10-02-2026

7601CMD303036250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) In the given circuit current through the zener diode is :-

(1) 30 mA
(2) 24 mA
(3) 36 mA
(4) 6 mA

2) In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote

holes and electrons respectively. The material is : -

(1) A p-type semiconductor

(2) An insulator
(3) A metal
(4) An n-type semiconductor

3) Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached

(1) OR
(2) NAND
(3) NOR
(4) AND

4) The combination of the gates shown represents-

(1) AND gate

(2) OR gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate

5) The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in

the circuit ?

(1) 1.71 A
(2) 2A
(3) 2.31 A
(4) 1.33 A

6) Find output wave form :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The electric field through an area of 2 m2 varies with time as shown in the graph. The greatest

displacement current through the area is at :

(1) t = 1 sec.
(2) t = 4 sec.
(3) t = 8 sec.
(4) t = 12 sec.

8) In the given electromagnetic wave Ey = 600 sin (ωt – kx) Vm–1, intensity of the associated light
beam is (in W/m2); (Given ∈0 = 9×10–12C2N–1m–2)

(1) 486
(2) 243
(3) 729
(4) 972

9) The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by The energy

2
contained in a cylinder of cross-section of 10 cm and length 50 cm along X-axis will be _______

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations :

and

.
Their amplitudes are in the ratio of :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) None of the above

11) In a photoelectric experiment, the potential difference V, that must be maintained between the
illuminated surface and the collector so as just to prevent any electron from reaching the collector,
is determined for different frequencies f of the incident illumination. The graph obtained is
shown. The maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted at frequency f1 is :-

(1) hf1

(2)

(3) h (f1 – f0)

(4) eV1(f1 – f0)

12) Light of wavelength 5000Å and intensity 40 W/m2 is incident on a light sensitive surface, if 1%
photons of incident light cause emission of the photoelectrons, then how many electrons will be
emitted from 1m2 area of the surface in one second-

(1) 1016
(2) 1018
(3) 1020
(4) 1022

13) In the following diagram if |V2| > |V1| then :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
14) If K.E. of a particle is increased 16 times the parcentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of
particle is :-

(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 60%
(4) 50%

15) For the stability of any nucleus :-

(1) Binding energy per nucleon will be more

(2) Binding energy per nucleon will be less
(3) Number of electrons will be more
(4) Number of electrons will be less

16) The above is a plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against the
nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different nuclei. Consider four reactions :
(i) A + B → C + ε (ii) C → A + B + ε
(iii) D + E → F + ε (iv) F → D + E + ε
where ε is the energy released. In which reactions is ε positive ?

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

17) Consider the following two reactions, then atomic number and mass number of nucleus X and Y
:–
(i) 92U235 + 0n1 → X + 35Br85 + 3 0n1
(ii) 3Li6 + 1H2 → Y + 2He4

(1) (i) 57,148 (ii) 2 , 4

(2) (i) 57, 151 (ii) 4, 4
(3) (i) 60, 148 (ii) 4, 2
(4) (i) 60, 15 (ii) 3, 4

18) If the binding energy per nucleon of deuteron is 1.115 MeV, its mass defect in atomic mass unit
is :-

(1) 0.0048
(2) 0.0024
(3) 0.0012
(4) 0.0006

19) In the nuclear reaction . If mass of the deuterium atom = 2.014741 u, mass
3
of 2He atom = 3.016977 u and mass of neurtron = 1.008987 u then Q value of the reaction is nearly
:-

(1) 0.00352 MeV

(2) 3.27 MeV
(3) 0.82 MeV
(4) 2.45 MeV

20) A radioactive nucleus undergoes α-emission to form a stable element. What will be the recoil
velocity of the daughter nucleus if V is the velocity of α-emission and A is the atomic mass of
radioactive nucleus :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) For the given reaction, the particle X is -

→ 5B11 + β+ + X
11
6C

(1) Neutron
(2) Anti neutrino
(3) Neutrino
(4) Proton

22) What is the wavelength of the least energetic photon emitted in the Lyman series of the
hydrogen atom spectrum ?

(1) 150 nm
(2) 122 nm
(3) 102 nm
(4) 82 nm

23) Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
is:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of
wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of
the photon will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The wavelength of most energetic X-rays emitted when a metal target is bombarded by 40 keV
electrons, is approximately :-

(1) 300 Å
(2) 10 Å
(3) 4 Å
(4) 0.31 Å

26) Graph of total number of α-particles scattered at different angles is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) The radius of the smallest orbit of electron in hydrogen-like ion is metre; then
it is :-

(1) hydrogen atom

(2) H+
(3) Li2+
(4) Be3+

28) The binding energy per nucleon of Na23 is 7.68 MeV and Na24 is 7.48 MeV. The energy (in MeV)
required to remove the extra neutron from Na24 is very nearly equal to :-

(1) 2.88
(2) 3.7
(3) 3.9
(4) 5

29) For a particle undergoing SHM, the velocity is plotted against displacement. The curve will be:-

(1) a straight line

(2) a parabola
(3) a circle
(4) an ellipse

30) Assertion : When a particle is at extreme position performing SHM, its momentum is equal to
zero.
Reason : At extreme position the velocity of particle performing SHM is equal to zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

31) Assertion : Acceleration is proportional to the displacement; this condition is not sufficient for
motion in simple harmonic.
Reason : In simple harmonic motion, direction of displacement is also considered.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

32) A particle executes simple harmonic motion according to equation 4 . Its time
period of oscillation is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A particle executes SHM according to equation x = 10(cm) cos , where t is in seconds.

The magnitude of the velocity of the particle at t = s will be :-

(1) 24.7 cm/s

(2) 20.5 cm/s
(3) 28.3 cm/s
(4) 31.4 cm/s

34) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations y1 = 0.1 sin and y2
= 0.1 cos100πt. The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1, with respect to the velocity of
particle 2 is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A mass m is suspended from a weightless spring and it has time-period 'T'. The spring is now
divided into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of these parts. The now time
period will be :-

(1) T
(2) T/2
(3) 2T
(4) T/4
36) The total spring constant of the system as shown in the figure will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following, choose the wrong

statement :

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity
(3) Points C and G has zero velocity
(4) Points A and E have minimum velocity

38) For wave speed is :-

(1) 330 m/sec

(2) 660 m/sec
(3) 165 m/sec
(4) zero

39) Statement-1: Two waves given by equations : y1(x, t) = 2a sin (ωt – kx) and y2(x, t) = a sin (2ωt
– 2kx) will have equal intensity.
Statement-2: Intensity of waves propagating in same medium is proportional to square of
amplitude only.

(1) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 true; statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement -2 is not correct explanation of statement-1.

40) Two sound waves (expressed in CGS units) given by and

interfere. The resultant amplitude at a place where phase difference is

π/2 will be

(1) 0.7 cm
(2) 0.1 cm
(3) 0.5 cm

(4)

41) A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe are tuned to the same fundamental frequency. What
is the ratio of lengths ?

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 4 : 3

42) Ratio of amplitudes of two waves is 3:4. The ratio of maximum and minimum intensity obtained
from them will be :

(1) 7:1
(2) 49:1
(3) 1:25
(4) 5:1

43) A point source of electro magnetic radiation has an average power output of 1540 W. Then the
intensity of electro magnetic radiation at a distance of 7 meter will be:-

(1) 250 W/m2

(2) 2.5 W/m2
(3) 0.25 W/m2
(4) 25 W/m2

44) Threshold wavelength of a metal surface is

5 × 10–10 m. When it is illuminated by light of wavelength 2 × 10–10 m , stopping potential is V0. What
will be stopping potential if wavelength of light is doubled :-

(1)

(2) 2V0
(3) > (0.5 V0)
(4) < (0.5 V0)

45) For nuclear reaction :

235
92U + 0n1 → 56Ba144 + ..........+3 0n1

89
(1) 26Kr
89
(2) 36Kr
90
(3) 26Sr
89
(4) 38Sr

CHEMISTRY

1) In which of the following reaction, 2º alcohol is obtained as major product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

2) The major product formed in the following reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3) In the above reaction product (B) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)
X & Y should be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Identify the major products A and B respectively in the following reactions of phenol.
(1)

and

(2)

and

(3)

and

(4)

and

6) Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reaction.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) Among the following which has highest boiling point ?

(1) Butane-1-ol
(2) Butan-2-ol
(3) Propan-1-ol
(4) Pentan-1-ol

8) Match List-I and List-II

List-I List-II

A (i) SnCl2 + HCl

B (ii) Zn-Hg/Conc. HCl

C (iii) H2/Pd-BaSO4

D R—CN → R—CHO (iv) Cl2/Red-P

(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)

9) Statement-I :- Picric acid is 2, 4, 6-Trinitro toluene.

Statement-II :- Phenol-2, 4-disulphuric acid is treated with conc. HNO3 to get picric acid.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

10)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following reactions does not hold true when carried out in the presence of heated
copper at 300°C?

