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Mock 8 Solutions

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions and answers related to various engineering and mathematical concepts, including trigonometry, probability, structural engineering, and fluid mechanics. Each question is followed by a solution or explanation, providing insights into the reasoning behind the correct answers. The content is structured in a quiz format, aimed at testing knowledge in these subjects.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
4 views27 pages

Mock 8 Solutions

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions and answers related to various engineering and mathematical concepts, including trigonometry, probability, structural engineering, and fluid mechanics. Each question is followed by a solution or explanation, providing insights into the reasoning behind the correct answers. The content is structured in a quiz format, aimed at testing knowledge in these subjects.

Uploaded by

sai krishna
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Mock-8

One Mark Questions

 cos  sin  
01. If f ( ) =   then (f())2 is equal to
− sin  cos 
−1 0  1 1
(A)   (B)  
 0 − 1 1 1
 − 1 0 1 0
(C)   (D)  
 0 1 0 1
01. Ans: (D)
 cos  sin  
Sol: f () =  
 − sin  cos  
−1 0 
f () =  
 0 − 1
−1 0 −1 0 
(f ())2 =   
0 − 1  0 − 1

(f () )2 = 
1 0

0 1

02. If X is normally distributed random variable with mean 5 and standard deviation 4. The value of
probability P(1 < x < 9) is
(A) 0.6827 (B) 0.9545 (C) 0.9973 (D) 0.3412
02. Ans: (A)
Sol: Given  = 5,  = 4
P(1 < x < 9) = P( –  < x <  + )
= 0.6827
Area under normal curve between  –  and  +  is 0.6827

1
|x|
03. The value of 
−1 1+ x2
dx is

(A) log(3) (B) log(2) (C) 0.693 (D) 0.24


03. Ans: (B) & (C)
1
|x|
Sol: Let I = 
−1 1+ x2
dx

 |x| 
1
|x|
Then I = 2 dx  is an even function 
0 1+ x  1+ x 
2 2

1
x  x , x  0 
 I = 2 dx | x |= 



0 1 + x 2
 − x , x  0 

  (
I = log 1 + x 2 )
1
0

 I = log(1+1) – log(1+0) = log(2) – log(1)


 I = log(2) = 0.693

04. Basic length of runway in an airport depends on [as per ICAO]


P. Normal landing condition
Q. Normal takes off condition
R. Emergency landing condition
S. Accelerate and stop distance for emergency stop while takeoff
(A) P, Q and R (B) P, Q and S
(C) P, R and Q (D) P, Q, R and S
04. Ans: (B)
Sol: Emergency landing condition is equal to normal landing condition only. Emergency landing
condition is not considered by ICAO.

05. An airport is planned to construct at zero elevation condition at mean sea level. The airport
reference temperature (ART) is 20oC. The basic length of runway is 4000 m. The runway is flat
with zero percentage of effective gradients. The final length of runway after all corrections is
_______ (nearest integer in meter)
05. Ans: 4200
Sol: As airport is constructed at msl there is no need of elevation correction. The runway is flat there is
no need of gradient correction temperature correction in only required. Standard airport
temperature at msl (SAT) = 15oC
The rise in temperature = ART – SAT
= 20 – 15 = 5oC
For 5oC rise in temperature the runway length must be increased by 5% as per ICAO
100 + 5 
The final length of runway is = 4000  = 4200 m
 100 

06. A Waterbound Macadam Road (WBM) of a village road of width 4 m is running through a low
rainfall area. The central rise of parabolic camber from edges is _______ (Use IRC recommended
camber)
(A) 1/10 m (B) 1/15 m (C) 1/20 m (D) 1/25 m
06. Ans: (C)
Sol: Camber for WBM or Gravel road in low/light rainfall area = 1 in 40
W 4m
Maximum central rise with respect to edges = =
2 N 2(40)
1
= m
20

07. Match the following List-I (Parameter) and List-II (Specification as per IRC)
List-I List-II
P. Height of driver above road surface 1. 0.75 m
Q. Height of obstruction above road surface 2. 0.12 m
R. Minimum height of kerb 3. 0.15 m
S. Minimum height of head light above road surface 4. 1.2 m
5. 1.5 m
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 3 4
(B) 2 2 2 1
(C) 2 3 3 1
(D) 5 3 2 1
07. Ans: (C)
Sol: Minimum height of driver above road surface is 1.2 m
Minimum height of obstruction above road surface is 0.15 m
Minimum height of kerb above road surface is 0.15 m
Minimum height of head light above road surface is 0.75 m
08. The primary purpose of taking both face-left and face-right observations in theodolite surveying is
to:
(A) Eliminate parallax error
(B) Compensate for instrumental errors such as collimation and index errors
(C) Improve the resolution of vertical angle readings
(D) Reduce the effect of Earth's curvature on horizontal angles
08. Ans: (B)
Sol: Face-left and face-right readings help eliminate systematic errors like collimation error, index
error, and eccentricity by averaging out their effects.

