03-09-2025

2302CMD303057250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The position of a particle at a time t is given

where v0 and a is constant and a > 0. The dimensions of v0 and a are

0
(1) [M L1T–1] and [T–1]
0 0
(2) [M L1T ] and [T–1]
0
(3) [M L1T–1] and [L1T–2]
0
(4) [M L1T–1] and [T1]

2) The velocity–time graphs of four particles A, B, C and D moving along a straight line are shown
are follows:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

If vA, vB, vC and vD be the respective average velocities of the four particles, then:

(1) vD > vA > vB > vC

(2) vD > vB > vA > vC
(3) vD > vC > vA > vB
(4) vA = vB = vC < vD

3) Acceleration-velocity graph of a moving particle is shown in figure. The particle is

(1) speeding up at P
(2) speeding up at Q
(3) slowing down at S
(4) speeding up at R
4) A body is thrown vertically upwards from the top A of a tower. It reaches the ground in t1 seconds.
If it is thrown vertically downwards from A with the same speed it reaches the ground in t2, seconds.
If it is allowed to fall freely from A, then the time it takes to reach the ground is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Light year is a unit of-

(1) Time
(2) Mass
(3) Distance
(4) Energy

6) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
by the car is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A bullet losses of its velocity in passing through a plank. What is the least number of planks
required to stop the bullet :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A vernier calliper has 20 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with 19 divisions on the
main scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The main scale division are of :-
(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 2 mm
(4) 1/4 mm

9) A particle is projected vertically upwards from the top of a tower. Assuming point of projection as
origin, downward direction as positive and acceleration due to gravity remaining constant
throughout the journey. The position vs time graph will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Using dimensional analysis which of the following is correct (m is relativistic mass, m0 is rest
mass, v is the velocity of particle and c is the velocity of light)?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A particle is projected with speed 20 m/s from 60 m height in vertically upward direction. Time
to reach ground is :

(1) 6 sec
(2) 10 sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) 2 sec

12) An insect can crawl on the walls of a cube of side length 4m from a vertex to another body
diagonally opposite vertex, minimum distance of the insect is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of
particle is proportional to :-

(1) (velocity)2/3
(2) (velocity)3/2
(3) (distance)2
(4) (distance)–2

14) Position of a particle moving along x–axis is given by x = (8t – 4t2) m. The distance travelled by
the particle from t = 0s to t = 2s is :-

(1) 0
(2) 8 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 16 m

15) A particle is moving along a straight line such that square of its velocity varies with time as

shown in the figure. What is the acceleration of the particle at t = 4 s ?

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 1/4 m/s2
(3) 1/2 m/s2
(4) 0

16) A body is allowed to fall from a height of 100m. If the time taken for the first 50 m is t1 and for
the remaining 50m is t2 then :-

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 < t2
(4) depends upon the mass

17) A particle moves m in South West-direction, 12m in upward direction and then 1m in East
direction. Find the net displacement.

(1) 13 m
(2) 17 m
(3) 14 m
(4) 18 m

18) Figure shows the path followed by a particle. Its velocity is shown at points A and B. Which of
the vector in the given options best represents the average acceleration of the particle for its motion

from A to B?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A cat moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to X with a uniform speed vd. The
average speed for this round trip is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Two particles P and Q starts motion simultaneously from point A and reach point C
simultaneously. Particle P moves along path I and Q moves along path II, then during complete

journey :
(1) Average velocity as well as average speed of P will be equal to that of Q
(2) Average velocity for P and Q will be equal but average speed for P will be greater than that of Q
(3) Average velocity for P and Q will be equal but average speed of P will be less than that of Q
(4) Average velocity as well as average speed for P will be greater than that of Q

21) Speed of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective
distances in which the two cars are stopped from that instant is (assume same retardation) :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

22) Displacement time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is shown in the figure below.

Then

(1) In region A, acceleration is negative

(2) In region B, acceleration is negative
(3) In region C, acceleration is non zero
(4) In region D, acceleration is non zero

23) A body is projected vertically upward from the ground, then the velocity time graph is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure. The maximum acceleration in m/s2 is:-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

25) A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its x-coordinate varies with time t according to
the equation x = (8 – 4t + 6t2) metre. The velocity of the particle will vary with time according to the
graph :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A body travels for 15 sec starting from rest with constant acceleration. If it travels distances S1,
S2 and S3 in the first five seconds, second five seconds and next five seconds respectively the relation
between S1, S2 and S3 is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop
at that instant ?

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.50 m
(3) 3.75 m
(4) 4.00 m

28) A particle moving with constant acceleration, it covers 2m distance in 2 second and 14 m
distance in next 4 second what is its initial velocity and acceleration of particle :-

(1)
m/s , m/s2

(2)
m/s , m/s2

(3)
m/s , m/s2

(4)
m/s , m/s2

29) The time dependence of a physical quantity p is given by p = , where α is a constant and
t is the time. The constant α :-

(1) is dimensionsless
(2) has dimensions T–2
(3) has dimensions T2
(4) has dimensions of p

30) Two resistors of resistance R1 = (300 3) Ω and R2 = (500 4) Ω are connected in series. The
equivalent resistance of the series combination is:

(1) (800 2)Ω

(2) (800 7)Ω
(3) (200 7)Ω
(4) (200 1)Ω

31) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 20 s. Then it covers a distance of :

(1) 20 m
(2) 400 m
(3) 1440 m
(4) 2880 m

32) A physical quantities given by the relation P3 = , if the percentage error are in P, Q, & S is
2%, 3% & 1%, than find out the % error in R ?
(1) 12%
(2) 13%
(3) 9%
(4) 8.6%

33)

Suppose we employ a system in which the unit of mass equals 100 kg, the unit of length equals 1 km
and the unit of time 100 s and call the unit of energy eluoj (joule written in reverse order), then

(1) 1 eluoj = 104 joule

(2) 1 eluoj = 10–3 joule
(3) 1 eluoj = 10–4 joule
(4) 1 joule = 103 eluoj

34) If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has
the dimensional formula :-

(1) [P1 A–1 T1]

(2) [P2 A1 T1]
(3) [P1 A–1/2 T1]
(4) [P1 A1/2 T–1]

35) The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are:-

(1) 4, 4, 2
(2) 5, 1, 2
(3) 5, 1, 5
(4) 5, 5, 2

36) A body released from a height falls freely towards earth. Another body is released from the same
height exactly one second later. The separation between the two bodies two second after the release
of the second body is :-

(1) 9.8 m
(2) 49 m
(3) 24.5 m
(4) 19.6 m

37) In each of the following expressions A,B and C represent lengths

I. A + B II. AB III. IV.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) One of them has dimensions of volume

(2) One of them has dimensions of area
(3) Two of them have dimensions of length
(4) One of them is dimensionless

38) A particle starts from rest with constant acceleration. The ratio of space–average velocity to the
time average velocity is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) In a vernier callipers, N division of Vernier scale coinside with (N–1) division of main scale (in
which 1 division represent 1 mm). The least count of the instrument in cm should be :-

(1) N
(2) N–1

(3)

(4)

40) A body is released from top of a tower of height H meter. It takes T seconds to reach the ground,
where was the body at time T/2 seconds :-

(1)
at metre from ground

(2)
at metre from ground

(3)
at metre from ground
(4) depends upon the mass of the ball

41) If the number of divison on the circular scale is 20 and linear distance travelled by screw is 4mm
in 4 rotation then least count of screw gauge is:-

(1) 0.005 cm
(2) 0.05 cm
(3) 0.5 cm
(4) 1.5 cm
42) The distance travelled by the particle in 4 second is–

(1) 50 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 80 m

43) The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and 100 division in its circular scale. In measuring the
diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd circular scale division coincides
with the reference line. Then the diameter of the wire is :

(1) 4.05 mm
(2) 4.415 mm
(3) 3.005 mm
(4) 4.210 mm

44) If a = 8 ± 0.08 and b = 6 ± 0.06, Let x = a + b, y = a – b, z = a × b. The correct order of % error

in x,y and z –

(1) x = y < z
(2) x = y >z
(3) x < z < y
(4) x > z < y

45) An object is moving as shown in graph in a straight line. Then pick the correct option for the part
shown in graph.

