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STUDY UNIT 1

1. Give a brief description of a notary (PAPASPA)

A public officer, admitted and authorized by the High court to prepare and execute
contracts and other documents and to authenticate public acts under supervision of the
High Court. Only a practicing attorney who has been admitted as a notary may practice
as such.
2. Define Protocol & Protocol Register & distinguish between a protocol and protocol
register

Protocol is the collection of original deeds executed by a notary.

Protocol Register is a register where record of all deeds executed and recorded in
chronological order (date and number)
Protocol is the orderly and safe recordkeeping of all deeds executed and recorded in the
register are kept in a chronological order (by number and date). Documents merely
certified need not be kept nor mere noting, presentation or protest of a bill.

3. What assurance does the public have that a document will be properly prepared when
such a document is prepared by a notary? (5)

A notary is highly qualified and is considered to be an expert in his or her field (1). He or
she must have obtained a prescribed university degree, successfully completed a
prescribed period of articles and must have passed the prescribed practical examination
for notaries (1). He or she must be a practising attorney (1). He or she is an officer of the
High Court (1), admitted by the court and performing his or her duties under the
supervision of the Court (1). The office of notary is held in high esteem and great
emphasis is placed on his or her duty of care and on qualities such as responsibility,
credibility, impartiality and professional integrity (1). A notary is also bound to honour the
code of conduct for attorneys adopted by the Law Society of South Africa (1).
A notary is permitted by the High Court to his office, and suspended by the Law Society
or of its own motion by the court or of the role to be suspended if he is guilty of
unprofessional conduct.

4. Name five documents that have to be drafted by a notary before they would be accepted
for registration. (5
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 Antenuptial agreement (1)

 Notarial bond (1)
 Deeds of servitude (1)
 Long-term lease & sub-lease (1)
 Cession of these leases (1)

Power of attorney or application or consent required for registration in the deed registry
as well as an agreement between co-owner for partition must be signed by an
attorney/conveyance/notary
A notary accepts responsibility for the accuracy of a document singed and prepared by
him
5. May a notary practise at any place in the Republic of South Africa? Substantiate your
answer and refer inter alia to the Deeds Registries Act 47 of 1937. (7)

The registrar of the High Court keeps a register in which the names and signatures of all
the notaries (and attorneys and conveyancers) admitted in each province, appear.
If a notary wishes to practise in another province than the one where he or she was
originally admitted, he or she has to apply in the prescribed manner to the relevant
division of the High Court.
Any document or act executed by a notary, however, has valid effect anywhere in South
Africa irrespective of the province where he or she was admitted or is practising.
Also note that in terms of the Deeds Act, a notary in respect of a deed or other document
establishing or transferring real rights in land in the Republic of South Africa is a person
who practises as such in the Republic.
A practising notary may thus, specifically for the purposes of the Deeds Act, execute any
act in respect of any deed or document establishing or transferring real rights in land in
the Republic of South Africa, irrespective of the province where he or she was admitted.

6. X is a notary. X's only daughter, Y, is engaged to Z. Z requests his future father-in-law,

X, to draft and execute the antenuptial contract between himself and Z. May X draw up
and execute the contract and would such a contract be valid? How would you advise X?
Substantiate your answer.

Duty of care
• A notary must take upon signing the document; ascertain the identity of those who
document export and signing as witnesses;
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• When person in official capacity act sings the document, the notary must ensure
that the person has the authority to act;
• A notary must satisfy itself regarding the contractual capacity of the parties and
witnesses;
• A notary must act impartially at all times;
• A notary may have no interest in a document he executed or attested to, if there is
an identifiable interest, his demeanour would amount to unprofessional conduct
and the document would be invalid (van den Heever v Kahn)
• He must receive no personal benefit from the documents;
• A notary has a duty to ensure at the parties to a notarial transaction fully
comprehend the content of and the legal principles involved in the documents they
sign, they must consult with the client personally. It has been frowned upon where
a document was signed before a notary by virtue of a power of attorney
• Not a requirement to affix an official seal or stamp, but it has become practice to
do so;