(1) Phenol Benzyl alcohol

(2) Primary alcohol Aldehyde
(3) Secondary alcohol Ketone
(4) Tertiary alcohol Olefin

12) Which of the following reaction represent correct product-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) Assertion :- The product formed by the reaction of C6H5—CH2—O—CH3 with HI are C6H5—CH2I
and CH3—OH.
Reason :- Benzyl cation is more stable than methyl cation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

14) Match the compounds given in column I with the name reactions given by them in column II and
select the correct option given below:

Column I Column II

A Phenol I Etard

B Acetic acid II Canniozzaro

C Formaldehyde III Reimer-Tiemann

D Toluene IV Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

15) Which of the following alcohol reacts fastest with Lucas reagent?

(1) CH3 – CH2 – OH

(2)

(3)

(4)
16) and are readily distinguished by their reaction with :-

(1) Iodine and alkali

(2) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(3) Tollen's reagent
(4) All the above

17) The reduction of benzoyl chloride with H2 / Pd-BaSO4 gives :-

(1) C6H5CHO
(2) C6H5CH2OH
(3) C6H5COOH
(4) C6H5CH2CN

18) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with conc NaOH solution gives:-

(1) Ph –CH2OH and HCOONa

(2) PhCOONa and CH3OH
(3) PhCOONa and HCOONa
(4) PhCH2OH and CH3OH

19) Match the following :-

(I) (II)
(Identification of) (Suitable reagent)

p 1°, 2° and 3° amines a Brady's reagent

q 1°, 2° and 3° alcohol b Hinsberg reagent

Carbonyl
r c Lucas reagent
compounds
(1) (p-b), (q-c), (r-a)
(2) (p-c), (q-a), (r-b)
(3) (p-a), (q-b), (r-c)
(4) (p-c), (q-b), (r-a)

20) Find out the compound which not give fehling test.

(1) CH3–CH2–CHO
(2) CH3–CHO

(3)

(4) H–CHO
21) Which of following pair can not be seperated by using NaHSO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

22) The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence

CH3CH2OH A B C
are given by the set

(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(2) C2H5Br, CH≡CH, CH2C=HBr
(3) C2H5Br, CH2=CH2, CH2Br—CH2Br
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, BrCH2—CH2Br

23) Acetaldehyde on warming with Fehling's solution gives a red precipitate of :-

(1) Elemental copper

(2) Cuprous oxide
(3) Cupric oxide
(4) Mixture of all of the above

24) Acetone is obtained by the hydrolysis of the addition product of methyl magnesium iodide and :-

(1) HCHO
(2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH3–C≡N

25)
Identify B:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

26)

Which of the following gives positive iodoform test ?

(1) Ph–CHO

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) In the reaction, the product C is

(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Acetylene
(3) Ethylene
(4) Acetyl chloride

28) Assertion : Alcohols have higher boiling points than ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Reason : Alcohols and ethers are isomeric in nature.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) The assertion and reason both are false.

29) The major product formed in the reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) In a set of reactions, ethyl benzene yielded a product D

'D' would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) In which of the following reaction Benzaldehyde is not formed ?

(a) CH3 – CN

(b)
(c) CH3MgBr + CO2
(d)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) c, d
(4) b, c, d

32) Match the following list-I with list-II:

List - I List - II
(Conversion) (Reagent)

(A) Hexane Hexanal (p)

(B) Ethane nitrile Ethanal (q)

(C) Cyclohexanol Cyclohexanone (r) dust

(D) But -2-ene Ethanal (s) DIBAL - H

A B C D

(1) p q r s

(2) s r q p

(3) p s q r

(4) r q s p
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Cinnamaldehyde can be obtained by Aldol condensation of :-

(1)

(2) CH3CHO + CH3COCH3

(3)

(4)

34) How many Grignard reagents are consumed in the following compound ?
(1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

35) Ph–COOH + C2H5 Major product major product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) An organic compound having molecular formula C5H10O gives positive DNP test, It can be formed
by ozonolysis of a symmetric alkene and does not give sodium bisulphite test, the compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The correct order of reactivity of the compounds towards nucleophillic addition is :-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) I > IV > II > III
(4) I > IV > III > II

38) Rosenmund reduction cannot be used for the preparation of:

(1) C6H5CHO
(2) CH3CHO

(3)

(4) HCHO

39) Which product is formed when the compound is treated with concentrated KOH
solution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Identify A, B and C ?

(1) CHI3, C6H5–COOH, C6H5–COONa

(2) C6H5–COONa, I2, C6H5–CHO
(3) CHI3, C6H5–COONa, C6H5–COOH
(4) CHI3, C6H5–COONa, C6H5–CHO

41) Major product will be:-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following product

/intermediate product will not be formed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Cannizzaro reaction does not take place with -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
44) Compound (B) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (3)

45) Benzoic acid can be prepared by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
PhMgBr
(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) In a cross F2 generation offspring show seven different types of phenotypes while the different
genotypes are :-

(1) 9
(2) 16
(3) 27
(4) 8

2) 'Chromosomal theory of inheritance' is proposed by :-

(1) Sutton and Boveri

(2) Morgan
(3) Sturtevant
(4) Bateson

3) Test cross is a cross between :-

(1) Hybrid × Dominant parent (Tt × TT)

(2) Hybrid × Recessive parent (Tt × tt)
(3) Hybrid × Hybrid (Tt × Tt)
(4) All of the above

4) Choose incorrect statement :-

(1) Closely located genes produce very few recombinants.

(2) Distantly located genes produce higher recombinants than closely located genes.
(3) 50% recombinants produced show results similar to independent assortment.
(4) Tightly linked genes produce more recombinants than loosely linked genes.

5) Select the wrong match.

(1) Sickle cell anaemia - Substitution of valine by glutamic acid

(2) Haemophilia - Gene present on allosome
(3) Thalassemia - Both α & β globlin chains are affected
(4) Phenylketonuria - Hair and skin pigmentation is also affected

6) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A : Multiple alleles are formed due to mutations.
Statement B : Heterozygous parent produces two kinds of gametes each having one allele with
equal proportion.

(1) Only statement A is incorrect.

(2) Only statement B is incorrect.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

7) Mark true (T) or false (F) for the statements given below and select the correct option.
(A) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene.
(B) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.
(C) A single gene product never produce more than one effect.

A B C

(1) T T F

(2) F T T

(3) T F F

(4) F F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Match the columns (w.r.t frequency of phenotypes produced in mating between two mulattos)
 Column - I Column - II
(Phenotype) (Frequency)

i Mulatto a Fifteen

ii Very light brown b One

iii Dark brown c Twenty

iv Negro black d Six

(1) i - d ; ii - a; iii - b ; iv - c
(2) i - c ; ii - d ; iii - a ; iv - b
(3) i - a ; ii - d; iii - c ; iv - b
(4) i - c ; ii - d; iii - b ; iv - c

9) How many statement(s) given below are correct for the following figures? a. b.

i) (a) and (b) are female and male flies respectively

ii) They complete their life cycle in about two weeks
iii) They can't be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory
iv) They have many hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscope

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

10) If Mendel has chosen to study traits determined by linked genes he would not have discovered

(1) Law of segregation

(2) Law of dominance
(3) Law of independant assortment
(4) Law of unit character

11) In Drosophila crossing over occurs in female but not in male. Gene A and B are 10 map unit

apart on chromosome. A female Drosophila with genotype and male Drosophila with genotype

. How many type of gametes are produced by female and male Drosophila respectively

(1) 4 types : 2 types

(2) 2 types : 2 types
(3) 4 types : 4 types
(4) 4 types : one types

12) In a marriage between male with blood group A and female with blood group B, the progeny had
either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of parents ?

(1) IAi (Male) : IBIB(Female)

(2) IAIA (Male) : IBIB(Female)
(3) IAIA(Male) : IBi (Female)
(4) IAi (Male) : IBi (Female)

13) A normal visioned man whose father was colour-blind marries a woman whose father was also
colour blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would
be colour-blind?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) Zero percent

14) Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in
the given example ?

(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds.

(2) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(3) XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines male sex.
(4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

15) In a dihybrid cross between AABB and aabb the ratio of AABB, AABb, aaBb, aabb in F2
generation is :-

(1) 9:3:3:1
(2) 1:1:1:1
(3) 1:2:2:1
(4) 1:1:2:2

16) Which statement is not correct ?