09. The purpose of an anallactic lens in a tacheometer is to:


(A) Eliminate parallax error during staff reading
(B) Make the additive constant zero, simplifying distance calculations
(C) Increase the magnification of the telescope
(D) Correct chromatic aberration in stadia readings
09. Ans: (B)
Sol: The anallactic lens is placed in the telescope to make the additive constant (C) zero, allowing the
distance to be calculated as D = K.S.

10. Total Kjeldahl Nitrogen (TKN) concentration (mg/l as N) in domestic sewage is the sum of the
concentrations of
(A) organic and inorganic nitrogen in sewage
(B) organic nitrogen and nitrate in sewage
(C) organic nitrogen and ammonia in sewage
(D) ammonia and nitrate in sewage
10. Ans: (C)
Sol: Total kjeldahl Nitrogen (TKN) = Organic Nitrogen + Ammonia.

11. The BOD rate constant (k), also called the deoxygenation rate constant depends on which of the
following factors:
(A) Temperature of wastewater
(B) Type and concentration of microorganisms present
(C) Nature and complexity of organic matter in wastewater
(D) Presence of toxic or inhibitory substances
11. Ans: (A), (B), (C) & (D)
Sol: Microbial activity increases with temperature.
More active biomass increases rate of oxygen consumption.
Simple (readily biodegradable) compounds → higher k; Complex compounds → lower k.
Toxins suppress microbial activity → reducing k. k represents the rate of degradation

12. A wastewater sample has BOD₇ = 200 mg/l at 30°C.


The deoxygenation rate constant at 30°C is k = 0.40 day⁻¹.
Determine the BOD₃ of the same sample at 30°C (Answer in mg/l)
12. Ans: 148.8 Range: 147 to 150
BOD3 1 − e − k3
Sol: −
BOD 7 1 − e −k7

 − e−0.403
BOD3 = 200 
1 − e− 0.407
1 − e −1.2
= 200 
1 − e −2.8
0.698806
= 200 
0.939190
= 148.81 mg/l

13. A square pile of 300 mm size penetrates a soft clay with unit cohesion 100 kN/m2 for a depth of
15 m and rests on stiff soil. Determine the capacity of the pile by end bearing.
(A) 30.64 kN (B) 42.43 kN (C) 81 kN (D) 51 kN
13. Ans: (C)
Sol: Square Pile:
 = 0.3 m
C = 100 KPa
L = 15 m
Homogeneous soil C = C
End Bearing:
Qu = Qb = CNc .Ab
= 100  9  0.32 = 81 kN
14. Critical flow occurs when
(A) Froude’s number become unity
(B) Specific energy becomes minimum for given Q
(C) Specific force is maximum for given Q
(D) Specific force is minimum for given Q
14. Ans: (A), (B) & (D)

15. Which one of the following statement is ‘NOT’ correct?


(A) Total float can affect the succeeding and preceding activities
(B) Free float can affect the preceding activities
(C) Independent float can affect preceding and succeeding activities
(D) Free float can not affect the start of succeeding activities
15. Ans: (C)

16. Which sleeper type offers the best resistance to longitudinal movement (creep) and lateral thrust
under heavy axle loads?
(A)Wooden sleeper with dog spikes
(B) Cast iron plate sleeper
(C) Prestressed concrete sleeper with elastic fastenings
(D) Steel trough sleeper with key fastenings
16. Ans: (C)
Sol: Prestressed concrete sleepers with elastic fastenings provide superior resistance to creep and lateral
thrust due to their mass, rigidity, and secure rail-holding systems.