STUDY UNIT 2

7. Name ten important guidelines that a notary has to take into account when drafting
documents. (10)

Professionalism
• A notary must refrain from executing or certifying documents in which he or she has
a personal interest.
• Instructions must be carefully and correctly noted and properly understood by the
notary.
• A notary must satisfy himself of the identity and capacity to act of the parties
appearing before him.
• All information conveyed to a notary by a client is confidential and protected against
disclosure.
• The notary must not only have sufficient knowledge to take instructions from the
client but must also take care to give effect to the true intention of the parties and be
able to set out these instructions in clear, correct and unambiguous language:
• The notary has a duty to explain the legal principles pertaining to a transaction in
plain and clear terms to his or her client to ensure that the client has a proper
comprehension of the legal consequences involved. It is also the duty of the notary
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to ensure that the client has read the document presented to him or her. If the client
cannot read the notary must read the document to the client.
• A document may not contain any blank spaces when it is submitted for final
signature. On signature the document must be complete in all respects.
• The appearer (the signatory) and witnesses must sign the document in each other's
presence and in the presence of the notary.

Formal Requirements
• Apart from the Deeds Act, there are generally no statutory provisions prescribing the
format and structure of a notarial deed.
• Prescribed requirements as to form must, where applicable, be complied with.
• Deeds and documents, prepared by a notary and tendered for registration or filing in
a deeds registry need no preparation certificate as prescribed by the Act. The notary
however assumes the same responsibility for correctness, as does a conveyancer in
terms of the Act, by virtue of the office he or she holds.
• Taking these requirements into account, a notarial deed may be prepared in any
form.

Content
• It shall be so phrased and structured that that the intention of the parties is reflected
correctly, clearly and unambiguously.
• It must be clear, concise and easy to understand, by making use of brief and clear
sentences.
• If an existing draft document or precedent is used as an example on taking
instructions, care must be taken to ensure that it is adapted in all respects to meet
and satisfy the needs of the particular case.

Interpretation
• A basic rule of interpretation regarding the wording of a document is that effect must
be given to the intention of the author (i.e. the parties).
• The heading and preamble to a deed serve as an aid to interpretation of a
document, but they are not predominant if they are inconsistent with the operative
part of the deed
• Words in the margin do not normally form part of a contract.
• An ambiguous word or statement will be interpreted by the courts to the prejudice of
the person in whose favour the document was prepared.
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• A contractual obligation must be defined clearly and must be ascertainable in order

to be enforceable.
• Terms in a contract that confer an unfettered right on one of the parties to determine
the extent of the performance of either party are void on the grounds of vagueness.
• The rule expressio unius est exclusio alterius (``expression of one thing is the
exclusion of the other'') determines that if a special arrangement is made with regard
to specific matters mentioned, matters that are not mentioned are excluded from
such arrangement.
• Punctuation plays an important role in the interpretation of a deed.

8. What does the term ``professionalism'' mean in respect of drafting a document? (8)

The integrity and professional independence of a notary are held in very high esteem
and great emphasis is placed on his or her duty of care and on qualities such as
responsibility, credibility, impartiality and professional integrity. A notary is also bound to
honour the code of conduct for attorneys adopted by the Law Society of South Africa.
Disregard of this rule can lead to a notary being guilty of unprofessional and unworthy
conduct.
Duty of care consists of the following:
• A notary must take upon signing the document; ascertain the identity of those who
document export and signing as witnesses;
• When person in official capacity act sings the document, the notary must ensure
that the person has the authority to act;
• A notary must satisfy itself regarding the contractual capacity of the parties and
witnesses;
• A notary must act impartially at all times;
• A notary may have no interest in a document he executed or attested to, if there is
an identifiable interest, his demeanour would amount to unprofessional conduct
and the document would be invalid (Van den Heever v Kahn)
• He must receive no personal benefit from the documents;
• A notary has a duty to ensure at the parties to a notarial transaction fully
comprehend the content of and the legal principles involved in the documents they
sign, they must consult with the client personally. It has been frowned upon where
a document was signed before a notary by virtue of a power of attorney
• Not a requirement to affix an official seal or stamp, but it has become practice to
do so;
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9. Does a power of attorney intended for an act of registration in the deeds registry have to
be attested by witnesses? Substantiate your answer. (7)