(1) Acceleration is constant

(2) Acceleration is changing its sign with time.
(3) Speed is constant
(4) acceleration is increasing with x.

CHEMISTRY

1) If in periodic table the mass of an atom of C12 assumed to be 150 units then what will be mass of
an atom of O16 ?

(1) 150 unit

(2) 200 unit
(3) 100 unit
(4) 50 unit

2) Select isosters from the following :-

(1) KF, CaO

12 14
(2) 6C , 6C
2 4
(3) 1H , 2He
(4) None of these

3) If mass of electron is doubled, mass of neutron is halved, mass of proton is same. Then at mass of
16
8O would:-

(1) increased by 25%

(2) increased by 50%
(3) reduced by 25%
(4) reduced by 50%

4) Given that the mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg and velocity of electron is 2.2 × 106 ms–1. If the
uncertainty in its velocity is 0.1%, the uncertainty in position would be :-

(1) 26 nm
(2) 32 nm
(3) 48 nm
(4) 50 nm

5) A 100 watt bulb emits light of λ = 400 Å, the number of photons/sec emitted by the bulb will be-

(1) 5 × 1016
(2) 2 × 1019
(3) 20 × 1029
(4) 5 × 1015

6) Two radiations have the ratio of energies 3 : 8. If first radiation has the wave number 150 cm–1
then wave number of second radiation will be :-

(1) 200 cm–1

(2) 20 cm–1
(3) 56.25 cm–1
(4) 400 cm–1

7) According to bohr theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is :-

(1)
25
1.0
(2)

(3)
10
2.5
(4)

8) The energy of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom will be

(1) half of second Bohr orbit of He+

(2) double to that of second Bohr orbit of Li+
(3) equal to second Bohr orbit of He+
(4) double to the second Bohr orbit of He+

9) In bohr model of an atom : (a) the radius of nth orbit is proportional to n2

(b) the total energy of the electron in the nth orbit is inversely proportional to n

(c) the angular momentum of the electron in an orbit is an integral multiple of

(d) the magnitude of the potential energy of the electron in an orbit is greater than kinetic energy.
The correct statement are :

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, d

10) An electron in an ion (H-like) jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to , the
change in potential energy will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Calculate the ratio of for H-atom ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) When a hydrogen atom emits a photon of energy 12.09 eV, its angular momentum will change
by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Calculate the maximum K.E. of photoelectrons emitted when a light of frequency 1 × 1015 Hz is
irradiated on a metal surface with threshold frequency (ν0) equal to 8 × 1014 Hz.

(1) 1.325 × 10–19 J

(2) 6.626 × 10–19 J
(3) 132.5 × 10–19 J
(4) 662.6 × 10–19 J

14) Which transition has minimum wavelength (λ) ?

(1) 2 →1
(2) 3 →1
(3) 4 →1
(4) 4 → 3

15) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Bohr model of the hydrogen atom ignores dual behaviour of matter and contradicts Heisenberg
uncertainty principle.
(B) All the information about the electron in an atom is stored in its orbital wave function ψ.
(C) The Paschen series of lines are the only lines in the hydrogen spectrum which appear in the
infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(D) The brightness or intensity of spectral lines depends upon the number of photons of same
wavelength or frequency absorbed or emitted.
Correct statement(s) is/are :-

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, B and D
16) If electron in H-atom, fall down from 5th energy state to first excited state how many lines are
obtain in ultraviolet region :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) zero

17) If the de-Broglie wavelength of electron in the third Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 4Å, the
circumference of the orbit will be :-

(1) 4Å
(2) 3Å
(3) 16 Å
(4) 12 Å

18) on two particles A and B are plotted against de-Broglie wavelengths. Where V is the
potential on the particles. Which of the following relation is correct about the mass of particles ?

(1) mA = mB
(2) mA > mB
(3) mA < mB
(4) mA ≤ mB

19) The number of electrons of same spin with n + ℓ = 5 are :-

(1) 6
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 8

20) Correct set of four quantum numbers of the valence electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is

(1) 5, 0, 0, +1/2
(2) 5, 1, 0, +1/2
(3) 5, 1, 1, +1/2
(4) 6, 0, 0, +1/2

21) Four electrons in an atom have the sets of quantum numbers as gives below. Which electron is at
the highest energy level ?

(1) n = 4 , ℓ = 0 , mℓ = 0 , ms = + 1/2
(2) n = 3 , ℓ = 0 , mℓ = 0 , ms = – 1/2
(3) n = 3 , ℓ = 2 , mℓ = 0 , ms = + 1/2
(4) n = 4 , ℓ = 1 , mℓ = –1 , ms = – 1/2

22) For copper atom match the column :

Column-
Column-I
II

Number of e– with n = 4,
(a) (i) 28
ℓ = 0, m = 0

Number of e– with n = 3,
(b) (ii) 18
s=+

(c) Number of e– in penultimate shell (iii) 9

(d) Number of e– in its kernel (iv) 1

(1) (a)→(i), (b)→(ii), (c)→(iii), (d)→(iv)
(2) (a)→(iv), (b)→(iii), (c)→(i), (d)→(ii)
(3) (a)→(iv), (b)→(iii), (c)→(ii), (d)→(i)
(4) (a)→(iv), (b)→(ii), (c)→(iii), (d)→(i)

23) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated, is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Match the column-I with column-II :-

(1) a-q; b-s; c-r,p; d-q

(2) a-q; b-s; c-p; d-r
(3) a-q; b-s; c-r,p; d-p
(4) None of these

25) The number of d-electrons retained in Fe+2 (atomic number Fe = 26) ion is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

26) Which of following statement is incorrect :

(1) Lithium and Magnesium exhibit diagonal relationship

(2) Elements of groups 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 are known as representative elements
(3) In 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p would be filled
(4) General configuration of f-Block elements is (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2

27) Suppose an orbital may accomodate 3 electrons then the number of elements in IV period.

(1) 18
(2) 27
(3) 12
(4) 45

28)

Column-I Column-II
(Type of elements) (Outer electronic confi.)

Inert gas
(A) (P) ns1–2np0–5
elements

Representative
(B) (Q) 1s2 and ns2 np6
elements

(C) d-Block element (R) (n–2)f1–14 (n–1)d0–1 ns2

Inner transition
(D) (S) (n–1)d1–10ns0–2
elements
Correct match is :-
(1) (A) → (P); (B) → (Q); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
(2) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
(3) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (S); (D) → (R)
(4) (A) → (Q); (B) → (S); (C) → (Q); (D) → (R)

29) Which of the following is the incorrect match for atom of element ?

(1) [Ar]3d54s1 → 4th period, 6th group

 0
(2) [Kr]4d104s → 5th period, 12th group
0
(3) [Rn]6d25f 7s2 → 7th period, 3th group
(4) [Xe]4f145d2 6s2 → 6th period, 4th group

30) The correct order of increasing atomic radius of the following elements :-

(1) S < O < Se < C

(2) O < C < S < Se
(3) O < S < Se < C
(4) C < O < S < Se

31) In 3d series largest size is of :-

(1) Fe
(2) Zn
(3) Sc
(4) Mn

32) The decreasing order of size of ions is :-

(1) Br– > S–2 > Cl– > N–3

(2) N3– > S–2 > Cl– > Br–
(3) Br– > Cl– > S–2 > N–3
(4) N–3 > Cl– > S–2 > Br–

33) Incorrect order of IP is :-

(1) B < Aℓ
(2) Cu < Zn
(3) Cu+ > Zn+
(4) Pd > Ag

34) Successive I.P. of an element 'x' are given below (in Kcal)
IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4
165 195 556 595
Electronic configuration of 'x' is ?

