Page |1

Class : NEET (Freshers) (C) – 10% (D) 10 %

5. A student measure the distance traversed in
Subject : Part Test free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given
Duration : 3 Hrs time. He used this data to estimate g, the
acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum
Date : 14th Sept’25 percentage errors in measurement of the
distance and the time are e 1 and e2 respectively,
the percentage error in the estimation of g is:
1. The maximum error in the measurement of
(A) e2 – e1 (B) e1 + 2e2
mas and density of the cube are 3% and 9%
(C) e1 + e2 (D) e1 – 2e2
respectively. The maximum error in the
measurement of length will be:
6. The position x of a particle varies with time
(A) 2% (B) 3%
as x = at2 – bt3. The acceleration of the particles
(C) 6% (D) 9%
is zero at time t which will be equal to:
2. Consider the following equation of Bernoulli (A) (B)
theorem.
(C) (D) zero

Which of the following quantity has same

dimensions as that of K/P? 7. The acceleration a in ms–2 of a particle is
(A) Thrust (B) Pressure given by a = 3t2 + 2t + 2, where t is the time. If
(C) Angle (D) Viscosity the particles starts out with a velocity u = 2 ms –1
at t = 0. Then the velocity at the end of 2
3. The dimensions of a/b in the equation seconds is:
(A) 12 ms–1 (B) 18 ms–1
, where P is pressure, x is distance (C) 27 ms –1
(D) 36 ms–1
and t is time are: 8. Acceleration (a)- displacement (s) graph of a
(A) [M2LT–3] (B) [ML0T–2] particle moving in a straight line is shown in the
(C) [ML3T–1] (D) [M0LT–3] adjacent figure. The initial velocity of the
particle is zero. The v-s graph of the particle
4. In an experiment, the percentage of error would be:
occurred in the measurement of physical
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and
4% respectively. Then the maximum
percentages of error in the measurement of X,
where X = will be: (A) (B)

(A) (B) 16%

 Page |2

equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then

given by:

(A)
(C) (D)
(B)

(C)

9. The acceleration-displacement graph of a (D)

particle moving in a straight line is as shown in
the figure. Initial velocity of particle is zero.
Velocity of the particle when displacement of 13. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 o with
the particle is s = 10 m is: the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile
at its highest point as seen from the point of
projection, is:
(A) 60o (B)

(C) (D) 45o

(A) m/s (B) 2 m/s

14. The width of river is 1 km. The velocity of
(C) 3 m/s (D) 10 m/s
boat is 5 km/hr. The boat covered the width of
river with shortest possible path in 15 min. Then
10. A body travels a distance of 20 m in the 7 th the velocity of the river stream is:
second and 24 m in 9th second. How much (A) 3 km/hr (B) 4 km/hr
distance shall it travel in the 15th second?
(C) km/hr (D) km/hr
(A) 10 m (B) 16 m
(C) 24 m (D) 36 m
15. When an object is shot from the bottom of a
long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60 o
11. If then the value of
with horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along
is: the plane. But when the inclination is decreased
to 30o and the same object is shot with the same
(A)
velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Then x1 : x2
will be:
(B) A + B
(A) (B)
(C)
(C) (D)
(D)
16. A block of weigh 4 kg is resting on a smooth
horizontal plane. If it is struck by a jet of water
12. A particle moving in a circle4 of radius R at the rate of 2 kg s–1 and at the speed of 10 ms–1,
with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete then the initial acceleration of the block is:
one revolution. If this particle were projected (A) 15 ms–1 (B) 10 ms–1
with the same speed at an angle ‘θ’ to the (C) 2.5 ms –1
(D) 5 ms–1
horizontal, the maximum height attained by it
 Page |3

17. Two masses 40 kg and 30 kg are connected

by a weightless string passing over a frictionless
pulley as shown in the figure. The tension in the
string will be:
(A) Mg (B) Mg

(C) (D)

(A) 188 N (B) 368 N 21. A homogeneous chain of length L lies on a

(C) 288 N (D) 168 N table. The coefficient of friction between the
chain and the table is μ. The maximum length
18. A ball of mass m is thrown upwards with a which can hang over the table in equilibrium is:
velocity v. If air exerts an average resisting
force F, the velocity with which the ball returns (A) (B)
to the thrower is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(C) (D) 22. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of

mass 940 kg and presses the button on control
panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an
19. A block of mass m1 lies on a smooth acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the tension
horizontal table and is connected to another in the supporting cable is:
freely hanging block of mass m2 by a light (A) 8600 N (B) 9680 N
inextensible string passing over a smooth fixed (C) 11000 N (D) 1200 N
pulley situated at the edge of the table as shown
in the figure. Initially the system is at rest with 23. A monkey is descending from branch of a
m1 at a distance d from the pulley. The time tree with constant acceleration. If the breaking
taken for m1 to reach the pulley is: strength is 75% of the weight of the monkey,
the minimum acceleration with which monkey
can slide down without branch is:
(A) g (B) 3g/4
(C) g/4 (D) g/2