A power of attorney, for example, signed in the Republic of South Africa and intended for
registration purposes in the deeds registry, must be witnessed either by two witnesses
older than 14 years and competent to give evidence in a court of law in the Republic, or
by a magistrate, a justice of the peace, a commissioner of oaths or a notary. A person
who is appointed as a representative in a power of attorney may not attest such a power
of attorney or derive any benefit from it (see s 95 of the Deeds Act).
The power of attorney must also mention the date and place of execution. If the power of
attorney authorises an act in respect of land or other immovable property, the description
of such property also has to comply with specific requirements. A power of attorney
which does not comply with these requirements is not invalid as such but it may be
rejected by the registrar of deeds for registration purposes.

10. Explain the meaning of the expression expresssio unius est exclusio alterius. (3)

The rule expressio unius est exclusio alterius (``expression of one thing is the exclusion
of the other'') determines that if a special arrangement is made with regard to specific
matters mentioned, matters that are not mentioned are excluded from such arrangement.

11. X, a deceased, was married in community of property to Y. In his will X bequeath his
farm, "Tonteldoos" to Y subject to a usufruct in favor of his mother, Z. Tonteldoos is
encumbered with a mortgage in favor of Bank B. The will stipulates that the farm,
"Boskop" must be sold. Y buys the farm out of the estate. You are approached as
conveyancer for advice. Indicate what actions you can perform and what procedures you
need to follow to register the above transactions in the deeds office. (12)

Transfer of the half share of the deceased, X's to Y, can take place through the
registration of a deed of transfer.
The most appropriate means of transfer, however, would be by endorsement in terms of
section 45 of the Deeds Registries Act 47 of 1937. The executor and the survivor, Y
(except where Y act in her capacity as executor) must apply in writing for an
endorsement to the effect that Y is entitled to the property in the case of Tonteldoos, a
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half share in terms of the marriage and the other half share in terms of the will and, in the
case of Boskop, a half share in terms of the marriage i and the other half share based on
the sale of the deceased's share by the surviving spouse in the estate.

The bond must be cancelled or X's share in Tonteldoos must be removed from the
operation of the bond or Y should be replaced as the sole debtor in place of the joint
estate.

The executor must by way of a notarial bond cede and register the usufruct over the
previous half share of X in Tonteldoos to Z in terms of the will, unless Y advised that the
usufruct may be registered over the whole of Tonteldoos.

If the bond is not cancelled, B Bank will have to agree and consent to the usufruct
over the half share of X or the whole of Tonteldoos, subject to the registration of a
bond.

STUDY UNIT 3

12. Distinguish between authentication and certification of a document. (5)

Authentication of a document
Authentication is aimed at confirming the identity of the signee of a document.

Certification of a document
The purpose of certification of a document as a true copy is to confirm the correct
duplication of the content of a document.

13. Briefly describe the main points of the procedure to be followed when authenticating a
document executed in the Republic of South Africa for use outside the Republic. (7)

The notary authenticates the signature of the person who signs the document by signing
the certificate of authentication and affixing his or her seal, if any, to the signed
document. The signatory must sign or acknowledge his or her signature in the presence
of the notary.
The notary's signature must be authenticated by a magistrate or the registrar of the High
Court within whose area of jurisdiction he or she practises.
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The signature of the magistrate or registrar must be authenticated by a director-general

of the Department of Justice and Constitutional Development, whose signature must be
authenticated by the director-general of the Department of International Relations and
Co-operation.
Rule 3 of the above notice provides, however, that notwithstanding paragraphs 2 and 3
above, the signature of the notary may be directly authenticated by the secretary of the
Department of Justice and Constitutional Development.