(i) Male individual is hemizygous for autosomal character
(ii) Seven Mendelian characters genes are located in chromosome number 1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th
(iii) Unmodified allele produce normal enzyme.
(iv) Skin colour is humans is an example of Polygenic inheritance
(v) In pea plant Green pod colour is a dominant character

(1) i, ii
(2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv, v

17) ABO blood group in human there are A different allele & there are B different genotype
:-

(1) A-3, B-6

(2) A-6, B-3
(3) A-4, B-6
(4) A-6, B-4

18) Assertion :- In co-dominance and incomplete dominance, the genotypic and phenotypic ratios
are same in F2 generation.
Reason :- In case of co-dominance, the F1 generation is not resembles with any parents.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

19) Select an incorrect match

(1) Phenylketonuria–Autosomal recessive disorder

(2) Duchennes Muscular dystrophy–Allosomal recessive disorder
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome–Sex chromosomal disorder
(4) Myotonic dystrophy–Autosomal recessive disorder

20) All genes located on haploid set of chromosome:-

(1) Form one linkage group

(2) Will not form any linkage group
(3) Always show incomplete dominance
(4) Always show co-dominance

21) Multiple alleles can be found only when : ––

(1) Population studies are made

(2) Individual study is made
(3) Mutation is absent
(4) Dominance is present

22) When red and white flowred Mirabilis plants are crossed all pink flowers are seen in F1
generation. When F1 progeny is selfed, the expected phenotypic and genotypic ratios are

(1) 1 : 2 : 1 and 3 : 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1

23) If both the parents are carriers of sickle cell anaemia. What is the probability of carrier progeny
produced from them?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Read the following statements.

(A) A tall pea plant is test crossed to determine its genotype and it produced all tall plants. It is
clear that the test plant is homozygous for the height character
(B) To determine the genotype of a F1 plant, it is crossed with dominant parent.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement A is true, while statement B is false
(4) Statement A is false, while statement B is true

25) Who proposed various concepts like linkage, sex linkage and Criss-cross inharitance

(1) W. Bateson
(2) A. Garrod
(3) [Link]
(4) G.J. Mendel

26) Incomplete dominance is seen in which of the following characters ?

(1) Flower colour in Antirrhinum majus

(2) Flower colour in Snapdragon
(3) Size of starch grain in pea plant
(4) All of the above

27) In which of the following instances, both phenotypic and genotypic ratio’s are similar?

(1) F2 generation of incomplete dominance

(2) F2 generation of co-dominance
(3) Test cross progeny
(4) More than one options correct

28) The disease phenylketonuria, which occurs in human is caused by mutation in gene that codes
for

(1) Tyrokinase
(2) Carboxymutase
(3) Phenyl alanine hydroxylase
(4) Phenyl pyruvate kinase

29) In a monohybrid cross, 120 plants are obtained. The ratio of homozygous and heterozygous in F2
generation will be

(1) 40 : 80
(2) 60 : 60
(3) 20 : 100
(4) 10 : 110

30)

Organism of below figure is not related with

(1) Female has a pair of dissimilar chromosomes zw.

(2) Male has a pair of similar chromosomes zz.
(3) One of the species Andalusian fowl show's codominance in feather colour.
(4) Female chromosome determines sex.

31) In which of the following condition phenotype may not be affected ?

(1) When modified allele produce a normal enzyme-

(2) When modified allele produces a non-functional enzyme.
(3) When the unmodified allele produces no enzyme.
(4) All the above

32) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour

33) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 6 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced?
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 2
(4) 64

34) In certain plant species, red flower colour is incompletely dominant to white flower colour (the
hetrozygote is pink) and tall stems are completely dominant to dwarf stems. If the pink plant (TtRr)
is crossed with a tall white plant(TTrr), which of the following types of plants would be produced in
the offsprings?

(1) Dwarf pink and tall red

(2) Tall pink and tall white
(3) Dwarf red and tall pink
(4) Tall pink and dwarf white

35) Variation helps in -

(1) Formation of new species

(2) Evolution
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

36) A heterozygous round seeded pea plant is crossed with wrinkled seeded pea plant. How many
plants produces wrinkled seeds out of 2000 progenies obtained?

(1) 1000
(2) 500
(3) 1500
(4) 750

37) Which of the following is not characteristic of klinefelter's syndrome?

(1) It is due to presence of an additional copy of X chromosome resulting into karyotype XXY.
(2) Chromosome number becomes 45.
(3) Gynaecomoestia is expressed in males.
(4) Such an individual has overall masculine development.

38) Assertion (A) :- Emasculation is required in Pea plant for cross hybridisation.
Reason (R) :- Pea plant has bisexual flowers.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

39) Select the correct statement for thalassemia-

(1) Thalassemia is due to qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
(2) Thalassemia is a autosomal-linked dominant blood disease.
(3) Thalassemia is due to decreased production of RBC.
(4) In thalassemia decreased synthesis of β-polypeptide chain of halmoglobin.

40) Statement-1 : The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as
a measure of the distance between genes was explained by Alfred Sturtevant.
Statement-2 : A unit distance between genes on chromosome representing as a centimorgan unit
[NCERT Pg : 83]

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

41) A single gene that controls the expression of more than one trait is said to show

(1) Multiple allelism

(2) Polygenic Inheritance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Pleiotrpism

42) Identify the correct set of statements:

(A) Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a problem of synthesising an
incorrectly functioning globin while the latter is a problem of synthesising too few globin molecules.
(B) Alpha Thalassemia is observed due to mutation or deletion of one or more of the four genes
(C) Alpha Thalassemia is controlled by two genes HBA1 and HBA2 present on chromosome 16 and
11 respectively.
(D) Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a qualitative problem while the
latter is a quantitative problem of haemoglobin synthesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A , B , C, D - all are correct.

(2) B only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A and D only

43) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Henking could trace a specific nuclear structure all through spermatogenesis in insects
In human a pair of x-chromosome are present in the female, whereas the presence of an X and Y
(2)
chromosome are determinant of male characteristic.
(3) Eggs fertilized by sperm having are x-chromosome become male
(4) In human beings and in Drosophila the males have one X and one Y chromosome.

44) Given pedigree chart show which type of inheritance :-

(1) X-linked recessive
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

45) Blue eye colour in human is recessive to brown eye colour. The expected children of a marriage
between a blue eyed woman and a brown eyed man who had a blue eyed mother will be-

(1) All black eyed

(2) All blue eyed
(3) All brown eyed
(4) One blue eyed and one brown eyed

46) Diagram showing ringworm affected area of skin. Which given pathogen is not related with

disease?

(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) Wuchereria

47) Typhoid is caused by

(1) bacteria
(2) virus
(3) Protozoa
(4) Fungus

48) Which of the following option is true related to production and functions of a molecule which is a
glycoprotein and represented as H2L2 ?

Produced by Functions

(1) T-killer cell cellular immunity

 (2) B cells inflammation

(3) NK cells phagocytosis

(4) Plasma cells opsonization

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Match the column :

Column I Column II

Haemophilus
(a) Ascariasis (i)
influenzae

Ascaris
(b) Amoebiasis (ii)
lumbricoides

Break Bone Entamoeba

(c) (iii)
fever histolytica

(d) Pneumonia (iv) Flavi-arbo

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

50) Read the statements and choose the correct option.

I. Secretion of interferons is a physiological barrier of innate immunity.
II. T-lymphocytes are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
III. Injection given against snake venom is a type of active immunisation.
IV. Antibodies produced during allergic reactions are of IgE type.

(1) I and II are correct

(2) II and IV are correct
(3) I is correct
(4) II is correct

51) Metastasis is :-

(1) Rapid division in cancer cells

(2) Regeneration of cancer cells
(3) Spread of cancer cells to new sites
(4) All of the above

52) Mark the correct statement(s) with respect to Natural Killer cell:-

(1) They are a part of innate cellular barrier

(2) NK cells release cytotoxic granules of perforins
(3) They are non phagocytic cells
(4) All of these

53) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity ?

(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
(2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes
(3) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
(4) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes

54) Interferon and interleukin are included under:

(1) Physical
(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

55) Colostrum provides the infant with

(1) Auto immunity

(2) Passive immunity
(3) Active immunity
(4) Innate immunity

56) Innate immunity is non-specific defense present from the time of birth. It consists of

(1) Skin, mucus coating of the epithelium

(2) Neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, natural killer cells.
(3) Interferons, cytokines
(4) All of the above

57) In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are caused by :-

(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Toxoplasma
(3) Fungi
(4) All of these

58) How many statements are correct about common cold?

(A) It is caused by rhino virus.
(B) Infection of alveoli of the lungs.
(C) Symptoms are nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache,
tiredness.
(D) Usually last for 2–3 days.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

59) The period between _____ of age may be thought of as adolescence period.

(1) 18-21 yrs.

(2) 12-21 yrs.
(3) 12-18 yrs.
(4) 18-25 yrs.

60) An antibody has how many heavy chains and light chains?

(1) 2, 4
(2) 4, 2
(3) 2, 2
(4) 1, 2

61) The factor which has effect on health is:

(1) Genetic disorders

(2) Infections
(3) Life style
(4) All of the above

62) Which scientist disapproved the "Good humor hypothesis"?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Indian Ayurvedic System of Medicine
(3) William Harvey
(4) Both (1) and (2)

63) Rheumatoid Arthritis is a :-

(1) Bacterial infection

(2) Auto-immune disorder
(3) Viral infection
(4) Allergy

64)

Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder:-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

65) Anamnestic response is-

(1) Feeble
(2) Low intensified
(3) Highly intensified
(4) Primary response

66) True about cannabis products (Bhang, Charas, Ganja, Marijuana and Hashish) is :

(1) Inhibition of transport of dopamine

(2) Act on cardiovascular system.
(3) Useful as pain killer in surgical patients
(4) All of the above

67) Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. below figure-

(1) Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels

(2) Swelling of scrotum in males
(3) Deformity of external genitalia
(4) Swelling of salivary glands and smaller joints

68) Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases?