24. On the horizontal surface of a truck a block

of mass 1 kg is placed (μ = 0.6) and truck is
moving with acceleration 5 m/s2 then the
(A) (B) frictional force on the block will be:
(A) 5 N (B) 6 N
(C) 5.88 N (D) 8 N
(C) (D)
25. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against
the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
20. A mass M is hung with light inextensible radius 1m. The coefficient of friction between
strings as shown in the figure. The tension in the the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
horizontal string is: 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
 Page |4

the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its Where, Tmax = maximum tension and Tmin =
axis, will be: (g = 10 m/s2)
minimum tension, then
(A) (B)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 10 rad/s (D) 10 π rad/s (C) 3 (D) 4
26. A force F is related to the position of a 30. A metal ball of mas 2 kg moving with speed
particle by the relation F = (10 x 2) N. The work of 36 km h–1 has head on collision with a
done by the force when the particle moves from stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after collision,
x = 2m to x = 4m is: both the balls move together, then the loss in
(A) 56/3 J (B) 560 J kinetic energy due to collision is:
(C) 560/3 J (D) 3/560 J (A) 40 J (B) 60 J
(C) 100 J (D) 140 J
27. If the force acting on the body is inversely
proportional to its speed, then its kinetic energy 31. The K.E. of a person is just half of K.E. of a
is: boy whose mass is just half of that person. If
(A) linearly related to time person increases its speed by 1 m/s, then its
(B) inversely proportional to time K.E. equals to that of boy then initial speed of
(C) inversely proportional to the square of time person was:
(D) a constant
(A) (B)
28. A ball of mass m is dropped from a height h (C) 2 (D) None
on a platform fixed at the top of a vertical
spring, as shown in figure. The platform is
depressed by a distance x. Then the spring 32. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5
constant is: m/s as a horizontal smooth surface, collides
with a nearly weightless spring of force constant
k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the
spring would be:

(A) 0.12 m (B) 1.5 m

(C) 0.5 m (D) 0.15 m

(A) (B) 33. Two springs A and B (KA = 2KB) are

stretched by same suspended weights then ratio
of work done in stretching is:
(C) (D) (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
29. An object is tied to a string and rotated in a
34. A car of mass m starts from rest and
vertical circle of radius r. Constant speed is
accelerates so that the instantaneous power
maintained along the trajectory. If , delivered to the car has a constant magnitude P 0.
 Page |5

The instantaneous velocity of this car is another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the
proportional to: surface of earth, is:
(A) t2Po (B) t1/2 (A) 10 hours (B) hours
(C) t–1/2 (D) (C) 6 hours (D) hours

35. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with speed 41. Which one of the following plots represents
of 36 km/h has head on collision with a the variation of gravitational field on a particle
stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after collision, with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of
both the balls move as a single mass, then the radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the
loss in K.E. due to collision is: spherical shell)
(A) 100 J (B) 140 J (A) (B)
(C) 40 J (D) 60 J

36. Two point masses A and B having masses in

the ratio 4 : 3 are separated by a distance of 1 m.
When another point mass C of mas M is placed
in between A and B. the force between A and C (C) (D)
is 1/3rd of the force between B and C. Then the
distance of C and A is:
(A) 2/3 m (B) 1/3 m
(C) 1/4 m (D) 2/7 m

37. At what weight h above the earth’s surface,

the value of g becomes g/2? 42. A body weights 200 N on the surface of the
(where R is the radius of the earth) earth. How much will it weigh half way down to
(A) (B) the centre of the earth?
(A) 150 N (B) 200 N
(C) (D) (C) 250 N (D) 100 N

43. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (vc) to

38. The escape velocity corresponding to a
the escape velocity at a planet (v p) whose radius
planet of mass M and radius R is 50 km/s. If the
and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
planet’s mass and radius were 4M and R
respectively, then the corresponding escape (A) 1 : 2 (B)
velocity would be: (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 2
(A) 100 km/s (B) 50 km/s
(C) 200 km/s (D) 25 km/s 44. With what velocity should a particle be
projected so that its height becomes equal to
39. An artificial satellite moving in a circular radius of earth:
orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic +
(A) (B)
potential) energy E0. Its potential energy is:
(A) – E0 (B) 1.5 E0
(C) 2 E0 (D) E0 (C) (D)

40. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth

at a height of 6R above the surface of earth, R 45. A ball is dropped from a spacecraft revolving
being the radius of earth. The time period of around the earth at a height of 120 km. What
will happen to the ball?
 Page |6