14. Under which circumstances may the directives of the Hague Convention, rather than
those of Rule 63 of the Supreme Court Rules, be followed in the authentication of
documents? (3)

The Convention only operates among member states. Thus a document authenticated
according to the regulations of the Convention will only be accepted in the Republic of
South Africa if it was signed in a member state. If the procedure in terms of Rule 63 of
the High Court Rules is less onerous, the procedure in terms of Rule 63 enjoys
precedence.
The Convention only applies to public documents.

The directives of the Hague Convention rather than those of Rule 63 may be followed if
 the document was signed in a member state (1) and
 the document is a public document as defined in the Convention (1)
 the procedure in terms of the Hague Convention is less cumbersome than the
procedure that has to be followed in terms of Rule 63 (1).

15. A document destined for use in South Africa is executed abroad. Name the requirements
prescribed for the certificate (''apostille'') in terms of the Hague Convention. (8)

 The document must be signed.

 Authentication of the signature takes place by means of a certificate (``apostille''),
which must be affixed to the document. The certificate must comply with the formal
requirements (formatting, language of issuer, heading in French, issued and signed
under ratification seal of office, i.e. diplomat, magistrate, registrar etc)
 The document need not be signed by witnesses in order to be accepted in the deeds
registry
 The above procedure has to be followed even if executed before a notary.
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16. A notary is requested to authenticate a document. What must he or she do to give effect
to the authentication? (4)

The notary authenticates the signature of the person who signs the document by signing
the certificate of authentication and affixing his or her seal, if any, to the signed
document. The signatory must sign or acknowledge his or her signature in the presence
of the notary.

STUDY UNIT 4

17. Define a special power of attorney. (5)

A written or oral authorisation given by one person, called the principal, to another
person called the representative to perform a specific act authorised in the power of
attorney on behalf of the principal. (A written power of attorney can be embodied in an
underhand document or a notarial document.)

Granted authorization to carry out a specific act.

Eg. A power of attorney to attend to transfer

18. Define a general power of attorney. (5)

A written or oral authorisation given by one person, called the principal, to another
person called the representative to perform the acts (in general) authorised in the power
of attorney on behalf of the principal. (A written power of attorney can be embodied in an
underhand document or a notarial document.)

Authorizing to perform actions in general.

Eg. A Power of Attorney to Y by X to handle all X's interests while X abroad.

19. Name the requirements for a valid power of attorney. (5) (JCLPF)

a. The grantor must have the legal capacity to act or must be duly assisted. The
representative need not have legal capacity to act. A minor, for example, who has
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limited legal capacity, would, in exceptional circumstances, be competent to act as a

representative.
b. Execution of the power of attorney must be physically possible.
c. Execution of the power of attorney must be juristically possible.
d. Execution of the power of attorney must be legal.
e. Where applicable, the power of attorney must comply with prescribed formal
requirements. For example, a power of attorney to pass transfer of immovable
property must comply with the provisions of the Deeds Act (see 4.7 below).

20. How is a power of attorney terminated? (7)

(1) on execution of the mandate

(2) on completion of the period for which the power of attorney was originally granted
(3) on the death of the representative
(4) on impossibility of execution
(5) when the principal is legally incapable of having his or her own will, for example
on his or her death, or due to insanity or sequestration
(6) on denouncement of his or her mandate by the representative
(7) on revocation of the power of attorney by the principal

21. An ``irrevocable'' power of attorney is not necessarily irrevocable. Indicate briefly the
circumstances when a power of attorney inter partes will not be irrevocable. (6)

The grantor of a power of attorney may grant an irrevocable power of attorney to a

representative. An irrevocable power of attorney may not be revoked unilaterally.
However, the mere qualification of a power of attorney as ``irrevocable'' will not
necessarily deprive the principal of the power to unilaterally withdraw his or her
authorisation.