(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p2

(2) 1s2, 2s1
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p2
(4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2

35) Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :

(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct increasing order of ionization energy:

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D
(3) C < B < D < A
(4) D < A < B < C

36) Second ionisation potential of Li, Be, B is in the order :

(1) Li > Be > B

(2) Li > B > Be
(3) Be > Li > B
(4) B > Be > Li

37) Which of the following will have the most negative electron gain enthalpy and which the least
negative ?

(1) F, Cl
(2) Cl, F
(3) Cl, S
(4) Cl, P

38) Correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy.

(1) Ne < O
(2) Be < B
(3) O < F
(4) All

39) Maximum heat is released in :

2–
(1) O(g) → O (g)
–
(2) N(g) → N (g)
(3) F(g)– → F (g)
–
(4) F(g) → F (g)

40) Select the correct order of electron affinity :-

(1) Si > C
(2) Cl > F
(3) S > O
(4) All of these

41) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
 Energy
(a) (p) S → S–
Released

Energy
(b) (q) O– → O2–
absorbed

Inert gas
(c) configuration (r) Sr → Sr2+
in achieved

half filled
(d) configuration (s) N– → N
is achieved
(1) (a) p, s; (b) q, s; (c) q, r; (d) p
(2) (a) p, s; (b) q, r; (c) q, r; (d) s
(3) (a) p, s, r; (b) q, p; (c) q, s; (d) s, r
(4) (a) r, q, s; (b) s, p; (c) q, p; (d) s, q

42) Option which depicts correct order of electronegatively :-

(1) P < Si < C < N

(2) Si < P < N < C
(3) Si < P < C < N
(4) P < Si < N < C

43) The pair with minimum difference in electronegativity is :-

(1) F, Cl
(2) C,H
(3) P, H
(4) Na, Cs

44) In which of the following arrangement the order is not according to the property indicate against
it -

(1) Sc < Y < La (Atomic size)

(2) C < B < N < O (2nd Ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (Increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign)
(4) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (Electronegativity)

45) The formula of oxide of an element M having IE1 = 100 kJ, IE2 = 250 kJ and IE3 = 1500 kJ should
be :-

(1) MO
(2) MO2
(3) M2O3
(4) M2O
 BOTANY

1) Prophase is marked by

(1) Complete formation of nuclear envelop

(2) initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(3) Completion of the assembly of mitotic spindle
(4) Alignment of the chromosome at equatorial plate

2) If the number of bivalents are 8 in metaphase - I, what shall be the number of chromosomes in
daughter cells after meiosis - I and meiosis - II respectively:

(1) 8 and 4
(2) 4 and 4
(3) 8 and 8
(4) 16 and 8

3) In which phase separation of homologous chromosomes occur ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Both (2) and (3)

4) Recombintaion between homologous chromosomes is occur in :-

(1) Diplotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Zygotene
(4) Pachytene

5) Find out correct match ?

(1) Metaphase - Decondensation of chromosomes

(2) Anaphase - Splitting of centromere
(3) Telophase - DNA synthesis
(4) S-phase - Chromosomes become double

6)

Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option :-

The chromosomes
(A) Leptotene
become invisible
 Pairing of
(B) Zygotene homologous
chromosomes

Dissolution of the
(C) Pachytene synaptonemal
complex takes place

(D) Diplotene Recombinase enzyme activity

Terminalization of
(E) Diakinesis
chiasmata complete
(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) B and E
(4) B and C

7) The number of bivalents are 20. What will be the number of chromosomes during anaphase II at
each pole ?

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 10
(4) 20

8) The following events occur during the process of meiosis, Arrange the following events of meiosis
in the correct sequence.
I. Terminalization
II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis
IV. Disjunction of chromosome.

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, III, IV, I
(3) III, II, I, IV
(4) IV, I, II, III

9) The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of which stage of mitosis?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

10) Cell plate formation occur during-

(1) Plant cell cytokinesis.

(2) Animal cell cytokinesis.
(3) Metaphase
(4) Chromosomes movement towards the opposite poles.

11) In which stage of the cell cycle, histone proteins are synthesized in a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) During G2 stage of prophase.

(2) During S-phase
(3) During entire prophase
(4) During telophase

12) Diplotene can last for months or years in

(1) Oocytes of most vertebrates

(2) Spermatocytes of most vertibrates
(3) Oocytes of some vertebrates
(4) Spermatocytes of some vertibrates

13) 'X' ensures the production of 'Y' phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms
whereas fertilization restores the 'Z' phase. Identify X, Y and Z.

(1) X- Mitosis, Y - haploid, Z - haploid

(2) X- Mitosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid
(3) X- Meiosis, Y - haploid, Z - diploid
(4) X- Meiosis, Y - diploid, Z – diploid

14) Terminalisation of chiasmata seen in :

(1) Pachytene
(2) Anaphase I
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

15) In human cells during meiosis how many cycles of nuclear division, DNA replication and cell
division occurs respectively ?

(1) One, One, Two

(2) Two, Two, One
(3) One, Two, One
(4) Two, One, Two

16) Following are the events occur during cell cycle :

(A) Spliting of centromere
(B) Appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane
(C) Doubling of amount of DNA in cell
(D) Most of the organelle duplication
(E) Arrangement of chromosomes at the equator of cell
(F) Condensation of chromatin to form chromosomes
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events ?

(1) A→B→C→D→E→F
(2) D→C→F→E→A→B
(3) F→E→D→C→B→A
(4) D→F→E→A→C→B

17) Statement- I : Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the microscope, do not show
golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.
Statement - II : In Prophase centrosome which had undergone duplication during interphase,
begins to move towards similar poles of the cell.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

18) Match the columns and choose the correct combination :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Terminalization of chiasmata (i) Pachytene

(B) Synapsis (ii) Zygotene

(C) Chiasmata (iii) Diplotene

(D) Crossing over (iv) Diakinesis

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

19) Statement-I : Meiosis causes variations in population from one generation to the next.
Statement-II : Variations are very important for the process of evolution.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are correct
(4) Both statement-I & II are incorrect

20) Select the incorrect statements :-

(i) Dyad of cells is observed after telophase II.
(ii) Recombinase enzyme mediated process is involved in zygotene.
(iii) Cell plate formation takes place in animal cell.

(1) Only ii
(2) i & iii
(3) ii & iii
(4) i, ii, iii

21) According to the above phases answer for the following

questions.

Identify the given structures of meiosis-I and meiosis-II ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Select the correct statements-

(A) During cell cycle, cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase) is a continuous process but DNA
synthesis occurs only during one specific stage.
(B) The M-phase represents the phase when actual cell division or mitosis occurs.
(C) M-phase represents the most dramatic period of cell cycle.
(D) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division but only a single cycle of DNA
replication
Select the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) Only (A) & (B) are correct

(2) Only (A) & (D) are correct
(3) Only (C) is correct
(4) (A), (B), (C) & (D) are correct

23) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate at metaphase-I of meiosis.
Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organism from one generation to
(2)
the next
The chromosomes that have reached their respective poles decondense and lose their
(3)
individuality at anaphase of mitosis
(4) Mitosis in meristematic tissues results in continuous growth of plants throughout their life.