17. For a fully developed flow of an oil in a pipe having diameter of 5 cm, velocity 5 cm/s and
kinematic viscosity of 20 stokes, the value of Darcy friction factor is ___________.
(A) 0.512 (B) 5.12 (C) 51.2 (D) 512
17. Ans: (C)
V.D 5  5
Sol: Re = = = 1.25
 20
64 64  4
f= = = 51.2
Re 5
18. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding turbulent flow through pipes?
(A) Kinetic energy correction factor is less than 2
(B) Velocity profile is parabolic
(C) Shear stress profile is linear
(D) Rate of shear strain profile is linear
18. Ans: (A), (C)

19. A regime channel in an alluvium of median size 0.20 mm has a slope of 14 cm/km. The dominant
discharge in this channel is (m3/s) (nearly)
(A) 20 (B) 3.0 (C) 9.0 (D) 18.0
19. Ans: (C)
f 5/3
Sol: S0 =
3340 Q1 / 6

0.7610 (0.2)
2
f 10
 Q= =
(
3340 6 S 60 3340 6 14  10 −5
= 9.0
)
20. For a R.C two ways simply supported slab at corner both edges discontinuous, the torsion steel
required at that corner is
3 3 3
(A) Ast xx (B) Ast xx (C) Ast xx (D) NIL
4 8 2
20. Ans: (D)
Sol: For simply supported slab torsional moment won’t develop hence no need to provide torsion steel.

21. A bar of 16 mm diameter in an axially loaded column is to be spliced with 12 mm diameter bar,
the lap length required for proper transfer for the bond is, (use Fe-415 grade steel and
bd = 1.5 MPa)__________ (in mm, round of to nearest integer)
21. Ans: 361 (No Range)
Sol: Lap length required in compression Ld (or) 24 which ever is maximum
  st 12  0.87  415
Ld = = = 361.05 mm
4  bd 4  1.6  1.25  1.5

24  = 24  12 = 288 mm
Choose greater value
i.e 361 mm
22. In a random sampling procedure for cube strength of concrete, one sample consists of X number of
specimens. These specimens are tested at 28 days and average strength of these X specimens is
considered as test results of the sample, provided the individual variation in the strength of
specimens is not more than  Y percent of the average strength. The values of X and Y as per IS:
456-2000 are respectively
(A) 4 and 10 (B) 3 and 10 (C) 4 and 15 (D) 3 and 15
22. Ans: (D)
Sol: Individual variation in the compressive strength of three cubes in the sample should not exceed
± 15% of average strength.

23. What is the degree of Kinematic indeterminacy of the beam shown in figure? Neglect axial
deformation.
C
A B

23. Ans: 1 No Range


Sol:
B C
A B

DK = 1, (B) without axial deformation

24. Torque ‘T’ is applied at the free end of stepped shaft of circular cross as shown in figure. If the
shear modulus of the material is G

T
2d d

2L L

36TL
(A) The angle of twist at free end is
Gd 4
2T
(B) The maximum shear stress is
d 3
16T
(C) The maximum shear stress is
d 3
12TL
(D) The angle of twist at free end is
d 4
24. Ans: (A), (B) & (C)
Sol:
A B
T
d,G C
2d, G

2L L

TAB = T
TBC = T
 TL   TL 
(i) C =  AB + BC =   + 
 GJ  AB  GJ  BC

 
T  2L L 
=  + 
G   (2d )4  d 4 
 32 32 
T 32L  2 
=  4  + 1
G d 16 
32TL 9 36TL
=  =
4d 4 8 G  d 4

 16T   16T  2T
(ii) AB =  3  =   = 3  Minimum
2 
 d  AB  (2d )  AB d

 16T  16T
(iii) BC =  3  = 3  Maximum
 d  BC d

25. A defect characterized by a longitudinal crack along the rail head, often invisible on the surface
and detected via ultrasonic testing, is known as:
(A) Corrugation (B) Vertical split head
(C) Squat (D) Transverse fissure
25. Ans: (B)
Sol: Vertical split head is a longitudinal internal crack in the rail head, typically caused by metallurgical
flaws and progressive stress cycles.
Two Marks Questions

1 1
26. If A =  100
 then A equals
1 1
(A) 2101A (B) 2100A (C) 299A (D) 298A
26. Ans: (C)
1 1
Sol: Given A =  
1 1
Eigen values of A are 0, 2
Eigen values of A100 are 0, 2100
299 is an eigen values of 299A
If  = 0 then 299 = 0
If  = 2 then 299 = 299.2 = 2100
Eigen values of A100 and 299A are same

27. The probability density function of continuous random variable x is given by


a + bx 2 , 0  x  1
f (x ) = 
0 , otherwise

If the expected value E (x ) = , then


3
5
3 6 6 3
(A) a = and b = (B) a = and b =
5 5 5 5
−3 6 1 4
(C) a = and b = (D) a = and b =
5 5 5 5
27. Ans: (A)
Sol: We know that