(A) It will fell down to the earth gradually The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is
(B) It will go very fat in the space related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions
(C) It will continue to move with the same as following:
speed along the original orbit of spacecraft (A) d[Br2]/dt = –(3/5)d[Br–]/dt
(D) It will move with the same speed, (B) d[Br2]/dt = (5/3)d[Br–]/dt
tangentially to the spacecraft. (C) d[Br2]/dt = –(5/3)d[Br–]/dt
(D) d[Br2]/dt = (3/5)d[Br–]/dt
46. How fast the reaction is at 25 oC as compared
to 0oC. If the activation energy is 65 kJ. 52. The rate constants k1 an dk2 for two
(A) 2 times (B) 5 times different reactions are 1016e–2000/T and 1015e–1000/T,
(C) 11 times (D) 16 times respectively. The temperature at which k1 = k2
is:
47. The concentration of reactant X decreases
from 0.1 M to 0.005 M in 40 minutes. If the (A) 1000 K (B)
reaction follows first order kinetics, the rate of
reaction when concentration of X is 0.01 M will (C) 2000 K (D)
be:
(A) 1.73 × 10–4 M min–1
53. For the reaction 2A + B → 3C + D which of
(B) 3.47 × 10–4 M min–1
the following does not express the reaction rate?
(C) 3.47 × 10–4 M min–1
(D) 7.50 × 10–4 M min–1 (A) (B)
48. When initial concentration of a reactant id
doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not (C) (D)
affected. The order of the reaction is:
(A) zero
(B) first 54. For the reaction R – X + OH → ROH + X–
(C) second The rate is given of rate = 5.0 × 10–5 [R–X]
(D) more than zero but less than first [OH–] + 0.20 × 10–5 [R–X] what percentage of
R-X reaction by SN2 mechanism when [OH–] =
49. For an endothermic reaction, energy of 1.0 × 10–2 M
activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is ΔH (A) 96.1% (B) 3.9 %
(both of these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of E a (C) 80 % (D) 20%
will be
(A) less than ΔH (B) equal to ΔH 55. The plot of log k versus 1/T is linear with a
(C) more than ΔH (D) equal to zero slope of:
(A) (B) –
50. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, if
d[NH3]/dt = 2 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1, the value of –
d[H2]/dt would be: (C) (D) –
(A) 3 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1
(B) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1 56. For a certain reaction involving a single
(C) 6 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1
(D) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1 reactant, it is found that is constant where
C0 is the initial concentration of the reactant and
51. In the reaction, T is the half-life. What is the order of the
reaction?
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) 3
 Page |7

(C) 6.25 % (D) 7.33 %

57. For the first order reaction t99% = x × t90 %
the value of ‘x’ will be: 64. Two substances A and B are present such
(A) 10 (B) 6 that [A0] = 4[B0] and half-life of A is 5 minute
(C) 3 (D) 2 and that of B is 15 minute. If they start decaying
at the same time following first order kinetics
58. A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a how much time later will the concentration of
reaction from 20 kJ mole–1 to 10 kJ mole–1. The both of them would be same:
temperature at which the uncatalysed reaction (A) 15 minute (B) 10 minute
will have the same rate as that of the catalysed (C) 5 minute (D) 12 minute
at 27oC s
(A) – 123oC (B) 327oC 65. At a given temperature, the equilibrium
o
(C) 320 C (D) + 23oC constants for the reaction,

59. Find out the percentage of the reactant and

molecules crossing over the energy barrier at
and
325 K, given that
ΔH325 = 0.12 kcal, Ea(b) = + 0.02 kcal K1 and K2 respectively. If K1 is 4 × 10–3, then K2
(A) 80.62 % (B) 85.23 % will be:
(C) 89.27 (D) None of these (A) 8 × 10–3 (B) 16 × 10–3
(C) 6.25 × 104 (D) 6.25 × 106
60. 87.5 % of a radioactive substance
disintegrates in 40 minutes. What is the half-life 66. KP for the reaction is 4. If initially
of the substance? only A is present then what will be the partial
(A) 13.58 min (B) 135.8 min pressure of B after equilibrium?
(C) 1358 min (D) None of these (A) 1.2 (B) 0.8
(C) 0.6 (D) 1
61. The half-life period of gaseous substance
undergoing thermal decomposition was
67. for following reaction will be:
measured for various initial pressure ‘P’ with
the following result:
P(mm) 250 300 400 450
t1/2 (min) 136 112.5 85 75.5 (A) RT (B) 1/RT
Calculate the order of reaction.
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) (D) RT/2
(C) 6 (D) 10

62. The rate constant of a particular reaction has 68. Consider the following reaction in a sealed
the dimensions of a frequency. What is the order vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of:
of the reaction? N2 = 3.0 × 10–3 M, O2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M and NO =
(A) zero (B) first 2.8 × 10–3 M
(C) second (D) fractional 2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g)
If 0.1 mol L–1 of NO(g) is taken in a closed
63. The rate constant of a certain first order vessel, what will be degree of dissociation (α) of
reaction increases by 11.11% per degree rise of NO(g) at equilibrium?
temperature at 27oC. By what % will it increase (A) 0.00889 (B) 0.0889
at 127oC, assuming constancy of activation (C) 0.8889 (D) 0.717
energy over the given temperature range?
(A) 5.26 % (B) 5.62 % 69. The value of ΔH for the reaction
 Page |8

