04-02-2026

1001CMD303029250113 MD

PHYSICS

1) If the surface of a metal succesively exposed to radiation of wavelength λ1 = 350 nm and λ2 = 450
nm, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons will differ by a factor of 2. The work function of this
metal is :-

(1) 2.8 × 10–20 J

(2) 6.1 × 10–17 J
(3) 3.2 × 10–18 J
(4) 4.0 × 10–19 J

2) A uniform solid spherical ball of mass m and radius R rolls without slipping down a surface
inclined to the horizontal at an angle θ. Match the column-I and II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) friction force involved is (p) zero

minimum value of coefficient of

(b) friction for rolling without (q)
slipping will be

work done against the friction

(c) (r) static friction
force

(d) kinetic friction force is (s)

(1) a-q,r; b-s; c-p; d-p

(2) a-r; b-s; c-p; d-s
(3) a-q; b-p; c-s; d-p
(4) a-s; b-p; c-q; d-r

3) In a meter Bridge the null point is found at a distance of 33.7 cm from A. If Now a resistance of
12Ω is connected in parallel with S, the null point occurs at 51.91 cm. Values of R and S will be:-
(1) S = 13.5 Ω ; R = 6.86 Ω
(2) S = 11.5 Ω ; R = 2.25 Ω
(3) S = 27 Ω ; R = 13.4 Ω
(4) S = 16.8 Ω ; R = 21.4 Ω

4) A cubical block is floating in a liquid with one fourth of its volume immersed in the liquid. If whole
of the system accelerates upward with acceleration g/4, the fraction of volume immersed in the
liquid will be :-

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 3/4
(4) 2/3

5) A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical coss section given by . If the
coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed
without slipping is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A particle is going with constant speed along a uniform helical and spiral path separately as

shown in figure

(1) The velocity of the particle is constant in both cases

(2) The magnitude of acceleration of the particle is constant in both cases
(3) The magnitude of acceleration is constant in (a) and decreasing in (b)
(4) The magnitude of acceleration is decreasing continuously in both the cases

7) In a compound microscope, if the objective produces an image Io and eye piece produces an image
Ie, then -

(1) Io virtual but Ie is real

(2) Io is real but Ie is virtual
(3) Io and Ie both are real
(4) Io and Ie both are virtual

8) The figure gives experimentally measured B vs. H variation in a ferromagnetic material. The value
of retentivity, coercivity and saturation magnetic field of the material are respectively :

(1) 120 A/m, 2.0 T and 3.0 T

(2) 2.0 T, 40 A/m and 3.0 T
(3) 3.0 T, 140 A/m and 2.0 T
(4) 40 A/m, 3.0T and 2.0 T

9) 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series that each fork gives 4 beats per sec with the previous
one. The frequency of the last fork is 3 times that of the first. The frequency of the first fork (in Hz)
is :-

(1) 110
(2) 56
(3) 60
(4) 52

10) The storage battery of a car has a emf of 12V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 0.4 Ω,
what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?

(1) 5A
(2) 30A
(3) 15A
(4) 20A

11) Two particles are projected simultaneously with different speed from the same point as shown

in figure. Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Their relative acceleration is zero

(2) Their relative velocity is constant
(3) Their relative velocity along vertical direction is non-zero
(4) Their relative velocity along horizontal direction is non-zero

12) A convergent beam of light is incident on a convex mirror of radius of curvature 0.6 m as shown

in fig. The image formed by the convex mirror is -

(1) Virtual and 15 cm behind the mirror

(2) Real and 15 cm in front of the mirror
(3) Virtual and 7.5 cm behind the mirror
(4) Real and 7.5 cm in front of the mirror

13)
Figure shows a cross section of a large metal sheet carrying an electric current. The current in a
strip of width dℓ is Kdℓ where K is constant, magnetic field at a point 'P' at a distance 'x' from the
metal sheet

(1) μ0K

(2)

(3) 2μ0K
(4) Zero

14) In the given figure, the energy levels of hydrogen atom have been shown along with some
transitions marked A, B, C, D and E. The transitions A, B and C respectively represent :

The ionization potential of hydrogen, second member of Balmer series and third member of
(1)
Paschen series.
The first member of the Lyman series, third member of Balmer series and second member of
(2)
Paschen series.
 The series limit of Lyman series, third member of Balmer series and second member of Paschen
(3)
series.
The series limit of Lyman series, second member of Balmer series and second member of
(4)
Paschen series.

15) Two identical containers A and B with frictionless pistons contain the same ideal gas at the same
temperature and the same volume V. The mass of gas A is mA and that of B is mB. The gas in each
cylinder is now allowed to expand isothermally to the same final volume 2V. The change in the
pressure in A and B are found to be ΔP and 1.5 ΔP respectively. Then:-

(1) 4mA = 9mB

(2) 2mA = 3mB
(3) 3mA = 2mB
(4) 9mA = 4mB

16) In a certain circuit E = 200 cos (314t) and I = sin (314t + π/4). Their vector representation is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

22 gm of CO2 at 27°C is mixed with 16 gm of O2, at 37°C. If both gases are considered as ideal
kinetic theory gases, then the temperature of the mixture is–

(1) 32°C
(2) 27°C
(3) 37°C
(4) 30.5°C

18) Three blocks A, B and C are placed as shown in figure. Block A has mass m and moving with
velocity v. Block B of mass m and block C of mass 4 m are initially at rest. Neglect friction. Assuming
all collisions are elastic the final velocity of block A is :-
(1)
to the left
(2) zero
(3) v to the left

(4)
to the right

19) A cylindrical tank has a hole of 1 cm2 in its bottom. If the water is allowed to flow into the tank
from a tubes above it at the rate of 70 cm3/sec then the maximum height upto which water can rise
in the tank is :-

(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 0.25 cm

20) Length of rectangular box is measured using vernier callipers. If zero of vernier scale lies
between 5.1 cm and 5.3 cm reading of main scale and 20 division of vernier scale coincides with 19
divisions of main scale. While measuring length it has been observed that 6th division of vernier scale
coincides with main scale division, then length of box will be -

(1) 5.16 mm
(2) 5.16 cm
(3) 5.36 cm
(4) 5.36 mm

21) The apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when heated in a copper vessel is C and when
heated in a silver vessel is S. If A is the linear coefficient of expansion of copper, then the linear
coefficient of expansion of silver is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A body attains a height equal to the radius of the earth when projected from earth' surface. The
velocity of the body with which it was projected is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A vertical rectangular door with its centre of gravity at O (see figure) is fixed on two hinges A
and B along one vertical length side of the door. The entire weight of the door is supported by the
hinge A. Then the free body force diagram for the door (the arrows indicate the direction of the

forces) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A circuit element is placed in a closed box. At time t = 0, a constant current generator supplying
a current of I ampere is connected across the box. Potential difference across the box varies

according to graph as shown in the figure. The element in the box is -

(1) a resistance of 2Ω
(2) a battery of emf 6V
(3) an inductance of 2H
(4) a capacitance

25) A particle of mass m is performing simple harmonic motion along line AB with amplitude 2a with
centre of oscillation as O. At t = 0 particle is at point C (OC = a) and is moving towards B with

velocity v = The equation of motion can be given by

(1) x = 2a (sin t + cos t)

(2) x = 2a( sint + cos t)
(3) x = a (sin t + cos t)
(4) x = a ( sin t + cos t)

26) In the figure shown, when the persons A and B exchange their positions, then match the List-I
and List-II. [There is no friction between plank and ground]

List- I List - II

The distance (in m) moved

(I) by the centre of mass of (P) 0.2
the system is

The distance (in m) moved

(II) (Q) 1.8
by the plank is

The distance (in m) moved

(III) by A with respect to (R) 0
ground is

The distance (in m) moved

(IV) by B with respect to (S) 2.2
ground is
(1) I-Q, II-P, III-S, IV-S
(2) I-R, II-P, III-S, IV-Q
(3) I-S, II-Q, III-P, IV-R
(4) I-R, II-P, III-Q, IV-S

27) Statement-I : Charge is invariant.

