--------------------------------------Software Engineering--------------------------------------------

_______________________ ISO 9001 and CMM_________________________

1. CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model

3. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be

a) deleted
b) eliminated
c) identified
d) eliminated and identified

4. .CO policy in CMM means

a) The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
d) The planning practices in Commitment to Perform

5. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.

a) collection
b) maintenance
c) verification
d) dis-positioning
6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?
a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing

7. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are
described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management

8. Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording
design reviews and qualification tests?
a) CMM
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9000-3
d) None of the mentioned

9. The CMM emphasizes

a) continuous process improvement
b) the need to record information
c) the need to accept quality system
d) none of the mentioned

10. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified
and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9000-4
c) CMM
d) All of the mentioned

_________________________________Software Quality Assurance____________

1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned

2. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group

4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned

5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution

6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing

7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned

8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process
so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned

9. What is not included in prevention costs?

a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance

______________Process Improvement_________________________

1. “Robustness” answers which of the following description?

a) CASE tools be used to support the process activities
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the
software
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
2. “Understandability” answers which of the following description?
a) The extent to which the process is explicitly defined
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the
software product
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
4. How many stages are there in process improvement?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

5. In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?

a) Process measurement
b) Process analysis
c) Process change
d) None of the mentioned

6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?
a) Informal
b) Managed
c) Methodical
d) Supported

7. The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is
called
a) Process metric
b) Process analysis
c) Process modelling
d) None of the mentioned

9. What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?

a) Deliverable
b) Activity
c) Condition
d) Process

10. What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and
engineers?
a) Role
b) Exception
c) Activity
d) Process

11. Which of the following is not a part of process change?

a) Introducing new practices, methods or processes
b) Introducing new team members to existing project
c) Introducing or removing deliverable
d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities
13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x?
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

_____________________________Software Maintenance – 1________________

1. Software Maintenance includes
a) Error corrections
b) Enhancements of capabilities
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d) All of the mentioned

2. Maintenance is classified into how many categories ?

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

3. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls
under which category of software maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive

4. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model?

a) six
b) seven
c) eight
d) nine

5. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?

a) Regression Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) Unit Testing

7. Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all”[Link]

many selective retest techniques are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

8. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to
produce a different output than its original version?
a) Coverage
b) Minimization
c) Safe
d) Maximization

9. ______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle

realistic applications.
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness

10. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
________________________________________Software Maintenance -2_____

1. The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as

a) Software engineering
b) Software re-engineering
c) Reverse engineering
d) Re-engineering

2. What is a software patch?

a) Required or Critical Fix
b) Emergency Fix
c) Daily or routine Fix
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which one of the following is not a maintenance model?

a) Waterfall model
b) Reuse-oriented model
c) Iterative enhancement model
d) Quick fix model

4. What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for software maintenance?
a) Actual change track
b) Annual change track
c) Annual change traffic
d) Actual change traffic

5. Choose the suitable options with respect to regression testing.

a) It helps in development of software
b) It helps in maintenance of software
c) It helps in development & maintenance of software
d) none of the mentioned

6. What are legacy systems?

a) new systems
b) old systems
c) under-developed systems
d) none of the mentioned

7. Which of the following manuals is not a user documentation?

a) Beginner’s Guide
b) Installation guide
c) Reference Guide
d) SRS

8. Which of the following manuals is a user documentation?

a) SRS -Software Requirement Specification
b) SDD -Software Design Document
c) System Overview
d) None of the mentioned

9. The process of transforming a model into source code is known as

a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse engineering
c) Re-engineering
d) Reconstructing

10. How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement model used during software
maintenance?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

_________________________Software Management________________
---------------------------------------Project Management----------------------------
1. What is the primary goal of project management?
a) To satisfy all stakeholders
b) To maximize profits
c) To ensure the project is the most innovative
d) To complete the project on time and within budget

2. What is a project scope?

a) The project’s timeline
b) The project’s goals and deliverables
c) The project’s risk management plan
d) The project’s budget

3. Which of the following is not a goal of project management?

a) Avoiding customer complaints
b) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
c) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
d) Keeping overall costs within budget

5. Which of the following is not considered a risk in project management?

a) Testing
b) Specification delays
c) Product competition
d) Staff turnover

6. What is the term for the process that a project manager follows throughout the entire life
of a project?
a) Manager Life Cycle
b) Project Management
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

7. How is a 66.6% probability of risk typically categorized?

a) Very low
b) High
c) Low
d) Moderate

8. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) All of the mentioned
c) Travel and training costs
d) Effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
9. What is the focus of quality planning in project management?
a) For the team
b) For the project
c) For the project manager
d) For the customers

10. What is the first step in the project management process?

a) Initiating the project
b) Monitoring project progress
c) Defining project risks
d) Planning the project timeline

11. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Version management
b) System management
c) Change management
d) Internship management

12. Which sub-process is part of process improvement?

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) Process distribution
d) De-processification

14. What is a Gantt chart used for in project management?

a) Resource allocation
b) Budget planning
c) Risk management
d) Scheduling tasks and tracking progress

15. Which method focuses on delivering work in short iterations and continuous
improvement?
a) PERT
b) Agile
c) Waterfall
d) Critical Path Method

16. What is risk management in project management?

a) The process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks
b) The process of training team members
c) The process of increasing the project budget
d) The process of controlling project scope changes
17. Why is communication important in project management?
a) To reduce project costs
b) To ensure transparency and collaboration among stakeholders
c) To avoid project delays
d) To limit task documentation

