (such as coal, petroleum, and
diesel) and includes all renewable and nuclear
energy sources.
86. Fuel sources other than fossil fuels
and nuclear reactors are _______________.

A. alternative energy sources

B. renewable power sources
C. alternative power sources
D. renewable energy sources
87. To separate a 0.25-C charge from another
charge, 30J of work is done. What is the
electric potential energy of the charge?

A. 120J
B. 30J
C. 7.5J
D. 15J
V=W
q
V = 30 J
0.25 C
V = 120
87. To separate a 0.25-C charge from another
charge, 30 J of work is done. What is the
electric potential energy of the charge?

A. 120 J
B. 30J
C. 7.5J
D. 15J
88. To describe mineral
hardness, we use _____________.
A. uranium
B. Mohs scale
C. potassium
D. carbon dating
88. To describe mineral
hardness, we use _____________.
A. uranium
B. Mohs scale - The Mohs Hardness Scale is used as a
convenient way to help identify minerals. A mineral's
hardness is a measure of its relative resistance to
scratching, measured by scratching the mineral against
another substance of known hardness on the Mohs
Hardness Scale.
C. potassium
D. carbon dating
89. A major source of air
pollution is ____________.
A. nuclear electrical generation
B. incomplete combustion
C. acid rain
D. temperature inversions
89. A major source of air
pollution is ____________.
A. nuclear electrical generation
B. incomplete combustion - Incomplete combustion leads to
emittance of carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur
oxides, volatile organic compounds, and helps create
ground level ozone. Fossil fuels typically burn incompletely
releasing detrimental byproducts into the atmosphere,
including evaporated or unburned fuel.
C. acid rain
D. temperature inversions
90. Which of the following
objects has the greatest kinetic
energy?
A. an object with a mass of 3m and a velocity of 2v
B. an object with a mass of m and a velocity of 4v
C. an object with a mass of 4m and a velocity of v
D. an object with a mass of 2m and a velocity of 3v
90. Which of the following
objects has the greatest kinetic
energy?
A. an object with a mass of 3m and a velocity of 2v = 6
B. an object with a mass of m and a velocity of 4v = 8
C. an object with a mass of 4m and a velocity of v = 2
D. an object with a mass of 2m and a velocity of 3v = 9
91. Tidal bulges in the ocean
are due _______________.
A. mainly to gravitational forces between the Sun and the
Moon
B. to the horizontal components of tidal the cause water to
flow over Earth's surface toward
areas nearest the Moon and toward areas opposite the Moon
C. mainly to gravitational forces between the Sun and Earth
D. to the Moon's gravitational forces lifting the ocean water
away from solid Earth
• Gravity and inertia act in
opposition on the Earth's
oceans, creating tidal bulges on
opposite sites of the planet. On
the “near” side of the Earth
(the side facing the moon), the
gravitational force of the moon
pulls the ocean's waters
toward it, creating one bulge.
91. Tidal bulges in the ocean
are due _______________.
A. mainly to gravitational forces between the Sun and the
Moon
B. to the horizontal components of tidal the cause water to
flow over Earth's surface toward areas nearest the Moon and
toward areas opposite the Moon
C. mainly to gravitational forces between the Sun and Earth
D. to the Moon's gravitational forces lifting the ocean water
away from solid Earth
92. If two equal positive charges are placed
equidistant on either side of another
positive
charge, the middle positive charge
experience will be ____________________.
A. net force to either side
B. zero net force
C. net force to the left
D. net force to the right
92. If two equal positive charges are placed
equidistant on either side of another
positive
charge, the middle positive charge
experience will be ____________________.
A. net force to either side
B. zero net force
C. net force to the left
D. net force to the right
93. A car is travelling in a straight line along a road. Its distance X from a stop
sign is given as
a function of time T by the equation X = ( 2.0 m/s » ) times T » (0.25m/ s ») times T
̂ 3. The
average velocity of the car for the following time intervals: T = 2.0 s to T = 4.0 s is

A. 19.0 m/s
B. 21.0 m/s
C. 21.1 m/s
D. 20.0 m/s
93. A car is travelling in a straight line along a road. Its distance X from a stop
sign is given as
a function of time T by the equation X = ( 2.0 m/s » ) times T » (0.25m/ s ») times T
̂ 3. The
average velocity of the car for the following time intervals: T = 2.0 s to T = 4.0 s is