Statement-II : Charge does not depends on frame of reference.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
28) A body A moves with a uniform acceleration a and zero initial velocity. Another body B, starts
from the same point moves in the same direction with a constant velocity u. The two bodies meet
after a time t. The value of t is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In the figure, capacitor is completely charged and switch is closed at t = 0. The time after which
the current from the capacitor becomes 1/4th of its maximum value will be :-

(1) 2 RC ln2

(2)
ln2
(3) RC ln2

(4)
ln2

30) A flat plate moves normally with a speed ν1 towards a horizontal jet of water of uniform area of
cross-section. The jet discharges water at the rate of volume V per second at a speed of ν2 . The
density of water is ρ. Assume that water splashes along the surface of the plate at right angles to the
original motion. The magnitude of the force acting on the plate due to the jet of water is :-

(1) ρVν1
(2) ρV(ν1 + ν2)

(3)

(4)

31) Two particles of medium disturbed by the wave propagation are at x1 = 0 and x2 = 1cm. The
respective displacements (in cm) of the particles can be given by the equations :-
y1 = 2sin3πt
 y2 = 2sin(3πt –π/8)
The wave velocity is :

(1) 16 cm/sec
(2) 24 cm/sec
(3) 12 cm/sec
(4) 8 cm/sec

32) A rectangular coil has 60 turns and its length and width is 20 cm and 10 cm respectively. The
coil rotates at a speed of 1800 rotation per minute in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T about its one
of the diagonal. The maximum induced emf will be :-

(1) 60 V
(2) 220 V
(3) 113 V
(4) 330 V

33) A large parallel plate capacitor, whose plates have an area of 1 m2 and are separated from each
other by 1mm, is being charged at a rate of 25 V/s. If the dielectric between the plates has dielectric
constant 10, then the displacement current at this instant is

(1) 25 μA
(2) 11 μA
(3) 2.2 μA
(4) 1.1 μA

34) A small wire piece of length 2 mm is bent in the form of shape L and is placed at 30 cm away in
front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. If both sides of L are equal then length of image

formed will be -

(1) 2 mm
(2) 4 mm
(3) 6 mm
(4) 8 mm

35) Two diodes have resistance 20 Ω and are connected with rms secondary voltage to each end of
secondary having in the 50 V. If external resistance is 980 Ω, what is mean current load ?

(1) 0.05 A
(2) 45 mA
(3) 0.25 A
(4) 25 mA
36) A ball loses 15% of its kinetic energy, when it bounces back from a concrete floor, when it is
thrown vertically downward with a speed V0 from a certain height h, it bounces back to the same
height. Then if we neglect air resistance, the speed V0 should be :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

37) The value of binding energy for 1H2, 2He4, 26Fe56, 92U235 are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and 1786 units
respectively. Then most stable nucleus is-

56
(1) 26Fe
2
(2) 1H
235
(3) 92U
4
(4) 2He

38) In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth

table :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A closed organ pipe has a frequency 'n'. If its length is doubled and radius is halved, its
frequency nearly becomes–

(1) halved
(2) doubled
(3) tripled
(4) quadrupled

40) The magnetic field at O due to current in the segment AB of infinite wire, forming a loop as
shown in fig. is :-

(1)
(cos ϕ1 + cosϕ2)

(2)
(tan θ1 + tanθ2)

(3)
(sin ϕ1 + sin ϕ2)

(4)
(cosθ1 + sinθ2)

41) Two conductors are made of the same material and have the same length. Conductor A is solid
wire of diameter 1 mm and conductor B is a hollow tube of outer diameter 2 mm and inner diameter
1 mm. Find the ratio of resistance RA to RB.

(1) 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

42) Two Nicols are oriented with their principal planes making an angle of 60°. The percentage of
incident unpolarised light which passes through the system is-

(1) 50%
(2) 100%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 37.5%

43) Two equal charges q are placed at a distance of 2 a and a third charge –2q is placed at the
midpoint. The potential energy of the system is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Two resistors of resistances R1 = (100 ± 3)Ω and R2 = (200 ± 4)Ω are connected in parallel. The
equivalent resistance in parallel combination is:

(1) (66.7 ± 1.8)Ω

(2) (66.7 ± 4.0)Ω
(3) (66.7 ± 3.0)Ω
(4) (66.7 ± 7.0)Ω

45) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of electron of kinetic energy 200 eV (mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg,
charge = 1.6 × 10–19 C, planks constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) :-

(1) 9.60 × 10–11 m

(2) 8.68 × 10–11 m
(3) 6.25 × 10–11 m
(4) 5.00 × 10–11 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Two solutions A and B of 100 L was made by dissolving 4g NaOH and 9.8g H2SO4 in water
respectively. The pH of resulting solution obtained by mixing 40 L of solution A and 10L solution B.

(1) 10.6
(2) 3.4
(3) 7
(4) 9.4

2) Given below are two statements

Statement-I : A mixture of chloroform and aniline can be separated by simple distillation.
Statement-II : While separating aniline from a mixture of aniline and water by steam distillation,
aniline boils below its boiling point.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

3) Statement – I : Energy of resonance hybrid is higher than that of any of the cannonical structure.
Statement – II : The difference in energies between energy of resonance hybrid and lowest energy
resonating structure is called as resonance energy.

(1) Both statements I & II are true.

(2) Both statements I & II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but II is true.

4) If 0.224 L of H2 gas is formed at the cathode, the volume of O2 gas formed at the anode under
identical conditions in electrolysis of water
(1) 0.224 L
(2) 0.448 L
(3) 0.112 L
(4) 1.12 L

5) The product obtained by the hydrolysis of Al4C3, Mg2C3 and CaC2 respectively.

(1) Acetylene, Methane, Propyne

(2) Methane, Propyne, Acetylene
(3) Propyne, Methane, Acetylene
(4) Methane, Acetylene, Propyne

6) The plot of lnk vs for the following reaction gives a straight line with
the slope of line equal to –3.0 ×10 K. Activation energy for the reaction in J mol–1 is -
–5

(R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)

(1) 1.7 × 10–4

(2) 8.6 × 10–4
(3) 4.1 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–4

7) The hydrolysis product of (+) lactose is :-

(1) β–D(+)glucose + β–D(+)galactose

(2) α–D(+)galactose + α–D(+)glucose
(3) α–D(+)glucose + β–D(+)galactose
(4) β–D(+)glucose + α–D(+)glucose

8) 0.05 M ammonium hydroxide solution is dissolved in 0.001 M ammonium chloride solution. What
will be the OH– ion concentration of this solution Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 × 10–5

(1) 3.0 × 10–3 M

(2) 9.0 × 10–4 M
(3) 9.0 × 10–3 M
(4) 3.0 × 10–4 M

9)

Among the given elements Be, B, Al, Si, P, S which is largest and having highest metallic character
respectively -

(1) S and Be
(2) S and Al
(3) Al only
(4) Be and Al
10) Hypervalent compounds e– rich is (are) :
(i) PCl5 (ii) SF6
(iii) BF3 (iv) ClF3
Correct option is :

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) All of these

11) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 3-Amino-4-cyano hexanoic acid

(2) 3-Cyano-4-amino hexanoic acid
(3) 3-Amino-4-ethyl-5-cyano pentanoic acid
(4) 3-Amino-5-cyano hexanoic acid

12) Which of the following statements are correct :

(i) When freshly prepared precipitate are converted into colloidal solution then process is called
peptization.
(ii) Lyophilic sol are mostly of inorganic nature.
(iii) Lyophilic sol are highly solvated as particles have great affinity for solvent.
(iv) Lyophobic sols are reversible sols so special methods are required to prepare them.