24) Which is incorrect statement about telophase of mitosis :

(1) Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle pole and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
(2) Nuclear envelope assemble around the chromosome cluster.
(3) Nucleolus, Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum reform.
(4) Spindle fibre attach to kinetochore of chromosome.
25) Given below is two statements one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Individual chromosome can no longer be seen in telophase.
Reason (R) : Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete
elements.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

26) Give below is two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : During diakinesis chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is
assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation.
Reason (R) : Exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes is characterised
by diplotene of prophase-I
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

27) Read the following statements and find out how many statements are not correct :
(A) In telophase-I the nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear, cytokinesis follows and this is
called as dyad of cells.
(B) Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to
the next.
(C) In zygotene stage chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called
crossing over.
(D) Diakinesis represents transition to metaphase.

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Four

28) Given below are statements (I - VI). Choose correct set with respect to crossing over.
(I) It occurred between sister chromatid of homologous chromosomes.
(II) It is enzyme mediated process.
(III) Recombinase enzyme involved in it.
(IV) It occurs at recombination nodules.
(V) It occurs between non sister chromatid of non-homologous chromosomes.
(VI) It occurs between sister chromatid of non-homologous chromosomes.

(1) I, II, III & IV

(2) V, II, III & IV
(3) II, III, IV & VI
(4) II, III & IV

29) Identify the following figure-

(1) Early prophase

(2) Metaphase
(3) Late prophase
(4) Telophase

30) Cleavage Furrow formation occur during-

(1) Plant cell cytokinesis.

(2) Animal cell cytokinesis.
(3) Bacterial cell cytokinesis
(4) Centrosome duplication.

31) Select the incorrect match.

Genus Family Order

(1) Musca Muscidae Diptera

(2) Solanum Solanaceae Polymoniales

(3) Homo Hominidae Chordata

(4) Triticum Poaceae Poales

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Families Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in the order _____.

(1) Carnivora
(2) Sapindales
(3) Poales
(4) Polymoniales

33) Select the incorrect option

(1) Each taxonomic category is referred to as unit of classification

(2) The number of similar characteristics goes on decreasing from species to kingdom
(3) Taxonomic categories are morphological aggregates, but not distinct biological entities
(4) Species serves as the basic and lowest unit of classification

34) In Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and Panthera leo, all the three words, indica,
tuberosum and leo represent the :-

(1) Names of species

(2) Names of specific epithets
(3) Names of genus
(4) Names of generic epithet

35) "Darwin of 20th Century" proposed.

(1) Typological concept of species

(2) Biological concept of species
(3) Natural concept of classification
(4) Numerical concept of classification

36) Assertion :- Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon
share.
Reason :- The number of common characterstics goes on decreasing from species to kingdom.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

37) Which one of the following statement is correct about genus ?

(1) Lion, leopard andcat are all species of the genus Panthera.
(2) Genera are aggregates of closely related families.
Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common is
(3)
comparison to species of other genera.
(4) Mango and brinjal are two different species but both belong to the genus Solanum.

38)

Choose the correct names of the different bacteria according to their shapes:
(1) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(2) A – Bacilli, B –Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(3) A – Spirilla, B –Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
(4) A – Spirilla, B –Vibrio, C – Cocci, D –Bacilli

39) In how many categories, animals were divided by Aristotle.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Four

40) According to five kingdom classification, multicellular eukaryotic producer are placed under?

(1) Three kingdom

(2) Two kingdom
(3) One kingdom
(4) Four kingdom

41) Who was the earliest to attempt a more scientific basis for classification. He used simple
morphological character to classified plants into tree shrubs and herbs.

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) Bentham and Hookar
(4) Carl woes

42) In five kingdom classification, bacteria are included in Kingdom :-

(1) Protista
(2) Monera
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

43) The most common mode of Asexual reproduction in bacteria.

(1) Transduction
(2) Binary fission
(3) Transformation
(4) Endospore formation

44) Chemosynthetic autotrophic mode of nutrition can be observed in :

(1) Some members of kingdom Monera

(2) Most of the members of kingdom Monera
(3) Some members of kingdom Monera and Protista
(4) Some members of kingdom Monera, Protista and Fungi.

45) Most abundant microorganisms on earth belong to kingdom :-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Algae

ZOOLOGY

1) Which sugar is present in ATP ?

(1) Ribose
(2) Deoxyribose
(3) Xylose
(4) Mannose

2) In an organism DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be Cytosine. The
percentage of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :-

(1) G-17%, A-16.5%, T-32.5%

(2) G-17%, A-33%, T-33%
(3) G-8.5%, A-50%, T-24.5%
(4) G-34%, A-24.5%, T-24.5%

3) Following structure is :-

(1) Adenosine
(2) Adenylic acid
(3) Deoxyadenosine
(4) Deoxyadenylic acid

4) Uridine is :-

(1) Nucleoside
(2) Ribose + Uracil
(3) Deoxyribose + Uracil
(4) Both (1) & (2)
5) In the ring structure of uracil nitrogen base, How many carbon atoms are present :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

6) Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option :-

(a) (b)
Option :

Molecule Present in Biomolecule

(1) (b) Thymine DNA Pyrimidine

(2) (a) Guanine DNA Purine

(3) (a) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

(4) (b) Uracil DNA Purine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Sugar which is present in DNA has which chemical formula

(1) C5H10O5
(2) C6H12O6
(3) C5H10O4
(4) C3H6O3

8) A segment of dsDNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides
present in the segment is :

(1) 120
(2) 480
(3) 60
(4) 240

9) From the given below structure, identify the zwitter ions ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A and C
(2) Only A
(3) B and D
(4) A and B

10) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a-serine, b-glycine, c-alanine

(2) a-glycine, b-serine, c-alanine
(3) a-glycine, b-alanine, c-serine
(4) a-alanine, b-serine, c-glycine

11) Simplest & most complex amino acids, respectively :

(1) Glycine, Tryptophan

(2) Tryptophan, Glycine
(3) Glycine, Histidine
(4) Alanine, Trytophan

12) Statement-I :- Each protein is a homopolymer of amino acid.

Statement-II :- All amino acid are essential.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

13)

X is C-terminal amino acid and Y is

(1)
N- terminal amino acid
(2) Both X and Y are c-terminal Amino acids.
(3) X is N-terminal amino acid and Y is C-terminal amino acid
(4) Both X and Y are N-terminal amino acid.

14) Assertion:- Tertiary structure of a protein is absolutely necessary for its biological activities.
Reason:- This structure brings distant amino acid side chains closer thereby forming active sites of
enzymes

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

15) The structure of protein which gives a three dimensional view is

(1) Primary structure

(2) α-helix
(3) β-pleated sheet
(4) Tertiary structure

16) Find out correct match between Column I and Column II.

Column - I Column II

Enable glucose
A Typsin (i)
transport into cells

Sensory reception
B Collagen (ii)
(smell, taste hormone)

C GLUT-4 (iii) Enzyme

Intercellular ground
D Receptor (iv)
substance
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
17) Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase (RuBisCO) is the most abundant
protein in the whole of the biosphere.
Statement-II : Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world.
Choose most appropriate answer from given below options :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

18) What is the percentage of protein in total cellular mass ?

(1) 70–90%
(2) 10–15%
(3) 3–5%
(4) 2%

19) Which is essential amino acid ?

(1) Methionine
(2) Serine
(3) Valine
(4) Both (1) & (3)

20)

Which one out of A – D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino
acid?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

21)
Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of
most proteins?

(1) Hydrophobic interaction

(2) Ester bonds
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Electrostatic interaction

22) Which one of the following is not a cofactor?

(1) Coenzyme
(2) Metal ions
(3) Prosthetic group
(4) Apoenzyme

23) An enzyme ‘X’ acts on the peptide bonds of dipeptides and split it into the monomers. The
enzyme commission number of ‘X’ is [Link]. ‘X’ belongs to the category of

(1) Dehydrogenases
(2) Transferases
(3) Ligases
(4) Hydrolases

24) Assertion (A) : Malonate inhibits the activity of succinic dehydrogenase.

