---------------------------------data base management system----------------------------------------

. What is the full form of DBMS?

a) Data of Binary Management System
b) Database Management System
c) Database Management Service
d) Data Backup Management System
2. What is a database?
a) Organized collection of information that cannot be accessed, updated, and managed
b) Collection of data or information without organizing
c) Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and managed
d) Organized collection of data that cannot be updated
3. What is DBMS?
a) DBMS is a collection of queries
b) DBMS is a high-level language
c) DBMS is a programming language
d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
4. Who created the first DBMS?
a) Edgar Frank Codd
b) Charles Bachman
c) Charles Babbage
d) Sharon B. Codd
5. Which type of data can be stored in the database?
a) Image oriented data
b) Text, files containing data
c) Data in the form of audio or video
d) All of the above
6. In which of the following formats data is stored in the database management system?
a) Image
b) Text
c) Table
d) Graph
7. Which of the following is not a type of database?
a) Hierarchical
b) Network
c) Distributed
d) Decentralized
8. Which of the following is not an example of DBMS?
a) MySQL
b) Microsoft Acess c) IBM DB2
d) Google
9. Which of the following is not a feature of DBMS?
a) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
b) High Level of Security
c) Single-user Access only
d) Support ACID Property
10. Which of the following is a feature of the database?
a) No-backup for the data stored
b) User interface provided
c) Lack of Authentication
d) Store data in multiple locations
11. Which of the following is not a function of the database?
a) Managing stored data
b) Manipulating data
c) Security for stored data
d) Analysing code
12. Which of the following is a function of the DBMS?
a) Storing data
b) Providing multi-users access control
c) Data Integrity
d) All of the above
13. Which of the following is a component of the DBMS?
a) Data
b) Data Languages
c) Data Manager
d) All of the above
14. Which of the following is known as a set of entities of the same type that share same
properties, or attributes?
a) Relation set
b) Tuples
c) Entity set
d) Entity Relation model
15. What is information about data called?
a) Hyper data
b) Tera data
c) Meta data
d) Relations
16. What does an RDBMS consist of?
a) Collection of Records
b) Collection of Keys
c) Collection of Tables
d) Collection of Fields
17. The values appearing in given attributes of any tuple in the referencing relation must
likewise occur in specified attributes of at least one tuple in the referenced relation,
according to _____________________ integrity constraint.
a) Referential
b) Primary
c) Referencing
d) Specific

18. _____________ is a hardware component that is most important for the operation of a
database management system.
a) Microphone
b) High speed, large capacity disk to store data
c) High-resolution video display
d) Printer

19. The DBMS acts as an interface between ________________ and ________________ of

an enterprise-class system.
a) Data and the DBMS
b) Application and SQL
c) Database application and the database
d) The user and the software

20. The ability to query data, as well as insert, delete, and alter tuples, is offered by
____________
a) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
b) DCL (Data Control Language)
c) DDL (Data Definition Langauge)
d) DML (Data Manipulation Langauge)

21. ______________ is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify
a record.
a) Primary Key
b) Foreign key
c) Super key
d) Candidate key

22. Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL?

a) Drop table
b) Delete
c) Purge
d) Remove

23. Which of the following set should be associated with weak entity set for weak entity to
be meaningful?
a) Neighbour set
b) Strong entity set
c) Owner set
d) Identifying set

24. Which of the following command is correct to delete the values in the relation teaches?
a) Delete from teaches;
b) Delete from teaches where Id =’Null’;
c) Remove table teaches;
d) Drop table teaches;

25. Procedural language among the following is __________

a) Domain relational calculus
b) Tuple relational calculus
c) Relational algebra
d) Query language

26. _________________ operations do not preserve non-matched tuples.

a) Left outer join
b) Inner join
c) Natural join
d) Right outer join

27. Which forms have a relation that contains information about a single entity?
a) 4NF
b) 2NF
c) 5NF
d) 3NF

28. The top level of the hierarchy consists of ______ each of which can contain _____.
a) Schemas, Catalogs
b) Schemas, Environment
c) Environment, Schemas
d) Catalogs, Schemas

29. _______ indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a
relationship.
a) Greater Entity Count
b) Minimum cardinality
c) Maximum cardinality
d) ERD

30. The user IDs can be added or removed using which of the following fixed roles?
a) db_sysadmin
b) db_accessadmin
c) db_securityadmin
d) db_setupadmin

31. Why the following statement is erroneous?

SELECT dept_name, ID, avg (salary)