(1) Only i
(2) i and iii
(3) ii and iv
(4) All of these

13) For the reaction

KP = 5 × 10–5 at 25°C. ΔG° for the reaction will be: (R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1)

(1) 24.5 KJ
(2) 40.5 KJ
(3) –7.3 KJ
(4) –40.5 KJ

14) Which of the following electronic configuration has 2nd highest atomic radius?

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p5

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
(4) 1s2 2s1
15)

Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) Orthonitrophenol has intramolecular hydrogen bonding

(2) Hydrogen bonding is maximum in solid state and minimum in gaseous state
(3) Water molecules shows intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(4) Hydrogen bonding is seen between two least electronegative elements.

16)

Find out the correct order of rate of dehydration for given compounds with conc. H2SO4 :-

(P) (Q)

(R) (S)

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) P > R > Q > S
(3) P > R > S > Q
(4) R > P > Q > S

17) The heat of formation for SO3 will be

…(i)
PbO + H2SO4.5H2O → PbSO4 + 6H2O + 23.3 Kcal …(ii)
SO3 + 6H2O → H2SO4.5H2O + 41.0 Kcal …(iii)

(1) 101.2 Kcal

(2) –101.2 Kcal
(3) +146.8 Kcal
(4) –146.8 Kcal

18) Choose correct order for basic strength

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) When 25% CO2 reacted the equilibrium pressure developed is 6 atm for the reaction C(s) +
CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g), KP for the given reaction is :

(1) 2 atm
(2) 1.6 atm
(3) 3.2 atm
(4) 4.3 atm

20) What is the formula of a substance with mass percentages of 35.79% for S, 62.92% for O and
1.13% for H ?

(1) H2SO3
(2) H2SO4
(3) H2S2O7
(4) H2S2O8

21) Which of the following does not follow EAN rule ?

(1) [Ni(CO)4]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
(4) [Mn(CO)5]

22) CFT configuration of potassium ferricyanide is :-

3 2
(1) t2g eg
5 0
(2) t2g eg
3 2
(3) eg t2g
4 1
(4) eg t2g

23) Correct order of acidic strength :-

(1) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3

(2) 2 > 4 > 3 > 1
(3) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3
(4) 1 > 4 > 2 > 3

24)

List-I List-II

(a) Electron moving in 2nd orbit in He+ ion has (P) Kinetic energy +13.6 × 4 eV

(b) Electron moving in 3rd orbit in H-atom has (Q) Velocity 2.188 × 106 × 3 m/s

(c) Electron moving in 1st orbit in Li+2 ion has (R) Energy –13.6 eV

(d) Electron moving in 2nd orbit of Be+3 ion has (S) Radius 0.529 × 9Å

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) R Q S P

(2) R P S Q

(3) R S Q P

(4) R Q P S
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) 250 mL of 0.1 M solution of C2O4–2 in acidic medium completely reduce.

(1) 200 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 solution

(2) 250 mL of 0.2 M K2Cr2O7 solution
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 solution
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M K2Cr2O7 solution

26) Which of the following is false for the given molecules :-

(1) Equimolar mixture of I and II does not show optical activity

(2) II and III have different behaviour towards PPL
(3) II & III are identical
(4) I & II can not be separated by fractional distillation method from their mixture.

27) Which of following is most reactive for decarboxylation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Arrange the following carbocation in there correct order of stability :-

(1) II > III > I > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) III > I > II > IV

29) Statement I : Lithium has the lowest reduction potential indicating that lithium is the strongest
oxidising agent.
Statement II : Lithium is the most powerful reducing agent in an aqueous solution.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

30) For the below mentioned reaction, which catalyses the reaction ?
2I– + S2O8–2 → I2 + 2SO4–2

(1) Fe+2
(2) Fe+3
(3) Mn+2
(4) CO+2

31) For the cell reaction with the indicated concentrations

Al(S)+3Ag+(aq)(0.10 M) → (0.30 M)+3Ag(S), the measured voltage (Ecell) is 1.50 volt.

Calculate E°cell.

Given : = 0.06 ; log 3 = 0.48

(1) 1.5496 volt

(2) 1.654 volt
(3) 1.4032 volt
(4) None of these

32)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Select the correct matching -

List-I List-II

A. XeF5¯ (a) Pyramidal

B. ICl2¯ (b) Square Pyramidal

 C. H3O+ (c) Linear

D. XeOF4 (d) Pentagonal planar

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (c) (b) (d) (a)

(2) (d) (c) (a) (b)

(3) (d) (a) (c) (b)

(4) (b) (d) (c) (a)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)
A and B respectively are :-

(1)
&

(2)
&

(3)
&

(4)
&

35) Which of the following compound is an example of inert pair effect ?

(1) PbCl2
(2) PbCl4
(3) SnCl2
(4) SnCl4

36)

In a 0.5 molal solution of KCl, KCl is 50% dissociated. The freezing point of solution will be (Kƒ =1.86
K kg mol–1) :-

(1) 274.674 K
(2) 271.60 K
(3) 273 K
(4) 273.60 K

37) A (Major product), is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) 6 g MgCO3 sample will be required to neutralise 100 ml of 1 M HBr solution, according to the
following reaction
MgCO3(s) + 2HBr(aq) → MgBr2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(ℓ)
Calculate percentage purity of MgCO3 sample :-

(1) 90%
(2) 80%
(3) 70%
(4) 65%

39) Match the following columns :-

Column-I (Transformation) Column-II (Reagents)

(A) Hexan-1-ol to Hexanal (P) NaOI, H+

p-Fluorotoluene to
(B) (Q) C6H5 CrO3Cl–(PCC)
p-Fluorobenzoic acid

Mesityloxide to
(C) (R) AlH(isobutyl)2/DiBaL-H)
3-Methylbut-2-enoic acid
 +
(D) Ethanenitrile to Ethanal (S) KMnO4/KOH, H
(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(2) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(3) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
(4) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P

40) A mixture of salt give rotten egg smell when treated with dilute H2SO4 and which turns lead
acetate paper black, then salt contain .

(1)
(2) S–2
–
(3) CH3COO
(4)

41) Assertion :- N2+ is more stable than N2–

Reason :- N2+ has more electrons in antibonding orbitals.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of :

(1) Ist group

(2) IInd group
(3) IIIrd group
(4) IVth group

43)
A and B are :-

(1) Both

(2)
Both

(3)

(4)

44)
Which of the following complex is diamagnetic as well as inner orbital complex ?