Reason (R) : Malonate closely resembles the enzyme in structure.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

25) Select the incorrect statement

(1) Km is the substrate concentration at which Vmax/2 is achieved.

(2) High temperature upto (80 – 90°C) destroys the activity of thermophillic enzymes.
(3) Competitive inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
(4) Proteinaceous enzymes exhibit substrate specificity.

26) Consider the chemical equation given below

The given reaction is catalysed by the enzyme that belongs to class-

(1) III
(2) IV
(3) II
(4) I
27) Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the conversion of CO2 and H2O into carbonic acid and increases
the reaction rate by about

(1) 1000 million times

(2) 10 billion times
(3) 1000 billion times
(4) 0.01 billion times

28) Select the graph among the following that shows the effect of change in substrate concentration
on enzyme activity (y-axis indicates enzyme activity)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) How do enzymes bring about high rates of chemical conversions ?

(1) By increasing substrate concentration

(2) By decreasing activation energy
(3) By increasing activation energy
(4) By decreasing potential energy

30) The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are

(1) Minerals
(2) Vitamins
(3) Proteins
(4) Hormones

31)

The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature
and substrate concentration).
What do the two axis (X and Y) represent ?

X -axis Y-axis

(1) Temperature Enzyme activity

(2) Substrate concentration Rate of reaction

(3) Enzymatic activity Temperature

(4) Enzymatic activity pH

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Co-enzymes differ from prosthetic groups in that

(1) They require metal ions for their activity

(2) They can act as cofactor for many enzymes
(3) They are tightly bound to apoenzymes
(4) Their association with apoenzyme is transient
33)

According to above graph

(1) It is an exothermic reaction

(2) It is an endothermic reaction
(3) It is an endothermic and redox reaction
(4) Need to supply energy in order to form the product

34) Plants which produce an enormous diversity of substances that have no apparent role in growth
and developmental processes are classified under.

(1) Primary metabolites

(2) Secondary metabolites
(3) Essential compounds
(4) Toxic nutrients

35)

Identified secondary metabolites?

(1) Vinblastin
(2) Fat
(3) protein
(4) Polysaccharide

36) In the given below example How many are secondary metabolites
Abrin, Curcumin, Gum, Codeine, Anthocyanins, Nucleic acid, Amino acid, Sugar

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5

37) Match the given secondary metabolites correctly with their category
 a. Alkaloid (i) Ricin
b. Toxin (ii) Morphine
c. Lectin (iii) Concanavalin-A
Polymeric
d. (iv) Gums
substance
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

38) Which of the following match is not correct ?

(1) Mg++ → Dehydrogenase

(2) Cu++ → Tyrosinase
(3) Fe++ → Carbonic anhydrase
(4) Mo → Nitrogenase

39) Statement-I : Enzymes catalyse biochemical reactions in the cells.

Statement-II : Almost all enzyme are protein.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are false.

(2) Statement-I is true and Statement-Ii is false.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-Ii is true.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-Ii are true.

40) Assertion (A): Enzymes are thermo-sensitive and get damaged at high temperatures (say above
40°C)
Reason (R) : Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at high temperatures and high pressures.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

41) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by melonate, which closely resembles the substrate
_________ in structure

(1) PABA
(2) Sulfa drugs
(3) Fumarate
(4) Succinate

42) Haem group in catalase enzyme is :-

(1) Cofactor
(2) Holoenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme
(4) Coenzyme

43) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Inorganic catalyst denatures at high temperature.

Rate of enzymatic reaction doubles or decreases by half for every 10°C change in temperature
(2)
in either direction.
(3) The enzyme can accelerate rate of reaction by 10 million times.
(4) Almost all enzymes are proteins.

44) Which of the following is property of enzyme :

(1) Substrate specificity

(2) Temperature sensitivity
(3) pH specificity
(4) All of the above

45) The difference in average energy content of substrate from that of its transition state is called :

(1) Potential energy

(2) Free energy
(3) Activation energy
(4) Reaction energy
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 1 2 4 4 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 4 4 4 2 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 4 3 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 4 4 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 4 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 3 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 3 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 2 1 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 4 4 1 2 2 4 2 2 2 1 4 1 2 1 4 2 3 4 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) As at is a dimensionless further, as x and have same dimensions.

0
v0 = [M L1T–1]

2)

Velocity =

3) Particle is speeding up if sign of v and a are same.

4) Let downwards direction is +ve

h = – ut1 + gt12 ...... (1)

h = ut2 + gt22 ....... (2)

Multiplying eqn. (1) by t2 and eqn. (2) by t1

ht2 = –ut1t2 + gt12 t2 ........ (3)

ht1 = ut2t1 + gt22t1 ....... (4)
adding eqn. (3) & (4)

ht1 + ht2 = gt12t2 + gt22t1

⇒ h = gt1t2 ......... (5)

for free fall when u = 0, then

h = gt2 ....... (6)

From eqn. (5) & (6)

gt2 = gt1t2 ⇒ t =

5)
Concept:
Unit of Measurement in Astronomy - Light-Year as Distance
Formula Used: Light-year = Speed of light × Time in one year where
• c = 3 × 108 m/s
• t = 365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60 sec.

Calculation:
Light-year = (3 × 108) × (365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60)
= 9.46 × 1015 meters = 9.46 trillion km

Final Answer: Option 3

A light-year is a unit of distance.

6) Let the car accelerate at rate α for time t1 then maximum velocity attained, v = 0 + αt1 =
αt1
Now, the car decelerates at a rate β for time (t – t1) and finally comes to rest. Then
0 = v – β(t – t1) ⇒ 0 = αt1 – βt + βt1

⇒ t1 =

∴v=

7)

let width of each plank is x.

∵ a = constant

8)

20 V.S.D = 19 M.S.D
1 L.C = 1 M.S.D – 1 V.S.D

1 L.C = 1 M.S.D – M.S.D

1 L.C = M.S.D

0.1 mm = M.S.D
1 M.S.D = 2 mm

9) Since acceleration is positive so upward opening and initial velocity negative.

10) According to theory of dimensions, dimensions on two sides of an equation must always be
equal. Hence, denominator of the expression must be dimensionless, which holds good only in
choice (1).

11)
t = 6 sec

12)

13) x = ⇒v= =

Acceleration, a = ⇒ a∝ (velocity)3/2

14)

∵ x = 8t – 4t2
at t = 0 , x = 0

∴ if v = 0, t = 1
at t = 1, x = 8 – 4 = 4m
at t = 2, x = 8(2) – 4(2)2 = 0
so, travelled distance = |(4–0)| + |(0 – 4)|
= 4 + 4 = 8m

15)

y = mx ⇒ V2 =

16)

or

and

t1 > t2
17)

18)

Average acceleration =

19) Average speed =

20) Average velocity = Average speed =

21)

s × u2

22)

In region B, slope of s-t graph (i.e. velocity is positive but gradually decreases, so the
acceleration is negative.

23) Question is Asking About:

In this question we have a raw velocity time graph for an object projected vertically upward
from ground.

Concept:
Velocity-time graph for an object under free fall.

Formula:
(1) v = u – gt (for free fall a = –g (acting downwards))
(2) y = Mx + c (straight line equation)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Given:
A body is projected vertically upward, under freefall
Let the initial velocity = μ
final velocity = v
Acceleration due to gravity = –g (– sign is showing the direction)
time = t
∴ v = μ – gt or v = –gt + μ
comparing with y = Mx + c (straight line equation)
We can see that lope M = –g (negative)
Intercept, C = μ
So the correct graph for this condition is-

​Hence, option (2) is correct.