We will now discuss the cases of what are known as irrevocable powers of attorney. An
examination of their legal consequences shows that one can, at most, speak of
irrevocable powers of attorney inter partes:
(1) Where the power of attorney is granted in terms of an agreement between the grantor
and the representative. This agreement to irrevocability is binding on the parties to the
agreement, but terminates on the death or insolvency of the grantor. This does not mean
to say that the grantor cannot revoke it. He or she can, however, not do so once the
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representative has begun to exercise the power of attorney. If the representative has not
yet begun to exercise the power of attorney, the grantor is entitled to revoke it, but such
breach of the agreement not to revoke the power of attorney could give rise to an action
for damages.
(2) Where the power of attorney was granted to ensure compliance in the performance of
an obligation by the grantor to the representative. This power of attorney terminates on
the death or insolvency of the grantor and is, therefore, only irrevocable inter partes.
(3) Where the power of attorney is given to protect an interest of the agent in the
exercise of the power of attorney and which he or she was to exercise immediately in his
or her own interest. This power of attorney also only terminates on the death or
insolvency of the grantor.

22. You are handling the registration of a notarial bond granted by the debtor, X, in favour of
Bank Y. The notarial bond was not signed by X personally before the notary, but was
signed before the notary by B on behalf of X. B was duly authorised to do this in terms of
a written power of attorney granted to him by X. On the day when the deed comes up for
preparation in the deeds registry, you are informed of the passing away of X. Explain
briefly whether you may go ahead with the registration of the notarial bond. (3)

The power of attorney terminates on the death of X, the conveyancer will thus not be
able to proceed with the registration of the transaction. A new power of attorney should
be obtained from the executor. The conveyancer will however be able to proceed with
the cancellation of the mortgage as it is merely the noting of a prerequisite already
completed and fulfilled before X’s death namely written consent that at the time that the
documents are ready for submission to the deeds registrar that the mortgage bond may
be cancelled. The mortgage bond is thus cancelled without the submission of the copies
of the deed documents unless other prerequisites where to be met.

23. Is a notary competent to sign the preparation certificate on a power of attorney intended
for registration in the deeds registry and will the power of attorney as such be accepted
for registration? (3)

A power of attorney intended for performing an act of registration in the deeds registry
must be drafted by a practising attorney, conveyancer or notary, who has to sign a
preparation certificate in the upper right-hand corner of the first page of the document,
indicating his or her surname and initials, and the capacity in which he or she is signing
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the document (r 44(1)). If the preparation certificate is signed by an attorney or a notary,

the fact that the person signing the certificate is a practising attorney or notary must be
confirmed by a practising conveyancer, who has to co-sign the preparation certificate,
mentioning his or her capacity, surname and initials (r 44(5)). The reason for this is that
the deeds registry keeps a register only of practising conveyancers.
Regulation 44(3) of the Deeds Act gives the registrar of deeds a discretion to waive the
preparation certificate in respect of documents executed abroad. It should, however, be
noted that in such a case the registrar may insist on proof of the facts in respect of which
the preparer would normally accept responsibility in terms of section 15A of the Deeds
Act.

24. Does a power of attorney intended for an act of registration in the deeds registry have to
be attested by witnesses? Substantiate your answer. (7)

A power of attorney submitted for registration in the deeds registry, must be attested by
two witnesses older than 14 years and competent to give evidence in a court of law in
the Republic of South Africa, or by a magistrate, or by a justice of the peace, or by a
commissioner of oaths or by a notary. A power of attorney attested by a notary therefore
does not need to be attested by two witnesses. It is, however, standard practice to have
the power of attorney attested by two witnesses.
A person appointed in the power of attorney as a representative or who benefits under
the power of attorney may not attest the power of attorney as a witness (s 95 of the
Deeds Act).
A power of attorney executed outside the Republic of South Africa and duly
authenticated does not have to be attested by two witnesses as prescribed in section 95
of the Deeds Act

25. You, a practising notary who has not yet been admitted as a conveyancer but who has a
good knowledge of conveyancing are requested by your client, Company X, to prepare a
power of attorney to pass transfer of X's farm Uitvlucht in favour of the purchaser B, so
that a conveyancer practising in Pretoria may attend to the registration of the transfer of
the farm onto B's name. Director Y will sign the power of attorney on behalf of X.
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(i) What does the Deeds Registries Act 47of 1937 prescribe with regard to the signing of
the preparation certificate on the power of attorney? (5)
(ii) For the accuracy of which facts in the power of attorney does the signee of the
preparation certificate on the power of attorney take responsibility in terms of the Deeds
Registries Act 47 of 1937? (5)