A. 19.0 m/s
B. 21.0 m/s
C. 21.1 m/s
D. 20.0 m/s
94. Metamorphism over a vast
area brought about by both
heat and pressure is called
A. shear metamorphism
B. regional metamorphism
C. contact metamorphism
D. hydrothermal metamorphism
94. Metamorphism over a vast
area brought about by both
heat and pressure is called
A. shear metamorphism
B. regional metamorphism
C. contact metamorphism
D. hydrothermal metamorphism
95. In addition to force, work
involves _________________
A. time
B. weight
C. motion
D. friction
95. In addition to force, work
involves _________________
A. time
B. weight
C. motion
D. friction
96. Most of the molecular oxygen in the early
atmosphere of Earth resulted from
______________.
A. decaying primitive plants and animals
B. lightning striking Earth
C. photosynthesis in primitive plants
D. volcanic eruption
96. Most of the molecular oxygen in the early
atmosphere of Earth resulted from
______________.
A. decaying primitive plants and animals
B. lightning striking Earth
C. photosynthesis in primitive plants
D. volcanic eruption
97. What is TRUE of all combinations of
resistors arranged in parallel?
I. Current splits down each leg of the
combination
II. Voltage is constant across each leg
of the combination
III. Resistance is the same for each leg
of
A. I, IIthe
and IIIcombination
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
97. What is TRUE of all combinations of
resistors arranged in parallel?
I. Current splits down each leg of the
combination
II. Voltage is constant across each leg
of the combination
III. Resistance is the same for each leg
of
A. I, IIthe
and IIIcombination
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
98. A biconvex lens is which of
the following:
A. a Fresnel lens
B. a lens that forms a virtual image for Do > f
C. thicker at the edge than at the center
D. a converging lens
98. A biconvex lens is which of
the following:
A. a Fresnel lens - used particularly in lighthouses and
searchlights to concentrate the light into a relatively
narrow beam.
B. a lens that forms a virtual image for Do > f
C. thicker at the edge than at the center
D. a converging lens
99. In about 12,000 years, the star Vega will be
the North Star, not Polaris, because of Earth's
_____________.

A. precession
B. recession
C. titled axis
D. uneven equinox
The extent to which Earth is tilted also changes, too, by a couple of
degrees. In 12,000 years, the North Star will no longer be Polaris, but a
star called Vega. At the minute, Vega can be seen from most places in
the world, so anyone can find the North Star of the future

Because of precession, different stars will serve as north stars and the
constellations arrayed along the ecliptic (zodiac) will gradually change
positions.
• Precession – As Earth
rotates, it wobbles slightly
upon its axis, like a slightly
off-center spinning toy top.
This wobble is due to tidal
forces caused by the
gravitational influences of
the Sun and Moon that
cause Earth to bulge at the
equator, affecting its
rotation.
99. In about 12,000 years, the star Vega will be
the North Star, not Polaris, because of Earth's
_____________.

A. precession
B. recession
C. titled axis
D. uneven equinox
100. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball,
which has a speed (leaving his hand) of 42
m/s. The mass of the baseball is 0.180 kg. How
much work has the pitcher done of the ball
in throwing it?

A. 169 J
B. 139 J
C. 149 J
D. 159 J
KE = 1mv^2
2
= 1 (0.180) (42)^2
2
= 158.76 J
100. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball,
which has a speed (leaving his hand) of 42
m/s. The mass of the baseball is 0.180 kg. How
much work has the pitcher done of the ball
in throwing it?

A. 169 J
B. 139 J
C. 149 J
D. 159 J
101. Which of the following is
NOT common metamorphic
rock?
A. slate
B. shale
C. gneiss
D. marble
101. Which of the following is
NOT common metamorphic
rock?
A. slate
B. shale
C. gneiss
D. marble
102. What is the number of
wave cycles for a given period
of time called?
A. wavelength
B. period
C. amplitude
D. frequency
102. What is the number of
wave cycles for a given period
of time called?
A. wavelength
B. period
C. amplitude
D. frequency
103. If an astronomical light source is moving
away from us, we observe _________________.

A. a sonic boom
B. a shift toward longer wavelengths
C. a blue shift
D. a shift toward higher frequencies
103. If an astronomical light source is moving
away from us, we observe _________________.