24) Slope of v-t graph ⇒ acceleration

Maximum slope = Maximum acceleration

25) x = 8 – 4t + 6t2

∴v= = – 4 + 12t ∴ v = 12t – 4

This equation a straight line, in which slope is positive and C is negative, so

26) If the body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration then the ratio of
distances in consecutive equal time interval

27) Time for downward jurnery

= 1 sec
So for regular interval drops

are falling at interval of sec.

height of 2nd drop = 5 – × 10 × ( )2

=5– = = 3.75 m

28)

∵ 2 = 2U + a(2)2
∴ U + a = 1 ........(1)

∵ 16 = 6U + a (6)2
∴ 3U + 9a = 8 ............(2)
from equation (1) & (2)

m/s2, m/s

29)

30) (1) Asking About

We are asked to find the equivalent resistance and its uncertainty when two resistors R1 and
R2, each with uncertainties, are connected in series.
(2) Concept:
• When resistors are connected in series, the equivalent resistance Req is the sum of their
individual resistances.
• The uncertainty in the equivalent resistance is calculated by summing the absolute
uncertainties of the individual resistors.
(3) Formula:
1. For resistors in series :Req=R1+R2
2. The uncertainty in the equivalent resistance: ΔReq=ΔR1+ΔR2
where ΔR1 and ΔR2 are the absolute uncertainties of R1 and R2, respectively.
(4) Solution / Explanation:
1. Resistor Values:
R1 = 300Ώ, ΔR1 = 3Ώ,
R2 = 500Ώ, ΔR2 = 4Ώ
2. Calculate Equivalent Resistance: ΔReq=ΔR1+ΔR2=3+4=7Ώ
3.. Calculate Uncertainty in Equivalent Resistance:
4. Final Equivalent Resistance with Uncertainty: Req= (800 ± 7) Ώ
(5) Final Answer:
The equivalent resistance of the series combination is:
Option 2: (800 ± 7) Ώ
31)

32) Calculation/Explanation:
Given percentage errors:
\(\eqalign{ & \frac{{\Delta R}}{R} \times 100\% = 2\% \cr & \frac{{\Delta Q}}{Q} \times
100\% = 3\% \cr & \frac{{\Delta S}}{S} \times 100\% = 1\% \cr} \)
Substituting

Percentage error in R = (3%) + 3(2%) = 1% + 6% + 2% = 9%

Final Answer is option (3)

33)

34)

[ML2T–2] = [MLT–1]X[L2]Y[T]Z
X=1
–X+Z=–2⇒Z=–1

X + 2Y = 2 ⇒ Y =

35)

5, 1, 2

36)
∵U=0 &a=g
Distance between both bodies

= 24.5 m

37) [A+B] = [L], [AB] =[L2], =[L]

0

and = [L ]
38) v = at, ⇒ ds = at dt

39) [L.C = 1 M.S.D. – 1 V.S.D]

40)

H= gt2

Sy = 0 + g =+

height from ground in H – =

41) L.C. =

42) Distance =

Distance = +
= 35 + 45
= 80 meter

43) L.C. =
Diameter = (8 × 0.5) + (83 × 0.005) mm
= [400 + 0.415] mm
= 4.415 mm
 44) a + b = 14 ± 0.14 ⇒ % error =

a – b = 2 ± 0.14 ⇒ % error =

a × b = 48 ± 0.96 ⇒ % error =
so, order of % error x < z < y

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

Explain Question : Asked to identify isosters — species with same number of atoms of atoms
and same total electrons.

Concept : This question is based on Isosters (same electron count + similar structure)

Solution :
Option 1:
KF → K+ (19 – 1 = 19e–), F– (9 + 1 = 10e–) → Total = 18 + 10 = 28e–
CaO → Ca2+ (20 – 2 = 18e–), O2– (8 + 2 = 10e–) → Total = 28e–
→ Same e– count & 2 atoms → Isosters

Option 2:
Same element (C), different isotopes → Not isosters

Option 3:
1
H2 (deuterium) vs 2He4 → different atoms, e– = 1 vs 2 → Not isosters

Final Answer : option (1)

48)

Asking : Mass of 6O16 atom

Concept : Mass of atom is sum of mass of fundament particles in atoms

Solution : Mass of oxygen atom

= 8mp + 8mn
(Mass of electron is negligible)

= 8 mp +
= (8 + 4) unit = 12 unit

Reduction in mass of oxy = ​

= 25% reduced

49) Asking : uncertainity is position

Concept : He i senberg priniple

Solution :

Δx = 26 × 10–9m
= 26 nm

50)

= 2 × 1019

51)

∴ ;

52)

NCERT - XI, Part - I, Pg # 46 (2021-2022 edition)

53)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question is asking us to compare the energy of the first Bohr orbit
(n=1) of a hydrogen atom with the energies of the second Bohr orbit (n=2) of singly-ionized
helium (He⁺) and lithium ion (Li⁺). We need to identify which given statement about their
energy relationship is correct.
Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is the Bohr model of the atom, which states
that the energy of an electron in a particular orbit depends on the principal quantum number
(n) and the atomic number (Z) of the nucleus. The energy levels for hydrogen-like ions are
quantized and follow the formula:

where is the energy of the nth orbit, is the atomic number, and is the orbit number.

Relevant Formulas:
where: - = energy of orbit - = atomic number - = principal quantum number (orbit
number)
Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Calculate energy of the first orbit of hydrogen (Z=1, n=1):

2. Calculate energy of second orbit of singly-ionized helium (He⁺) (Z=2, n=2):

Since both energies are -13.6 eV, the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen equals the second Bohr orbit
of He⁺.
Tips and Tricks: Use the formula and substitute values carefully. For ions
like He⁺ or Li⁺, Z corresponds to the atomic number of the nucleus, not the ion charge.
Common Mistakes: One typical mistake is ignoring the effect of the atomic number squared
or mixing up n values when comparing different ions, leading to wrong energy comparisons.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: - 'half of second Bohr orbit of He⁺' is incorrect
because energies calculated numerically are equal, not half. - 'double to that of second Bohr
orbit of Li⁺' is incorrect; energy of Li⁺ levels are different due to higher Z and different n,
thus do not match this ratio. - 'double to the second Bohr orbit of He⁺' is incorrect because
energies are equal, not double.
Therefore, only "equal to second Bohr orbit of He⁺" is correct.

54) Question Explanation :

We are to identify the correct statements based on Bohr's model of the atom.

Concept :
Bohr's postulates – orbit radius, energy levels, angular momentum, energy relations.

Solution :
(a) Radius ∝ n2 (not 1/n) → Correct
(b) Total energy ∝ –1/n2 (not 1/n) → Incorrect
(c) Angular momentum ∝ n.h/2π → Correct
(d) [Potential energy] = 2 × Kinetic energy → PE magnitude > KE → Correct

Final Answer :
Option (2)
55) P.E. = –2K.E.
(P.E.)intial = –2x

(P.E.)final =

56)

57) 12.09 = = 12.09

ΔAM =

58)

Explain Question : Asked to calculate maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons using

incident and threshold frequency.

Concept : This question is based on Photoelectric effect (K.E. = h(v – v0))

Solution :
v = 1 × 1015 Hz, v0 = 8 × 1014 Hz,
h = 6.626 ×10–34 J.s

K.E. = h(v – v0)

= 6.626 × 10–34 × (1 × 1015 – 8 × 1014)
= 6.626 × 10–34 × 2 × 1014
= 1.3252 × 10–19 J ≈ 1.325 × 10–19 J

Final Answer : option (1)

59)

Question Explanation :
Identify the transition in a hydrogen atom that emits radiation of minimum wavelength.