(1) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles

(2) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
(3) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(4) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis

69) Common cold differs from pneumonia as

(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus whereas common cold is caused by a bacterium

Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas common cold affects nose and respiratory passage
(2)
but not the lungs
(3) Pneumonia is a non-communicable disease whereas common cold is a communicable disease
(4) None of these.

70) A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in
malarial fever, is –

(1) Interferon
(2) Haemozoin
(3) Hirudin
(4) Colostrum

71) During the life cycle of plasmodium, sexual reproduction taken place in which of the following
hosts?

(1) Human
(2) Female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Male Anopheles mosquito
(4) Both (1) and (2)

72)

Which of the following is correctly related about this diagram?

(a) Datura
(b) Hallucinogen
(c) Heroin
(d) White odourless bitter crystalline compound (e) Interfere with the transport of dopamine (f)
Diacetyl morphine
(g) Papaver somniferum
(1) a, b, e
(2) d, e, f, g
(3) c, d, f, g
(4) a, c, d, e

73)

The following table shows certain diseases, their causative organisms and symptoms. Choose the
option which correctly fills the gaps in the table :-
 Causative
Name of disease Symptoms
organism

Ascariasis Ascaris ______(A)

Appearance of
dry, scaly
______(B) Trichophyton lesions on
various parts of
body

Nasal
congestion and
______(C) Rhino virus discharge, sore
throat,
cough, headache

Inflammation of
Filariasis ______(D)
lower limbs
A – Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and blockage of intestinal passage
(1)
C – Pneumonia
B – Ringworm
(2)
D – Wuchereria
A – High fever, stomach pain, constipation headache and loss of appetite
(3)
C – Common cold
B – Athlete's food
(4)
D – Dracunculus medinensis

74) Read the following statements (A - D)

(A) When people are healthy they are more efficient at work
(B) Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance of
certain humors
(C) William Harvey thought that persons with 'blackbile' belonged to hot personality and would have
fevers
(D) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host.
How many of the above statements are false ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

75) When pathogen enters inside the body firstly it encounters with ?

(1) Antibody
(2) B-cell
(3) Mucosa
(4) Helper T-Cell

76) Dengue and Entamoeba histolytica is respectively transmitted through ?

(1) Culex bite and sweat
(2) Female anopheles and contaminated water
(3) Aedes mosquito and contaminated food & water
(4) Contaminated food & mosquito bite

77) How many pair is/are correctly matched ?

(a) Malaria – Female Anopheles
(b) Diphtheria – Mycobacterium leprae
(c) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(d) Pneumonia – Rhino virus

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) b & d
(4) a & c

78) Which one of the following sets includes only viral diseases ?

(1) Ringworm, AIDS, Common cold

(2) Typhoid, Tuberculosis, Dengue
(3) Dengue, AIDS, Common cold
(4) Dysentry, AIDS, Common cold

79) Lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour in severe cases of ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Common cold
(3) Dysentery
(4) Pneumonia

80) After entering the human body sporozoites first go to :-

(1) RBC
(2) Salivary gland
(3) Liver
(4) Brain

81) Which of the following is not used to reduce symptoms of allergy ?

(1) Adrenaline
(2) Cortisol
(3) Histamine
(4) Cetrizine

82) The antibody which can cross placental barrier is:-

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgG

83) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the symptoms of
______.

(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ringworm
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Amoebiasis

84) Mark the incorrect statement :-

(1) The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B-cell to produce them
(2) Wuchereria is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of female Culex vector
(3) Haemozoin (toxic substance) is associated with Malaria
After getting into the body of the person, HIV releases its ssDNA into macrophages where DNA
(4)
genome of virus replicates to form viral RNA with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase

85) Find odd one out about disease causative agent

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Common cold
(3) Plague
(4) Diphtheria

86) Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where
all blood cells, including lymphocytes, are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

87) How many of the following statement(s) is/are true about cancer ?
(A) Proto oncogene could lead to transformation of the cells and cause cancer.
(B) Ionizing radiations like UV cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation.
(C) Best technique & safest technique for cancer detection is MRI & radiotherapy respectively.
(D) Metastasis is the most feared property of benign tumor.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

88) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of acquired immunity ?

(1) Diversity
(2) Discrimination between self and non self
(3) Memory
(4) Non-specific

89) Read the following statement (A–E) and select the correct option for Filariasis. (A) Gross
deformities in genital organs and nervous system
(B) Also known as elephantiasis which caused by filarial worm
(C) Its vector is house-fly
(D) Slowly developing chronic inflammation usually of lymphatic vessels of lower limbs
(E) It is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti that is a protozoan parasite.

(1) B, C, D are correct

(2) A, C, E are incorrect
(3) C, D, E are correct
(4) A, B, D, E are incorrect

90)

Hepatitis B vaccine produced from

(1) Virus
(2) Yeast
(3) Bacteria
(4) Protozoan
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 1 1 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 1 4 4 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 1 2 2 4 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 1 2 4 1 3 1 4 4 3 1 1 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 4 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 2 4 1 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 1 1 3 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 3 3 4 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Conceotual

2) Question Explanation : An energy band diagram for an unknown material is shown below,

here, Open Circles ⇒ Holes

and, Filled Circles ⇒ Free Electrons
We need to identify the material.
Concept : Energy band theory
Solution : Before examining the options, we should know that :-

A. The diagram must show the conduction band (CB) well above the valance band (VB).
B. The diagram that places the impurity (acceptor) level just above the VB represents the p-type
Extrinsic Semiconductor.
C. The diagram that puts the impurity (donor) level just below the CB represents the n-type
Extrinsic Semiconductor.
D. The diagram with no impurity level represents the Intrinsic Semiconductor.
E. The diagram in which the VB & CB overlap represents the Conductor.
F. The diagram in which the gap between the VB & CB is very large and with no carriers in
allowed bands represents the Insulator.

Now, as we can see in the given energy band diagram, the impurity (acceptor) level just above the
VB. So the desired material is the p-type Extrinsic Semiconductor.

Final Answer : Option (1)

3)

Theory based

4)

Y=
 =
= AB
= AND gate

5)

Explain Question:
To find the current flowing in the given circuit.

Concept:
In reverse bias diode does not conduct.

Solution:

Rnet = 6Ω

Final Answer: Option (2)

6) For +10 V input, diode is in F.B. so it will be short circuited and since both resistance are
equal so 10 V equally divide in both 2kΩ
So, output voltage across 2kW will be 5V.
For –10V input, D is R.B. So it will be open circuited so output voltage will be zero.

7) id =
∴ more the rate of change of electric field,
more is the displacement current.

8)

Intensity =

= × 9 ×10–12 × (600)2 × 3 × 108

= × 36 × 3 = 486 W/m2

9)

Explain the Question : The energy of an electromagnetic wave is distributed in space and
depends on the average energy density multiplied by the volume considered.
Concept : This question is based on energy density of an electromagnetic wave.
Solution :
Given
E0 = 50 N/C
Cross-sectional area A = 10 cm2 = 1 × 10–3 m2
Length L = 50 cm = 0.5 m

Final answer : 1

10)

Conceptual

11)

Explain the Question : We are asked to find the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
emitted when the incident frequency is f1.
Concept : This question is based on Einstein photoelectric equation.
Solution:
ϕ = hf0
kmax = hf1 – hf0
kmax = h(f1 – f0)
Final answer : 3

12)
= 1020 photon/m2s
Efficiency 1% so no. of electron emitted per m2 per sec.

= 1018/m2s

13)

V2 > V1
ν 2 > ν1
So λ1 > λ2

14)

Explain the Question : The question asks how much the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle
changes, in percentage, if its kinetic energy is increased by 16 times.

Concept: This question is based on De-Broglie wavelength

Solution :
Let initial kinetic energy = K, initial wavelength = λ
After increase :
K' = 16 K
New wavelength :

Decrease in wavelength :

Percentage change :

(The wavelength decreases by 75%)

Final answer : Option (2)

15)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking what condition makes a nucleus stable. It gives
several options related to binding energy per nucleon and the number of electrons, and asks
which one correctly describes the stability of a nucleus.

Underlying Concept: The core concept here is nuclear stability, which depends on the
binding energy per nucleon. Binding energy is the energy that holds the nucleus together. A
nucleus is more stable if its average binding energy per nucleon is higher, meaning the
nucleons (protons and neutrons) are more tightly bound.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that nuclear stability is directly related to binding energy per
nucleon - the higher, the more stable.

Common Mistakes: Confusing electrons with nucleons when considering nuclear stability, or
thinking that lower binding energy means more stability.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options about the number of electrons are incorrect
because electrons do not affect nuclear stability. Also, having less binding energy per nucleon
implies weaker nuclear forces and less stability, so those options are wrong.

16)

If final binding energy per nucleon is more than initial BEPN then energy is released.