+2
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
+2
(2) [Co(NH3)6]
–3
(3) [Mn(CN)6]
–4
(4) [Fe(CN)6]

45) The product of I– with MnO4– in weak alkaline medium is :-

(1) I2
–
(2) IO3
(3) IO–
–
(4) IO4

BIOLOGY

1) Read following terminology of Column-I & II and identify their correct match-

Column-I Column-II

A. Hypothyroidism (i) Osteoporosis

Hyper secretion
B. (ii) Cortisol
of PTH

C. Glucocorticoids (iii) Hypoglycemia

Addison's
D. (iv) Aldosterone
disease

(v) Cretinism
(1) (A-v), (B-i), (C-iv), (D-iii)
(2) (A-i), (B-v), (C-ii), (D-iv)
(3) (A-i), (B-v), (C-iv), (D-iii)
(4) (A-v), (B-i), (C-ii), (D-iii)

2) Read the following statements :-

(a) Enzyme linked immune sorbent (ELISA) is based on the principle of antigen antibody interaction.
(b) ADA enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function.
(c) In PCR multiple copies of the gene or DNA of interest is synthesised in vivo using two set of
primer.
(d) In polymerase chain reaction two sets of RNA primers is used.
(e) During PCR repeated amplification is achieved by the use of a thermostable DNA polymerase.
Choose the option with correct statements :-

(1) a, b & c
(2) c, d & e
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) a, b & e

3) Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.
Spermatogonia
↓ (A)
Primary spermatocytes
↓ (B)
Secondary spermatocytes
↓ (C)
Spermatids
↓ (D)
Spermatozoa

(1) Mitosis, Meiosis-I, Meiosis-II, Mitosis.

(2) Meiosis-I, Meiosis-II, Mitosis, Mitosis.
(3) Meiosis-I, Mitosis, Meiosis-II, Mitosis.
(4) Mitosis & differentiation, Meiosis-I, Meiosis-II, Differentiation.

4) Assertion : Placenta also act as an endocrine tissue and produce several hormones like hCG,
hPL, prolactin, cortisol etc.
Reason : The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which help in transport
of substance to and from the embryo.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true.

(2) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

5) mature insulin does not have :-

(1) Chain A & Chain B

(2) Chain B & chain C
(3) Chain C only
(4) Chain A and R chain C

6) Read the following statement and identify the phylum.

The organism is triploblastic, pseudocoelomate, bilateral symmetrical, alimentary canal complete
with well developed musculr pharynx.

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annilida
(4) Coelenterata

7) A yellow seeded and violet flowered pea plant was crossed with a green seeded and white
flowered pea plant. The progeny showed plants with two different phenotypes - yellow seed and
violet flower & green seed and violet flower were observed. Yellow seeded and violet flowered
parent must be:
(1) Double heterozygous
(2) Homozygous for seed colour and heterozygous for flower colour.
(3) Heterozygous for seed colour and homozygous for flower colour.
(4) Double homozygous

8) Select the correct statement w.r.t. above diagram.

(1) It in a multicellular gland.

(2) It in a unicellular gland.
(3) It secretes saliva.
(4) It in an endocrine gland

9)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Gene pool I. Stable within a generation

B. Genetic drift II. Change in gene frequency by chance

C. Gene flow III. Transfer of genes into or out of population.

D. Gene frequency IV. Total number of genes and their alleles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

10) Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net
(1)
primary productivity (NPP)
(2) The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy
(3) The annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons
(4) Hydrothermal vents can be the source of energy in deep sea ecosystem

11) Select the incorrect match :

(1) Trichoderma - Phycomycetes
(2) Puff balls and toad stools - Basidiomycetes
(3) White spot of crucifers - Albugo
(4) Rust of wheat - Puccinis

12) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Anton von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.
(2) The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an ostrich.
(3) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of lipids in animals
(4) Amyloplasts store oils and fats.

13) Given below are the two statement :

Statement - I : The presence of exons is reminiscent of antiquity.
Statement - II : Process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA-world.
Select the correct option :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Only Statement II is correct.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

14) Assertion (A) : The repressor protein bind to the operator region of the operon and prevents
RNA-polymerase from transcribing the operon.
Reason (R) : The repressor of the operon is synthesised all the time from the i-gene.
Select the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) is incorrect.

15)

Mitosis does not help in -

(1) Cell repair

(2) Growth of multicellular organisms
(3) Restore nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(4) Genetic variations

16) What is true about saheli

(1) "Once a week" pill with more side effects and high contraceptive value
(2) "Once a week" pill with very few side effect and low contraceptive value
(3) "Once a week" pill with no side effect and low contraceptive value
(4) "Once a week" pill with very few side effects and High contraceptive value

17) Which of the following statements is correct about sex determination in honey bee?

(1) Daughter have father but do not have son.

(2) Female have half the number of chromosomes than male.
(3) Male produce sperms by mitosis.
(4) An fertilised egg develops as a male by means of parthenogenesis.

18) Conjoint collateral and close vascular bundle with endarch xylem is characteristics of-

(1) Monocot root

(2) Dicot root
(3) Dicot stem
(4) Monocot stem

19) A species which is found only in a particular area is known as___________.

(1) Keystone species

(2) Endemic species
(3) Exotic species
(4) Alien species

20) The cells named podocytes occur in

(1) Inner wall of Bowman's capsule

(2) Outer wall of Bowman's capsule
(3) Large intestine
(4) Neck region of nephrons

21) Which of the following is not associated with Sphagnum?

(1) It is used as packing material for trans-shipment of living material

(2) It has independent gametophyte
(3) Multicellular rhizoids are present
(4) It is a Dioecious plant

22) Which of the following is not a feature of a monocot stem ?

(1) Scattered vascular bundles

(2) Vascular bundles are closed
(3) Presence of cambium
(4) Large number of vascular bundles

23) Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the taxonomic categories ?
 Generally order and other taxonomic categories are identified based on the aggregates of
(1)
characters
Families are characterized on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive feature of plant
(2)
species.
(3) Three different genera Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in the order Sapindales.
(4) Order being a higher category is the assemblage of family.

24) Assertion (A) :- Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers.
Reason (R) :- Ecosystem are not exempt from the second law of thermodynamics. They need a
constant supply of energy to synthesise the molecules they required, to counteract the universal
tendency towards increasing disorderliness.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

25) How many restriction sites are present in pBR322 for EcoRI ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 8

26) Which of the following is not a character of a stable community ?

(1) Less Annual variation in productivity

(2) Resistant to disturbances
(3) More chances of invasions by Alien species
(4) Higher productivity

27) The metaphase chromosome is made up of _______ chromatids.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

28) In frog sinous venosous receives blood from

(1) vena cava

(2) pulmonary artery
(3) both 1 and 2
(4) none of these

29) Statement-I : RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved protein synthesis and
secretion.
Statement-II : Golgi apparatus principally perform the function of packaging material.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

30) Select the incorrect statement from the following options :

(1) Pars nervosa releases two hormone

(2) Diurnal rhythms of our body is maintained by melatonin
(3) Adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoids & mineralocortioids
(4) Androgen stimulates growth & development of sex organs & secondary sex character in female

31) How many number of O2 molecules are carried by a fully saturated haemoglobin-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

32) Given below are two statement :

Statement-I :- In juxta medullary nephrons, the loop of Henle is very long.
Statement-II :- Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in cortical nephrons.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

33) Which of the following is dioecious animal ?

(1) Nereis
(2) Earthworm
(3) Leech
(4) Fasciola

34) Which one is correct order of size of following organism/structure ?

(1) Human RBC > Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > Mycoplasma
(2) Typical Eukaryotic cell > Human RBC > Bacteria > Mycoplasma
(3) Mycoplasma > Human RBC > Bacteria > PPLO
(4) Typical Eukaryotic cell > Virus > Mycoplasma > Bacteria

35) Opium is extracted from

(1) Atropa belladona
(2) Papaver somniferum
(3) Erythroxylum coca
(4) Cannabis sativa

36) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Ethylene breaks seed and bud dormancy.

(2) Auxin help overcome the apical dominance.
(3) ABA stimulates the closure of stomata.
(4) Gibberellins promotes bolting in plants with rosette habit.