Concept :
Hydrogen Spectrum & Energy-Wavelength Relation

Mathematical Calculation / Reasoning :

Energy ∝ 1/λ and
ΔE = 13.6 × (1/n₁² − 1/n₂²) eV
Greater ΔE ⇒ smaller λ
Compare transitions:
2→1: ΔE = 10.2 eV
3→1: ΔE = 12.1 eV
4→1: ΔE = 12.75 eV
4→3: ΔE ≈ 0.66 eV
Maximum ΔE = 4→1 ⇒ minimum λ

Final Answer : (3)

60) Question Explanation :

Identify the correct statements regarding Bohr model, wavefunction, hydrogen spectrum, and
spectral line intensity.

Concept :
Quantum model limitations, ψ function, spectral series, photon intensity

Solution :
(A) Bohr model does ignore wave nature and violates uncertainty principle
(B) ψ contains complete information about electron
(C) Not only Paschen - Brackett, Pfund also lie in IR region
(D) Brightness number of photons of same frequency

So, correct : A, B, D

Final Answer : Option 4

61)

Question Explanation
Electron drops from n = 5 to n = 2, and we must count UV lines only, i.e., transitions ending at
n = 1.

Concept
UV region = Lyman series (transitions to n = 1)

SOLUTION

Electron goes from n = 5 to n = 2, so final level is n = 2,

→ No transitions to n = 1 are possible
→ Hence, no Lyman lines, and no UV radiation

Final Answer→ Option: 4 ✅

62) 2πr = nλ

63)

64)

Explanation
 A. n + ℓ rule: This rule helps determine the energy levels of electrons in an atom. 'n' is the
principal quantum number, and 'ℓ' is the azimuthal quantum number.

Concept

A. n + ℓ = 5: We need to find the combinations of n and ℓ that satisfy this condition:

A. n = 5, ℓ = 0 (5s)

B. n = 4, ℓ = 1 (4p)

C. n = 3, ℓ = 2 (3d)

B. Orbitals:

A. 5s: 1 orbital (2 electrons max)

B. 4p: 3 orbitals (6 electrons max)

C. 3d: 5 orbitals (10 electrons max)

C. Electrons of same spin:

A. 5s : 1 electron with same spin

B. 4p : 3 electrons with same spin

C. 3d : 5 electrons with same spin

D. Total number of electrons with same spin = 1 + 3 + 5 = 9

Answer option 2, (9).

65)
E.C of Rubidium is (Z=37) = 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s1
The valence electron is in 5s orbital.

Its 4 quantum numbers are- n=5,l=0,m=0,s=

66) (n + ℓ) rule
which has higher value of (n + ℓ), has greater energy.

67) Cu : 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d10
29

68)

69) 1. Question Explanation

The question requires us to match orbitals (Column-I) with their corresponding nodal
properties (Column-II). We need to identify the correct relationship between the given orbitals
and their nodal characteristics.
2. Given Data
Column-I (Orbitals): 5s, 3dxy, 4dxy, 3p
Column-II (Nodal Properties):
(p) Number of radial nodes = 1
(q) Number of angular nodes = 0
(r) Sum of radial and angular nodes = 3
(s) Number of radial nodes = 0
3. Concept
Nodal Planes: These are regions in space where the probability of finding an electron is zero.
Radial Nodes: These are spherical surfaces within an orbital where the probability of finding
an electron is zero.
Nodal Properties of Orbitals:
s-orbitals:
Have only radial nodes.
Number of radial nodes = n - 1, where n is the principal quantum number.
p-orbitals:
Have one angular node.
Number of radial nodes = n-2.
d-orbitals:
Have two angular nodes.
Number of radial nodes = n -3.
4. Mathematical Calculation
5s orbital:
Radial nodes n-1-5-14
Matches with (p)
3dxy orbital:
Angular nodes = 2
Radial nodes n-3-3-3=0
Sum of radial and angular nodes = 2 + 0 = 2
Does not match any option
4dxy orbital:
Angular nodes = 2
 Radial nodes n-3-4-3=1
Sum of radial and angular nodes = 2 + 1 = 3
Matches with (r)
3p orbital:
Angular nodes = 1
Radial nodes n-23-2=1
Sum of radial and angular nodes = 1 + 1 = 2
Does not match any option
5. Final Answer
a-q ; b-s; c-r, p; d-p Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these".

70) Fe = [Ar] 4s2, 3d6

Fe+2 = [Ar] 3d6
d electrons = 6

71) Explanation :- The question asks which statement about periodic trends and electronic
configurations is incorrect.
Concept :- (Electronic configuration)
The incorrect statement is that in the 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d and 5p are filled in
that order. The correct filling order is 5s, 4d, and 5p. The 4f subshells are filled in the 6th
period. The other statements about diagonal relationships, representative elements, and f-
block configurations are correct.
Final Answer Option 3 (In 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p would be filled)

72)

4th period
subshells ⇒ 4s 3d 4p
no. of orbital = 9
9 × 3 = 27 elements

73) (A) Inert gas → (Q) 1s2 & ns2np6

(B) Representative elements → (P)ns1–2 np0–5
(C) Transition elements → (S) (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2
(D) Inner transition elements → (R)(n–2) f1–14
(n–1)d0–1ns2

74) Group No. = 10

75)

76) Eu is largest among 4f series element

77) Size ∝ no. of shell
∝ –ive charge

78)

B > Al Cu+ > Zn+ Pd > Ag

Cu < Zn 3d10 4s1 4d10 5s14d10
4s1 4s2 3d10
3d10 3d10

79)

Sudden jump is between IP2 & IP3

So V-e– are 2

80)

IE 3s1 < 2p4 < 2p5 < 2p6

81)
∴ Li > B > Be (II. IP)

82)

NCERT Pg # 87, Part-I

83) ΔHeg order Ne < O

2p6 2p4
Ne having full filled p orbitals. So it's ΔHeg is less same for Be & B.
O<F
2p4 2p5
Zeff of F is greater than oxygen and 2p5 of F become full filled after gaining 1e–

84) F → F– exothermic process rest all process are endothermic process.

85)

In Non metal group

 EA of 3rd Pd > EA of 2nd Pd

86)

Concept

87) EN is independent of electronic configuration.

In a period ; Zeff EN
In a group ; size EN ↓
C<N
v v
Si < P

88) Concept : Electronegativity of elements

Soln/Explanation : Pair of elements which have nearly same electronegativity will have
minimum difference in electronegativity
→ P & H both have EN of 2.1. So the difference in EN will be minimum.
Final Ans. option (3)

89) The order of E.N. for boron family is.

B > Tl > In > Ga > Al

90) Explanation : formula of oxide is asked

Concept : Various concept

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
IE1 = 100 kJ
IE2 = 250 kJ
IE3 = 1500 kJ
by seeing above values it is clear that it has 2e– in valence shell thus it can donate 2e– ∴ it's
oxide will be MO.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

BOTANY

91)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 122

92)

Ncert Pg No: 171, 2021-22

93) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

94) NCERT Pg # 126

95) NCERT (XIth) Pg # 123, 124

96)

NCERT Pg. # 168

97)

SOLUTION—

In the S phase (synthesis phase) of the cell cycle, the amount of DNA doubles in each cell. This
is because DNA replication occurs during this phase, where each DNA molecule is duplicated.

The correct answer is: OPTION(1)Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.

98)

Page no - 164, 168 &169

99) Explanation :- The question asks which stage of mitosis is characterized by the complete
disintegration of the nuclear envelope.
Concept :- This question is based on Stages of mitosis
Solution :- The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the transition to
metaphase, a critical step in ensuring accurate chromosome alignment and separation.
Answer :- 2

100) Explanation
In plant cells, cytokinesis (the final stage of cell division) involves the formation of a cell plate.
This cell plate forms in the middle of the dividing cell and eventually develops into the new cell
wall that separates the two daughter cells.