17)

Question Explanation : Two nuclear reactions are as follows :

(i) 92 U235 + 0n1 → + 35Br85 + 3 0n1

(ii) 3Li6 + 1H2 → + 2He4

Find : z1 , A1 , z2 , A2 = ?

Concept : Nuclear reaction balancing

Solution :
For the given reaction (i) :
On balancing the atomic number ⇒ 92 + 0 = z1 + 35 + 3(0)

⇒ 92 = z1 + 35 + 0

⇒ z1 = 57

On balancing the mass number ⇒ 235 + 1 = A1 + 85 + 3(1)

⇒ 236 = A1 + 85 + 3

⇒ A1 = 148

For the given reaction (ii) :

On balancing the atomic number ⇒ 3 + 1 = z2 + 2

⇒ z2 = 2

On balancing the mass number ⇒ 6 + 2 = A2 + 4

⇒ A2 = 4

Final Answer : Option (1)

18)

Binding energy per nucleon is

For deuteron, A = 2

∴ 1.115 MeV =
Eb = 2 × 1.115 MeV
Eb = ΔMc2
Mass defect,

[∵ 1u = 931.5 MeV/c2]
= 0.0024u

19) Question explanation:

The question asks to calculate the Q-value (energy released) in the given nuclear reaction
using the provided atomic masses.

Concept:
Q-value in Nuclear Reactions

Solution:
Q value

Q= 931.5 × [2(2.014741) – 3.016977 – 1.008987] = 3.27 MeV

Final answer: Option (2)

20) Question Explanation:

The question asks for the recoil velocity of the daughter nucleus after a radioactive nucleus
emits an α-particle.

Concept:
Conservation of Momentum: In an isolated system, the total momentum before and after an
event (like α-emission) remains constant.

Solution:
Total initial momentum = 0 (nucleus at rest)
After emission momentum of alpha particle = momentum of daughter nucleus
pα = pd
4Vα = (A – 4)Vd

∴ Vd = = (Here Vα = V)

Final Answer: Option (1).

21) Explain Question:

In the given nuclear reaction, a nucleus of carbon-11 transforms into boron-11 with emission
of a positron. We must identify the additional particle X emitted to conserve fundamental
quantities.

Concept:
In β+-decay, a proton converts into a neutron with emission of a positron and a neutrino to
conserve energy, momentum and lepton number.

Solution:
By conservation of mass
11 = 11 + 0 + A ⇒ A = 0
By conservation of charge
6=5+1+Z⇒Z=0
is neutrino

Atomic number decreases by 1 → β+ -decay

In β+ -decay, the emitted particles are:
β+ + v
In β+ -decay, the emitted particle 'X' is neutrino (v).

Final answer: Option (3)

22) Question Explanation:

We need to find the wavelength of the least energetic photon emitted due to the transition
spectrum of the orbiting electrons in the Lyman in H-atom.
Concept:
Wavelength of the spectral in Bohe's Model of Hydrogen like Atom.
Formula:

Solution:
In the Lyman spectrum of H-atom, if the emitted photon possesses the least energy, then if
should be associated with the first line of the Lyman Series. So, here-
z=1
nH =2
nL = 1
RH = 1.0973731 × 107 m-1
So,

λ = 1.2150227 × 10–7 m
λ = 121.50227 × 10–9
λ = 122 × 10–9 λ = 122nm

Final answer: Option (2)

23)

24)

Question Explanation : In an H-atom, the transition of an orbiting electron is being taken

place, from higher orbit to lower orbit :
From nH = 3 to nL = 2 → Wavelength of emitted photon= λ
From nH=4 to nL=3 → Wavelength of emitted photon = λ' = ?

Concept : This question is based on wavelength of the spectral lines in Bohr’s Model of
Hydrogen Atom

Formula :

Solution :

Final Answer : Option (1)

25) λmin = = = 0.31 Å

26) Explanation Question:We must choose the correct graph showing how the number of
scattered α-particles varies with scattering angle.

Concept:Rutherford α-particles scattering.

Solution:
Formula: (reference)

,
Large angles → very few α-particles.
Small angles → maximum scattering.
Thus the graph must decrease steeply with angle.

Final Answer: Option (4)

27) For hydrogen-like atom, the radius of nth orbit is

Where r0 = 0.51 × 10–10 metre

Here, metre
In the ground state, n = 1

∴
∴ Z=4
So, the atom is triply ionised beryllium.

28) Na24 —→ Na23 + n

Q = (23 × 7.68 – 24 × 7.48) MeV
= – 2.88 MeV

29)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what the graph looks like when plotting the velocity
of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion (SHM) against its displacement. In other
words, if you place velocity on the vertical axis and displacement on the horizontal axis, what
shape will the resulting curve form?

Underlying Concept: The core concept is Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM), where a particle
oscillates back and forth about an equilibrium position. The displacement varies sinusoidally
with time, and the velocity is the derivative of displacement with respect to time. Using
trigonometric identities, the relationship between velocity and displacement can be expressed
in the form of a conic section - specifically, an ellipse.

Relevant Formulas: 1. Displacement in SHM:

2. Velocity as the time derivative of displacement:

Where: - = amplitude of motion - = angular frequency - = time

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Write down displacement and velocity:

Step 2: Square both:

Step 3: Divide each by squared amplitude and frequency as applicable:

Step 4: Add the two equations, using the identity :

 This is the equation of an ellipse in the - plane.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that plotting velocity versus displacement in SHM typically gives
a conic section. Using known identities helps simplify the analysis quickly. The ellipse form
emerges naturally when combining squared sine and cosine terms.

Common Mistakes: A common error is assuming the plot is a straight line or parabola
without checking the relation between velocity and displacement. Another mistake is not
squaring or properly combining the sine and cosine terms to recognize the elliptical equation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Straight line: Velocity and displacement in SHM are
sinusoidal and phase-shifted by 90 degrees, so their plot is not linear. Parabola: This would
require a quadratic relationship not satisfied here. Circle: Only occurs if angular frequency
, otherwise the axes scale differently, forming an ellipse instead of a circle.

30) Question Explanation:

Determine the correctness of assertion about momentum being zero at extreme

position in SHM.

Concept:

Momentum p = mv ; in SHM, velocity is zero at extreme displacement.

Solution:

At extreme positions (maximum displacement), the particle momentarily stops before

reversing direction, so its velocity v = 0 .

Therefore, momentum p = mv = m(0) = 0 . The reason correctly explains why the momentum
is zero.

Final Answer:

Option (1)

31) Question Explanation: Determine if acceleration proportionality alone guarantees simple

harmonic motion (SHM).

Concept: In SHM, acceleration must be opposite in direction to displacement, not just

proportional.

Solution:

Acceleration proportional to displacement ( a ∝ x) is not sufficient; it must be a ∝ –x . The

reason mentions the direction of displacement is considered in SHM, which explains why
displacement proportionality is insufficient.

Final Answer: Option (1)

 32)

so ω2 = 80
ω=

T= =

33) = –10 (2π) sin (2πt + )

At t=

v = –20π sin = – 20π cos

Magnitude of velocity = 20π = 10π

⇒ v = 31.4 cm/s

34) Explain Question:

Two SHMs ae given by equations for their displacement. find the phase difference between
their velocities

Concept:
This question is based on phase difference.

Solution:
y1 = 0.1sin(100πt + π/3)

⇒ V1 = 0.1 × 100π cos

and y2 = 0.1cos100πt
⇒ V2 = –0.1 × 100 π sin100πt
or V2 = 10 π sin (100πt + π)

Now ϕ12 = ϕ1 – ϕ2 =

Final Answer:
correct option (1)

35) 1. Explanation:

A spring is cut into four equal parts; each part becomes stiffer, changing the time period.

2. Concept:

Cutting a spring into n parts makes the new spring constant k' = nk
 Time period

3. Solution:
Original time period:

T = 2π
Cut into 4 equal parts: k' = 4k

new time period T' = 2π = =

4. Final Answer:
Option (2)

36) Explain the Question : Find total spring constant when two K1 springs are in parallel,
then combined in series with spring K2.
Concept : This question is based on series-parallel combination.
Solution : Two springs K1 in parallel have combined constant :
Kparallel = K1 + K1 = 2K1
This parallel combination is in series with K2, so total spring constant :

Final Answer : (2)

37)

38) Solution
1. Asking About :
The wave speed for the given wave equation:

2. Concept:
The standard wave equation is :

3. Formula :

4. Calculation / Explanation :
 Comparing with y = A sin2(wt–kx), we identify :

Substituting into the formula :

30π π/11 30 x 11330 m/s

5. Final Answer:
v = 330m / s

6. Correct Option: (1) 330 m/sec

39)

Question Explanation :

We need to check the correction of statement-I and statement-2, and also the explanation, about the
intensity of waves.

Concept :

Progressive wave on string (Power and Intensity)

I ∝ (a)2 . (ω)2

Solution :

Given wave equations:

y1 = 2a sin(ωt – kx), y2 = a sin(2ωt – 2kx)
From the intensity formula:
For y1:
I1 ∝ (2a)2ω2 = 4a2ω2
For y2 :
I2 ∝ (a)2 (2ω)2 = a2 × 4ω2 = 4a2ω2

Since I1 = I2, Statement-1 is true.