37) Wild contractions of muscles due to low Ca2+ in body fluid is called as:

(1) Arthritis
(2) Tetany
(3) Osteoporosis
(4) Gout

38) Medical termination of pregnancy is considered safe up to:

(1) 12 week
(2) 30 week
(3) 40 week
(4) 27 week

39) Match the column-I with column II and choose the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II

(I) Pharynx (a) Sound box

(II) Larynx (b) Straight tube

Pleural Common passage

(III) (c)
membrane for food & air

(IV) Trachea (d) Reduce friction

(1) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(2) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c
(3) I-a, II-c, III-d, IV-b
(4) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

40) Read all statement carefully and select incorrect statement :-

(1) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem

(2) Leaves are arranged in an acropetal order
 Some plants of arid regions like Euphorbia modify their leaf into flattened structure and
(3)
contains chlorophyll
(4) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower it is always solitary

41) Assertion(A) : The depolarization phase of an neuron is primarily driven by sodium influx.
Reason(R) : Sodium channels open in response to a threshold stimulus, allowing sodium ions to
rush into the neuron.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

42) In which of the following plasmogamy is followed by karyogamy immediately?

(1) Mucor
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Ustilago
(4) Puccinia

43) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Competition

44) Select the correct option with respect to given population growth curve.

a - Resources are not limiting the growth;

(1)

(2)
b - Resources are limiting the growth;
rt
(3) a - Plot is exponential; Nt = N0e

(4)
b - Plot is logistic;

45) In which substage of prophase-I bivalent or tetrad start to be visible more clearly?

(1) Zygotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diakinesis

46) Prosthetic group of catalase is :-

(1) Zn
(2) Naicin
(3) Haem
(4) Fe

47) All of the following have directly evolved from Psilophyton, except

(1) Ferns
(2) Ginkgos
(3) Conifers
(4) Seed ferns

48) Epididymis located along the_ _ _ _ surface of each testis.

Choose correct option to fill in the blanks:

(1) Posterior
(2) Anterior
(3) Lateral
(4) Ventral

49) Which floral structure forms the seed after fertilization :

(1) Ovary
(2) Ovule
(3) Placenta
(4) Fruit

50) Given below are the two statements:

Statement-I: Phenylketonuria is caused by mutation in the gene that codes for enzyme
phenylalanine hydroxylase.
Statement-II: Phenylketonuria is a example of polygenic inheritance.
Select the correct option:

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Only Statement-I is correct.
(3) Only Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

51) Melatonin is a hormone secreted by:

(1) Pituitary gland

(2) Pineal gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Adrenal cortex

52) Statement-I :- Enzyme generally function in a narrow range of temperature and pH.
Statement-II :- When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme activity the process is called
inhibition.

(1) Both Statement are correct

(2) Both Statement are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

53) Which of the following related whit this symmetry?

(1) Annelida
(2) Mollusca
(3) Hemichordata
(4) Echinoderms

54) The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac :

(1) Through one of the two synergids

(2) By directly penetrating the egg cell
(3) Between one synergid and central cell
(4) By degenerating the antipodal cell

55) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of ?

(1) Tricuspid valves

(2) Bicuspid valves
(3) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(4) Semilunar valves

56) Ethylene break seed and bud _________ and help in _________ of leaves and flowers.

(1) Senescence, dormancy

(2) Abscission, dormancy
(3) Dormancy, abscission
(4) Senescence, abscission

57) Identify A to F in given diagram :- Choose the correct option.

A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary vein,

(1) D-Pulmonary artery, E-Dorsal aorta,
F-Vena cava
A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery,
(2)
D-Pulmonary vein, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery,
(3)
D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta
A-Body parts, B-Lungs, C-Pulmonary artery,
(4)
D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta

58) Statement-I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut RNA known as
palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement-II : Restriction endonucleases cut the RNA strand a little away from the centre of the
palindromic site.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

59) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :

List-I List-II

a. Ligase Join short segment of DNA together

b. DNA polymerase Cuts protein at specific sequence

Breaks the hydrogen bonds between

c. Helicase
complementary pairs during DNA replication
(1) a, b and c are correct.
(2) a and b are correct but c is false.
(3) a is correct but b and c are false.
(4) a and c are correct but b is false.

60) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Pectoral and pelvic girdle bones help in the articulation of fore and hind limbs
respectively with the axial skeleton.
Statement-II : Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three - ilium, pubis, Ischium.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

61) Arrange the events of A.D.H. hormone function in blood pressure regulation
(A) Hypothalamus secretes ADH
(B) Excessive loss of fluid from body
(C) Release of ADH from neurohypophysis
(D) ADH cause constrictory effect on blood vessel
(E) Increase in blood pressure & GFR

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) B → A → D → C → E
(3) B → A → C → D → E
(4) A → B → D → C → E

62) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by the microbial activity and which may be used as fuel.
The biogas plant consists of a concrete tank (10-15 feet deep) in which bio-wastes are collected
(2)
and a slurry of dung is fed.
(3) The biogas thus produced is used for cooking and lighting.
(4) All of the above

63) Read the following statements :-

a. In the alveoli high PO2, low PCO2, lesser H+ concentration & lower temperature are favourable for
the formation of oxyhemoglobin.
b. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissue under normal
physiological condition.
c. The second heart sound (Dub) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves
d. Open circulatory system is present in Arthropoda Mollusca and Annelida.
e. Crocodile have a 3-chambered heart.
Choose the correct option :-

(1) a, b & e
(2) c, d & e
(3) a, b & c
(4) b, d & e

64) Which enzyme converts sucrose into glucose and fructose :-

(1) Amylase
(2) Invertase
(3) Mutase
(4) Isomerase

65) Person having intermittent rhinitis problem. After checkup, doctor prescribed differential
antibody concentration count. Concentration of IgE remarkably shoot up from normal in that person.
Most probable diagnosis may be ?

(1) Skin cancer

(2) Goitre
(3) Hay fever
(4) Enteric fever

66) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Photosynthesis takes place in the green parts of the plants, mainly the leaves.
Within the chloroplasts, the membranes are sites for the light reaction, while the biosynthetic
(2)
pathway occurs in the stroma.
Splitting of water molecules is associated with PS-I results in the release of O2, protons &
(3)
transfer of electrons to PS II
(4) RuBiSCo also catalyses a wasteful oxygenation reaction in C3 plants: Photorespiration.

67) Assertion (A) : If Rh antigen present on the RBC the blood is said to the Rh+ve
Reason (R) : The Rh - ve blood do not have Rh antibody against the Rh antigen

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Only Assertion is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

68) The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of:

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Calcitonin
(3) Parathormone
(4) Both calcitonin and parathormone

69) Which of the following is true for frog

food is captured by tongue and by the action of HCl and gastric juices starts digesting in
(1)
stomach
(2) Food from stomach reaches duodenum mixes with bile and pancreatic juice
(3) Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juice digests carbohydrate and protein
(4) All are true

70) Assertion: The breakdown of proton gradient due to movement through the CFo part of the ATP
synthase enzyme releases enough energy for synthesis of ATP.
Reason: After absorbing light, electrons are excited and transferred through PS II and PS I and
finally to NADP+ forming NADPH + H+.

(1) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect

(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
(3) Assertion and reason both are incorrect
(4) Assertion and reason both are correct

71) Which is the correct sequence for embryogenesis in dicots?