FROM instructor

GROUP BY dept_name;

a) Dept_id should not be used in group by clause

b) Group by clause is not valid in this query
c) Avg(salary) should not be selected
d) None

32. The traditional storage of data organized by the customer, stored in separate folders in
filing cabinets is an example of ______________ type of ‘database’ management system.
a) Object-oriented database management system
b) Relational database management system
c) Network database management system
d) Hierarchical database management system

33. After groups have been established, SQL applies predicates in the ___________ clause,
allowing aggregate functions to be used.
a) Where
b) Having
c) Group by
d) With

34. Which of the following is not the utility of DBMS?

a) Backup
b) Data Loading
c) Process Organization
d) File organization

35. What does a foreign key combined with a primary key create?
a) Network model between the tables that connect them
b) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connects them
c) One to many relationship between the tables that connects them
d) All of the mentioned

36. Which of the following is correct according to the technology deployed by DBMS?
a) Pointers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
b) Cursors are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
c) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
d) Triggers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency

37. Which of the following is correct regarding the file produced by a spreadsheet?
a) can be used as it is by the DBMS
b) stored on disk in an ASCII text format
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
38. What is the function of the following command?

Delete from r where P;

a) Clears entries from relation

b) Deletes relation
c) Deletes particular tuple from relation
d) All of the mentioned
39. ______ resembles Create view.
a) Create table . . . as
b) Create view as
c) Create table . . .like
d) With data
40. The query specifying the SQL view is said to be updatable if it meets which of the
following conditions?
a) select clause contains relation attribute names but not have expressions, aggregates, or
distinct specification
b) from clause has 1 relation
c) query does not have group by or having clause
d) All of the mentioned
41. When the “ROLLUP” operator for expression or columns within a “GROUP BY” clause is
used?
a) Find the groups that make up the subtotal in a row
b) Create group-wise grand totals for the groups indicated in a GROUP BY clause
c) Group expressions or columns specified in a GROUP BY clause in one direction, from right
to left, for computing the subtotals
d) To produce a cross-tabular report for computing subtotals by grouping phrases or columns
given within a GROUP BY clause in all available directions
42. Which of the following is the best way to represent the attributes in a large db?
a) Dot representation
b) Concatenation
c) Relational-and
d) All of the mentioned
43. Which of the following is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle
Structures, including tables?
a) Data Described Language
b) Data Retrieval Language
c) Data Manipulation Language
d) Data Definition Language
44. Which of the following functions construct histograms and use buckets for ranking?
a) Ntil()
b) Newtil()
c) Rank()
d) All of the mentioned
45. __________ command is used in SQL to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and
GRANT statements in a single transaction.
a) CREATE CLUSTER
b) CREATE PACKAGE
c) CREATE SCHEMA
d) All of the mentioned
46. Which of the following key is required in to handle the data when the encryption is
applied to the data so that the unauthorised user cannot access the data?
a) Primary key
b) Authorised key
c) Encryption key
d) Decryption key
47. Which of the following is known as the process of viewing cross-tab with a fixed value of
one attribute?
a) Dicing
b) Pivoting
c) Slicing
d) Both Pivoting and Dicing
48. For designing a normal RDBMS which of the following normal form is considered
adequate?
a) 4NF
b) 3NF
c) 2NF
d) 5NF
49. Which of the following is popular for applications such as storage of log files in a
database management system since it offers the best write performance?
a) RAID level 0
b) RAID level 1
c) RAID level 2
d) RAID level 3
50. Which of the following represents a query in the tuple relational calculus?
a) { }{P(t) | t }
b) {t | P(t)}
c) t | P() | t
d) All of the mentioned
51. The oldest DB model is _______________
a) Network
b) Physical
c) Hierarchical
d) Relational
52. Evaluate the statements issued by the DBA in the given sequence if OE and SCOTT are
the users and the ORDERS table is owned by OE.

CREATE ROLE r1;

GRANT SELECT, INSERT ON [Link] TO r1;

GRANT r1 TO scott;

GRANT SELECT ON [Link] TO scott;

REVOKE SELECT ON [Link] FROM scott;

What would be the outcome after executing the statements?

a) The REVOKE statement would give an error because the SELECT privilege has been
granted to the role r1
b) The REVOKE statement would remove the SELECT privilege from SCOTT as well as from
the role r1
c) SCOTT would be able to query the [Link] table
d) SCOTT would not be able to query the [Link] table
53. Which of the following establishes a top-to-bottom relationship among the items?
a) Relational schema
b) Network schema
c) Hierarchical schema
d) All of the mentioned
54. A major goal of the db system is to minimize the number of block transfers between the
disk and memory. Which of the following helps in achieving this goal?
a) Secondary storage
b) Storage
c) Catalog
d) Buffer