X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4(g) is less than zero. solution of A and B contains A and B in the
Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at mole proportion of 1 : 2. The mole fraction of A
(A) high temperature and high pressure in the vapour phase of the solution will be:
(B) low pressure and low temperature (A) 0.33 (B) 0.2
(C) high temperature and low pressure (C) 0.25 (D) 0.52
(D) high pressure and low temperature
77. Which of the following statements is correct
70. Which one of the following species cannot regarding a solution of two components A and
act as both Bronsted acid and base? B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal
(A) H2O (B) behaviour?
(A) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-
(C) (D) A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B.
(B) Δmix H = 0 at constant T and P
71. The pKa of a weak acid HA and pK b of a (C) Δmix V = 0 at constant T and P
weak base BOH are 4.60 and 4.80 respectively. (D) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-
The pH of 0.1 M solution of the salt, BA, A and B-B are equal to those between A-B.
formed from the acid HA and base BOH is:
(A) 7.10 (B) 9.40 78. Which one of the following binary liquid
(C) 6.90 (D) 0.20 mixtures exhibits negative deviation from
Raoult’s law?
72. Which one of the following pairs of solution (A) x-Hexane – n-Heptane
is not an acidic buffer? (B) Chloroform – Acetone
(A) CH3COOH and CH3COONa (C) Carbon disulphide – Acetone
(B) H2CO3 and Na2CO3 (D) Bromoethane – Chloroethene
(C) H3PO4 and Na2PO4
(D) HClO4 and NaClO4 79. When 45 g of solute is dissolved in 600 g
water, freezing point gets lowered by 2.2. K,
73. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. calculate molar mass of solute.
The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(A) 0.5 × 10–10 (B) 0.5 × 10–15 (A) 63.4 g mol–1 (B) 80 g mol–1
(C) 0.25 × 10–10 (D) 0.125 × 10–15 (C) 90 g mol –1
(D) 21 g mol–1

74. Which of the following is not affected by 80. 0.06 % (w/v) aqueous solution of urea is
temperature change? isotonic with
(A) Molarity (B) Normality (A) 0.6 % glucose solution
(C) Molality (D) Formality (B) 0.1 M glucose solution
(C) 0.06 % glucose solution
75. Henry’s laws constants for aqueous solution (D) 0.01 M glucose solution
of CO, O2, CO2 and C2H2 gases at 25oC are
respectively as 58 × 103, 43 × 103, 1.61 × 103 81. The correct equation for the degree of
and 1.34 × 103. The solubility of these gases association ‘α’ of an associating solute, ‘n’
decreases in the order molecules of which undergoes association in
(A) CO > O2 > CO2 > C2H2 solution, is:
(B) O2 > CO2 > CO > C2H2
(C) C2H2 > CO2 > O2 > CO (A) (B)
(D) O2 > CO2 > C2H2 > CO
(C) (D)
76. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B
in their pure states are in ratio of 1 : 2. A binary
 Page |9

82. Assertion: In the dissociation of PCl5 at

constant pressure and temperature, addition of 86. Assertion: When scuba divers come towards
helium at equilibrium increases the dissociation surface, their capillaries get blocked which is
of PCl5. painful and dangerous to life.
Reason : Helium removes Cl2 from the field of Reason: This occur due to release of dissolved
action gases, as the pressure decreases and leads to the
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct and formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood.
the reason is the correct explanation of the (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and
assertion. the reason is the correct explanation of the
(B) If both assertion and reason are correct but assertion.
the reason is not the correct explanation of the (B) If both assertion and reason are correct but
assertion. the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false assertion.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true (C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true
83. Assertion: Common ion effect is defined as a
shift in equilibrium on adding a substance that 87. Assertion: The molecular mass of the
provides more of an ionic species already polymers cannot be calculated using the boiling
present in the dissociation equilibrium. point or freezing point method.
Reason: Common ion effect is a phenomenon Reason: The freezing point or boiling point
based on the Le-Chatelier’s principle. method is used for determining the molecular
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct and mass of small molecules.
the reason is the correct explanation of the (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and
assertion. the reason is the correct explanation of the
(B) If both assertion and reason are correct but assertion.
the reason is not the correct explanation of the (B) If both assertion and reason are correct but
assertion. the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false assertion.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true (C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true
84. Which of the following statement is
incorrect? 88. Statement I: Lowering of vapour pressure
(A) The value of ΔG at equilibrium is zero takes place in both ideal and non-ideal solution
(B) The reaction ceases at equilibrium Statement II: Cryoscopic constant depends on
(C) Equilibrium constant is independent of the nature of solvent.
initial concentrations of reactants (A) Both statement I and statement II are false
(D) Catalysts have no effect on equilibrium (B) Statement I is true but statement II is false
state. (C) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(D) Both statement I and statement II are true
85. Which of the following statements is
incorrect? 89. Which of the following statements are
(A) The degree of ionisation of a weak correct?
electrolyte increases with dilution A. The value of Kb depends upon the nature of
(B) Strong electrolytes are ionised completely at solvent.
all concentrations B. The value of van’t Hoff factor is more than
(C) Addition of NH4Cl to NH4OH increases the unity in case of dissociation.
ionisation of the latter C. Addition of non-volatile solute in a solvent
(D) Increase of temperature increases the decreases the vapour pressure of the solvent.
ionisation
 P a g e | 10