18. What is a project stakeholder?

a) A person or group that has an interest in the project’s outcome
b) A person responsible for executing tasks
c) A person who evaluates the project’s performance
d) A person who funds the project

19. What is the purpose of a Project Manager’s role?

a) To work only on the planning phase
b) To oversee the project’s progress and deliver results
c) To handle technical tasks only
d) To ignore stakeholder feedback

20. What does the term ‘project deliverables’ refer to?

a) The project’s financial budget
b) The time allocated for each task
c) The resources needed for the project
d) The end results or outputs of the project

21. What is the purpose of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

a) To only focus on deadlines
b) To track financial expenses
c) To break down project work into manageable tasks
d) To limit team collaboration

22. What does SMART stand for in project management goals?

a) Simple, Manageable, Accurate, Reliable, Timely
b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound
c) Sustainable, Measurable, Agile, Reliable, Timely
d) Systematic, Measurable, Achievable, Risk-free, Timely

23. Which document includes the project timeline, milestones, and deliverables?
a) Stakeholder Register
b) Risk Register
c) Communication Plan
d) Project Schedule

24. What is Project Budget Management?

a) Allocating, monitoring, and controlling costs
b) Prioritizing administrative tasks
c) Ignoring project expenses
d) Minimizing communication channels

25. What is the primary role of a Project Sponsor?

a) To exclude stakeholder interactions
b) To manage daily project tasks
c) To provide funding and high-level support
d) To document administrative tasks

26. Which technique helps estimate the duration and dependencies of tasks in a project?
a) Checklist Method
b) SWOT Analysis
c) Brainstorming
d) PERT (Program Evaluation Review Technique)

27. What is the purpose of a Project Kick-off Meeting?

a) To eliminate stakeholder participation
b) To introduce project goals, deliverables, and roles
c) To focus only on administrative tasks
d) To ignore team contributions

28. What is the primary output of the planning phase in project management?
a) The final deliverable
b) A detailed project plan
c) Stakeholder analysis
d) A project timeline

29. What is a Project Dependency?

a) A requirement where one task relies on the completion of another
b) Ignoring project constraints
c) Tasks that can be completed without any coordination
d) A document with only technical constraints

30. What is the purpose of a Status Report in project management?

a) To disregard timelines
b) To avoid project deliverables
c) To limit team interactions
d) To update stakeholders on project progress and milestones

31. What is earned value management (EVM)?

a) A technique to track project progress in terms of scope, time, and cost
b) A tool for tracking project team performance
c) A method to evaluate stakeholder satisfaction
d) A method to measure the financial health of the project

32. Which of the following is a common reason for project failure?

a) Clear project goals and timelines
b) Insufficient planning and poor communication
c) Proper resource allocation
d) Regular stakeholder meetings

33. What does ‘project closeout’ involve?

a) Setting new project goals
b) Conducting market research
c) Completing deliverables and finalizing documentation
d) Identifying project risks

34. What is a project timeline used for?

a) Scheduling tasks and tracking progress
b) Assessing project risks
c) Analyzing stakeholder engagement
d) Defining the project budget

35. What is the purpose of a project status report?

a) To announce project cancellation
b) To request additional funding
c) To define project scope
d) To inform stakeholders about the project’s progress

36. What is a change request in project management?

a) A formal proposal to alter the project scope or deliverables
b) A request to postpone project milestones
c) A request for additional resources
d) A meeting for discussing project risks

37. What is the main purpose of a project risk assessment?

a) To establish the project budget
b) To allocate resources for project tasks
c) To evaluate stakeholder satisfaction
d) To identify potential risks and develop mitigation strategies

38. What does the term ‘Milestone’ mean in project management?

a) A temporary task assignment
b) A significant event or deadline
c) A team member’s personal achievement
d) A physical product of the project
_________________Project Planning______________________
1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of
estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty

2. What describes the data and control to be processed?

a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity

3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to

requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned

4. CLSS stands for

a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification

5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software
functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned

6. The environment that supports the software project is called

a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE

7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort
estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially

valuable estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands

_______________________Size and Cost Estimation of Software__________________

1. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff

3. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned

4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software
metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application
domain have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or
database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

8. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement

9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have
been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

10. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components
or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

______________________________Empirical Estimation Models--------------------------

1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of
LOC or FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
b) Process-Based Estimation
c) COCOMO
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

3. COCOMO stands for

a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model

4. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic
software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned

5. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping
of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of
performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which one is not a size measure for software product?

a) LOC
b) Halstead’s program length
c) Function Count
d) Cyclomatic Complexity

[Link] was developed initially by

a) [Link]
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) [Link]
d) Gregg Rothermal

8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on

a) Cost
b) Time
c) Schedule
d) None of the mentioned

9. COCOMO-II was developed at

a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California
c) MIT
d) IIT-Kanpur
10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
a) Early design estimation model
b) Application Composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model

___________________Software Risks and Identification_______________________

1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which one is not a risk management activity?

a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned

3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential
magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?

a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?

a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

6. Which of the following is not a business risk?

a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection

8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty
that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk

_________________Requirement Documentation________________________
1. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements
Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable

2. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a

standard is maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily
while retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other

4. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?

i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned

5. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.

a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is included in SRS ?

a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule

7. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?

a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces

8. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii

9. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs
of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct

10. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file
character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous

11. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human
interface.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous