Mantasha Azad <mantashaazad09@gmail.

com>

(no subject)

Mantasha Azad <mantashaazad09@[Link]> Fri, 30 Jan at 7:48 PM

To: Mantasha <mantashaazad511@[Link]>

Part I: Definitions and Jurisdiction (Sections 1–25)

1. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, came into force on: (A) 1st January 1908
(B) 1st September 1908 (C) 1st January 1909 (D) 1st April 1909
2. The term 'Decree' is defined under: (A) Section 2(1) (B) Section 2(2) (C)
Section 2(6) (D) Section 2(9)
3. Which of the following is NOT a decree? (A) Rejection of a plaint (B)
Determination of any question within Section 144 (C) Any order of dismissal for
default (D) Preliminary adjudication of rights
4. 'Legal Representative' means a person who: (A) Is a relative of the deceased
(B) In law represents the estate of a deceased person (C) Is a co-sharer (D) Is an
advocate
5. Section 10 of the CPC deals with: (A) Res Judicata (B) Stay of Suit (Res Sub-
judice) (C) Foreign Judgment (D) Place of suing
6. The Doctrine of 'Res Judicata' is based on the maxim: (A) Nemo debet bis
vexari (B) Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium (C) Both A and B (D) Res ipsa
loquitur
7. Constructive Res Judicata is contained in: (A) Explanation III to Section 11 (B)
Explanation IV to Section 11 (C) Explanation VI to Section 11 (D) Section 12
8. A suit for the recovery of immovable property shall be instituted in the court
within the local limits of whose jurisdiction: (A) The plaintiff resides (B) The
defendant carries on business (C) The property is situated (D) The cause of
action arises
9. Which Section provides for the 'Power of Transfer and Withdrawal' by the
High Court or District Court?(A) Section 20 (B) Section 24 (C) Section 25 (D)
Section 15
10. Foreign Judgment is defined under: (A) Section 2(5) (B) Section 2(6) (C)
Section 13 (D) Section 14
Part II: Pleading and Institution of Suit (Orders 1–10)
11. Rules regarding 'Frame of Suit' are given in: (A) Order 1 (B) Order 2 (C) Order
4 (D) Order 6

12. A suit is instituted when a plaint is presented. This is provided in: (A) Section
26 and Order 4 (B) Section 27 (C) Order 1 (D) Order 7

13. 'Pleading' means: (A) Plaint only (B) Written Statement only (C) Plaint and
Written Statement (D) Plaint, WS, and Evidence

14. The court can allow amendment of pleadings under: (A) Order 6, Rule 1 (B)
Order 6, Rule 15 (C) Order 6, Rule 17 (D) Order 7, Rule 11

15. Rejection of plaint occurs under Order 7, Rule 11 on the ground of: (A) Non-
disclosure of cause of action (B) Relief claimed is undervalued (C) Suit barred by
any law (D) All of the above

16. Set-off and Counter-claim are provided in: (A) Order 7 (B) Order 8 (C) Order 9
(D) Order 10

17. If the defendant does not file a written statement within 30 days, the court
may allow him to file it within a maximum of: (A) 60 days (B) 90 days (C) 120
days (D) 150 days

18. Where neither party appears when the suit is called for hearing, the court
shall make an order that: (A) Suit be dismissed (B) Suit be stayed (C) Suit be
decreed ex-parte (D) Next date be fixed

19. An ex-parte decree can be set aside under: (A) Order 9, Rule 7 (B) Order 9,
Rule 9 (C) Order 9, Rule 13 (D) Order 21

20. Discovery and Inspection are dealt with in: (A) Order 11 (B) Order 12 (C) Order
13 (D) Order 14

Part III: Special Suits and Proceedings (S. 26–100, Orders 22–37)
21. In a suit against the Central Government, the authority to be named as
defendant is: (A) The President of India (B) The Union of India (C) The Secretary
to the Government (D) The Attorney General

22. Notice under Section 80 is mandatory before suing the Government. The
notice period is: (A) 1 month (B) 2 months (C) 3 months (D) 15 days

23. Garnishee Order is an order regarding: (A) Arrest of judgment debtor (B)
Attachment of debt in the hands of a third party (C) Appointment of receiver (D)
Sale of property
 24. Section 96 of CPC provides for: (A) Second Appeal (B) Appeal from original
decree (C) Revision (D) Review

25. A Second Appeal lies to the High Court on a: (A) Question of fact (B) Question
of law (C) Substantial question of law (D) Mixed question of law and fact

26. Reference to High Court is provided in Section: (A) 113 (B) 114 (C) 115 (D) 151

27. Review of judgment is provided in Section: (A) 113 (B) 114 (C) 115 (D) 151

28. Revision is provided in Section: (A) 113 (B) 114 (C) 115 (D) 151

29. Inherent powers of the Court are preserved under: (A) Section 148 (B) Section
149 (C) Section 151 (D) Section 152

30. Caveat remains in force for: (A) 30 days (B) 60 days (C) 90 days (D) 120 days

31. An Interpleader suit is filed by: (A) A person who has no interest in the property
except for charges or costs (B) The real owner (C) The defendant (D) The
Government

32. Under Order 32, a minor sues through: (A) Guardian-ad-litem (B) Next friend
(C) Pleader (D) Parents

33. A 'Summary Suit' is filed under: (A) Order 36 (B) Order 37 (C) Order 38 (D)
Order 39

34. Temporary Injunctions are granted under: (A) Order 38 (B) Order 39 (C) Order
40 (D) Order 41

35. Appointment of a 'Receiver' is governed by: (A) Order 39 (B) Order 40 (C)
Order 41 (D) Order 43

Part IV: Execution of Decrees (Order 21 & S. 36-74)

36. Which section deals with 'Questions to be determined by the Court
executing decree'? (A) Section 42 (B) Section 47 (C) Section 50 (D) Section 51

37. A precept is issued under Section: (A) 46 (B) 47 (C) 48 (D) 50

38. The maximum period for which a person can be detained in civil prison for a
debt exceeding ₹5,000 is: (A) 6 weeks (B) 3 months (C) 6 months (D) 1 year

39. Property which cannot be attached in execution of a decree is mentioned

in: (A) Section 60 (B) Section 61 (C) Section 62 (D) Section 64

40. Resistance to delivery of possession of immovable property in execution is

dealt with in: (A) Order 21, Rules 1-10 (B) Order 21, Rules 97-103 (C) Order 21,
Rule 35 (D) Order 22
 41. A decree for 'Restitution of Conjugal Rights' may be enforced by: (A)
Attachment of property (B) Detention in civil prison (C) Both (D) Specific
Performance

42. A decree for the 'Execution of a Document' is enforced under Order 21,
Rule: (A) 32 (B) 34 (C) 35 (D) 41

43. Which Section provides for the 'Liability of the Ancestral Property'? (A)
Section 50 (B) Section 52 (C) Section 53 (D) Section 55

44. A woman cannot be arrested in execution of a decree for: (A) Possession (B)
Money (C) Partition (D) Injunction

45. The 'Rateable Distribution' of assets is provided in Section: (A) 63 (B) 73 (C)
75 (D) 80

46. The period of limitation for an application to set aside a sale in execution
is: (A) 30 days (B) 60 days (C) 90 days (D) 120 days

47. Under Order 21, Rule 37, before ordering arrest, the court must: (A) Issue a
warrant immediately (B) Issue a notice to show cause (C) Consult the District
Judge (D) Ask the plaintiff to pay a fine

48. Subsistence allowance for a judgment debtor is paid by: (A) The Court (B)
The State Government (C) The Decree Holder (D) The Judgment Debtor himself

49. Which of the following is NOT exempt from attachment under Section
60? (A) Tools of artisans (B) Books of accounts (C) Stipends and Gratuities (D)
Residential houses of non-agriculturists

50. A sale of immovable property in execution becomes absolute when: (A) The
hammer falls (B) The purchase money is paid (C) It is confirmed by the Court (D)
The sale certificate is issued

Part V: Appeals and Supplemental Proceedings

51. Restitution is provided under Section: (A) 141 (B) 144 (C) 148 (D) 151

52. Legal Disability for the purpose of limitation is relevant to CPC via: (A) Order
32 (B) Section 11 (C) Order 22 (D) Order 1

53. Abatement of suit occurs due to: (A) Death of party where right doesn't survive
(B) Marriage (C) Insolvency (D) Both A and C

54. A 'Commission' can be issued for: (A) Examining witnesses (B) Local
investigation (C) Adjusting accounts (D) All of the above

55. Which Section provides for settlement of disputes outside Court (ADR)? (A)
Section 88 (B) Section 89 (C) Section 90 (D) Section 91
 56. Judgment and Decree are provided under: (A) Order 19 (B) Order 20 (C) Order
21 (D) Order 22
57. Costs are governed by Sections: (A) 33-35 (B) 35-35B (C) 36-38 (D) 39-41

58. Order 1, Rule 8 deals with: (A) Misjoinder (B) Representative Suit (C) Necessary
Party (D) Striking out parties
59. 'Pauper Suit' is the old name for: (A) Summary Suit (B) Suit by Indigent Person
(C) Interpleader Suit (D) Friendly Suit

60. Suit by Indigent Person is governed by: (A) Order 31 (B) Order 32 (C) Order 33
(D) Order 34
61. Which Section bars a Second Appeal if the recovery of money doesn't
exceed ₹25,000? (A) Section 100 (B) Section 101 (C) Section 102 (D) Section
103

62. A 'Memo of Appeal' is filed under Order: (A) 41 (B) 42 (C) 43 (D) 45

63. 'Additional Evidence' in Appellate Court is allowed under Order 41, Rule: (A)
23 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 33
64. No appeal lies from a decree passed with consent. This is provided in: (A)
Section 96(1) (B) Section 96(2) (C) Section 96(3) (D) Section 96(4)

65. Which Section deals with 'Appeals to the Supreme Court'? (A) Section 100
(B) Section 104 (C) Section 109 (D) Section 113

Part VI: Amendments and Technical Provisions

66. Order 22, Rule 4A deals with: (A) Death of plaintiff (B) Death of defendant (C)
No legal representative (D) Abatement
67. A 'Next Friend' of a minor can be removed if: (A) Adverse interest (B) Failure of
duty (C) Resides abroad (D) All of the above
68. Suits relating to 'Public Nuisance' are provided under Section: (A) 90 (B) 91
(C) 92 (D) 93
69. 'Public Charities' suits are filed under Section: (A) 91 (B) 92 (C) 93 (D) 94
70. Order 34 deals with suits relating to: (A) Minors (B) Mortgages (C) Trustees
(D) Corporations

71. In a suit by a Corporation, pleading may be signed by: (A) Secretary (B)
Director (C) Principal officer (D) All of the above
72. A 'Friendly Suit' is one filed under: (A) Section 89 (B) Section 90 and Order 36
(C) Order 37 (D) Order 39
73. Under Order 37, defendant must enter appearance within: (A) 7 days (B) 10
days (C) 15 days (D) 30 days
74. In Summary Suits, defendant can defend only if: (A) He pays money (B) He
gets 'Leave to Defend' (C) Files WS (D) Indigent
75. Arrest or Attachment before Judgment is granted under: (A) Order 38 (B)
Order 39 (C) Order 40 (D) Order 41
76. Who can apply for 'Enlargement of Time' under Section 148? (A) Plaintiff (B)
Defendant (C) Either party (D) Court suo motu
77. Maximum total time for enlargement under Section 148 is: (A) 15 days (B) 30
days (C) 60 days (D) 90 days
78. Under Section 152, clerical mistakes can be corrected: (A) By appeal (B) By
Court motion (C) High Court only (D) Within 30 days
79. Order 17, Rule 1 limits adjournments to: (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) No limit
80. A 'Caveat' filed under Section 148A is valid for: (A) 30 days (B) 60 days (C) 90
days (D) 120 days
81. Commission to examine a person can be issued to: (A) Resident in jurisdiction
(B) Person leaving jurisdiction (C) Gov servant (D) All
82. In a suit for 'Partition', the Court passes a: (A) Preliminary Decree (B) Final
Decree (C) Both A and B (D) Simple Order
83. 'Pre-trial Discovery' is meant to: (A) Shorten litigation (B) Remove surprise (C)
Both A and B (D) Delay
84. The Salem Advocate Bar Association cases are related to: (A) Res Judicata
(B) Amendments to CPC (C) Jurisdiction (D) Minority rights
85. Section 89 (ADR) was inserted in CPC in: (A) 1976 (B) 1999 (C) 2002 (D) 2005
86. 'Legal Representative' includes: (A) Intermeddlers (B) Heirs (C) Both A and B
(D) Blood only
87. Interrogatories can be set aside if they are: (A) Prolix (B) Oppressive (C)
Unnecessary (D) All
88. Order 18, Rule 4 says examination-in-chief shall be on: (A) Oral (B) Affidavit
(C) Commission (D) Interrogatories
89. Cost of causing delay is provided under Section: (A) 35 (B) 35A (C) 35B (D)
35C
90. A suit for 'Foreclosure' is filed by: (A) Mortgagor (B) Mortgagee (C) Trustee (D)
Tenant
 91. Which Order deals with 'Suits by or against Government'? (A) Order 26 (B)
Order 27 (C) Order 28 (D) Order 30
92. Misjoinder of parties means: (A) Not joining necessary party (B) Joining wrong
party (C) One defendant (D) None
93. Witness unable to appear may be examined by: (A) Affidavit (B) Commission
(C) Phone (D) Next friend
94. Section 114 of CPC must be read with: (A) Order 41 (B) Order 43 (C) Order 47
(D) Order 46
95. Difference between Res Judicata and Estoppel is: (A) Procedure vs Evidence
(B) Court vs Acts (C) Both A and B (D) None
96. Appeals from 'Orders' are provided in: (A) Section 104 and Order 43 (B)
Section 96 (C) Section 100 (D) Order 41
97. Doctrine of Restitution (S. 144) is based on: (A) Delay (B) Act of Court shall
prejudice no one (C) Equity (D) Ignorance
98. Review is filed in: (A) High Court (B) Same Court (C) District Court (D) Supreme
Court
99. Grounds for 'Revision' (S. 115) include: (A) Jurisdictional error (B) Failure to
exercise (C) Irregularity (D) All
100. Order passed in Revision is: (A) Appealable (B) Non-appealable (C) Reviewable
(D) Both B and C

MASTER ANSWER KEY (1-100)

Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans

1 C 21 B 41 A 61 C 81 D
2 B 22 B 42 B 62 A 82 B
3 C 23 B 43 C 63 C 83 C
4 B 24 B 44 B 64 C 84 B
5 B 25 C 45 B 65 C 85 B
6 C 26 A 46 B 66 C 86 C
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 D 87 D
8 C 28 C 48 C 68 B 88 B
9 B 29 C 49 D 69 B 89 C
10 A 30 C 50 C 70 B 90 B
11 B 31 A 51 B 71 D 91 B
12 A 32 B 52 A 72 B 92 B
13 C 33 B 53 D 73 B 93 B
14 C 34 B 54 D 74 B 94 C
15 D 35 B 55 B 75 A 95 C
16 B 36 B 56 B 76 C 96 A
17 B 37 A 57 B 77 B 97 B
18 A 38 B 58 B 78 B 98 B
19 C 39 A 59 B 79 B 99 D
20 A 40 B 60 C 80 C 100 B
Export to Sheets

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Part I: Definitions and Jurisdiction (Sections 1–25)

1. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, came into force on: (A) 1st January 1908
(B) 1st September 1908 (C) 1st January 1909 (D) 1st April 1909
2. The term 'Decree' is defined under: (A) Section 2(1) (B) Section 2(2) (C)
Section 2(6) (D) Section 2(9)
3. Which of the following is NOT a decree? (A) Rejection of a plaint (B)
Determination of any question within Section 144 (C) Any order of dismissal for
default (D) Preliminary adjudication of rights
4. 'Legal Representative' means a person who: (A) Is a relative of the deceased
(B) In law represents the estate of a deceased person (C) Is a co-sharer (D) Is an
advocate
5. Section 10 of the CPC deals with: (A) Res Judicata (B) Stay of Suit (Res Sub-
judice) (C) Foreign Judgment (D) Place of suing
6. The Doctrine of 'Res Judicata' is based on the maxim: (A) Nemo debet bis
vexari (B) Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium (C) Both A and B (D) Res ipsa
loquitur
7. Constructive Res Judicata is contained in: (A) Explanation III to Section 11 (B)
Explanation IV to Section 11 (C) Explanation VI to Section 11 (D) Section 12
8. A suit for the recovery of immovable property shall be instituted in the court
within the local limits of whose jurisdiction: (A) The plaintiff resides (B) The
defendant carries on business (C) The property is situated (D) The cause of
action arises
9. Which Section provides for the 'Power of Transfer and Withdrawal' by the
 High Court or District Court?(A) Section 20 (B) Section 24 (C) Section 25 (D)
Section 15
10. Foreign Judgment is defined under: (A) Section 2(5) (B) Section 2(6) (C)
Section 13 (D) Section 14

Part II: Pleading and Institution of Suit (Orders 1–10)

11. Rules regarding 'Frame of Suit' are given in: (A) Order 1 (B) Order 2 (C) Order
4 (D) Order 6
12. A suit is instituted when a plaint is presented. This is provided in: (A) Section
26 and Order 4 (B) Section 27 (C) Order 1 (D) Order 7
13. 'Pleading' means: (A) Plaint only (B) Written Statement only (C) Plaint and
Written Statement (D) Plaint, WS, and Evidence
14. The court can allow amendment of pleadings under: (A) Order 6, Rule 1 (B)
Order 6, Rule 15 (C) Order 6, Rule 17 (D) Order 7, Rule 11
15. Rejection of plaint occurs under Order 7, Rule 11 on the ground of: (A) Non-
disclosure of cause of action (B) Relief claimed is undervalued (C) Suit barred by
any law (D) All of the above
16. Set-off and Counter-claim are provided in: (A) Order 7 (B) Order 8 (C) Order 9
(D) Order 10
17. If the defendant does not file a written statement within 30 days, the court
may allow him to file it within a maximum of: (A) 60 days (B) 90 days (C) 120
days (D) 150 days
18. Where neither party appears when the suit is called for hearing, the court
shall make an order that: (A) Suit be dismissed (B) Suit be stayed (C) Suit be
decreed ex-parte (D) Next date be fixed
19. An ex-parte decree can be set aside under: (A) Order 9, Rule 7 (B) Order 9,
Rule 9 (C) Order 9, Rule 13 (D) Order 21
20. Discovery and Inspection are dealt with in: (A) Order 11 (B) Order 12 (C) Order
13 (D) Order 14

Part III: Special Suits and Proceedings (S. 26–100, Orders 22–37)
21. In a suit against the Central Government, the authority to be named as
defendant is: (A) The President of India (B) The Union of India (C) The Secretary
to the Government (D) The Attorney General
22. Notice under Section 80 is mandatory before suing the Government. The
 notice period is: (A) 1 month (B) 2 months (C) 3 months (D) 15 days
23. Garnishee Order is an order regarding: (A) Arrest of judgment debtor (B)
Attachment of debt in the hands of a third party (C) Appointment of receiver (D)
Sale of property
24. Section 96 of CPC provides for: (A) Second Appeal (B) Appeal from original
decree (C) Revision (D) Review
25. A Second Appeal lies to the High Court on a: (A) Question of fact (B) Question
of law (C) Substantial question of law (D) Mixed question of law and fact
26. Reference to High Court is provided in Section: (A) 113 (B) 114 (C) 115 (D) 151
27. Review of judgment is provided in Section: (A) 113 (B) 114 (C) 115 (D) 151
28. Revision is provided in Section: (A) 113 (B) 114 (C) 115 (D) 151
29. Inherent powers of the Court are preserved under: (A) Section 148 (B) Section
149 (C) Section 151 (D) Section 152
30. Caveat remains in force for: (A) 30 days (B) 60 days (C) 90 days (D) 120 days
31. An Interpleader suit is filed by: (A) A person who has no interest in the property
except for charges or costs (B) The real owner (C) The defendant (D) The
Government
32. Under Order 32, a minor sues through: (A) Guardian-ad-litem (B) Next friend
(C) Pleader (D) Parents
33. A 'Summary Suit' is filed under: (A) Order 36 (B) Order 37 (C) Order 38 (D)
Order 39
34. Temporary Injunctions are granted under: (A) Order 38 (B) Order 39 (C) Order
40 (D) Order 41
35. Appointment of a 'Receiver' is governed by: (A) Order 39 (B) Order 40 (C)
Order 41 (D) Order 43

Part IV: Execution of Decrees (Order 21 & S. 36-74)

36. Which section deals with 'Questions to be determined by the Court
executing decree'? (A) Section 42 (B) Section 47 (C) Section 50 (D) Section 51
37. A precept is issued under Section: (A) 46 (B) 47 (C) 48 (D) 50
38. The maximum period for which a person can be detained in civil prison for a
debt exceeding ₹5,000 is: (A) 6 weeks (B) 3 months (C) 6 months (D) 1 year
39. Property which cannot be attached in execution of a decree is mentioned
 in: (A) Section 60 (B) Section 61 (C) Section 62 (D) Section 64
40. Resistance to delivery of possession of immovable property in execution is
dealt with in: (A) Order 21, Rules 1-10 (B) Order 21, Rules 97-103 (C) Order 21,
Rule 35 (D) Order 22
41. A decree for 'Restitution of Conjugal Rights' may be enforced by: (A)
Attachment of property (B) Detention in civil prison (C) Both (D) Specific
Performance
42. A decree for the 'Execution of a Document' is enforced under Order 21,
Rule: (A) 32 (B) 34 (C) 35 (D) 41
43. Which Section provides for the 'Liability of the Ancestral Property'? (A)
Section 50 (B) Section 52 (C) Section 53 (D) Section 55
44. A woman cannot be arrested in execution of a decree for: (A) Possession (B)
Money (C) Partition (D) Injunction
45. The 'Rateable Distribution' of assets is provided in Section: (A) 63 (B) 73 (C)
75 (D) 80
46. The period of limitation for an application to set aside a sale in execution
is: (A) 30 days (B) 60 days (C) 90 days (D) 120 days
47. Under Order 21, Rule 37, before ordering arrest, the court must: (A) Issue a
warrant immediately (B) Issue a notice to show cause (C) Consult the District
Judge (D) Ask the plaintiff to pay a fine
48. Subsistence allowance for a judgment debtor is paid by: (A) The Court (B)
The State Government (C) The Decree Holder (D) The Judgment Debtor himself
49. Which of the following is NOT exempt from attachment under Section
60? (A) Tools of artisans (B) Books of accounts (C) Stipends and Gratuities (D)
Residential houses of non-agriculturists
50. A sale of immovable property in execution becomes absolute when: (A) The
hammer falls (B) The purchase money is paid (C) It is confirmed by the Court (D)
The sale certificate is issued

Part V: Appeals and Supplemental Proceedings

51. Restitution is provided under Section: (A) 141 (B) 144 (C) 148 (D) 151
52. Legal Disability for the purpose of limitation is relevant to CPC via: (A) Order
32 (B) Section 11 (C) Order 22 (D) Order 1
53. Abatement of suit occurs due to: (A) Death of party where right doesn't survive
(B) Marriage (C) Insolvency (D) Both A and C
 54. A 'Commission' can be issued for: (A) Examining witnesses (B) Local
investigation (C) Adjusting accounts (D) All of the above
55. Which Section provides for settlement of disputes outside Court (ADR)? (A)
Section 88 (B) Section 89 (C) Section 90 (D) Section 91
56. Judgment and Decree are provided under: (A) Order 19 (B) Order 20 (C) Order
21 (D) Order 22
57. Costs are governed by Sections: (A) 33-35 (B) 35-35B (C) 36-38 (D) 39-41
58. Order 1, Rule 8 deals with: (A) Misjoinder (B) Representative Suit (C) Necessary
Party (D) Striking out parties
59. 'Pauper Suit' is the old name for: (A) Summary Suit (B) Suit by Indigent Person
(C) Interpleader Suit (D) Friendly Suit
60. Suit by Indigent Person is governed by: (A) Order 31 (B) Order 32 (C) Order 33
(D) Order 34
61. Which Section bars a Second Appeal if the recovery of money doesn't
exceed ₹25,000? (A) Section 100 (B) Section 101 (C) Section 102 (D) Section
103
62. A 'Memo of Appeal' is filed under Order: (A) 41 (B) 42 (C) 43 (D) 45
63. 'Additional Evidence' in Appellate Court is allowed under Order 41, Rule: (A)
23 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 33
64. No appeal lies from a decree passed with consent. This is provided in: (A)
Section 96(1) (B) Section 96(2) (C) Section 96(3) (D) Section 96(4)
65. Which Section deals with 'Appeals to the Supreme Court'? (A) Section 100
(B) Section 104 (C) Section 109 (D) Section 113

Part VI: Amendments and Technical Provisions

66. Order 22, Rule 4A deals with: (A) Death of plaintiff (B) Death of defendant (C)
No legal representative (D) Abatement
67. A 'Next Friend' of a minor can be removed if: (A) Adverse interest (B) Failure of
duty (C) Resides abroad (D) All of the above
68. Suits relating to 'Public Nuisance' are provided under Section: (A) 90 (B) 91
(C) 92 (D) 93
69. 'Public Charities' suits are filed under Section: (A) 91 (B) 92 (C) 93 (D) 94
70. Order 34 deals with suits relating to: (A) Minors (B) Mortgages (C) Trustees
(D) Corporations
71. In a suit by a Corporation, pleading may be signed by: (A) Secretary (B)
Director (C) Principal officer (D) All of the above
72. A 'Friendly Suit' is one filed under: (A) Section 89 (B) Section 90 and Order 36
(C) Order 37 (D) Order 39
73. Under Order 37, defendant must enter appearance within: (A) 7 days (B) 10
days (C) 15 days (D) 30 days
74. In Summary Suits, defendant can defend only if: (A) He pays money (B) He
gets 'Leave to Defend' (C) Files WS (D) Indigent
75. Arrest or Attachment before Judgment is granted under: (A) Order 38 (B)
Order 39 (C) Order 40 (D) Order 41
76. Who can apply for 'Enlargement of Time' under Section 148? (A) Plaintiff (B)
Defendant (C) Either party (D) Court suo motu
77. Maximum total time for enlargement under Section 148 is: (A) 15 days (B) 30
days (C) 60 days (D) 90 days
78. Under Section 152, clerical mistakes can be corrected: (A) By appeal (B) By
Court motion (C) High Court only (D) Within 30 days
79. Order 17, Rule 1 limits adjournments to: (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) No limit
80. A 'Caveat' filed under Section 148A is valid for: (A) 30 days (B) 60 days (C) 90
days (D) 120 days
81. Commission to examine a person can be issued to: (A) Resident in jurisdiction
(B) Person leaving jurisdiction (C) Gov servant (D) All
82. In a suit for 'Partition', the Court passes a: (A) Preliminary Decree (B) Final
Decree (C) Both A and B (D) Simple Order
83. 'Pre-trial Discovery' is meant to: (A) Shorten litigation (B) Remove surprise (C)
Both A and B (D) Delay
84. The Salem Advocate Bar Association cases are related to: (A) Res Judicata
(B) Amendments to CPC (C) Jurisdiction (D) Minority rights
85. Section 89 (ADR) was inserted in CPC in: (A) 1976 (B) 1999 (C) 2002 (D) 2005
86. 'Legal Representative' includes: (A) Intermeddlers (B) Heirs (C) Both A and B
(D) Blood only
87. Interrogatories can be set aside if they are: (A) Prolix (B) Oppressive (C)
Unnecessary (D) All
88. Order 18, Rule 4 says examination-in-chief shall be on: (A) Oral (B) Affidavit
(C) Commission (D) Interrogatories
 89. Cost of causing delay is provided under Section: (A) 35 (B) 35A (C) 35B (D)
35C

90. A suit for 'Foreclosure' is filed by: (A) Mortgagor (B) Mortgagee (C) Trustee (D)
Tenant

91. Which Order deals with 'Suits by or against Government'? (A) Order 26 (B)
Order 27 (C) Order 28 (D) Order 30

92. Misjoinder of parties means: (A) Not joining necessary party (B) Joining wrong
party (C) One defendant (D) None

93. Witness unable to appear may be examined by: (A) Affidavit (B) Commission
(C) Phone (D) Next friend

94. Section 114 of CPC must be read with: (A) Order 41 (B) Order 43 (C) Order 47
(D) Order 46

95. Difference between Res Judicata and Estoppel is: (A) Procedure vs Evidence
(B) Court vs Acts (C) Both A and B (D) None

96. Appeals from 'Orders' are provided in: (A) Section 104 and Order 43 (B)
Section 96 (C) Section 100 (D) Order 41

97. Doctrine of Restitution (S. 144) is based on: (A) Delay (B) Act of Court shall
prejudice no one (C) Equity (D) Ignorance

98. Review is filed in: (A) High Court (B) Same Court (C) District Court (D) Supreme
Court

99. Grounds for 'Revision' (S. 115) include: (A) Jurisdictional error (B) Failure to
exercise (C) Irregularity (D) All

100. Order passed in Revision is: (A) Appealable (B) Non-appealable (C) Reviewable
(D) Both B and C

MASTER ANSWER KEY (1-100)

Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans

1 C 21 B 41 A 61 C 81 D
2 B 22 B 42 B 62 A 82 B
3 C 23 B 43 C 63 C 83 C
4 B 24 B 44 B 64 C 84 B
5 B 25 C 45 B 65 C 85 B
6 C 26 A 46 B 66 C 86 C
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 D 87 D
8 C 28 C 48 C 68 B 88 B
9 B 29 C 49 D 69 B 89 C
10 A 30 C 50 C 70 B 90 B
11 B 31 A 51 B 71 D 91 B
12 A 32 B 52 A 72 B 92 B
13 C 33 B 53 D 73 B 93 B
14 C 34 B 54 D 74 B 94 C
15 D 35 B 55 B 75 A 95 C
16 B 36 B 56 B 76 C 96 A
17 B 37 A 57 B 77 B 97 B
18 A 38 B 58 B 78 B 98 B
19 C 39 A 59 B 79 B 99 D
20 A 40 B 60 C 80 C 100 B
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