D. Solvents with higher boiling points have

higher vapour pressure at a given temperature. 95. Methods of locomotion depends on
E. For dilute solutions, Raoult’s law may be (A) Habitat
(B) Demand of situation
written as = . (C) Both A and B
(D) Environmental factors like pH
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
96. Based on location how many types of
(A) C and E (B) A, B, C and E
muscles are reported?
(C) B, C and D (D) D and E
(A) Three, skeletal, visceral and, cardiac
(B) Two, smooth and skeletal
90. Match the columns and choose the correct
(C) Four, skeletal, visceral, cardiac, and
combination:
Digestive systems
A KCl in water 1 0.5
(D) Only one i.e. contractile muscles
B Ethanoic acid in benzene 2 2
C K2SO4 in water 3 3 97. The muscles which have no striations and are
D C12H22O11 in water 4 1 smooth in appearance, cannot be
A B C D (A) Non striated muscles
(A) 2 3 1 4 (B) Involuntary muscles
(B) 1 3 2 4 (C) Visceral muscles
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) Cardiac muscles
(D) 1 2 3 4
98. The primary function of skeletal muscles
91. The neurotransmitter released at the would not be
neuromuscular junction is: (A) Locomotory actions
(A) Adrenaline (B) Nor-adrenaline (B) Change in body postures
(C) Dopamine (D) Acetylcholine (C) Movement of gamete through genital tract
(D) Both B and C
92. Hypocalcemia may lead to
(A) Kidney stones 99. How many ribs are indirectly attached to
(B) Cholelithiasis sternum?
(C) Stronger muscle contractions (A) 3 (B) 6
(D) Tetany (C) 12 (D) 9
93. Consider the following statements: [Link] skeleton does not carry
I. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune (A) Bones of the limbs (B) Girdles
disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction (C) Clavicle (D) Sternum
II. Muscular dystrophy is a progressive
degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to a [Link] of the following is not a bone of
genetic disorder human facial skeleton?
III. Tetany is rapid spasms in muscles due to (A) Lacrimal (B) Ethmoid
high Ca++ in body fluid. (C) Zygomatic (D) Nasal
Which of the above statements are true?
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only [Link], an age-related disease of
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III skeletal system, may occur due to:
(A) junction leading to fatigue
94. Human skull is (B) high concentration of ca++ and Na+
(A) Dicondylic (B) Monocondylic (C) decreased level of oestrogen
(C) Procoelous (D) Hetercoelous
 P a g e | 11

(D) accumulation of uric acid leading to (B) The myosin monomer called meromyosin
inflammation of joints has a globular head which has binding sites for
ATP and active sites for actin
[Link] the correct option (C) A motor neuron along with the muscle
(A) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, fibres connected to it constitute motor-end plate
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of (D) The Z-lines attached to A-bands are pulled
vertebral ribs inwards towards the H-zone causing shortening
(B) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate of sarcomere
directly with the sternum
(C) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to [Link] the structure marked ‘X’
the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(D) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs
are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae
and ventrally to the sternum

[Link] production of pyruvic acid by

anaerobic metabolism in a muscle is faster than
it can be utilized, the surplus is converted to
(A) lactic acid
(B) adenosine diphosphate
(C) carboxylic acid (A) Humerus (B) Radius
(D) creatine phosphokinase (C) Scapula (D) Clavicle

[Link] a myosin molecule HMM (heavy [Link] the true statement

meromyosin) is present in (i) Globular head (ii) (A) A band is present in the middle of the
Short arm (iii) Myosin tail sarcomere
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i) only (B) H zone is present in the middle of A-band
(C) (i), (ii) only (D) (iii) only (C) M line is present in the middle of the H-
zone
[Link] cartilage present in the pubic symphysis (D) All of these
is:
(A) Elastic (B) Hyaline 112.A neural signal reaching the neuromuscular
(C) Fibrous (D) Calcified junction releases …………. which generates an
action potential in the ………..
[Link] dark and light bands seen as striations in (A) Acetylcholine, Sarcolemma
a skeletal muscle are located on: (B) Inositol, Sarcolemma
(A) Myofilaments (B) Muscle fiber (C) GABA, Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(C) Myofibril (D) Motor unit (D) GABA, Sarcoplasm