A. a sonic boom
B. a shift toward longer wavelengths
C. a blue shift
D. a shift toward higher frequencies
104. A current of 0.5 A exists in
an 60 Ω lamp. The applied
potential difference is
A. 120 V
B. 15 V
C. 30 V
D. 60 V
V = IR
V = 0.5 A (60)
V = 30 V
104. A current of 0.5 A exists in
an 60 Ω lamp. The applied
potential difference is
A. 120 V
B. 15 V
C. 30 V
D. 60 V
105. The soil called loam is
_____________.
A. mostly humus with some sand
B. all sands and humus
C. equal amount of sand, silt and clay
D. from the C horizon of a soil profile
105. The soil called loam is
_____________.
A. mostly humus with some sand
B. all sands and humus
C. equal amount of sand, silt and clay
D. from the C horizon of a soil profile
106. A brick dropped from the roof of a building. If the
brick strikes the ground after 5.0 s,
the height of the building in meters is __________________.

A. 132 m
B. 122 m
C. 125 m
D. 135 m
a. vf = vi + at
vf = 0 + (9.8 m/s2)(5 s)
vf = 49 m/s

b. d = vit + at^2
2
d = 0 + (9.8 m/s2)(5 s)^2
2
d = 122.5
106. A brick dropped from the roof of a building. If the
brick strikes the ground after 5.0 s,
the height of the building in meters is __________________.

A. 132 m
B. 122 m
C. 125 m
D. 135 m
107. The appearance of high cirrus clouds,
followed by thicker and lower stratus clouds, the
continuous light rain over several days probably
means which of the following air masses
has moved to your area?

A. maritime tropical
B. maritime polar
C. linear tropical
D. continental polar
107. The appearance of high cirrus clouds,
followed by thicker and lower stratus clouds, the
continuous light rain over several days probably
means which of the following air masses
has moved to your area?

A. maritime tropical
B. maritime polar
C. linear tropical
D. continental polar
108. Angular momentum is
conversed in the absence of
________________.
A. inertia
B. a net torque
C. linear momentum
D. gravity
108. Angular momentum is
conversed in the absence of
________________.
A. inertia
B. a net torque
C. linear momentum
D. gravity
109. Rocks formed by alternation of preexisting
rocks by pressure, temperature, or
chemistry are _______________________.

A. metamorphic rocks
B. gneiss rocks
C. igneous rocks
D. sedimentary rocks
109. Rocks formed by alternation of preexisting
rocks by pressure, temperature, or
chemistry are _______________________.

A. metamorphic rocks
B. gneiss rocks
C. igneous rocks
D. sedimentary rocks
110. The makers of a certain automobile
advertise that it can accelerate from 15.0 to 50.0
mi/hr in 10.0 s. Assuming that the acceleration is
constant, the acceleration in ft/s is

A. 8.13 ft / s »
B. 5.13 ft / s »
C. 7.13 ft / s »
D. 6.13 ft / s »
D. 2.6 km or 1.6 mi
50 mi/h to m/s = 22 m/s 1.5 m/s2 to ft/s2 = 5.0196 ft/s2

15 mi/h to m/s = 6.67 m/s

a = 22 m/s – 6.67 m/s

10 s
a = 1.53 m/s2
110. The makers of a certain automobile
advertise that it can accelerate from 15.0 to 50.0
mi/hr in 10.0 s. Assuming that the acceleration is
constant, the acceleration in ft/s is

A. 8.13 ft / s »
B. 5.13 ft / s »
C. 7.13 ft / s »
D. 6.13 ft / s »
D. 2.6 km or 1.6 mi
111. During a thunderstorm, 4.0 s elapses between observing
a lightning flash and hearing
the resulting thunder. Approximately how far away in km and
mi was the lightning flash?

A. 1.4 km or 0.9 mi
B. 1.3 km or 0.80 mi
C. 2.8 km or 1.8 mi
D. 2.6 km or 1.6 mi
Time taken to reach the sound = 4s
Speed of sound in air = 343.2 m/sec.
Distance of thunderstorm
=343.2 × 4
=1,372.8 m

1,372.8 m  km = 1.37 km = 0.86 mi

111. During a thunderstorm, 4.0 s elapses between observing
a lightning flash and hearing
the resulting thunder. Approximately how far away in km and
mi was the lightning flash?