55. What happens if a piece of data is stored in two places in the db?
a) Storage space is wasted & Changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency
b) In can be more easily accessed
c) Changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency
d) Storage space is wasted

56. The logical design, and the snapshot of the data at a given instant in time is known as?
a) Instance & Relation
b) Relation & Schema
c) Domain & Schema
d) Schema & Instance
____________________________sql server db----------------------------------------------------
1. What is SQL Server?
a) SQL Server is a relational database management system
b) SQL Server is a software whose main purpose is to store and retrieve data
c) SQL Server is a highly secure server and does not allow any database file manipulation
during execution
d) All of the mentioned
2. When was the first version of Microsoft SQL Server released?
a) 1991
b) 1990
c) 1988
d) 1983
3. Which of the following is a free database software running free SQL Server technology?
a) SQL Server Web
b) SQL Server Enterprise
c) SQL Server Workgroup
d) SQL Server Express
4. Which of the following companies originally worked together to create and market the
first version of SQL Server?
a) Sybase
b) Ashton-Tate
c) Microsoft
d) All of the Mentioned
5. What is the Codename for SQL Server 2012?
a) Katmai
b) Denali
c) Hekaton
d) Kilimanjaro
6. Which was the first version of SQL Server to introduce in-memory capability?
a) SQL Server 2005
b) SQL Server 2008
c) SQL Server 2012
d) SQL Server 2014
7. Which of the following data type is not present in SQL Server?
a) geography
b) hierarchyid
c) boolean
d) bit
8. Which database is used by SQL Server Agent for scheduling alerts and jobs, and recording
operators?
a) temp
b) model
c) msdb
d) master
9. SQL Server has mainly how many types of views?
a) four
b) three
c) one
d) two
10. Which of the following is not a SQL Server INFORMATION_SCHEMA view?
a) sys.dm_exec_connections
b) INFORMATION_SCHEMA.KEY_COLUMN_USAGE
c) INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DOMAIN_CONSTRAINTS
d) INFORMATION_SCHEMA.CONSTRAINT_TABLE_USAGE
11. Which of the following joins are SQL server default?
a) Inner
b) Equi
c) Outer
d) None of the Mentioned
12. Which of the following is not a class of constraint in SQL Server?
a) UNIQUE
b) NOT NULL
c) CHECK
d) NULL
13. Which of the reasons will force you to use the XML data model in SQL Server?
a) Order is inherent in your data
b) Your data is sparse or you do not know the structure of the data
c) Your data represents containment hierarchy
d) All of the Mentioned
14. What is the hybrid model in SQL Server?
a) Using XML with views
b) Using XML with triggers
c) Combination of relational and XML data type columns
d) Combination of relational and non relational data type columns
15. Which of the following feature of SQL Server was used before XML technology for semi
structured data?
a) In memory database
b) Stored Procedure
c) Dynamic management views
d) None of the mentioned
16. Which of the following language is used for procedural flow in SQL Server?
a) Control-of-flow language
b) Flow language
c) Control language
d) None of the mentioned
17. Exception handling is possible in SQL Server using _____________
a) FINAL
b) FINALLY
c) THROW
d) All of the mentioned
18. Which of the following stored procedure is already defined in SQL Server?
a) System defined Procedure
b) CLR Stored Procedure
c) Extended Procedure
d) User Defined Stored Procedure

19. DML triggers in SQL Server is applicable to _____________

a) Update
b) Delete
c) Insert
d) All of the mentioned

20. User defined function in SQL Server can return ____________

a) Result set
b) Scalar value
c) Set of values
d) All of the mentioned

21. Which of the stored procedure is used to test the SQL injection attack?
a) xp_reg
b) xp_write
c) xp_regwrite
d) all of the mentioned

22. Which is the default field terminator for bulk insert in SQL Server?
a) Brackets
b) Parenthesis
c) Full stop
d) Comma