[Link] level of oestrogen is common cause [Link]: Vertebrochondral ribs are called
of true ribs
(A) Myasthenia gravis (B) Tetany Reason: Vertebraochondral ribs are attached to
(C) Osteoporosis (D) Gout the thoracic vertebrae dorsally and are ventrally
connected to the sternum.
[Link] the correct statement (A) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(A) In a resting muscle fibre, a subunit of reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
troponin masks the active binding sites on (B) If both assertion and reason are true but the
myosin for actin filaments reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
 P a g e | 12

(C) Assertion is true but reason is false (A) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(D) Both assertion and reason are false reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but the
114.A motor neuron, at the neuromuscular reason is not the correct explanation of the
junction, releases a neurotransmitter that is: assertion.
(A) Epinephrine (B) Acetylcholine (C) Assertion is true but reason is false
(C) Dopamine (D) Serotonin (D) Both assertion and reason are false

[Link] the incorrectly matched pair: [Link]: Smooth muscles are called striated
(A) Myasthenia gravis - Autoimmune disorder muscles
affecting neuro-muscular junction Reason: Striated muscles have a striped
(B) Tetany - Spasms in muscle due to high C++ appearance under the microscope
in body fluids (A) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(C) Osteoporosis - Decreased bone mass is reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
commonly due to decreased levels of estrogen (B) If both assertion and reason are true but the
(D) Gout - Inflammation of joints due to reason is not the correct explanation of the
accumulation of uric acid crystals assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false
[Link] of the following is correct statement ? (D) Both assertion and reason are false
(A) Actin and regulatory proteins are located in
thin filament [Link] are:
(B) Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to (A) present in lipopolysaccharide layer of gram
the ends of the sarcomere negative bacteria
(C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine (B) coloured pigments present in fluorescent
(D) Myosin cross bridges contain calcium bacteria
binding sites (C) vesicles that store pigments in prokaryotic
cells
[Link] the analogy and select the correct (D) extensions on membrane in cyanobacteria
option: Glenoid cavity: Pectoral girdle::
__________: Pelvic girdle [Link] statement (s) is/are not true for five
(A) Acromion process (B) Occipital condyle kingdom classification proposed by R.H.
(C) Acetabulum (D) Coracoid process Whittaker [1969].
(a) The main criteria for classification used by
[Link] of the given characters are associated him includes cell structure, thallus organization,
with the muscles that are primarily involved mode of nutrition, reproduction and
in locomotory actions and change of body phylogenetic relationship.
postures except: (b) Chlamydomonas, Chlorella and spirogyra
(A) Cylindrical and unbranched fibres are placed in Algae within plants, due to
(B) Innervated by the autonomous nervous presence of cell wall.
system (c) Fungi are placed in a separate kingdom –
(C) Intercalated discs are absent kingdom fungi.
(D) Gap junctions are absent between fibres (d) Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in
animal kingdom due to lack of cell wall.
[Link]: The mechanism of muscle (e) All prokaryotic organism such as bacteria,
contraction can be explained by sliding-filament blue green algae and ferns are grouped together
theory. under kingdom Monera.
Reason: Muscular contraction occurs by the (A) only a (B) a, b and d
sliding of thick filaments over the thin filaments (C) a, d and e (D) b, d and e
 P a g e | 13

[Link] statement is wrong for viruses?

(A) all are parasites
(B) all of them have helical symmetry
(C) they have ability to synthesize nucleic acids
and proteins with the help of host cell
(D) antibiotics have no effect on them

[Link] one of the following organisms is not

an example of eukaryotic cells?
(A) Escherichia coli (A) b – Aspergillus; c – mucor
(B) Euglena viridis (B) b – Aspergillus; c – Agaricus
(C) Amoeba proteus (C) b – Agaricus; c – mucor
(D) Paramecium caudatum (D) b – mucor; c – Agaricus
[Link] of the following are likely to be [Link] guts of a cow and a buffalo possess:
present in deep sea water? (A) Fucus sp (B) Chlorella sp
(A) Archaebacteria (B) Eubacteria (C) methanogens (D) cyanobacteria
(C) Blue-green algae (D) Saprophytic fungi
[Link] which obtain energy by oxidation
126.‘Red tide’ is caused by: of reduced inorganic compound are:
(A) Gonyaulax (B) Ceratium (A) Photoautotrophs
(C) Triceratium (D) All of these (B) Saprotrophs
(C) Photoheterotrophs
[Link] out of the following was not the basis (D) Chemoheterotrophs
of the five kingdom classification?
(A) Cell structure [Link] living in salty are called as:
(B) Thallus organization (A) Methanogens
(C) Phylogenetic Relationship (B) Halophiles
(D) Gross morphology (C) Heliophytes
(D) Thermoacidophiles
[Link] organism in which organ system level of
body organization is found are: [Link]:
(A) Plantae and Animalia I. include diatoms and desmids
(B) Plantae II. are found only in marine water
(C) Animalia III. are planktonic
(D) None of the above (A) Only I and II are correct
(B) Only I and III are correct
[Link] made of nutrition is observed in: (C) Only II and III are correct
(A) Monera (B) Animalia (D) I, II and III are correct
(C) Plantae (D) Protista
[Link] the symbiotic relation lichen, the
[Link] various spores produced in distinct mycobiont does not:
structures are called as - (A) prepare food for the other partner
(A) sorii (B) fruiting bodies (B) provide shelter to the other partner
(C) mycelium (D) frond (C) absorb mineral nutrients for the other
partner
[Link] the following pictures b and c. (D) absorb water for the other partner
 P a g e | 14