(a) The preparation certificate must be signed by a notary (1) attorney or conveyancer. If
the power of attorney has been signed by a notary, a practicing conveyancer (1) must
co-sign (1) the preparation certificate which serves as confirmation that the notary is a
practicing notary (1). The registrar has a discretion to waive this requirement if the
preparation certificate has been signed abroad (1).
(b) The person who signs the preparation certificate undertakes to the best of his or her
knowledge and after due enquiries have been made (1), that Y has been properly
authorised to sign the power of attorney on behalf of the company (1) and further that the
following information is correct:
B's name (1), his identity number/date of birth (.), his or her marital status (.) and the
name (.) and the registration number (.) of the company.

26. A close corporation, K, mandated the registration of land to X, a natural person. For the
correctness of what actually takes you under regulation 44 of the Deeds Registries Act
47 of 1937 responsibility where you sign the proxy as author? (8)

The person with the authority as author sign, accept responsibility that –
to the best of his knowledge and after due inquiry, that:
- K's name (½) and registration number (½) is correctly given in the power of attorney.
- The transfer of the land is in accordance with K's incorporation documents (1)
- The person signing on behalf of K is duly authorized (1).
- The name (1) and identity number or date of birth (1) and marital status (1) of the
natural person, is correctly indicated in the power of attorney.

Where the power of attorney is already by an attorney or notary as drafter and a

conveyancer co-signs the power of attorney, it is assumed that the drafter is a practicing
attorney or notary.
27. Discuss the requirements laid down by regulation 44 (1) of the Deeds Registries Act 47
of 1937 relating to the practitioner who may draft a power of attorney destined to be
submitted in the deeds office. (4)
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The practitioner must be a practicing (½) attorney (½) notary (½) or conveyancer (½)
who may practice anywhere in the Republic of South Africa. (1) If the certificate an
attorney or notary as drafter and a conveyancer co-signs the power of attorney, it is
assumed that the drafter is a practicing attorney or notary. (1)

28. You get a power of attorney to register a transport, signed abroad with the instruction to
register the transfer. The drafter’s certificate is not signed. Briefly indicate what the legal
position with regard to the signing and the signatory of the certificate. (7)

An attorney, notary or conveyancer who sign the certificate assume responsibility for the
accuracy of the facts as referred to in section 15A and regulation 44A of the Deeds
Registries Act 47 of 1937. The Registrar of Deeds has discretion to waive the
requirement that the certificate be signed in which case written proof of the facts
referred to in regulation 44A with the power of attorney and other transfer documents
must be submitted to the Registrar. (Practitioner 8.2 Deeds Act law 44)

The form and content for a power of attorney, although not prescribed
a. Paper and writing
b. Preparation certificate
c. Preparers responsibility for accuracy of facts in power of attorney
d. Foreign execution and language
e. witnesses

STUDY UNIT 5

Notarial bond

A Notarial mortgage is a mortgage stipulated over movable property of a mortgagor which

provides the mortgagee with a limited real right in specific circumstances only. The content
of the mortgage is contained in a notarial deed.
A notarial bond is a deed which is executed before a notary and registered in the deeds
registry and which hypothecates either specific movable property of the mortgagor (a special
notarial bond) or all the movable property of the mortgagor (a general notarial bond) in
favour of the mortgagee. A special bond registered over specific corporeal movables
described in such a way that they are readily recognisable at the time of registration of the
bond and grants a real security right on registration. If registered before 7 May 1993, a
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special bond will enjoy the same preference in respect of the full and free residue of the
insolvent estate as a general notarial bond.
A notarial bond is a unilateral document. It is executed before the notary by the mortgagor
only. The mortgagor is the debtor and must be the owner of the property or holder of the
right serving as security under the notarial bond. In terms of the Deeds Act a mortgage bond
is a document by which only immovable property (land and everything permanently affixed
thereto, including unharvested crops) is specifically mortgaged.
On the other hand, a notarial bond is only registered over specific movable property, or
movable property in general. The Deeds Act (s 53(1)) prohibits the registration of a notarial
bond over immovable property. Movable property may be corporeal or incorporeal.
Corporeal movable property, for example, is a motor car or a stud bull (specific movable
property) or the trading stock of a business (movable property in general). However, a
notarial bond which purports to hypothecate a South African ship as defined in the Merchant
Shipping Act 57 of 1951, or an aeroplane as intended in the Convention on the International
Recognition of Rights in Aircraft Act 59 of 1993, may not, in terms of this legislation, be
registered in the deeds registry. Incorporeal movable property, for example, would be shares
in a company, a short-term lease of immovable property, or an unregistered lease of
immovable property for a term of longer than 10 years

