1.
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice
**Answer: (a) Prime Minister**
2. The President gives his resignation to the
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Parliament
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
**Answer: (c) Vice President**
3. For what period does the Vice President of India hold office?
(a) 5 years
(b) Till the age of 65 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 2 Years
**Answer: (a) 5 years**
4. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?
(a) Governor
(b) Election Commissioner
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
**Answer: (a) Governor**
5. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President?
(a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.
(b) They are shown separately in the budget.
(c) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) They do not require any parliament sanction.
**Answer: (c) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India.**
6. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 14
(d) 12
**Answer: (c) 14**
7. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of
India?
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(b) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Council
(d) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
**Answer: (c) Elected members of the Legislative Council**
8. The Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it enjoys
the support of the
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament
(b) Majority of the members of the Upper House of Parliament
(c) Minority of members of the Lower House
(d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
**Answer: (d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament**
9. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(a) Chief of the Army
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief of the Air Force
**Answer: (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha**
10. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Citizens of India
**Answer: (b) President**
11. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(b) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
(c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(d) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
**Answer: (c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu**
12. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is
(a) 23 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 30 years
**Answer: (c) 35 years**
13. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by
(a) Both Houses of Parliament
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Vice President
(d) Lok Sabha
**Answer: (a) Both Houses of Parliament**
14. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed by the
(a) Lt. Governor
(b) Majority party in Legislature
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
**Answer: (a) Lt. Governor**
15. Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
**Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru**
16. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum
period of
(a) 1 year
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 years
**Answer: (c) 6 months**
17. The Union Council of Ministers consists of
(a) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers
(b) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Ministers
**Answer: (a) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers**
18. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon the office?
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
**Answer: (a) Chief Justice**
19. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
(a) None of the Above
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(d) Secretary to the Government of India
**Answer: (b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission**
20. A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a
maximum period of
(a) 9 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 6 months
**Answer: (d) 6 months**
21. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?
(a) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
(c) In all circumstances
(d) In no circumstances
**Answer: (a) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.**
22. If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form of
government this monarch will be called
(a) Head of the State
(b) Head of the Cabinet
(c) Head of the government
(d) Both Head of the government and State
**Answer: (a) Head of the State**
23. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parishad is
(a) Power of impeachment
(b) Indirect election
(c) Nomination of members
(d) Tenure of membership
**Answer: (a) Power of impeachment**
24. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) Inter State Council
(d) Finance Commission
**Answer: (c) Inter State Council**
25. Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in
India?
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
**Answer: (b) President**
26. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?
(a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He should be a citizen of India.
(d) He must have completed the age of 35 years
**Answer: (b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.**
27. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.
(b) The recommendations made by the Vice President.
(c) Their role played in political set up of the country.
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.
**Answer: (d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.**
28. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate
the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures?
(a) Art 342
(b) Art 344
(c) Art 340
(d) Art 339
**Answer: (c) Art 340**
29. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Either House of Parliament
(b) Any Vidhan Sabha
(c) Only Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
**Answer: (a) Either House of Parliament**
30. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Charan Singh
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Indira Gandhi
**Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi**
31. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor?
(a) 35 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
**Answer: (a) 35 years**
32. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Governor
**Answer: (c) Legislative Assembly**
33. The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by the
(a) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime Minister as the Chairman
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force Staff
(d) President
**Answer: (b) Ministry of Defence**
34. What is the position of a Minister of State in the Central Government?
(a) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
(b) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
(c) He is the nominee of the State Governor.
(d) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
**Answer: (a) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.**
35. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the
Defence Services of India?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
**Answer: (c) Defence Minister**
36. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post?
(a) Once
(b) 3 times
(c) 2 times
(d) Any number of times
**Answer: (d) Any number of times**
37. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Supreme Court
**Answer: (b) President**
38. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought?
(a) If the Council of Ministers so desires.
(b) Yes
(c) No
(d) It is discretionary
**Answer: (b) Yes**
39. When the Vice President officiates as President he draws the salary of
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Both (A) and (C)
(c) President
(d) Member of Parliament
**Answer: (c) President**
40. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet?
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Deputy Ministers
**Answer: (b) Cabinet Ministers**
41. Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations fixing the
number of members of the UPSC?
(a) Vice-President
(b) President
(c) Home Ministry
(d) Cabinet Secretary
**Answer: (b) President**
42. Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article 352?
(a) Chief Ministers of all states
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers
**Answer: (c) Cabinet**
43. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is available?
(a) Senior most Governor of a State
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Auditor General of India
**Answer: (b) Chief Justice of India**
44. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 36 must be approved by the Parliament within
(a) 3 months
(b) 2 months
(c) 1 Month
(d) 6 weeks
**Answer: (b) 2 months**
45. The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the
(a) President of India according to his discretion
(b) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Parliament
**Answer: (b) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister**
46. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Union Cabinet
**Answer: (b) Prime Minister**
47. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) President
(c) House of the People
(d) Prime Minister
**Answer: (c) House of the People**
48. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with
(a) President's power to get information from the Council of Ministers.
(b) Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government's decisions
and policies.
(c) Emergency powers of the President
(d) President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.
**Answer: (d) President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.**
49. The maximum duration for which the Vice President may officiate as the President, is
(a) 1 year
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 9 months
**Answer: (b) 6 months**
50. The President's Rule in a State can be continued for a maximum period of
(a) 2 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 ½ years
**Answer: (c) 6 months**
Yea
Case Name Key Issue Significance
r
Introduced the "Basic
Structure Doctrine," holding
Kesavananda that while Parliament can
Parliament's power
Bharati v. 197 amend the Constitution, it
to amend the
State of 3 cannot alter its essential
Constitution
Kerala features like democracy,
secularism, and judicial
review.
Expanded Article 21 (Right
to Life and Personal Liberty)
Maneka Procedure to include "due process,"
197
Gandhi v. established by law requiring laws to be fair,
8
Union of India under Article 21 just, and reasonable;
interlinked Articles 14, 19,
and 21.
Reinforced the Basic
Structure Doctrine; struck
down parts of the 42nd
Minerva Mills Limits on amending Amendment that gave
198
v. Union of power under Article unlimited amending power
0
India 368 to Parliament, emphasizing
harmony between
Fundamental Rights and
Directive Principles.
Upheld 27% reservation for
OBCs but capped total
Indira
Reservations for reservations at 50%;
Sawhney v. 199
OBCs under excluded creamy layer from
Union of India 2
Articles 15 and 16 benefits; clarified
(Mandal Case)
"backward classes" for
equality provisions.
Yea
Case Name Key Issue Significance
r
Limited arbitrary imposition
of President's Rule; made it
S.R. Bommai Misuse of Article
199 justiciable and required
v. Union of 356 (President's
4 floor test; strengthened
India Rule)
federalism by protecting
state autonomy.
Laid down guidelines for
preventing sexual
Sexual harassment harassment, filling
Vishaka v.
199 at workplace under legislative vacuum;
State of
7 Articles 14, 19, and interpreted fundamental
Rajasthan
21 rights to include gender
dignity until specific laws
were enacted.
Declared privacy as a
fundamental right under
K.S. Articles 14, 19, and 21;
201
Puttaswamy v. Right to Privacy overruled earlier judgments
7
Union of India and impacted data
protection and Aadhaar-
related cases.
Partially struck down
Section 377 IPC as
Navtej Singh Decriminalization unconstitutional for
201
Johar v. Union of homosexuality consensual adult relations;
8
of India under Section 377 upheld dignity, equality, and
sexual orientation as part of
privacy and liberty.
Declared instant triple talaq
unconstitutional; advanced
Shayara Bano
Uniform Civil Code gender equality and non-
v. Union of 201
and gender justice discrimination, paving way
India (Triple 7
under Article 14 for the Muslim Women
Talaq Case)
(Protection of Rights on
Marriage) Act, 2019.
Indian Young Allowed women of all ages
Lawyers Entry of women to enter the temple, striking
Association v. into Sabarimala down exclusionary customs;
201
State of Temple under prioritized constitutional
8
Kerala Articles 14, 15, and morality over religious
(Sabarimala 25 practices for gender
Case) equality.
· Which part of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights? (a) Part III (b) Part II (c) Part IV (d)
Part IVA Answer: (a) Part III (Articles 12–35)
· Right to Equality is guaranteed under Articles: (a) 12–18 (b) 14–18 (c) 19–22 (d) 23–24 Answer:
(b) 14–18
· Article 14 guarantees: (a) Absolute equality (b) Equality before law and equal protection of laws (c)
Equality of outcome (d) Equality in employment only Answer: (b) Equality before law and equal
protection of laws
· “State” under Article 12 includes: (a) Only the Government (b) Government and Parliament (c)
Government, Parliament, and local authorities (d) All of the above Answer: (d) All of the above
· Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are contained in: (a) Part III (b) Part IV (c) Part IVA (d)
Part V Answer: (b) Part IV (Articles 36–51)
· Which Article deals with “Protection of life and personal liberty”? (a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22
Answer: (c) Article 21
· Article 32 is known as: (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies (b) Right to Freedom of Speech (c)
Right to Equality (d) Right against Exploitation Answer: (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Heart
and soul of the Constitution, per Dr. Ambedkar)
· Writ of Habeas Corpus means: (a) To be informed of charges (b) To have the body (c) We
command (d) By what authority Answer: (b) To have the body (Issued under Article 32)
· Article 370 earlier provided special status to: (a) Punjab (b) Nagaland (c) Jammu & Kashmir (d)
Sikkim Answer: (c) Jammu & Kashmir (Abrogated in 2019)
· Right to Education is guaranteed under Article: (a) 14 (b) 21 (c) 21A (d) 25 Answer: (c) Article 21A
(Added by 86th Amendment, 2002)
· By which Amendment Act of the Constitution, the right to education was made a Fundamental
Right? (a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment (c) 49th Amendment (d) 86th Amendment Answer:
(d) 86th Amendment
· The words, "Unity and integrity of the Nation” were incorporated in the Preamble of the
Constitution of India by which Amendment? (a) 41st Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment (c) 43rd
Amendment (d) 44th Amendment Answer: (b) 42nd Amendment (1976)
· Union of India or any State may sue or be sued according to which Article of the Indian
Constitution? (a) Article 299 (b) Article 300 (c) Article 199 (d) Article 200A Answer: (b) Article 300
· The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution provides for: (a) Disqualification on grounds of defection
(b) Union list (c) Administration of tribal areas (d) Allocation of seats in the Council of States Answer:
(a) Disqualification on grounds of defection (Added by 52nd Amendment, 1985)
· Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of
Panchayats? (a) Article 243F (b) Article 243H (c) Article 243B (d) Article 243E Answer: (c) Article 243B
(Part IX, added by 73rd Amendment, 1992)
· Under which Article of the Constitution can the Supreme Court issue writs for the enforcement
of fundamental rights? A. Article 226 B. Article 32 C. Article 227 D. Article 131 Answer: B. Article
32Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus,
etc., and is itself a fundamental right, often called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar.
· Which Article empowers High Courts to issue writs for any purpose, including fundamental rights
and other legal rights? A. Article 32 B. Article 226 C. Article 12 D. Article 227 Answer: B. Article
226Explanation: High Courts have wider writ jurisdiction than the Supreme Court under Article 226,
covering not just fundamental rights but also ordinary legal rights, subject to territorial limits.
· The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to: A. Compel a public authority to perform its duty B. Quash
an order of a lower court C. Secure the release of a person from unlawful detention D. Challenge the
authority to hold a public office Answer: C. Secure the release of a person from unlawful
detentionExplanation: Literally meaning "you may have the body," it can be issued against both public
authorities and private individuals to test the legality of detention (e.g., under Article 21).
· Which writ is issued to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction? A.
Mandamus B. Certiorari C. Prohibition D. Quo Warranto Answer: C. ProhibitionExplanation:
Prohibition acts as a preventive measure against judicial or quasi-judicial bodies proceeding beyond
their powers; it is issued before the act is completed, unlike Certiorari (corrective).
· The writ of Certiorari is used to: A. Command performance of a public duty B. Quash the order of
an inferior court or tribunal C. Inquire into the legality of a public office holder's claim D. Release a
detained person Answer: B. Quash the order of an inferior court or tribunalExplanation: Meaning "to
be certified" or "to be informed," it transfers records from a lower body to a higher court for review if
there's jurisdictional error or violation of natural justice.
· Mandamus literally means "We Command" and is issued to: A. Prevent unlawful detention B.
Direct a public authority to perform a legal duty it has neglected C. Challenge unlawful occupation of
public office D. Prohibit inferior courts from proceeding Answer: B. Direct a public authority to
perform a legal duty it has neglectedExplanation: It cannot be issued against private individuals or for
discretionary duties; key case: State of U.P. v. Mohd. Nooh (1958).
· Quo Warranto is issued to question: A. The jurisdiction of a court B. The right of a person to hold a
public office C. Illegal imprisonment D. Non-performance of duty Answer: B. The right of a person to
hold a public officeExplanation: Meaning "by what authority," it ensures only qualified persons hold
public posts; it can be filed by any interested person (e.g., University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao,
1965).
· Public Interest Litigation (PIL) for writs can be filed under: A. Article 32 only B. Article 226 only C.
Both Articles 32 and 226 D. Article 227 only Answer: C. Both Articles 32 and 226Explanation: PIL
relaxes locus standi for public interest issues; landmark: S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981),
emphasizing access to justice.
· Which of the following writs can be issued against private individuals? A. Mandamus B.
Prohibition C. Habeas Corpus D. Quo Warranto Answer: C. Habeas CorpusExplanation: Unlike others
(limited to public authorities), Habeas Corpus addresses private detentions, as seen in cases like
kidnapping or illegal confinement.
· The writ jurisdiction of High Courts is: A. Narrower than that of the Supreme Court B. Limited to
fundamental rights only C. Wider than that of the Supreme Court D. Identical to the Supreme Court
Answer: C. Wider than that of the Supreme CourtExplanation: Article 226 allows writs for "any other
purpose," beyond just fundamental rights under Article 32, though subject to Supreme Court
oversight.