[Link] to the five-kingdom classification

system, which of the following kingdom has
multicellular/loose tissue level body
organization?
(A) Protista (B) Plantae
(C) Animalia (D) Fungi

[Link] filamentous colonial cyanobacteria, the

enzyme nitrogenase is present in:
(A) vegetative cells (B) spores
(C) heterocysts (D) akinetes (A) TMV, A = ssRNA, B – Capsid
(B) TMV, A = dsRNA, B – Capsid
[Link] differ from plants in: (C) TMV, A = Capsid, B = ssRNA
(A) Being multicellular (D) TMV, A = Capsid, B = dsRNA
(B) Having cell wall
(C) Being heterotrophic [Link]: Viroids are different from viruses
(D) Being eukaryotic Reason: Viroids lack capsid but viruses posses
capsid
[Link] is true for cyanobacteria: (A) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(A) Oxygenic with nitrogenase reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Oxygenic without nitrogenase (B) If both assertion and reason are true but the
(C) Non-oxygenic with nitrogenase reason is not the correct explanation of the
(D) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false
[Link] cyanobacteria are: (D) Both assertion and reason are false
(A) Unicellular, colonial or filamentous marine,
freshwater or terrestrial algae [Link] folded infectious proteins can, in
(B) Available only in the form of colonies humans, cause:
(C) Sometime surrounded by (A) Mad cow disease
mucilaginous/gelatinous sheath (B) Scrapie
(D) Not associated with algae bloom (C) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
(D) MERS
[Link] of the following is incorrect for slime
moulds? [Link] proposed the five kingdom
(A) Under suitable conditions, they form an classification?
aggregation called plasmodium (A) Carolus Linnaeus (B) Aristotle
(B) Plasmodium may grow and spread over (C) Bentham and Hooker (D) R.H. Whittaker
several feet
(C) During favourable conditions, the [Link] discover a unicellular organism. You
plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting shall place this organism in Kingdom Monera
bodies bearing spores at their tips and not in Kingdom Protista if the cell:
(D) Their spores lack cell wall I: has non cellulosic cell wall composed of
polysaccharide and amino acids
[Link] the virus and name the structure A II: has a nuclear membrane but it is not double
and B: layered
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Both I and II are incorrect
 P a g e | 15

(C) RNAase (D) DNAase

[Link] are proteins that can cause normal
proteins in the brain to fold abnormally. Prions, [Link] of the following statements is false?
in humans, cause: (A) Mitosis or the equational division is
(A) BSE (B) CJD usually restricted to the 2N cells only
(C) AIDS (D) Covid (B) In onion 2N = 16
(C) Growth and reproduction are characteristics
[Link] the following will be true for Lichens of cells indeed of all living organism
except: (D) In plants meristematic tissues show meiosis
(A) They are placed in Monera in Whittaker’s
classification. [Link] cells do not divided their cytoplasm by
(B) They are good indicators of environmental forming a furrow in cell membrane like animal
pollution. cells rather they divide by cell plate because
(C) They are symbiotic associations i.e. (A) Plant cell do not have centrioles
mutually useful associations, between algae and (B) Cell wall formation beings with formation
fungi of cell plate
(D) They play an important role in primary (C) Cell plate represents middle lamella
ecological succession on the rocks between the walls of two adjacent cells
(D) Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively
[Link]: inextensible wall
(A) Are commonly known as imperfect fungi
because only the sexual phases of these fungi [Link] which phase does cell move in G0
are known. phase
(B) Reproduce only by asexual spores known as (A) G1 (B) M phase
conidia (C) G0 (D) G2
(C) Have coenocytic unbranched mycelium
(D) Include rusts and smuts [Link] most dramatic period of the cell cycle is
(A) Prophase (B) M phase
[Link] chromosomes clearly appear as (C) S phase (D) G1 phase
tetrads during
(A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene [Link] furrow gradually deepens and ultimately
(C) Diplotene (D) Diakinesis joins in the centre dividing the cell cytoplasm
into two. Here, the cell is
[Link] meiosis crossing over is initiated at (A) Animal cell (B) Plant cell
(A) leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Both A and B (D) Only Root tip cells
(C) diplotene (D) pachytene
[Link] synaptonemal complex is visible under
[Link] meiosis I in human, one of the (A) Light microwave
daughter cells receives: (B) Electron microscope
(A) Only maternal chromosomes (C) Compound microscope
(B) A mixture of maternal and paternal (D) Simple microscope
chromosomes
(C) The same number of chromosomes as a [Link] completes in
diploid cell (A) The end of pachytene
(D) A sister chromatid from each chromosome (B) Just before the end of pachytene
(C) The end of midphase of pachytene
[Link] is an enzyme-mediated process. (D) End of zygotene
The enzyme is:
(A) DNA ligase (B) Recombinase [Link]
 P a g e | 16