Statement-2:
It states that intensity depends only on amplitude, but we just saw that frequency also affects
intensity.
Since I ∝ A2ω2, not just A2, Statement-2 is false.

Final answer : Option(2)

40) Resultant amplitude =

41)

Let ℓ1 and ℓ2 be the lengths of closed and open pipes respectively. (Neglecting end correction)
ℓ1 = ⇒ λ1 = 4ℓ1 and ℓ2 = ⇒ λ2 = 2ℓ2

Given n1 = n2 so

42)

43)

2.5 W/m2

44)

Explain Question : To evaluate the stopping potential if wavelength of light is doubled.

Concept : Einstein photoelectric effect equation.

Solution :
[Link] = E – ϕ
Case I
λ = 2 × 10–10m , V0 → Stopping potential

------- (1)
Case II
λ = 4 × 10–10 m , →?

------- (2)
equation (1) divide (2)

Hence

Final Answer: option (4)

45)
 By balancing equation

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explanation: Identify the reaction that yields a 2∘ alcohol as the major product from the given
alkene

Concept: This question is based on hydration of alkene and regioselectivity of hydration.

Solution

(1) (Markovnikov product)

(2) (Markovnikov product)

(3) (Anti-Markovnikov product)

Final Answer : Hence, option (3) is correct.

47)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the major product when a diether
molecule reacts with excess hydroiodic acid (HI) under heating conditions.

Concept : This question is based on Cleavage of Ethers by HI, Nucleophilic Substitution,

Stability of Carbocations.)

Solution : The reaction involves protonation of the ethereal oxygen followed by nucleophilic
attack by I–. The benzylic-type ether cleaves via SN1 mechanism because the resulting benzylic
carbocation is highly stable, leading to a benzylic iodide and methanol.

The aryl-alkyl ether cleaves at the alkyl-oxygen bond via SN2 mechanism because the sp2 C-O
bond of the phenol is too strong to break, resulting in a phenol and ethyl iodide.
Final Answer: Option (3)

48)

49)

50)
51)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

52)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : All options are primary alcohols but only CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH has larger
molecular mass along with ability to form strong intermolecular-H-bonds.
Final Answer : (4)

53)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

54)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Final Answer : (2)

55)

56)

Phenol Benzyl alcohol

57)

58) (SN1 Reaction)

59)

(A) Phenol → Reimer-Tiemann

(B) Acetic acid → Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
(C) Formaldehyde → Canniozzaro
(D) Toluene → Etard
60)

Conceptual

61)

62) Explaination: Identify the product of reduction of Benzol chloride with H2/Pd-BaSO4 ?
Concept: Rosenmund's Reduction.
Solution: It is eontrolled reduction of Benzoyl chloride in presence of Pd-BaSO4.

Final Answer: Option (1)

63) Question Explanation: Find the product when a mixture of Benzaldehyde and
Formaldehyde on heating with aq. NaOH.
Concept: Cannizzaro reaction.
Solution:

0
 Final Answer: Option (1)

64)

Conceptual

65) Question Explanation : The given compound does not give Fehling test.
Concept: Fehling test.
Solution:
In Fehling's test, aldehydes reduce blue Cu²⁺ to red Cu₂O precipitate.
However, aromatic aldehydes like benzaldehyde are not reactive enough in alkaline medium to
reduce Cu²⁺.

Compounds Fehling test

1. CH3 –CH2 –CHO √

2.CH3 –CHO √

3.

4. H–CHO √

Final Answer: Option(3)

66)

Conceptual

67)

Explanation: In given question, we have to find out the products for given reaction.
Concept:
 Answer: (3)

68) Explanation :
The question asks to identify the substance that is formed as a red precipitate when
acetaldehyde is warmed with Fehling's solution.

Concept :
Fehling's Test, Oxidation of Aldehydes, Reduction of Copper Ions, Chemical Tests

Solution :

Fehling's solution is used to detect the presence of aldehydes. It contains copper(II) ions
(Cu2+). When an aldehyde like acetaldehyde is warmed with Fehling's solution, the aldehyde
is oxidized, and the copper(II) ions are reduced to copper(I) ions (Cu+). These Cu+ ions then
form copper(I) oxide (Cu2​O), also known as cuprous oxide. Cu2​O is a solid that precipitates
out of the solution. This precipitate is red in color. Thus, the red precipitate formed is cuprous
oxide.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

69)

70)

Conceptual

71)

72)

73)

Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
74)

75)

76)

Conceptual.

77) Conceptual

78)

79)

80)

Conceptual

81) do not give NaHSO3 test.

82) Reactivity towards NAR

.
⇒ Aldehydes > Ketones.

83) Formyl halide is unstable compound thus

can not be synthesised by rosenmund reduction

84) does not contain α–H so it is cannizaro reaction

85)

CHI3, C6H5–COONa, C6H5–COOH

86)

87)

88)

Conceptual

89) Explaination: Identify the cyclic compound (B) formed the given reaction sequence ?
Concept: Reduction, Intramolecular & NAε.
Solution:

Compound B is cyclic ester.

 Final Answer: Option (1)

90)

Question Explanation:
We need to identify which given reactions can produce benzoic acid.

Concept:
Grignard reaction, Nitrile hydrolysis, Side-chain oxidation

Solution:
• Benzonitrile (C6H5–C≡N) on acidic hydrolysis gives benzoic acid.
• Toluene (C6H5–CH3) on oxidation with hot conc. KMnO4 gives benzoic acid.
• Phenylmagnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with CO2 followed by acidic workup forms benzoic
acid.

All three routes produce benzoic acid.

Final Answer: option (4)

BIOLOGY

91) Module 3 page 198

92) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 81, 5.3.2

93) NCERT XIth Pg # 74 (Para 5.2)

94) NCERT Pg. # 83, para 5.3.3

95)

NCERT Reference:
Biology -XII, Page No.-90 & 91

96) Reference
NCERT Page No.75,78

97) Reference
NCERT Page No.78

98) Allen module P.g : 28

99) NCERT P.g : 83

100) Question Explanation :

If Mendel has chosen to study traits determined by linked genes he would not have discovered

Solution :
If Mendel had studied linked genes, he would not have discovered the Law of Independent
Assortment, because linked genes do not assort independently.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

101)

In Drosophila, crossing over occurs in females but not in males during meiosis. Given that
genes A and B are 10 map units apart, we can calculate the types of gametes produced by both
the female and male Drosophila.
Genotypes:
• Female Drosophila: AB/ab
• Male Drosophila: AB/ab
Female Gamete Production:n the female Drosophila (AB/ab), crossing over can occur between
the two alleles. Given that they are 1 0 map units apart, we can expect some recombination:
1. Parental Gametes: AB and ab
2. Recombinant Gametes: Ab and aB
Frequency of Gametes:
• Since the distance is 10 map units, this corresponds to a recombination frequency of 10%,
meaning that 10% of the gametes will be recombinant (Ab and aB) and 90% will be parental
(AB and ab).
Thus, the female will produce:
• Parental gametes: 90% (AB and ab)
• Recombinant gametes: 10% (Ab and aB)
Total Types of Gametes from Female: 4 types (AB, ab, Ab, aB)
Male Gamete Production:
In the male Drosophila (AB/ab), crossing over does not occur. Therefore, the male can only
produce the parental gametes:
1. Parental Gametes: AB and ab
Since no recombination occurs in males, the male will produce:
• Gametes: AB and ab (100% of gametes are parental)
Total Types of Gametes from Male: 2 types (AB, ab)
Summary :-Female Drosophila: 4 types of gametes (AB, ab, Ab, aB) Male Drosophila: 2 types
of gametes (AB, ab) Male Drosophila: 2 types of gametes (AB, ab)

102)
 Solution -
Question Recap:
• Father's blood group: A
• Mother's blood group: B
• The progeny can have blood group AB or blood group B.
• We need to determine the possible genotypes of the parents.
Step 1: Blood Group Genotypes

A. Blood group A: Genotypes can be either IAIA or IAi.

B. Blood group B: Genotypes can be either IBIB or IBi.
C. Blood group AB: Genotype is IAIB.
D. Blood group 0: Genotype is ii.

Step 2: Possible Gametes

103)

The correct answer is: Zero percent

Correct explanation step-by-step:

A. Father's Genotype: The father has normal vision, but his father (the grandfather) was color-
blind. Since color blindness is X-linked and males have only one X chromosome, the father
must carry the normal chromosome (X) and a Y chromosome (Y). So, his genotype is XY.
B. Mother's Genotype: The mother's father was color-blind, so the mother must have inherited
one color-blind X chromosome (Xc) from her father. Since she has normal vision, her second X
chromosome must be the normal one (X). So, her genotype is xxc.

Now, let's consider the potential offspring.

A. Daughter's Genotype: A daughter inherits one X chromosome from each parent. The father
will always: contribute the X chromosome, and the mother will contribute either the X or the xc
chromosome.