 (a + bx )dx = 1
1
2

0
1
 bx 3 

  ax +  = 1
 3 0
b
 a + =1
3
 3a + b = 3 ……….(1)
Only option (a) satisfies equation (1).
 Option (a) is correct.
28. The value of the integral 
 4z 
y. cos  ds , where ds = (x (t))
1 2
+ y1 ( t ) 2 + (z1 ( t )) 2 and 'C' is the
C  3 

portion of curve given by x = cos(4t), y = sin(4t), z = 3t for 0  t  , is _____.
8
28. Ans: 0.625
2 2 2
 4z   dx   dy   dz 
Sol: Let I =  y. cos  ds ............... (1), where ds =   +   +   dt
C  3  dt   dt   dt 

and x = cos(4t), y = sin(4t), z = 3t for 0  t 
8

Now, ds = (− 4 sin( 4t))2 + (4 cos(4t)) 2 + (3) 2 = 25 = 5 .............. (2)


Using (2), (1) becomes

8

I =  sin( 4t ). cos( 4t ) 5 dt
t =0


8

sin( 4t ). 4 cos( 4t ) dt
5
4 t =0
 I=


5  sin (4t )  2 8
 I =  
4 2 0

5   5
 I = sin 2   − sin 2 (0) = = 0.625
8 2  8

d2y dy
29. The particular integral of the differential equation 2
+ 2 + 5y = e − x . sin( x ) is
dx dx
e − x . cos( x ) e − x . sin( x )
(A) (B)
3 3
e − x + cos( x ) e − x + sin( x )
(C) (D)
3 3
29. Ans: (B)
Sol: Given that f(D)y = Q(x) ........... (1)
Where f(D) = D2 + 2D + 5 & Q(x) = e–[Link](x) ( Q(x) = [Link](ax))

Now, y p =
1
f ( D)

e bx . sin( ax ) 
 1   1 
 y p = e bx  sin( ax ) = e − x  sin( x )
 f ( D + b)   f (D − 1) 

 1 
 y p = e −x  sin( x)
 (D − 1) + 2(D − 1) + 5
2

 1 
 y p = e −x  2 sin( x )
D + 4 

 1 
 y p = e −x  sin( x ) ( D2 by –a2 = –1)
 (− 1) + 4 
e − x . sin( x )
 yp = is a required particular integral of (1).
3

30. Two samples of a soil were subjected to shear tests. The results were as follows
Test 3 (KPa) df (KPa)
1 50 85
2 90 115
If further sample of same soil was tested under a minor principal stress of 150 KPa, the additional
stress at which failure can be expected as __________ kN/m2 (Rounded to nearest integer)
30. Ans: 160 Range: 159 to 160
Sol: From data
Test 3 1 = 3 + df
1 50 135
2 90 205
From plastic equilibrium condition
1 = 3 tan2f + 2C tanf
135 = 50 tan2f + 2C tanf → (1)
205 = 90 tan2f + 2C tanf → (2)
----------------------------------------
(2) – (1) 70 = 40 tan2f
--------------------------------------

70
tan  f = = 1.322
40
f = 52.91o
From (1) 1350 = 50  1.3222 + 2C  1.322
 C = 18 KPa
 At 3 = 150 KPa
1 = 150  1.3222 + 2 18  1.322
 1 = 309.74 KPa
df = 1 – 3 = 159.74 KPa

31. A smooth vertical retaining wall of 6 m retains backfill with properties C = 15 KPa,  = 20o and
 = 18 kN/m3. It is proposed to prevent the formation of tension crack by rising the wall height
and fill with cinder of unit weight 20 kN/m3, the final height of wall would be
(A) 6 m (B) 8.14 m (C) 8.65 m (D) 7.26 m
31. Ans: (B)
Sol:

y Cinder

Soil
6m

Cinder acts as surcharge


At depth y: v =   y
= 20  y
To prevent tension crack: Pa = 0
 Pa = K a  v − 2C K a = 0

2C
v =
Ka

1 − sin 20
 = 20 o  K a = = 0.49
1 + sin 20
2C 2  15
y= =
 K a 20  0.49

 y = 2.143 m
Final height of wall = 6 + 2.143 = 8.143 m
32. A three layered deposit of different permeabilities are shown in figure.