23. Which of the following is the main feature of dotConnect for SQL Server?
a) Supports the latest versions of SQL Server
b) Extra data binding capabilities
c) Ability of monitoring query execution
d) All of the mentioned
24. Which of the following is used to overcome the Replication in SQL Server?
a) Availability problems
b) Maintenance problems
c) Performance problems
d) All of the mentioned
25. When you _______ an Access table from a SQL Server, SSMA restores the original Access
table and its data.
a) unlink
b) import
c) link
d) all of the mentioned
26. Which of the following SQL Server tools is used to enhance data management and
governance?
a) SSDT
b) OBEII
c) SSIT
d) All of the mentioned
27. Backing up your SQL Server database is essential for _______ your data.
a) replication
b) protecting
c) preventing
d) none of the mentioned
28. Which of the following is the instance of SQL Server that is your production server in log
shipping?
a) secondary server
b) primary server
c) secondary database
d) primary database
29. Which of the following pair of technology is supported in SQL Server?
a) Mirroring and Clustering
b) Mirroring and Log Shipping
c) Mirroring and Replication
d) All of the mentioned
30. Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of SQL Server Authentication mode?
a) Allows SQL Server to support Web-based applications where users create their own
identities
b) Allows SQL Server to support older applications and applications provided by third parties
that require SQL Server Authentication
c) SQL Server Authentication cannot use Kerberos security protocol
d) None of the mentioned

31. Which of the following operation requires to run the SQL Server Setup on the node?
a) Update
b) Add
c) Remove
d) All of the mentioned
32. Which of the following tool is used for purpose of data auditing for SQL Server only?
a) Idera
b) ApexSQL
c) SQL Ninja
d) SQL Audit
33. Which of the following is the benefit of SQL Server Profiler?
a) Correlating performance counters to diagnose problems
b) Capturing the series of Transact-SQL statements that lead to a problem
c) Finding and diagnosing slow-running queries
d) All of the mentioned
34. Which of the following catalog view is used for SQL Server Extended Events?
a) sys.server_event_session_actions
b) sys.server_sessions
c) sys.server_event_sess
d) all of the mentioned

______________________mysql---------------------------------------------------------------------

1. What is MySQL?
a) An operating system
b) A relational database management system (RDBMS)
c) A programming language
d) A web server

2. What does “MySQL” stand for?

a) My Sequence Query Language
b) My Structured Query Language
c) Mine Sequence Query Language
d) My Special Query Language
3. Who developed MySQL?
a) MySQL AB
b) Microsoft
c) Oracle Corporation
d) Sun Microsystems

4. Which type of database management system is MySQL?

a) Network
b) Object-oriented
c) Relational
d) Hierarchical

5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of MySQL?

a) To store and retrieve data
b) To create user interfaces
c) To build websites
d) To manage file systems

6. Which query language does MySQL use?

a) NoSQL
b) JavaScript
c) Structured Query Language (SQL)
d) MongoDB Query Language

7. Which is the MySQL instance responsible for data processing?

a) MySQL server
b) SQL
c) MySQL client
d) Server daemon program

8. MySQL is commonly used as the database component in which software stack?

a) LAMP
b) MERN
c) JAM
d) MEAN

9. How are identifiers quoted in MySQL?

a) double quotes
b) backticks
c) can’t be quoted
d) single quotes

10. Which of the following is case sensitive in MySQL?

a) Column names
b) Event names
c) Logfile group names
d) Indexes

11. What is ‘xyz’ in the following SQL statement?

SELECT abc FROM xyz;

a) database name
b) row name
c) table name
d) column name

12. Which storage engine enables to access tables from a MySQL server managed by
another server?
a) MyISAM
b) FEDERATED
c) EXAMPLE
d) InnoDB

13. What is data in a MySQL database organized into?

a) Tables
b) Networks
c) Objects
d) File systems

14. Which operator is used to perform integer divisions in MySQL?

a) /
b) DIV
c) \
d) //

15. Which of the following options tells MySQL to ask for entering the password?
a) -u
b) -p
c) -h
d) -e

16. Which statement can be used to specify the sql_mode system variable at runtime?
a) ASSIGN
b) SET
c) CHANGE
d) SPECIFY

17. The command to move the cursor to the beginning of line in MySQL input editor is?
a) Ctrl-E
b) Ctrl-A
c) Ctrl-D
d) Esc-a

18. Which of the following does not support a materialized view?

a) PostgreSQL
b) Oracle
c) MySQL
d) SybaseSQL

19. What is x in the following MySQL statement?

DELETE FROM x USING x LEFT JOIN y ON [Link] = [Link];

a) column name
b) server name
c) database name
d) table name

20. Which command is used for taking “server side help” in MySQL command line tool?
a) /h
b) /c
c) /e
d) None of the mentioned

21. What is the role of “CONSTRAINTS” in defining a table in MySQL?

a) Declaring Foreign Key
b) Declaring primary key
c) Restrictions on columns
d) All of the mentioned