So, the possible combinations for the daughter are:

A. XXc (normal vision but a carrier of the color-blind gene).

B. XX (normal vision and not a carrier)

Since the daughter will always have at least one normal X chromosome (X), she will not be color-
blind.
Thus, the correct answer is: Zero percent chance of being color-blind.

104)

The correct answer is:

2. XO type of sex chromosomes determine male in grasshoppers.
Explanation:
1. Grasshoppers follow the XO sex determination system, where:

A. Females have two sex chromosomes (XX).

B. Males have only one sex chromosome (XO, where "O" means the absence of a second
chromosome).

Hence, XO determines the male sex in grasshoppers.

2. Option 1 (Incorrect):
In birds, females are heterogametic (ZW), and males are homogametic (ZZ). ZZ determines
male, not female.
3. Option3 (Incorrect):
In humans, XO condition leads to Turner syndrome (a female with missing one X chromosome), not
Klinefelter syndrome. Klinefelter syndrome is caused by XXY and results in males.
4. Option 4 (Incorrect):
In Drosophila, sex is determined by the ratio of X chromosomes to autosomes, not the presence of
XO. XX results in females, not males.

105) Question Explanation: Asking about Dihybrid cross.

Concept: Dihybrid cross
Solution:
Parent → AABB x aabb
↓
F1 → AaBb x AaBb
↓
F2 →

AB Ab aB ab
AB AABB AABb AaBB AaBb
Ab AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb
aB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb

AABB = 1
aaBb = 2
AABb = 2
aabb = 1
Final Answer : Option(3)

106) NCERT, Page#70-72

107) NCERT Pg. # 77, para-[Link]

108)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 60, 61

109) NCERT Page-88

110) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 83

111) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 76

112) NCERT pg # 60 (Class-12)

113)

Explain Question – The question asks the probability that two carrier parents of sickle cell
anaemia will produce a carrier child.

Concept – sickle cell is autosomal recessive.

Solution – Cross: HbA HbS × HbA HbS

Genotypes:

A. 1/4 HbA HbA (normal)

B. 1/2 HbA HbS (carrier)

C. 1/4 HbS HbS (diseased)

Probability of carrier progeny = 1/2.

Final Answer - 2

114)

Question Explanation : Statement A and Statement B about test cross and genotype
determination are true or false.

Concept : Mendelian Genetics – Test Cross

Solution :

Statement A

A tall pea plant is test crossed and produces all tall plants, so it is homozygous.
Statement A is TRUE.

Statement B

To determine the genotype of an F₁ plant, it is crossed with dominant parent.

A. Completely incorrect.

B. genotype is determined by crossing with recessive parent, not dominant.

Statement B is FALSE.

Final answer : 3 → Statement A is true, while statement B is false

115)

Explain Question: The question asks the name of a scientist who proposed various concepts
like linkage, sex- linkage and Criss-cross inheritance.

Concept: Linkage.

Solution:

[Link] proposed various concepts like linkage, sex linkage and Criss-cross inheritance.

So, the correct answer is:3.

Final answer: 3.

116)

Explain Question : In which of the given characters incomplete dominance is observed.

Concept : Mendelian Genetics → Deviations from Mendel’s Laws → Incomplete dominance

Solution :

Flower colour in Snapdragon / Antirrhinum majus Shows incomplete dominance → RR (Red), rr

(White), Rr (Pink)

Size of starch grain in pea plant Also shows incomplete dominance at the biochemical level
between RR and Rr

So all given examples involve incomplete dominance.

Final answer : Option (4)

117) NCERT Page: 58, 60, 61

118) NCERT Page: 69

119)

Explain Question:
The question asks about the ratio of homozygous and heterozygous in monohybrid cross when
120 plants are obtained.

Concept:
Monohybrid Cross.

Solution:
In a monohybrid Cross (F2 generation), the genotypic ratio is:
I homozygous dominant : 2 heterozygous : 1 homozygous recessive
So, total homozygous : heterozygous = (1 + 1) : 2 = 2 : 2 = 1 : 1
Out of 120 plants:
Homozygous = 60
Heterozygous : heterozygous = 1 : 1
So, the correct answer is : 2. 60 : 60

Final answer: Option (2)

120)

NCERT page 85

121) Explain Question - In which scemario will the phenotype remain unaffected
Concept - This question Based on the relationship between genotype and phenotype.
Solution -
When modified allele produces a normal enzyme:
If the enzyme is functional the biochemical pathway works fine → No effect on phenotype
Correct option: (1) when modified allele produces normal gene.

122) NCERT pg. # 54

123) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer

124)

125) Variation helps in formation of new species and evolution.

126) Question explanation: To calculate the number of wrinkled-seeded plants produced in a

monohybrid cross.
Concept: Monohybrid test cross.
Solution:
round seed is dominant over wrinkled seed.
Heterozygous round = Rr, wrinkled = rr.

Cross: Rr × rr → offspring ratio = 1 round : 1 wrinkled.

Thus, half of the progeny will have wrinkled seeds.

Out of 2000 plants, wrinkled = 2000 × ​= 1000.

Final Answer: Option (1) 1000 is correct.

127) NCERT XII English

Page-76
Figure-4.17

128)

Question Explanation : The question gives an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) related to
cross-hybridisation in pea plants and asks whether each is true and if the reason correctly
explains the assertion.

Concept : Hybridisation Technique — Emasculation and Bagging

Solution:
Assertion (A):“Emasculation is required in pea plant for cross hybridisation.”
Correct — because to prevent self-pollination, anthers must be removed.
Reason (R): “Pea plant has bisexual flowers.”
Correct — flowers contain both male and female reproductive parts.
Does (R) explain (A)? Yes.
Because pea flowers are bisexual, they can self-pollinate, so emasculation is necessary for
controlled cross-pollination.
Thus (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Final answer : Option (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A)

129) NCERT Page No. 75

130) NCERT Pg. # 83

131) Pleiotrpism

132) NCERT 12th Class : 4.8.2 Mendelian Disorders

133) NCERT, Pg. # 70

 134)

Question Explanation:

Identifying inheritance pattern from a pedigree chart.

Concept:

Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

Solution:

The trait is a recessive disorder as it skips a generation (e.g., the unaffected parents in the
second generation have an affected child in the third). It is autosomal because both males and
females are affected, and an affected female passes the trait to her son, which would not
happen in a sex-linked dominant pattern.

Final Answer:

Option 3: Autosomal recessive

OR

NCERT XII Page No.72

135) Question is Asking About:

The genotype of children
Solution/Explanation:
(a) The blue eyed women, who has the genotype bb
(b) Brown eyed made, whose mother was blue eyed has genotype Bb

Brown eye (Bb) = 50%

Blue eye (bb) = 50%
So their children will have 50% brown and 50% blue eyed hence 4th option is correct.

136)

Fungal
Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity
Disease
 • One of the most common
infectious disease
• Appearance of dry, scaly
lesions on various parts of the
body such as skin, nails and
scalp.
• These lesions are
accompanied by intense
Microsporum
Itching
Ringworms Trichophyton &
• Heat and moisture help these
Epidermophyton
fungi to grow, which makes
them thrive in skin folds such
as those in the groin or
between the toes
• Generally acquired from soil
or by using towels, clothes or
even the comb of infected
individuals

137)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about the causative agent of typhoid.

Concept
Infectious diseases

Solution
Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi, transmitted through contaminated food
and water. It is not caused by viruses, protozoa, or fungi.

Final answer: Option 1

138)

Question Explanation :
Identify the correct production source and function of the H₂L₂ glycoprotein.

Concept :
This question is based on Antibody.

Solution :
The correct answer is option 4.

A. H2L2 refers to the basic structure of antibodies, consisting of two heavy (H) and two light (L)
chains.
B. Plasma cells produce antibodies, which aid in opsonization—marking pathogens for
phagocytosis.T-killer cells → Cellular immunity → Incorrect, as
C. T-killer cells mediate cellular immunity, but do not produce antibodies. B cells → Inflammation
→ Incorrect, as
D. B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibodies, but do not directly mediate
inflammation. NK cells → Phagocytosis → Incorrect, as
E. NK cells destroy infected cells via cytotoxic mechanisms, not phagocytosis.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct

139)

Question Explanation
The question is asking to match each disease with its correct causative organism.

Concept
Human health and diseases

Solution
Ascariasis is caused by Ascaris lumbricoides, so (a)-(ii).
Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, so (b)-(iii).
Break bone fever (dengue) is caused by Flavi-arbo virus, so (c)-(iv).
Pneumonia is caused by Haemophilus influenzae, so (d)-(i).

Final answer: Option 1

140)

NCERT Pg. 136-137

141)

NCERT Pg. 141

142)

All of these

143)

Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake

144)

Cytokine barrier

145)

NCERT Pg. No. 136

146)
NCERT Pg. No. 134

147)

Question explanation
The question is asking which organisms cause opportunistic infections during the
full-blown stage of AIDS.

Concept
AIDS .