2m 210–5 m/s

1m 3.210–4 m/s

2m 4.510–5 m/s

The ratio of effective permeability in horizontal to vertical permeability is


(A) 1.86 (B) 3.12 (C) 2.66 (D) 2.24

32. Ans: (C)


KZ 2 10 −5  2 + 3.2 10 −4 1 + 4.5 10 −5  2
Sol: K x = =
Z 5
 Kx= 9  10–5 m/s
Z 2 +1+ 2
Ky = = = 3.38 10 −5 m/s
Z / K 2 1 2
+ +
2 10 −5 3.2 10 −4
4.5 10 −5
Kx 9  10 −5
= = 2.66
K y 3.38  10 −5

33. Consolidation test was done on a representative sample taken from a layer of clay 4 metres thick
located between two layers of much pervious soil, and it was found that the average value of C v
(coefficient of consolidation) for the clay was 5.25  10–4 sq. cm/sec. A building was constructed
above the layer and due to increase in vertical pressure the building began to settle. Find out the
time for 30% of the ultimate settlement to occur in ________ days.
(A) 125.22 (B) 250.44 (C) 62.61 (D) 31.31
33. Ans: (C)
Sol: H = 4 m
H 4
d= = = 2 m (Double drainage)
2 2
Cv = 5.25  10–4 cm2/s
To attain half the Sf
 U = 30%
At U = 30%  60%

Tv =  U2
4

=  0.32 = 0.071
4
C v .t
Tv =
d2
Tv  d 2 0.071 2 2 1
t= = −4 −4
 1 day = 86400 sec
Cv 5.25 10  10 86400
t = 62.61 days

34. A 3 m wide square footing is to be constructed at a depth of 2 m below the ground surface on a
sandy clay soil for which the cohesion is 50 kN/m2 and the bulk density is 18.2 kN/m3. The total
load applied to the soil is 3000 kN and it is uniformly distributed. Factor of safety would be
_______ Nc = 10, Nq = 4 and N = 2. (Rounded to one decimal)
34. Ans: 2.7
Sol: Given
B=3m
D=2m
C = 50 KPa
 = 18.2 kN/m3
Q = 500 kN
F=?
Qg 3000
q = = = 333.33 KPa
A footing (3  3)
q  qs
qs = 333.33 KPa
q nu
qs = + D
F
1.3CN c + D( N q − 1) + 0.4BN 
qs = + D
F
1.3  50  10 + 18.2  2  (4 − 1) + 0.4  18.2  3  2
333.33 = + 18.2  2
F
 F = 2.7
35. Consider the following statements and pick which is/are correct?
(A) The degree of saturation of a saturated soil mass subjected to pressure remains unchanged
during the process of consolidation.
(B) Secondary consolidation is due to the plastic deformation of the soil when the pore fluid is
subjected to any excess pressure
(C) Primary consolidation is independent of the coefficient of permeability of the soil but depends
on the decrease in void ratio due to air escape
(D) Only vertical dimension of the soil sample is used for consolidation test and lateral dimensions
are neglected
35. Ans: (A), (B) and (D)
Sol: Primary consolidation deals with expulsion of pore water, it depends on co-efficient of
permemability and void ratio of soil sample.

36. Water flows in rectangular channel at a rate of 2 m3/s/m with depth of 1.5 m. A smooth hump is
proposed on downstream without affecting upstream depth. Neglecting losses, calculate the
maximum height of hump
(A) 0.33 m (B) 0.48 m (C) 0.52 m (D) 0.65 m
36. Ans: (B)
Sol: Maximum height for no change in U/S w. elevation is
Given: y1 = 1.5 m
q = 2 m2/s/m
q 2
V1 = = = 1.33 m/s
y 1 1 .5

Z = Zc
E1 = Ec + Zc
1
V 3 q2  3
2
y1 + =   + Z c
1

2g 2  g 
1
1.33 2
3  22  3
1.5 + =   + Z c
2  9.81 2  9.81

 Zc = 0.478 ≃ 0.48 m


37. For a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion, the velocity is plotted against displacement.
The curve will be
(A) a straight line (B) a parabola (C) a circle (D) an ellipse
37. Ans: (D) •
x
• •2
Sol: x = w A 2 − x 2  x = w 2  [A 2 − x 2 ] Aw
•2 A
x 2 y2 x x2
+ = 12
 + = 1 Ellipse x
a 2 b2 w 2A2 A2