A. 1.4 km or 0.9 mi
B. 1.3 km or 0.80 mi
C. 2.8 km or 1.8 mi
D. 2.6 km or 1.6 mi
112. Fuel sources other than
fossil fuels and nuclear reactors
are _________________.
A. renewable power sources
B. alternative power sources
C. alternative energy sources
D. renewable energy sources
112. Fuel sources other than
fossil fuels and nuclear reactors
are _________________.
A. renewable power sources
B. alternative power sources
C. alternative energy sources
D. renewable energy sources
113. The general term for large bodies of
intrusive igneous rock is _________________.

A. slate
B. schist
C. pluton
D. gneiss
• A body of intrusive igneous rock which crystallizes from magma
cooling underneath the surface of the Earth is called a pluton.
113. The general term for large bodies of
intrusive igneous rock is _________________.

A. slate
B. schist
C. pluton
D. gneiss
114. The number of daylight hours at a
specific place on Earth's surface is dependent
on the
A. latitude, date and height of the sea level
B. latitude
C. height of the sea level
D. date
Our amount of daylight hours depends on our latitude and how Earth
orbits the sun. Earth’s axis of rotation is tilted from its orbital plane and
always points in the same direction — toward the North Star. As a
result, the orientation of Earth’s axis to the sun is always changing
throughout the year as we revolve around the sun. Sometimes the axis
points toward the sun and other times away from the sun.

As this orientation changes throughout the year, so does the

distribution of sunlight on Earth’s surface at any given latitude.
114. The number of daylight hours at a
specific place on Earth's surface is dependent
on the
A. latitude, date and height of the sea level
B. latitude
C. height of the sea level
D. date
115. If two equal negative charges are placed
equidistant on either side of a positive charge,
the positive charge would _______________.

A. cannot be determined
B. experience a net force to the left
C. have a zero net force
D. experience a net force to the right
115. If two equal negative charges are placed
equidistant on either side of a positive charge,
the positive charge would _______________.

A. cannot be determined
B. experience a net force to the left
C. have a zero net force
D. experience a net force to the right
116. Which statement on
electrons is TRUE? If a body has
______________.
A. excess of electrons, the object is said to be positively charged
B. less electrons than the number of protons in nuclei, the object is said
to be negatively charged
C. an equal number of electrons and protons, the object is said to be
electrically neutral
D. more or less electrons than are required to balance the positive
charge of the nuclei, that object has no electric charge
116. Which statement on
electrons is TRUE? If a body has
______________.
A. excess of electrons, the object is said to be positively charged
B. less electrons than the number of protons in nuclei, the object is said
to be negatively charged
C. an equal number of electrons and protons, the object is said to be
electrically neutral
D. more or less electrons than are required to balance the positive
charge of the nuclei, thatobject has no electric charge
117. Earth's atmosphere is divided into layers
that are based upon their __________________.

A. gas content
B. relative humidity
C. temperature gradient
D. water content
117. Earth's atmosphere is divided into layers
that are based upon their __________________.

A. gas content
B. relative humidity
C. temperature gradient
D. water content
118. To describe mineral
hardness, we use ______________.
A. carbon dating
B. uranium
C. Moh’s scale
D. potassium
118. To describe mineral
hardness, we use ______________.
A. carbon dating
B. uranium
C. Moh’s scale
D. potassium
119. Geothermal energy, a
possible energy resource, is
based on which phenomenon?
A. heat energy from the Sun penetrates deep into the
Earth
B. human activity is the largest source of heat on
Earth
C. Earth's internal energy heat its surface more than
the Sun does
D. there are concentrations of heat in some places of
Earth's crust
119. Geothermal energy, a
possible energy resource, is
based on which phenomenon?
A. heat energy from the Sun penetrates deep into the
Earth
B. human activity is the largest source of heat on
Earth
C. Earth's internal energy heat its surface more than
the Sun does
D. there are concentrations of heat in some places of
Earth's crust
120. A subsidence temperature
inversion is caused by
____________.
A. subcritical air pressure
B. a high-pressure air mass
C. radiative cooling
D. acid rain
120. A subsidence temperature
inversion is caused by
____________.
A. subcritical air pressure
B. a high-pressure air mass
C. radiative cooling
D. acid rain
121. Cumulus clouds usually
mean an atmospheric state of
_____________.
A. cool, dry equilibrium
B. stability
C. instability
D. warm, humid equilibrium
121. Cumulus clouds usually
mean an atmospheric state of
_____________.
A. cool, dry equilibrium
B. stability
C. instability
D. warm, humid equilibrium
122. A step-up transformer has
___________.
A. fewer windings on the primary coil
B. fewer windings on the secondary coil
C. an equal number of windings on the primary
and secondary coils
D. more windings on the primary coil
• A step up transformer converts a high-current, low-voltage input to a
low-current, high-voltage output applying the principles of magnetic
induction.
• Step-up transformers increase the voltage from the input to the
output of the transformer. In this configuration, the primary winding
features fewer turnings than the secondary winding. This greater
number of windings produces a higher voltage in the secondary side,
increasing the output voltage.
122. A step-up transformer has
___________.
A. fewer windings on the primary coil
B. fewer windings on the secondary coil
C. an equal number of windings on the primary
and secondary coils
D. more windings on the primary coil
123. Not a common metamorphic
rock is ______________.
A. granite
B. slate
C. gneiss
D. schist
123. Not a common metamorphic
rock is ______________.
A. Granite (igneous)
B. slate
C. gneiss
D. schist
124. If the index of refraction of crown glass is
1.5, what is the speed of light in crown
glass?

A. 2x100m/s
B. 2x110m/s
C. 2x10^8m/s
D. 2x200m/s
1.5 = 3 x 10^8 m/s
x
1.5x = 3 x 10^8 m/s
1.5
x = 2 x 10^8 m/s
124. If the index of refraction of crown glass is
1.5, what is the speed of light in crown
glass?

A. 2x100m/s
B. 2x110m/s
C. 2x10^8m/s
D. 2x200m/s
125. A fluorescent lamp rated at 100kW has an
efficiency of 20%. How much energy is
dissipated as heat if the lamp is used for 5 hours?

A. 16 kW -hrs
B. 100 kW-hrs
C. 400 kW-hrs
D. 40 kW-hrs
125. A fluorescent lamp rated at 100kW has an
efficiency of 20%. How much energy is
dissipated as heat if the lamp is used for 5 hours?

A. 16 kW -hrs
B. 100 kW-hrs
C. 400 kW-hrs
D. 40 kW-hrs
126. The approximate time
between new and full moons is
_____________.
A. three weeks
B. one week
C. four weeks
D. two weeks
126. The approximate time
between new and full moons is
_____________.
A. three weeks
B. one week
C. four weeks
D. two weeks
Phases of the Moon
• There are four principle lunar phases in the western culture, known as
the New Moon, First Quarter, Full Moon, and Third Quarter. These
phases last for around 7.4 days; however, they vary slightly due to the
Moon’s elliptical-shaped orbit.
• It takes 27 days, 7 hours, and 43 minutes for our Moon to complete
one full orbit around Earth.
• The time period between one full moon to its subsequent new moon
is about a fortnight; slightly shorter than 14 days.
127. It is impossible to determine exactly
and simultaneously the particle properties of

A. velocity and momentum

B. charge and mass
C. charge and position
D. position and velocity
• uncertainty principle, also called Heisenberg uncertainty principle or
indeterminacy principle, statement, articulated (1927) by the German
physicist Werner Heisenberg, that the position and the velocity of an
object cannot both be measured exactly, at the same time, even in
theory.
127. It is impossible to determine exactly
and simultaneously the particle properties of

A. velocity and momentum

B. charge and mass
C. charge and position
D. position and velocity
128. What does the
fundamental mechanism of
mountain building appear to be?
A. diastrophism
B. thrust faulting
C. volcanism
D. sedimentation
128. What does the
fundamental mechanism of
mountain building appear to be?
A. diastrophism- the process of movement and deformation of the
earth's crust that gives rise to large-scale features such as continents,
ocean basins, and mountains
B. thrust faulting- reverse fault
C. Volcanism - is the eruption of molten rock (magma) onto the surface
of a planet.
D. Sedimentation - the process of allowing particles in suspension in
water to settle out of the suspension under the effect of gravity.
129. During periods of increased global
temperatures, which of the following is most likely
to occur?

A. an increase in earthquakes
B. an increase in atmospheric CO2
C. a decrease in earthquakes
D. a decrease in atmospheric CO2
129. During periods of increased global
temperatures, which of the following is most likely
to occur?

A. an increase in earthquakes
B. an increase in atmospheric CO2
C. a decrease in earthquakes
D. a decrease in atmospheric CO2
130. The largest impact
features on the Moon are the
____________.
A. maria
B. rays
C. craters
D. plains
130. The largest impact
features on the Moon are the
____________.
A. maria
B. rays
C. craters
D. plains
131. It is impossible to determine exactly and
simultaneously the particle properties of
________________.
A. charge and position
B. charge and mass
C. position and velocity
D. velocity and momentum
131. It is impossible to determine exactly and
simultaneously the particle properties of
________________.
A. charge and position
B. charge and mass
C. position and velocity
D. velocity and momentum
132. The planet which has NO
moon is _____________.
A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Jupiter
D. Earth
132. The planet which has NO
moon is _____________.
A. Venus - 0
B. Mars - 2
C. Jupiter - 79
D. Earth - 1
133. When analyzed with a
spectrometer, light from an
incandescent source produces
A. parallel
B. direct
C. perpendicular
D. continuous
133. When analyzed with a
spectrometer, light from an
incandescent source produces
A. parallel
B. direct
C. perpendicular
D. continuous
134. The two daily high tides are due
mainly to the ______________________.
A. differential gravitational attraction of the Moon
because of the inverse-square relationship
B. gravitational forces between the Sun and Moon
C. gravitational forces between the Sun and Earth
D. Moon's gravitational force lifting the ocean
water away from the solid Earth
134. The two daily high tides are due
mainly to the ______________________.
A. differential gravitational attraction of the Moon
because of the inverse-square relationship
B. gravitational forces between the Sun and Moon
C. gravitational forces between the Sun and Earth
D. Moon's gravitational force lifting the ocean
water away from the solid Earth
135. Hubble's law _____________.
A. is sometimes referred to as the law of shifts
B. indicates that the universe is not expanding
C. is sometimes referred to as the law of redshifts
D. relates the observed recessional velocity of a
galaxy
The distant galaxies we
see in all directions are
moving away from the
Earth, as evidenced by
their red shifts.
'Red shift' is a key concept for
astronomers. The term can be
understood literally - the
wavelength of the light is
stretched, so the light is seen
as 'shifted' towards the red
part of the spectrum.
Something similar happens to
sound waves when a source of
sound moves relative to an
observer.
135. Hubble's law _____________.
A. is sometimes referred to as the law of shifts
B. indicates that the universe is not expanding
C. is sometimes referred to as the law of redshifts
D. relates the observed recessional velocity of a
galaxy
136. The continuous circulation of Earth's water
supply is known as the _____________ cycle.

A. hydrogeology
B. redistribution
C. aqua
D. hydrologic
136. The continuous circulation of Earth's water
supply is known as the _____________ cycle.

A. hydrogeology
B. redistribution
C. aqua
D. hydrologic
137. The surfaces of planet Mercury and our
moon contain some very large craters that are
most likely the result of __________.

A. large collapsed caves

B. asteroid impacts
C. nuclear explosions
D. giant lava flows
137. The surfaces of planet Mercury and our
moon contain some very large craters that are
most likely the result of __________.

A. large collapsed caves

B. asteroid impacts
C. nuclear explosions
D. giant lava flows
138. The oceans cover about
what percent of Earth's surface?
A. 50
B. 85
C. 65
D. 75
138. The oceans cover about
what percent of Earth's surface?
A. 50
B. 85
C. 65
D. 75
139. Which was the Apollo mission with the
first international space rendezvous? This was
the first coordinated launch of two spacecraft
from different countries.

A. Apollo 21
B. Apollo - Schmitt
C. Apollo19
D. Apollo - Soyuz
139. Which was the Apollo mission with the
first international space rendezvous? This was
the first coordinated launch of two spacecraft
from different countries.

A. Apollo 21
B. Apollo - Schmitt
C. Apollo19
D. Apollo – Soyuz - NASA's Apollo-Soyuz Test Project (ASTP) was the
first time that spacecraft from two different countries, the U.S. and
the Soviet Union (Russia today), achieved rendezvous, docking and
undocking in space.H
140. Which go with land degradation?
I. Urban sprawl and commercial development
II. Deforestation
III. Overgrazing

A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. II and III
140. Which go with land degradation?
I. Urban sprawl and commercial development
II. Deforestation
III. Overgrazing

A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. II and III
141. Major concern about global
warming arises from increased
concentrations of
A. greenhouse gases
B. photochemical smog
C. nitrogen oxides
D. sulfur oxides
141. Major concern about global
warming arises from increased
concentrations of
A. greenhouse gases
B. photochemical smog
C. nitrogen oxides
D. sulfur oxides
142. Which of the following in NOT a
general physical feature of the
Moon's surface?
A. regolith
B. plains
C. terminator
D. rays
The moon's landforms are byproducts of meteor impacts and volcanic
activity. The lunar surface can be divided into two main regions, the
highlands and the maria.
The highlands make up roughly 83 percent of the moon's surface, whereas
the maria make up about 17 percent of its surface. Both of these regions
have a characteristic density of craters from meteor impacts.