22. Which Clause is used to select a particular table in MySQL?

a) ALTER
b) SELECT
c) FROM
d) WHERE

23. Which data type is used to store data and time in MySQL?
a) Temporal data type
b) Char/Varchar
c) Text data type
d) Numeric data type

24. What is def in the following MySQL statement?

CREATE TRIGGER abc (...) (...) ON def FOR EACH ROW ghi;
a) trigger name
b) table name
c) trigger statement
d) update statement

25. To check how MySQL would execute a SELECT query, which statement is used?
a) EXPLAIN
b) SHOW
c) DISPLAY
d) TELL

26. Which of the following are the valid “database datatypes” in MySQL?
a) Temporal
b) Numerical
c) All of the mentioned
d) Text

27. What is the meaning of “EMPTY SET” in the following MySQL command?

SELECT fname, lname, person_id

FROM person

WHERE lname=’s’;

/* after Execution*/ Mysql tool RETURNS EMPTY SET 0:00sec

a) Access denied
b) No values
c) Error
d) None of the mentioned

28. Which of these is not used to connect to the MySQL server?

a) mysqlcheck
b) mysql
c) mysqladmin
d) mysql_upgrade

29. Which of the following can be used interchangeably with MYSQL_VERSION_ID?

a) MYSQL_VERSION_ID
b) MYSQL_ID
c) LIBMYSQL_VERSION
d) LIBMYSQL_VERSION_ID

30. Which mode prevents MySQL from performing a full check of date parts?
a) ALLOW_DATES_INVALID
b) STOP_DATES_CHECK
c) PREVENT_DATE_CHECK
d) ALLOW_INVALID_DATES

31. What is the most important configurable resource for MyISAM?

a) speed cache
b) time cache
c) key cache
d) memory cache

32. Which upgrade involves exporting existing data using mysqldump?

a) logical
b) inplace
c) system
d) illogical

33. What enables read and execute access to all users outside of the MySQL group?
a) drwxrwxr-x
b) drwxrwxr-y
c) drwyrwyr-y
d) drwyrwyr-x

34. What is the hub of a MySQL installation?

a) mysqlc
b) mysqld
c) mysqla
d) mysqlb

35. Where does MySQL Enterprise Backup record details of each backup?
a) backup_history
b) backlog_history
c) history_backup
d) history_backlog

36. Which of the following is not a valid MySQL aggregate function?

a) MAX
b) COUNT
c) ADD
d) AVG

37. Which classes do spatial data types in MySQL correspond to?

a) ClosedGIS
b) ClosedGSS
c) OpenGIS
d) OpenGSS
38. What does mysql_fetch_row() return?
a) integer
b) pointer
c) structure
d) float

39. What is the meaning of the “SELECT” clause in MySQL?

a) Show me all rows
b) Show me all columns
c) Show me all Columns and rows
d) None of the mentioned

40. Which MySQL clause is used to combine rows from two or more tables?
a) JOIN
b) COMBINE
c) MERGE
d) UNION

41. What will be the result of the following MySQL command?

SELECT emp_id,

‘ACTIVE’ AS STATUS,

emp_id * 3.14 AS emp_pi,

UPPER (lname) AS last_name

FROM employee;

a) emp_id, ACTIVE, emp_id * 314, UPPER(lname)

b) emp_id, Status, emp_pi, last_name
c) Error
d) None of the mentioned

42. What will be the output of the following MySQL statement “true AND Null”?
a) Null
b) True
c) None of the mentioned
d) Depend

43. Which clause is similar to the “HAVING” clause in MySQL?

a) FROM
b) WHERE
c) SELECT
d) None of the mentioned
44. Which of the following MySQL data types can hold large amounts of data such as text?
a) INT
b) ENUM
c) BLOB
d) VARCHAR

45. What does the function mysql_num_rows() return?

a) A pointer to the result set
b) The number of rows in a result set
c) The current row in a result set
d) The number of columns in a result set

46. What will be the order of sorting in the following MySQL statement?

SELECT emp_id, emp_name

FROM person

ORDER BY emp_id, emp_name;

a) Sorting {emp_name, emp_id}

b) None of the mentioned
c) Sorting {emp_id, emp_name}
d) Sorting {emp_id} but not emp_name

47. What does the function mysql_fetch_assoc() return?

a) Array of associative key-value pairs
b) Array of indexed values
c) Boolean value
d) String

48. Which privileges are required on the source server to use mysqldbcopy?
a) UPDATE
b) CREATE
c) SELECT
d) INSERT