38. A horizontal pipe carrying water ( = 1000 kg/m3) at a rate of 50 lt/s. Its diameter reduces abruptly
from 150 mm to 100 mm. If the coefficient of contraction is 0.6, find the pressure loss (in Pa)
across the contraction. Take g = 10 m/s2.
38. Ans: 9000 Range: 8800 – 9200
Q 4Q 4  0.05
Sol: V1 = = = = 2.83 m / s
A1 D1   0.15 2
2

Q 4 Q 4  0.05
V2 = = = = 6.366 m / s
A 2  D 22   0.12
2
V2  1  P
h= 2  − 1 = 0.9 =
2g  Cc  

 P = 0.9  10  1000
= 9000 Pa

39. An ideal fluid flows through pipe contraction shown in the figure. For the given 0.2 m difference
in the level, determine the flow rate (in litre/sec) if the diameter of small pipe ‘d’ is 0.05 m.

0.2m
0.1

Q d = 0.05 m
m

(A) 11.5 lt/s (B) 15.5 lt/s (C) 19.5 lt/s (D) 23.5 lt/s
39. Ans: (B)
Sol: The flow is ideal, the velocity head can be identified to be 0.2 m.
 V = 2g (0.2)

 V = 1.98 m/s

Q= (0.1)2 (1.98) = 0.0155 m 3 / s
4
= 15.5 lt/s

40. A prestressed concrete simply supported beam of span 8 m has a rectangular cross section 250 mm
 400 mm. The eccentricity at supports is zero and 50 mm at mid span. The prestressing force in
the cable is 500 kN. The live load on beam is 5 kN/m. Neglect the self weight of beam. The stress
at top fibre at mid span of beam is
(A) 5.5 MPa (B) 6.75 MPa
(C) 7.25 MPa (D) 8.75 MPa
40. Ans: (C)
wL2 5  8 2
Sol: Moment due to live load M L = = = 40 kNm
8 8
P 500  10 3
= = 5 N / mm 2
A 250  400
Pe 500  10 3  50
= = 3.75 N / mm 2
Z 1
 250  400 2
6
ML 40  10 6
= = 6 N / mm 2
Z 1
 250  400 2
6
Stress at top fibre
P Pe M L
ft = − +
A Z Z
= 5 – 3.75 + 6 = 7.25 MPa
41. A RC square footing 2m  2m size supporting to a square column 400 mm  400 mm. The net
upward soil pressure is 100 kN/m2. (based on ultimate load), The effective depth of footing is
200 mm. The nominal shear stress (in N/mm2) upto two decimal places under two way shear is
________.
41. Ans: 0.76 No Range
Sol: Shear force under two way shear
Vu = P0 [B2 – (b + d)2]
= 100 [22 – (0.4 + 0.2)2]
= 364 kN
Nominal shear stress
Vu Vu 364  10 3
v = = = = 0.758 N / mm 2 = 0.76 N/mm2
b 0 d 4(b + d )d 4(400 + 200)200

42. The value of moment at ‘C’ generated for the loading condition acting on the rigid fame shown in
the figure below is
12 kN/m

A B
4m

4m

C
42. Ans: 0
Sol: Fixed end moment (FEM):
− wL2 − 12  42
M FAB = = = −16 kN − m
12 12
wL2
M FBA = + = +16 kN − m
12
Note: DF at the joint ‘B’ cannot be determine, because there is a internal hinge at ‘B’. Release the
moment at ‘B’ individually.
B
– –
A –16 0 B
FEM +16 0
–16
–8
–24 0 0 0
MC = 0
43. A fixed beam of 8m span carries udl of w kN/m, the value of ‘w’, when maximum moment is not
to exceed 36 kN-m
(A) 6.75 (B) 2.7 (C) Zero (D) None
43. Ans: (A)
wL2
Sol: Mmax =
12
w  82
36 =  w = 6.75 kN/m
12

44. A rigid bar with wires at B and C is shown in the figure below. The cross sectional area of the wire
at B is 3 10–4 m2 and at C is 2 10–4 m2. The wires are elasto- plastic with strength 250 MPa ‘E’
value 200 GPa. The ultimate load ‘P’ that can be applied to the rigid bar as shown is

2m
1.5m
A B C

2m 1m
P

(A) 141.67 kN (B) 100 kN (C) 75 kN (D) 50 kN


44. Ans: (A)
B C
Sol: Compatibility: = P1 P2
2 3
A 2m B 1m
C
P 2  A  L  B
(or) 1 =  1  2  C
P2 3  A 2  L1 
P
2  3  10−4  2 4
=    = →(1)
3  2  10−4  1.5 3