The maria are the moon's dark regions. "Maria" is Latin for "seas" (the
singular is "mare"). However, the maria do not contain water. Instead, they
are the remnants of lava flows on the moon's surface. The lava flowed
through cracks in the moon's crust and cooled on its surface.
142. Which of the following in NOT a
general physical feature of the
Moon's surface?
A. regolith
B. plains
C. Terminator - the line separating the unlighted and
lighted sides of the moon. When the phases are
waxing it is the sunrise line on the moon, and when
the phases are waning it is the sunset line.
D. Rays - bright streaks of debris that radiate from
some large craters.
143. The largest impact features
on the Moon are the _____________.
A. plains
B. craters
C. maria
D. rays
143. The largest impact features
on the Moon are the _____________.
A. plains
B. craters
C. maria
D. rays
144. The two daily high tides are
due mainly to the _____________.
A. Moon's gravitational force lifting the ocean water
away from the solid Earth
B. gravitational forces between the Sun and Earth
C. differential gravitational attraction of the Moon
because of the inverse-square relationship
D. gravitational forces between the Sun and Moon
144. The two daily high tides are
due mainly to the _____________.
A. Moon's gravitational force lifting the ocean water
away from the solid Earth
B. gravitational forces between the Sun and Earth
C. differential gravitational attraction of the Moon
because of the inverse-square relationship
D. gravitational forces between the Sun and Moon
145. Quasars ____________.
A. are very large objects
B. were first detected by radio telescopes
C. are very small objects
D. exhibits blue shifts in their spectrum
• A quasar is a supermassive black hole feeding on gas at the center of
a distant galaxy.
• First discoveries in the late 1950s came from astronomers using radio
telescopes. They saw starlike objects that radiated radio waves (hence
quasi-stellar radio objects), but which were not visible in optical
telescopes. Their resemblance to stars, their brightness and small
angular diameters understandably led astronomers of the time to
assume they were looking at objects within our own galaxy.
145. Quasars ____________.
A. are very large objects
B. were first detected by radio telescopes
C. are very small objects
D. exhibits blue shifts in their spectrum
146. The statement which is
true is that the moon
______________.
A. revolves around the Earth in 31 days
B. is the second-brightest object in the sky
C. has an appreciable magnetic field
D. surface gravity is 1/81 that of the Earth
146. The statement which is
true is that the moon
______________.
A. revolves around the Earth in 31 days -- 27
B. is the second-brightest object in the sky
C. has an appreciable magnetic field (lacks)
D. surface gravity is 1/81 that of the Earth -- (1/6)
147. Early telescopes showed stars as only
points of light, while the planets appeared
to be
much larger, providing evidence that stars
must __________.

A. be much farther from Earth than planets

B. travel in elliptical orbits like planets
C. reflect much more light than planets
D. be more plentiful in our solar system than planets
147. Early telescopes showed stars as only
points of light, while the planets appeared
to be
much larger, providing evidence that stars
must __________.

A. be much farther from Earth than planets

B. travel in elliptical orbits like planets
C. reflect much more light than planets
D. be more plentiful in our solar system than planets
148. The outer boundary of the solar system
is thought to be as much as ___________.

A. 100,000
B. 75,000
C. 10,000
D. 40,000
• The outer boundary of the solar system is called the heliopause. This
is the point where the solar wind doesn't travel outward anymore.
148. The outer boundary of the solar system
is thought to be as much as ___________.

A. 100,000
B. 75,000
C. 10,000
D. 40,000
149. What is the downslope movement of
overburden under the influence of gravity
called?
A. solifluction
B. mass wasting
C. mudflow
D. slump
149. What is the downslope movement of
overburden under the influence of gravity
called?
A. solifluction
B. mass wasting
C. mudflow
D. slump
150. Reasonable values for the
absolute dates for sedimentary
rocks are determined by
A. relating them to igneous rock
B. relating them to time scale
C. the geologic time scale
D. radiometrically dating them
150. Reasonable values for the
absolute dates for sedimentary
rocks are determined by
A. relating them to igneous rock
B. relating them to time scale
C. the geologic time scale
D. radiometrically dating them