Correct Answer ✔ 1. Plant cell cytokinesis

101)

The correct answer is:

2. During S-phase
Explanation:
Histone proteins are essential for packaging newly synthesized DNA into chromatin. Since
.ONA replication occurs in the S-phase (Synthesis phase) of the cell cycle, histone proteins
must be synthesized during the same phase to ensure proper nucleosome formation.
Why not the other options?
1. G2 stage of prophase → Histone synthesis is already completed before G2; this phase is
mainly for preparation before mitosis.
2. Entire prophase → Prophase is a stage of mitosis, not the cell cycle. Histones are
 synthesized before mitosis, during the S-phase.
3. Telophase → This is the final stage of mitosis, where nuclear membranes reform, and
chromosome decondensation begins. Histone synthesis does not occur here.
Since histones are synthesized during the S-phase, option 2 is correct.

102)

Explanation

A. In some vertebrates (e.g., humans, frogs), oocytes can remain arrested in the diplotene stage
for an extended period.

B. This is known as the dictyotene stage, a prolonged phase of diplotene seen in female
gametogenesis (oogenesis).

Spermatocytes do not exhibit such a prolonged diplotene phase.

Correct answer: 3. Oocytes of some vertebrates

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

104) NCERT-XI, Pg # 126

105) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 167 (Topic - Meiosis - Ist point)

106)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 122, 123, 124

107) NCERT Pg. # 122

108) NCERT-XI, Pg # 126

109) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 128

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

111) NCERT Pg.#169-170 10.4.1

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 120, 121, 122, 125

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124, 125, 126, 128

114) NCERT Page No. # 166

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 166

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 168

117) NCERT-XI, Pg # 169,170

118) NCERT Page No. 168

119) NCERT pg- 123

120)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which biological process involves the formation
of a cleavage furrow. It provides four options related to cell division and asks to identify the
correct stage during which cleavage furrow formation occurs.

Underlying Concept: Cleavage furrow formation is a key step in cytokinesis, the process
where the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to form two daughter cells after mitosis. In
animal cells, this occurs through the formation of an indentation called the cleavage furrow,
which pinches the cell membrane to separate the two cells. This process does not happen in
plant cells, bacteria, or during centrosome duplication.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: 'Cleavage furrow' = typical of animal cell cytokinesis; 'cell plate'
= typical of plant cell cytokinesis.

Common Mistakes: Confusing cleavage furrow formation with plant cell cytokinesis or
bacterial cytokinesis, which do not involve a cleavage furrow.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Plant cell cytokinesis involves building a cell plate
rather than forming a cleavage furrow. Bacterial cell cytokinesis involves different
mechanisms without furrow formation, and centrosome duplication is a separate process
related to organelle replication, not cytoplasmic division.

121)

NCERT Page No. 8

122)
NCERT Page No. 7

123)

NCERT Page No. 6

124) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 9

125)

NCERT, Pg. # 2

126) NCERT Pg. # 8

127) NCERT, Pg. # 7

128) NCERT/P–12 (PMT 2013)

129) NCERT XI, Pg.# 10

130)

Explaining the question: The question asks about the placement of multicellular eukaryotic
producers in the five-kingdom classification system.
Concept: This question is based on Five-kingdom classification system
Solution: In the five-kingdom classification system, multicellular eukaryotic producers are
placed under the kingdom Plantae.

131)

Explaining the question: The question asks about the earliest individual to attempt a more
scientific basis for the classification of plants, specifically using simple morphological
characters such as habit (tree, shrub, herb).
Concept: This question is based on History of biological classification
Solution: Aristotle's classification was one of the earliest attempts to categorize plants
systematically. By focusing on observable traits like plant habit, he laid the foundation for
future botanical classification systems.

132) NCERT, Pg. # 27

133)

Explaining the question:

The question asks to identify the most common mode of asexual reproduction in bacteria from
 the given options.
Concept: This question is based on Bacterial reproduction
Solution: Binary Fission: This is the most common and primary mode of reproduction in
bacteria. It enables bacteria to reproduce rapidly and efficiently, especially under optimal
environmental conditions.

134) NCERT XI Page No. # 17 and 19

135) NCERT - XI, Pg.# 18

ZOOLOGY

136) Solution/Explanation:

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) is a nucleotide that consists of:

A. Adenine (a nitrogenous base)

B. Ribose (a five-carbon sugar)

C. Three phosphate groups.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1 (Ribose).

139)

The correct answer is: 4. Both (1) & (2)

Uridine is a nucleoside, which consists of the sugar ribose and the nitrogenous base uracil.
Therefore, it is both a nucleoside and made up of ribose + uracil.

140)

Correct option is (2)

141)

Explaining the Question :-

Identification – a and b
Concept:- Nucleiotide
Solution :- a- adenine present in RNA and DNA purine nitrogen base
Final Answer :- Option (3)
142)

Correct option is (3)

143)

NCERT XI, Pg # 147

144)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to identify which of the given molecular structures
are zwitter ions. A zwitter ion is a molecule that contains both positive and negative charges at
different locations within the same molecule.

Underlying Concept: Zwitter ions are molecules that have both a positively charged group
and a negatively charged group, but the overall molecule is electrically neutral. In amino
acids, this typically means having an 9NH3+ (ammonium) group and a 9COO- (carboxylate)
group simultaneously.

Tips and Tricks: Focus on the presence of charged groups specifically 9NH3+ and 9COO- in
the molecule to identify zwitter ions.

Common Mistakes: Confusing molecules that have only one charged group or lack either
9NH3+ or 9COO- as zwitter ions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options without both the 9NH3+ and 9COO- groups are
not zwitter ions and thus incorrect. For example, if a molecule has only a neutral or singly
charged group, it is not zwitterionic.

145)

Explaining the Question: Correct matching

Concept: Amino acid-Protein

Solution:
a → Glycine

b → alanine

c → Serine
Final Answer: Option_3

146)

Correct option is (1)

 147)

NCERT, Pg. # 109

148)

Correct option is (3)

149)

Correct option is (1)

150) Tertiary structure of protein gives a three dimensional view.

151)

Correct option is (4)

152) NCERT Pg # 110

153)

Question Explanation : Protein percentage in Cell.

Concept : This question is based on Cell Chemical analysis

Solution : protein (10-15%)

Final Answer : option (2)

154)

The correct answer is option (4) Both (1) & (3).

Solution/Explanation:

A. Both methionine and valine are essential amino acids.

B. Essential amino acids are those that the body cannot synthesize and must be obtained from
the diet.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

155)

4th option is correct.

156)
NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 153

157)

Correct option is (4)

159)

Correct option is (1)

160)

Correct option is (2)

161)

Correct option is (2)

162)

Correct option is (4)

163)

Correct option is (2)

164)

NCERT [Link] 156

165) NCERT Pg. No.118

166)

Question Explanation :
Axis-X-Y representation.

Concept :
This question is based on Enzyme.

Solution :
X-axis → temperature
Y-axis → Enzyme activity

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

167) Question Explanation:

Difference between co-enzyme and prosthetic group.

Concept:
This question is based on Co-factors

Solution:
→ prosthetic group → Tightly linked
→ Co-enzyme → loosely linked
→ Their association with co-enzyme in transient.

Hence,
Correct option: (4) Their association with apoenzyme is transient

168)

NCERT [Link] 156

169)

Explaining the Question :-

substances produced by plants.
Concept:-
Secondary Metabolites
Solution :-
Secondary Metabolites are substances that have no apparent role in growth and
developmental process are classified under.
Final Answer :- Option (2)

170)

NCERT XI Page # 146

171)

Correct option is (4)

172)

Correct option is (2)

173) Module no. 1, Pg. # 115(E), 129(H)

174)
Correct option is (4)

175)

Correct option is (1)

176) NCERT Pg. # 158

177) NCERT Pg. # 159

178)

NCERT Pg. # 112, 113

179)

Correct option is (4)

180)

Correct option is (3)