Equation = MA = 0

P  2 = P1  2 + P2 3

 2P1 + 3P2 = 2P → (2)


Based on strength P1 = ut, A1 = 250  106  3 104 = 75 kN

Based on strength P2 = ut, A2 = 250  106  2  10–4 = 50 kN

Safe design criteria: P2 = 50 kN

4
P1 =  50 = 66.67 kN
3

From equation (2): 2P = 2  66.67 + 3 50 = 283.44

 P = 141.67 kN

45. A mass less beam has a loading pattern as shown in figure. The beam is of rectangular cross
section with a width of 30 mm and height of 100 mm. The maximum magnitude of bending stress
in MPa____(up to one decimal)

3000Nm–1
A B C

2000mm 2000mm

45. Ans: 67.5


Sol:
3000Nm–1
A B C

2m 2m RC
RA

Equation = Fy = 0 ( = )
RA + RC = 6000 N
MC = 0
RA  4 = 6000  1
6000
RA = = 1500 N
4
RC = 6000 –1500 = 4500 N
FA = RA = 1500 N
FC = RC = –4500 N
FB = RA = 1500 N
FX = 0  RA – w(x–2) = 0
1500–3000 (x-2) = 0
1500
x= + 2 = 2.5 m
3000

1500 N 1500 N
x
C
A B

x x
4500 N
SFD

w (x − 2)
2
Maximum Bending moment @x= 2.5 m = R A .x −
2
= (1500 2.5) – 1500 (0.5)2
= 3375 N-m
M max 6M 6  3375
 max = = 2=
Z bh ( )(
30  10−3 100  10−3 )
2

= 67.5  106 MPa

46. The recession limb of a hydrograph is governed mainly by:


(A) Catchment rainfall pattern
(B) Channel storage and groundwater discharge
(C) Intensity of peak rainfall
(D) Shape of rising limb
46. Ans: (B)
Sol: The recession limb of a hydrograph represents the decline in streamflow after the rainfall has
stopped. During this stage, no more direct runoff is entering the stream. The flow is now mainly
sustained by:
1. Channel storage – water temporarily stored in the river channel and floodplain.
2. Groundwater and subsurface flow (baseflow) – slow release of infiltrated water back into the
stream.
Since these storages empty gradually, the recession limb shows a smooth and slow decline in
discharge. Hence, channel storage and groundwater discharge control the recession limb, not the
rainfall intensity or rainfall pattern.
47. Peak Ordinate of S-curve, in m3/s, developed from 4hr-UH for a catchment of 270 km2 would
be______ rounded to 1 decimal place
47. Ans: 187.5 Range (187.0 to 187.50)
Sol: Peak ordinate of S-curve is nothing but the equilibrium discharge

Qeq = A  i

1 cm
= 270  106 m2 
4 hr

10 −2 m
= 270  10 6 m 2 
4  3600 S

= 187.5 m3/s

48. A 300 mm diameter sewer is laid at a slope of 0.04 and designed to carry a discharge at a depth of
150 mm with Manning’s n = 0.014, the design discharge is
(A) 2345 l/min (B) 2835 l/min
(C) 5385 l/min (D) 5835 l/min
48. Ans: (C)
Sol:

D = 0.3
d = 0.15

A D 0.3
Half flow: R = = = = 0.075 m
P 4 4
Q = A.V
1  1
=  D 2   R 2 / 3 S1 / 2
24  n

1 2
=   0.3  
1
(0.075)2 / 3 (0.04)1 / 2
24  0.014
= 0.0353  2.54
= 0.0897 m3/s = 89.7 l/s
= 5385 l/min
49. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) ThOD represents the theoretical amount of oxygen required to completely oxidize organic
matter to simple compounds like CO₂ and H₂O.
(B) BOD represents the biodegradable fraction of organic matter that microorganisms can oxidize
under standard test conditions.
(C) TOC is a direct measure of carbon present in all organic compounds in the sample, whether
biodegradable or not.
(D) For the same wastewater, BOD is always greater than ThOD.
49. Ans: (A), (B) & (C)
Sol: BOD is always ≤ ThOD, never greater. BOD is a subset of ThOD.