(A) Long lasting in some cells II. Meiosis II is initiated after the parental
(B) Involves S phase chromosomes have replicated to produce
(C) In between Meiosis I identical sister chromatids at the S phase.
(D) No DNA replication III. Meiosis involves pairing of
bivalents and recombinations between them.
[Link] of the following phases is equivalent (A) I only B) I and II only
to Prophase II? (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III
(A) Prophase (B) Prophase I
(C) Metaphase (D) Mitosis [Link] begins with the simultaneous splitting of
the centromere of each chromosome, is true for
[Link] one of the following features which stage of Cell division.
differentiates G2 phase from G1 phase? (A) Anaphase-I (B) Anaphase-II
(A) Synthesis of proteins (C) Anaphase (D) More than one
(B) 4C content of DNA
(C) 2C content of DNA [Link] the incorrectly matched pair:
(D) Synthesis of RNA. Stage of Event
Prophase-I
[Link] the somatic cell cycle (A) Zygotene Synapsis
(A) DNA replication takes place in S-phase (B) Pachytene Crossing over
(B) A short interphase is followed by a long (C) Diplotene Appearance of chiasmata
mitotic phase (D) Diakinesis Centralization of chiasmata
(C) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
(D) In G1 phase, DNA content is double the [Link] of the following is characteristic of
amount of DNA present in the original cell prophase I of meiosis I:-
(A) Synapsis in zygotene, genetically different
[Link] mechanisms that contribute to the chromatid are seen in pachytene
genetic variation arising from sexual (B) Exchange of genes in leptotene, genetically
reproduction include: similar chromatids are seen in zygotene
I. Independent assortment of chromosomes (C) Chiasmata are present in metaphase
II. Crossing over (D) Splitting of centromere in anaphase-I
III. Random fertilization
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only [Link] the odd one out with respect to meiotic
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III cell cycle.
(A) DNA replication occurs once only i.e.
[Link] stages of Prophase I in correct order. before Gap-2
(A) diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene, pachytene, (B) Karyokinesis occurs twice
zygotene (C) Reduction of ploidy at metaphase-l
(B) diplotene, leptotene, pachytene, zygotene, (D) Crossing over in tetrad stage
diakinesis
(C) leptotene, pachytene, diakinesis, diplotene, [Link] the correct statement:
zygotene. (A) The stage between two successive meiotic
(D) leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, division is generally long lived
diakinesis (B) In plant cells, wall formation starts in the
centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the
[Link] the correct statement regarding existing lateral walls
meiosis amongst the following: (C) Meiosis results in conservation of
I. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of specific chromosomes number of each species
nuclear and cell divisions but only a single cycle across generations in asexually reproducing
of DNA replication. organisms
 P a g e | 17

(D) Telophase - I can last for months or year (C) 3 1 2 4

(D) 3 1 4 2
[Link] which of the following phases, do
centromeres split and chromatids separate, and [Link] of the following does not take place
then chromatids move to opposite poles? during diakinesis of Meiosis I?
(A) Metaphase-l, Anaphase (A) Disappearance of nucleolus
(B) Anaphase, Anaphase-l (B) Decondensation of chromosomes
(C) Anaphase-l, Metaphase-ll (C) Nuclear envelope break down
(D) Anaphase, Anaphase-ll (D) assembly of meiotic spindle

[Link] align on the equator during [Link]: Metaphase is characterized by all

(A) Metaphase I of meiosis the chromosomes coming to lie at the equator.
(B) Anaphase I of meiosis Reason: Small disc-shaped structures at the
(C) Metaphase of mitosis surface of the chromosomes are called
(D) Anaphase of mitosis centromeres
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the
[Link] endosperm in coconut results due to reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(A) Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis (B) If both assertion and reason are true but the
(B) Failure of karyokinessis followed by reason is not the correct explanation of the
cytokinesis assertion.
(C) Karyokinesis twice followed by single (C) Assertion is true but reason is false
cytokinesis (D) Assertion is false but reason is true
(D) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

[Link] the correct statement with regard to

G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase
(A) The reorganisation of all cell components
takes place
(B) The cell is metabolically active, grows but
does not replicate its DNA
(C) Nuclear Division takes place
(D) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

[Link] the columns and choose the correct

combination:
A Metaphase I 1 Homologous
chromosomes separate,
sister chromatids remain
associated
B Anaphase I 2 Centromere splits
C Metaphase II 3 Bivalents align at the
equatorial plate
D Anaphase II 4 Microtubules from the
opposite poles get
attached to kinetochores
of sister chromatids
A B C D
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 1 3 4 2