(1) Zygote → Globular stage → Proembryo → Heart shaped embryo → Mature embryo
(2) Zygote → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Mature stage
(3) Zygote → Proembryo → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Mature embryo
(4) Zygote → Proembryo → Globular stage → Heart shaped embryo → Mature embryo

72)

Given below are the two statements :

Statement - I : In prokaryotes transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of gene
expression.
Statement - II : In eukaryotes gene regulation can be exerted at several levels.
Select the correct option :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Only statement-I is correct.
(3) Only statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

73) Visceral nervous system is a part of peripheral neural system that comprises the whole complex
of :-

(1) Nerves
(2) Ganglia
(3) Plexuses
(4) All of the above

74) A man of genotype IAIB, will have which antigens on the surface of its RBC:

(1) Only 'A' antigen

(2) Only 'B' antigen
(3) Both 'A' and 'B' antigen
(4) No antigen

75) Assertion: The hormones produced by hypothalamus are of two types, the releasing hormones
and the inhibiting hormones.
Reason: A hypothalmic hormone called Gonadotrophin releasing hormone(GnRH) stimulates the
pituitary gland to synthesis and release of gonadotrophins. On the other hand, somatostatin from the
hypothalamus inhibit the growth hormone from the pituitary.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

76) Read the following four statements (A-D) -

A. Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
B. Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary.
C. Wind pollinated pollens are light and non-sticky.
D. Vallisneria is an aquatic plant but it is pollinated by insect.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

77) Match column I with column II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Transgenic mice (A) Genetically engineered Insulin

(ii) Bacillus thuringiensis (B) Biopiracy

(iii) E-coli (C) Polio vaccine

(iv) Basmati rice (D) Insect resistant plants

(1) i-A ; ii - B ; iii - C ; iv - D
(2) i-A ; ii - D ; iii - B ; iv - C
(3) i-C ; ii - D ; iii - A ; iv - B
(4) i-D ; ii - C ; iii - B ; iv - A

78) Statement-I :- Primary metabolites have identifiable function and play known roles in normal
physiological processes.
Statement-II :- Anthocyanin and carotenoids are secondary metabolities.

(1) Both Statement are correct

(2) Both Statement are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

79) Extinction of Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon was due to-

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) Co-extinction
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) Over exploitation

80) The correct sequence of events during relaxation of muscle :-

(i) Masking of the active site of actin filament
(ii) Ca++ returned to SR
(iii) Returning of Z lines back to their orginal position

(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (ii), (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (i)
(4) (iii), (ii), (i)

81) In female cockroach 7th sternum together with 8th and 9th sterna form __a__ whose anterior
part contain __b__.

(1) (a) Female gonopore, (b) Female genital gland

(2) (a) brood or genital pouch, (b) female genital gland
(3) (a) brood or genital pouch, (b) anal cerci
(4) (a) brood or genital pouch, (b) female gonopore

82) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II & III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Muscular
1. Cerebellum Fore brain
coordination

Temperature
2. Hypothalamus Mid brain
regulation

Relay
3. Thalamus Mid brain
centre

Pneumotaxic
4. Pons Hind brain
centre
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Aedes mosquitoes are vector of-

(1) Dengue
(2) Chikungunya
(3) Malaria
(4) Both (1) and (2)

84) Identify the correct explanation for ecological pyramid:

(1) Pyramid of energy - Always upright
(2) Pyramid of biomass in forest - Inverted
(3) Pyramid of number in grassland - Inverted
(4) Pyramid of biomass in pond - upright

85) Light DNA molecule is replicated in a heavy medium. After the four successive replication of
DNA, 16 DNA molecules are formed. Which one the following is true for these DNA.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

86) Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding cellular respiration?

(1) Cellular energy - AMP

(2) Source of energy- C-C bond cleavage
(3) Type of process- exergonic
(4) Time of occurrence - As per the requirements

87) Match the list I with list II and list III :

List-I List-II List-III

Divergent Wings of butterfly and of

(A) (P) Homology (I)
evolution birds

Convergent Flippers of penguins and

(B) (Q) Analogy (II)
evolution dolphins

(III) Vertebrate brains

(IV) Sweet potato and potato

Choose the correct option :
(1) A-(Q-III), B-(P-I,II,IV)
(2) A-(P-III), B-(Q-I,II,IV)
(3) A-(P-I,II,IV), B-(Q-III)
(4) A-(Q-I,II,IV), B-(P-III)

88) – Marine
– Mouth is located terminal
– Placoid scales
– Cartilaginous endoskeleton
– Male Bear claspers
– External fertilisation
– Oviparous
– Air bladder absent
– Gill cover operculum present
How many informations are not correct about Scoliodon ?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Four

89) Sexual reproduction is oogamous type and accompanied with complex post fertilization
development in:

(1) Polysiphonia
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Chara
(4) Eudorina

90) An [Link] with heavy DNA molecule is transferred into the medium with normal nitrogen
(14NH4CI). After 40 minutes what will be the percentage of heavy DNA molecule?

(1) 12.5%
(2) 25%
(3) 0%
(4) 6.25%
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 2 4 4 2 4 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 4 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 2 1 4 4 3 2 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 1 4 2 2 4 4 3 4 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 1 3 3 3 4 1 2 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 2 3 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 4 1 4 3 1 3 3 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 4 1 3 1 2 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) E1 = ϕ0 + 4KEmax ..... (1)

E2 = ϕ0 + KEmax ..... (2)
By solving 1 & 2
ϕ0 = 4 × 10–19 J

2)

(a) In rolling without slipping friction force involved is static in nature and it is given by

here

(b)
(c) Work done by fs is zero.
(d) fk = 0

3)
Later, ............... (i)

.............. (ii)

4) For floating mg = ρving

⇒ Vin =
since inside volume is independent of 'g' so fraction of volume will remain same.

5)
6)

In a helix, radius is constant ⇒ a = = constant.

In a spiral, radius increases ⇒ a = decreases as r increases.

7) In a compound microscope:
• The objective lens forms a real, inverted, and magnified image of the object — this image is
called Io.
• The eyepiece then acts as a simple microscope and produces a virtual, magnified image Ie​ of
that real image.

8)
Retentivity = 2.0 T
Co-ercivity = 40 A/m
Saturation = 3.0 T
9)

n + 55 b = 3 n

n=
n = 110 Hz

10)

11)

= 3 cos 37° + 3 sin 37° =

= 4 cos 53° + 4 sin 53° =

12) Here u = 10 cm and f = = 30 cm

so ⇒

= – 15 cm ⇒ real image

13)
using ACL for close path ONLM

= µ ΣI
0

0
= µ (ΣI)

0
= µ ΣI
B(ℓ) + 0 + B(ℓ) + 0 = µ0ΣI
2Bℓ = µ0(Kℓ)
(dℓ म current = Kdℓ)
(ℓ म current = Kℓ)

B=

14)

Transition A involves an electron moving from n = ∞ to the n = 1 level. This represents the
series limit of the Lyman series.
Transition B involves an electron moving from n = 5 to m = 2 level, B represent the third
member of the Balmer series.
Transition C involves an electron moving from the n = 5 to n = 3 level. It is the second
member of Paschen series.

15)

For Gas A

P1V =

P'1(2V) =

P'1 – P1 = ΔP =

ΔP = ...(i)
For Gas B

P2V =

P'2(2V) =

P'2 – P2 = = 1.5 ΔP

= 1.5 ΔP = ...(ii)
Eqn (i) / eqn (ii)

⇒ 3mA = 2mB

16) Here, E = 200 cos (314t) = 200 sin (314t + π/2) and I = sin(314t + π/4)
In phasor (vector) representation, E = 200 ∠0°, I = 1∠(–45°)

17)
 = 305 K
= 32°C

18)
After collision between A and B
and

After collision between B and C

Again after collision between A and B

and

19)

Maximum height of water in tank obtained when incoming volume of water is equal to
outgoing volume of water
Q = A1v1 = A ×
70 = 1 ×
H = 2.5 cm

20) Reading = M.S.R + L.C. × V.S.R

[L.C. = = 0.01 cm]

=
= 5.16 cm

21)

γapp. = γliquid – γcontainer

C = γL – γcopper
 C = γL – 3A ..(i)
S = γL – γsilver
S = γL – 3αs ..(ii)
Equating valve of γL

from (i) and (ii) C + 3A = S + 3αs

22) By applying C.O.M.E.

Pi + Ki = Pf + Kf

23) Fnet = 0 and τnet = 0

Because of the W of door tries to rotate it clockwise so to oppose this normal at hinges
produces anti clockwise torque.

24) Under a constant current, only a capacitor shows a linearly increasing voltage . The

slope tells you how fast the capacitor charges.

25) v2 = ω2(A2– x2) = 3ω2a2 ⇒ ω =

x = 2a sin (ωt + ϕ), v = 2aw cos (ωt + ϕ)
At t = 0, x = a & v = +ve

⇒ ϕ=
v at ϕ = π/6 = + ve and v at ϕ = 5π/6 = –ve
So, ϕ = π/6
x = 2a sin (ωt + ϕ) = 2a[sin ωt cos ϕ + cos ωt sin ϕ]

x=a

26) (A) As Fext = 0, the centre of mass of the system remain fixed. Also initial velocity of centre
of mass is zero.
(B) Let d be displacement of plank (right) in this process M1(2 + d) + Md – M2(2 – d) = 0. ∴ d
= 0.2m
(C) Displacement of A = 2 + 0.2 = 2.2 m.
(D) Displacement of B = 2 – 0.2 = 1.8 m.
 27)

statement-I : charge is invariant because the electric charge of a partical remain constant
regardless of its motion.

statement-II : Charge dose not depend on the frame of reference, it dose not change with the
observer's from of reference.

28) Let they meet after time 't'. Distance covered by body A = at2; Distance covered by body

B = ut and at2 = ut ∴ t =

29)

Here Req = R' =

Now

or ln 4 =

∴t=

30) Force acting on plate,

Mass of water reaching the plate per sec =

(ν = ν1 + ν2 = velocity of water coming out of jet w.r.t. plate)

(A = Area of cross section of jet )

31)

Given ω = 3π

∴ ,
Also Δx = 1.0 cm

Given , ⇒
⇒ λ = 16 cm ⇒ v = f λ = 16 × 1.5 = 24 cm/sec
32)

Given that,
Number of turns N = 60
Area = (20 × 10) × 10–4 m2

Frequency
B = 0.5 T
Then maximum induced EMF will be
E0 = NBAω
= 60 × 0.5 × 20 × 10 × 10–4 × 2π × 30
= 113 volt

33)

Q = CV

Q=

Id =

Id =
Id = 2.2 × 10–6 A
= 2.2 μA

34) Transverse magnification,

Longitudinal / Axial magnification, m = –m2 = –4

35)
As given RL = 980 Ω & RD = 20 Ω

∴
∴

∴ Imean = = 45 mA
36)
V" =

V' =
If 15% less means 85% remain
Kf = 85% of Ki

m(V")2 =

2gh =
Solve for V0

37)

BEPN for 1H2 ⇒

For 2He4 ⇒

For

For 92U235 ⇒ = 7.6

56
So 26Fe is most stable

38)

Using the rule Y = A + BC = (A+B) (A+C)

Y=A+B
OR Gate
The corresponding Truth Table will be-
39)

40)

According to given diagram

[sin(90–ϕ1) + sin(90 – ϕ2]

41)
∵ ρ and ℓ are same,

42) An unpolarised beam has half its intensity transmitted by the first Nicol

Intensity of polarized light from 1st polarizer = = 50

Light passes through second Nicol at 60°, according to Malus’ law, intensity after the second
Nicol is

Percentage transmitted = × 100 = × 100 = 12.5 %

43)

44) For parallel combination of resistances

or

Here Req =
 = (4445) ≅ 1.8Ω
Hence Req = (66.7 ± 1.8)Ω

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

[NaOH] =

[H2SO4] =
2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
4×10–2mol 10–2mol

pOH = 4 – log4 ⇒ pH = 10 + log4 = 10.6

47)

NCERT Pg. No. # 348

48)

(II) The difference in

(I) Energy of resonance energies between energy
hybrid is higher than of resonance hybrid and
Statement
that of any of the lowest energy resonating
canonical structure. structure is called as
resonance energy.

False. Resonance leads to

True. This is the correct
stabilization. The
definition of resonance
resonance hybrid is the
energy. It quantifies the
actual molecule and is
Analysis extra stability of the real
more stable (has lower
molecule compared to its
energy) than any of its
most stable contributing
hypothetical canonical
structure.
structures.

Conclusion Incorrect Statement Correct Statement

Since Statement I is false and Statement II is true, we can determine the correct option.
Final Answer : Option (4)

49)
0.224 × 2 = VL × 4
[V L = 0.122L]

50) Al4C3 CH4

Mg2C3 CH3–C≡CH, CaC2 C2H2.

51) k =

⇒ lnk =

⇒ Ea =
⇒
⇒ Ea = 2.49 × 10–4 J mol–1

52) Solution:
Main Rule: hydrolysis of lactose yields β–D–galactose and β–D–glucose.

53)

NH4OH + NH4Cl
0.05 M 0.001 M

= 1.8 × 10–5 ×
= 9 × 10–4 M

54) NCERT Pg. No. # 86 Part-I

55) Explain Question:

This question asking about hypervalent compounds exceed the octet.

Concept:
Hypervalent compounds

Solution:
PCl5, SF6, ClF3 → more than 8 electrons
BF3 → less than 8 electrons → not hypervalent
Final answer: Option (3)

56) The correct IUPAC name is 3-amino-4-cyanohexanoic acid

E. Final Answer: (Option 1).

57)

(i) Correct: Peptization is the conversion of a fresh precipitate into a colloid.

(ii) Incorrect: Lyophilic sols are typically organic (starch, gum). Inorganic sols are usually
lyophobic.

(iii) Correct: Lyophilic means "solvent-loving," so particles are highly solvated.

(iv) Incorrect: Lyophobic sols are irreversible. Lyophilic sols are reversible.

58) ΔG° = –2.303 RT log10KP

ΔG° = –2.303 × 8.31 × 298 × log(5 × 10–5)
ΔG° = 2.303 × 8.31 × 298 × [5 – log5]
ΔG° = 24523 Joule
= 24.52 KJ

59) NCERT Page No.# 97

60)

Explain Question : Identify incorrect statement.

Concept : This question is based on H-bonding

Solution : Hydrogen bonding occurs between highly electronegative. atoms (F, O, N) not
between least electronegative elements.

Final Answer : option (4)

61)

(P)
(Q)

(R)

(S)
∴ Order of rate of dehydration : P > R > S > Q

Final Answer: Option (3)

62)
PbSO4 + 6H2O → PbO + H2SO4.5H2O; ΔH =+23.3 Kcal
H2SO4.5H2O → SO3 + 6H2O; ΔH = +41.0 Kcal

∴ For ; ΔH = – 101.2 Kcal

63)

Basic strength

In , strong resonance

64) C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)

teq 0.75p 2 × 0.25 P
Total pressure ⇒ 0.75 P + 0.5 P = 6
⇒ P = 4.8

KP =
65)
H2S2O7

66)

Mn(CO)5
EAN = 25 – 0 + (2 × 5) = 35

67) Explanation Question:

CFT Configuration of potassium ferricyanide K3[Fe(CN)6].

Concept:
CFT.

Solution:
K3[Fe(CN)6]
0
O.S of Fe = +3 Fe+3 = 4s 3d5
CN– is strong field ligand hence CFSE would be high and pairing would take place.

Final answer : Option (2)

68)

Acidic strength
AS :- 1 > 2 > 4 > 3

69) (a)
(b) r = 0.529 × 9 Å
(c) V = 2.188 × 106 × 3 m/s
(d) KE = –TE = 13.6 × 4 eV

70)
 In acidic medium
→
+3 +4
nf = 2
meq of = 250 × 0.1 × 2 = 50
(1) KMnO4 → Mn2+
nf = 5
meq of KMnO4 = 200 × 0.1 × 5 = 200
(2) K2Cr2O7 → Cr3+
nf = 6
meq of K2Cr2O7 = 250 × 0.2 × 6 = 300
(3) meq of KMnO4 = 100 × 0.1 × 5 = 50
(4) meq of K2Cr2O7 = 100 × 0.1 × 6 = 60

71)
(1) Equimolar mixture of I and II are racemic mixture (optically inactive due to external
compensation).
(2) II and III are enantiomer, so different behaviour towards PPL.
(3) II & III are enantiomer (not identical).
(4) Enantiomer (I and II) have same physical property eg MP, BP, viscosity etc. except rotation
of PPL, so they are not separated by fractional distillation.

72)

Solution: Decarboxylation is fastest in β-keto acids due to formation of stable six-membered

cyclic transition state. Option (2) has COOH at β-position to C=O, making it most reactive.
Final answer: Option (1)

73)

Stability of carbocation

The final decreasing order of stability is II > I > III > IV

Final Answer : Option (2)

74) NCERT Pg. # 36

75)

NCERT-XII, Part-1, d&f-Block, Pg # 104

76)

Al(s) + 3Ag+(aq) → Al3+(aq) + 3Ag(s)

0.1 M 0.3 M

E = E° –

1.5 =
1.5 = E° – 0.02 log 300
E° = 1.5 + 0.02 × 2.48
E° = 1.5496V

77)

78) (A) XeF5¯ → (5σ + 3LP) ⇒ sp3d3 ⇒ Pentagonal planner

(B) ICl2¯ → (2σ + 3LP) ⇒ sp3d ⇒ Linear
(C) H3F+ → (3σ + 1LP) ⇒ sp3 ⇒ Pyramidal
(D) XeOF4 → (5σ + 1LP) ⇒ sp3d2 ⇒ Pentagonal planner
NCERT XI Part -I Page No. # 111 Edition Feb.-19, table 4.7

79)

Baeyer's reagent results is syn addition of 'OH' & form's syn diol.
In presence of Ag2O, it results in Anti addition of 'OH'.

80) As we move down the group stability of lower oxidation state increases.
81)

ΔTƒ = i m Kƒ i = 1 – α + nα = 1.5
= 1.5 × 0.5 × 1.86 = 1.395
Tƒ = 273 – 1.395 = 271.60 K

82)

E2 involves anti elimination.

83) Moles of MgCO3 req. =

= 0.05 mol
(pure) = 0.05 × 84 g = 4.2 g

% purity =

84) NCERT 12th Page No. # 356

85)

86)

Question Explanation: Compare stability of N2+ and N2– using bond order.
Concept: This question is based on Molecular orbital theory

Solution: Both N2+ and N2– have the same bond order (2.5), but N2+ has fewer electrons in
antibonding orbitals than N2–, hence higher bond order and greater stability.

N2+ (13 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​σ2pz1
0
N2– (15 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​σ2pz2 , π∗2px1= ​π∗2py
Final Answer: Option (3)

87) Question Explanation:

Question is asking that Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of which group

Concept:
This question is based on Group reagent

Solution:
Dil. HCl + H2O is the group reagent of IIndgroup
 Hence,
Correct Option:2

88) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-321, 322

89)
0
[Fe(CN)6]4– ⇒ Fe+2 = 4s 3d6 CN– = S.F.L
– – eg
t2g
inner orbital complex = d2sp3 diamagnetic.

90)

Page-227, NCERT-XII, Part-I

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 242 to 245

92) NCERT Pg. # 172-173, 182-183

93) NCERT Pg. # 31

94) NCERT Pg. # 37

95) NCERT Pg.# 182

96) NCERT, Pg. # 43

97) NCERT Page No. 55, 62 (E), 62, 70 (H)

98)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 102

99)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

 100) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 207, 209

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 17, 18

102) NCERT-XI Page No. 87, 89, 95, 97

103) NCERT Pg. # 95(E), 105(H)

104) NCERT Pg. # 101(E), 111(H)

105)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 125

106)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 45

107) NCERT Page No. 71

108) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 73

109) Module

110)

Correct Answer: 1. Inner wall of Bowman's capsule

Explanation :

A. Podocytes are specialized cells present in the inner wall of Bowman's capsule.
B. They have foot-like projections (pedicels) that form filtration slits, allowing only small
molecules to pass while preventing large proteins and blood cells from entering the filtrate.

Thus, Option 1 (Inner wall of Bowman's capsule) is correct.

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29, 30

112) NCERT Pg. No. # 74-75

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 7

114) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 207, 209

115)

Explain Question – The question asks how many restriction sites for the enzyme EcoRI are
present in the plasmid vector pBR322.

Concept – pBR322 - cloning vector in E. coli.

Solution – Since EcoRI has only one recognition site in pBR322, digestion with EcoRI
produces a single linear fragment. This property makes it useful for cloning experiments.

Final Answer : Option 3

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 221

117) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 123

118)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 81

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 95, 96

120)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 246

121)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 189, 190

122) NCERT, Pg. # 208

123)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 43

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 90

125)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 142, 143

126) NCERT Pg. # 176, 177

127)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 243

128) 12 week .

129) NCERT Pg. # 184

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 59, 60, 61

131)

NCERT-XI Page No. 232,233

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 17

133) NCERT 12th, Page No. # 201

134) NCERT-XII, Pg. 194

135) NCERT, Pg. # 126

136) NCERT Pg. # 118

137)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 122

138)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 27

139) NCERT-XI Pg. No. # 66

140) NCERT Page No. 69(E), 77(H)

141)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 242

142) NCERT Pg. # 116

143) NCERT Pg. # 38

144)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 16

145) NCERT Pg. #199

146) NCERT Pg. # 177

147)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 202

148) NCERT Pg. 165

149) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 90

150) NCERT Pg. No. # 226

151) NCERT Pg.# 297

152) NCERT, Pg. # 155-156

153) NCERT Pg. # 189, 197

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

155)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 137

156) NCERT, Pg. # 151

157) NCERT Pg. # 196

158)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 243

159)
NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 82, 83

160) NCERT, Pg. # 151

161)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 19

162)

NCERT Pg. # 99-100 (E), 109-110 (H)

163) NCERT Pg. # 316

164) NCERT Page No. 61(E), 68, 69(H)

165)

NCERT XII Page No. # 332

166)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 13, 14

167) NCERT Pg. 179,182, 184,185

168) NCERT Pg. # 108

169) NCERT 12th, Page No. # 223

170) Thus, the correct sequence is: (ii) → (i) → (iii), which matches Option 2

171)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 114

172)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 235, 236

173)
NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 137

174) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 212, 213

175) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 89

176) NCERT Pg # 154

177) NCERT XII PG # 114-115

178)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 48

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28

180)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 89