50. A windrow composting facility processes 8 tonnes/day of mixed organic waste with initial
moisture content of 50% (wet basis). The optimal moisture content for composting is 60% (wet
basis). During windrow turning and aeration, 1.0% of the total wet mass is lost as water vapor
before water addition. Assume no volatile solids loss before water addition, and neglect any
leachate. Determine the quantity of water (in kg per day) that must be added immediately after this
evaporation loss to raise the windrow to the target moisture content of 60%.
50. Ans: 2080
Sol: Initial masses:
Total incoming mass = 8,000 kg.
Initial water = 0.50 × 8,000 = 4,000 kg.
Initial dry solids (DS) = 8,000 − 4,000 = 4,000 kg.
Evaporation before addition:
Loss = 1.0% of wet mass = 0.01 × 8,000 = 80 kg.
Assume all loss is water; DS unchanged.
Water after loss = 4,000 − 80 = 3,920 kg.
Wet mass after loss = DS + water = 4,000 + 3,920 = 7,920 kg
Water to reach 60% MC:
Let x = water to add (kg).
Final water = 3,920 + x.
Final wet mass = 4,000 + 3,920 + x = 7,920 + x.
Target MC condition: (3,920 + x)/(7,920 + x) = 0.60.
x = 2080 kg
51. A wastewater treatment plant has an effluent flow rate of 3200 m³/day that must be disinfected.
Laboratory tests indicate that using a chlorine dosage of 12 mg/L, the reduction in micro-organism
count can be modeled by Nt=N0e−0.12t; where Nt is the number of organisms at time t (minutes) and
N0 is the initial count. What is the minimum volume (in m³) required for the disinfection unit to
achieve a 99% kill (i.e., only 1% remaining) of micro-organisms?
51. Ans: 85.2 Range: 84 to 86
Nt
Sol: = e −0.12t
N0
0.01 = e–0.12t
ln(0.01) = –0.12t
− n (0.01) 4.605
t= = = 38.375 min
0.12 0.12
Q = 3200 m3/day = 3200(24  60) = 2.222 m3/min
V = Q  t = 2.222  38.375 = 85.2 m3

52. A satellite sensor captures imagery with a spatial resolution of 10 meters. If the image size is 2048
× 2048 pixels, the approximate ground area covered by a single image in square kilometers
is_________(2 decimals)
52. Ans: 41.96
Sol: Each pixel represents a 10 m × 10 m area → area per pixel = 100 m2
Total pixels = 2048 × 2048 = 4,194,304
Total ground area = 4,194,304 × 100 m2 = 419,430,400 m2
419,430,400
Convert to km2: = 419.43 km2
1,000,000

53. In a plane table survey, a point B is located 120 meters from station A. The scale of the map is
1:2000, the length of line AB plotted on the drawing sheet is ______ cm.(1decimal)
53. Ans : 6
Sol: Scale = 1:2000 → 1 cm on map = 2000 cm on ground = 20 m
Ground distance AB = 120 m
Convert to map length:
120
Map length = = 6 cm
20
54. Consider the following data related to a construction project

Normal Crash
Activity
Time Cost Time Cost

P (1 – 2) 5 800 4 1200

Q (2 – 3) 3 600 2 700

R (2 – 4) 7 900 5 1200

S (3 – 4) 4 800 2 1200

The minimum extra amount required to reduce the project duration by 1 day is _________
rupees.

54. Ans: 250


Sol:
Activity Cost slope
1200 − 800
P = 400
5−4
100
Q = 100
1
300
R = 150
2
400
S = 200
2
Path Duration
P–R 12
P–Q–S 12
For crashing
Option Cost slope
P(5) R(7)
P 400 1 2 4

Q&R 100 + 150 = 250 Q(3) S(3)

R&S 150 + 200 = 350


3

Minimum extra amount = 250


55. Which of the following statements related to tension members as per IS 800:2007 are correct?
Statements:
(A) The tensile yielding strength of a member is calculated using the gross area of the section.
(B) The tensile rupture strength is calculated using the effective net area, which accounts for shear
lag.
(C) Block shear failure involves a combination of tension failure along one plane and shear failure
along another.
(D) The design axial tensile strength of a member is taken as the largest of the values obtained
from yielding, rupture, and block shear checks.
55. Ans: (A), (B) & (C)
Sol: a Correct: Yielding is based on gross area.
b Correct: Rupture uses net area, accounting for shear lag.
c → Correct: Block shear is a combined mode (shear + tension).
d → Incorrect: The least of the three strengths governs the design, not the largest.

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