Solution
In full-blown AIDS, the immune system becomes severely weakened, allowing
infections by bacteria like Mycobacterium, protozoa like Toxoplasma, and various
fungi to [Link] answer
All of these

148)

NCERT-XII, Page # 131

(A and C are correct)

149)

Explain Question:
The question is asking the correct age range considered as the adolescence period.

Concept:
Adolescence.

Solution:
Adolescence begins with the onset of puberty, usually around 12 years of age, and ends by
about 18 years when physical and sexual maturity is achieved.

Final answer: option (3)

150)

NCERT Page no. 151

151)

NCERT Page no. 146

152)

NCERT Page no. 146

153)

NCERT Page no. 153

154)

NCERT Page no. 131

155)

NCERT Page no. 151

156)

Explain Question : True about cannabis products ?

Concept : This question is based on Drug and Alcohol Abuse.

Solution : True about cannabis products like Bhang, Charas, Ganja is that they act on
cardiovascular system.

Final Answer : option (2)

157) Explanation Question

The question is asking which statement is incorrect about the condition shown in the figure,
which is elephantiasis caused by filarial worms.
Concept :
This question is based on elephantiasis.
Solution :
Elephantiasis occurs due to chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels leading to blockage and
swelling, usually in lower limbs, scrotum, and external genitalia. It does not affect salivary
glands or smaller joints. Therefore, option 4 is incorrect.
Final answer: 4

158)

Question Explanation: This question asks which set contains only bacterial diseases.
Concept: Bacterial disease
Solution: The correct answer is (Option 2) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague.
Diphtheria: Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae (bacterium)
Leprosy: Caused by Mycobacterium leprae (bacterium)
Plague: Caused by Yersinia pestis (bacterium)
Final Answer: Diphtheria, leprosy, plague

159) Explanation Question :

The question is asking how common cold differs from pneumonia in terms of causative agent
and site of infection.
Concept
 This question is based on viral disease.
Solution :
Common cold is caused by viruses (rhinoviruses) that infect nose and respiratory passages, but
not lungs. Pneumonia is caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae or
Haemophilus influenzae and infects alveoli of lungs. Hence the main difference lies in the site
of infection.
Final answer : 2

160)

Explain Question : A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring
every 3-4 days in malarial fever, is due to ?

Concept : This question is based on Protozoal Disease.

Solution : The Substance is Haemozoin

Final Answer : option (2)

161) Correct Answer: 2. Female Anopheles mosquito

Explanation:
Plasmodium requires two hosts to complete its life cycle: humans and mosquitoes.
Sexual reproduction (sporogony) occurs exclusively in the female Anopheles mosquito.
Here's a brief overview:

A. Human Host: Plasmodium enters the human host as sporozoites (injected by the mosquito).
These develop into merozoites in the liver and then infect red blood cells.
B. Mosquito Host: When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected human, it ingests
gametocytes. Inside the mosquito's gut, the gametocytes undergo sexual reproduction,
forming sporozoites. These sporozoites then migrate to the mosquito's salivary glands, ready
to infect a new human host.

162)

Question explanation: The diagram shown is of Papaver somniferum (opium poppy), the
plant source of morphine and heroin. We need to identify the correctly related statements.

Concept: Drugs from plants – Opium derivatives

Solution:

A. (c) Heroin → Derived from morphine.

B. (d) White, odourless, bitter crystalline compound → Describes heroin.

C. (f) Diacetyl morphine → Chemical name of heroin.

 D. (g) Papaver somniferum → The opium poppy plant shown in the diagram.

Thus, the correct set is Option 3 (c, d, f, g).

Final answer: Option 3

163)

Question Explanation –
The question asks to correctly fill the missing disease names, causative organisms, and
symptoms in the given table by matching them with known human diseases and their
characteristics.
Concept – This question is based on Human diseases and pathogens
Solution –

A. Ascariasis is caused by Ascaris and is associated with symptoms like internal bleeding,
muscular pain, fever, anemia, and blockage of intestinal passage.

B. Trichophyton causes ringworm, which shows dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the
body.

C. Common cold is caused by rhinovirus and shows symptoms like nasal congestion,
discharge, sore throat, cough, and headache.

D. Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria, leading to inflammation of lower limbs.

Only Option 2 correctly matches the missing entries (B – Ringworm and D – Wuchereria)
without any incorrect pairing.
NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 149
Final Answer – Option 2

164)

Explain Question : How many of the above statements are false.

Concept : This question is based on introduction of human health and disease
Explanation :
(A) True — Healthy people work more efficiently.
(B) True — Ancient concept of health involved balance of humors.
(C) False — The idea of ‘black bile’ belonged to Hippocrates, not William Harvey.
(D) True — Pathogens must adapt to the host environment.
Final answer : 3

165) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 150, Para–8.2.1

166)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the modes of transmission of Dengue
and Entamoeba histolytica respectively.

Concept: The question is based on modes of transmission of infectious diseases.

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Dengue is a viral disease transmitted by the bite of Aedes mosquito.

B. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis and is transmitted through contaminated food

and water.

Final answer: Option 3

167)

Question Explanation: The question asks how many disease–causative agent/vector pairs are
correctly matched.

Concept: Diseases with their causative agents

Solution:

A. (a) Malaria – Female Anopheles → Correct: Female Anopheles mosquito transmits

Plasmodium.

B. (b) Diphtheria – Mycobacterium leprae → Incorrect: Diphtheria is caused by

Corynebacterium diphtheriae; Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy.

C. (c) Plague – Yersinia pestis → Correct: Plague is caused by Yersinia pestis.

D. (d) Pneumonia – Rhino virus → Incorrect: Rhinovirus causes common cold, not
pneumonia.

Correctly matched pairs are (a) and (c).

Final answer: Option 4

168)

Question Explanation : Which set contains only viral diseases?

Concept: The question is based on viral diseases

Solution:

A. Ringworm → fungal (not viral)

B. Typhoid, Tuberculosis → bacterial

C. Dysentery → protozoan/bacterial

D. Dengue, AIDS, and Common cold are all caused by viruses.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Final Answer: Option 3

169) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 145

170) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 148(E), 159(H)

171)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 153

172)

Question Explanation: Identify transplacental antibody.

Concept: Passive Immunity in Humans.

Solution: IgG is the only class of antibody that can be actively transported across the placenta
from mother to fetus. This provides the fetus with passive immunity.

Final Answer: IgG.

173) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 149 (para-8.1)

174)

Explain Question : To identify the incorrect statements

Concept : This question is based on Acquired immunity, aids, diseases.

Solution :
After getting into the body of the person, HIV releases its ssDNA into macrophages where
DNA genome of virus replicates to form viral RNA with the help of enzyme reverse
transcriptase is incorrect
HIV releases ssRNA, not ssDNA. Reverse transcriptase converts ssRNA → dsDNA, which
integrates into host genome

Final Answer : option (4)

175) Question Explanation:

This question is asking to identify the disease whose causative agent is different from the
others.

Concept:
Microbiology – Causative agents of diseases.

Explanation:
Pneumonia, plague, and diphtheria are bacterial diseases, whereas the common cold is caused
by a virus (rhinovirus). Hence, it is different from the rest.

Final Answer: Option 2

176)

Explain Question :
The question is asking about the correctness of two statements related to bone
marrow and thymus in the immune system.
Concept :
Lymphoid organs and lymphocyte maturation
Explanation :
Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including
lymphocytes, are produced. (correct)
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the
development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. (correct)
Final answer : option (4)

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 157

178) Explanation:
Acquired immunity, also known as adaptive immunity, is characterized by the following traits:
1. Diversity: It can recognize a vast array of antigens.

2. Discrimination between self and non-self: It distinguishes between the body's own cells and
foreign invaders.

3. Memory: Once exposed to a pathogen, acquired immunity "remembers" it, allowing for a
faster and stronger response upon subsequent exposures.
Non-specific immunity, on the other hand, refers to innate immunity, which is the body's first
line of defense and does not target specific pathogens. Acquired immunity, in contrast, is
highly specific to the particular pathogen. Therefore, non-specific is not a characteristic of
acquired immunity.

The correct answer is : 4 : Non-specific.

179)

Explain Question : This question is asking about identifying correct/incorrect statements

related to Filariasis (Elephantiasis).

Concept : Helminthic diseases, Filariasis, Wuchereria bancrofti.

Solution :

(A) Incorrect — Filariasis can cause gross deformities, especially of genital organs (e.g.,
hydrocele).

(B) Correct — It is also called elephantiasis and caused by filarial worm.

(C) Incorrect — Vector is generally female Culex

(D) Correct — It causes chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels, especially of lower limbs.

(E) Incorrect — Wuchereria bancrofti is a helminth, not a protozoan.

Incorrect statements: A, C, E.

Final answer : Option 2

180)

Question explanation : Identify the source organism used for the production of Hepatitis B
vaccine.

Concept : vaccines

Solution :
• The Hepatitis B vaccine is a recombinant vaccine. The gene coding for Hepatitis B surface
antigen (HBsAg) is inserted into yeast cells, which then produce the antigen safely.

Final answer : Option 2