29. Which requirements does a notarial bond have to meet to ensure the security benefit
that the Security by Means of Movable Property Act 57 of 1993 provides?

The mortgage must be registered (1) within 3 months, and 1 month thereafter if in
another deeds registry as well on specific corporeal (1) movable property (1) in such a
manner is described that it is readily recognizable (1).
The goods are deemed to be pledged (to provide real security) (1) as if it was actually
pledged and delivered without being delivered to the mortgagee
The security shall take effect on the date of registration (1) of the notarial bond.

30. Name the facts which have to be stated in a notarial bond in terms of section 61 of the
Deeds Act in order to make such bond acceptable for registration.

a. Full name of notary

b. Place where notary practises
c. Date when executed
d. Place where executed
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e. Name of mortgagor
f. Place where mortgagor lives and if applicable, the place where mortgager carries on
business
g. Name of mortgagee
h. Amount of mortgage bond
i. Object of security

31. X, a company with its head office in Cape Town, is the owner of a fleet of delivery
vehicles which X uses for carrying on its country-wide business as a general dealer. Y, a
bank with its head office in Pretoria, has given X an overdraft facility. X offers its vehicles
and trading stock to Y as security for payment of the outstanding amount on its overdraft.
Y approaches you as a notary for advice.
(a) Briefly explain with reference to the objects of security what documents you would
prepare in order to provide Y with the best possible form of security. (5)
(b) Indicate at what stage these documents will lead to real security in favour of Y. (3)
(c) Where must these documents be registered? (4)
(d) When must these documents be registered? (2)

(a) A special notarial bond (1) in terms of which X's delivery vehicles (1) are specifically
hypothecated and are each individually described in such a manner that they are readily
recognisable at the time of registration (1) may be registered (in order to fall within the
ambit of the Security by Means of Moveable Property Act 57 of
1993 (1)).
A general notarial bond (1) in terms of which X's stock in trade (and also all X's vehicles
as a fleet) (1) are hypothecated in general may also be executed and registered.
(b) In the case of a special notarial bond in terms of Act 57 of 1993, Y acquires a real
security right on registration (1) of the bond without the vehicles having to be delivered to
Y (1). In the case of a general notarial bond, Y acquires a real security right only on
attachment (.) of the goods in terms of a court order (.).
(c) The notarial bond should preferably be registered in all the deeds registries in the
Republic of South Africa (1). Registration in the deeds registry in Cape Town (1), the
place where X has its registered address (1), would, however, be sufficient to afford Y
cover in respect of the whole of the Republic (1).
(d) A notarial bond must be registered within 3 months (.) after its execution (.) by the
parties or within such extended period (.) as the court may allow (.).
 17

32. Explain briefly whether a mortgagee enjoys any security under either a general notarial
bond or a specific notarial bond. (7)

Under the Security by Means of Movable Property Act 57 of 1993 (1) special notarial
bond over specific corporeal movables (½) where it is easily recognizably described in
the bond upon registration thereof (½) that a real security right is conferred upon
registration of the bond (1). In the case of a general notarial bond the mortgagee's real
security right is only secured upon attachment (1) pursuant to a court order (1).

33. Name five types of important notarial bonds that you will encounter in practice. (5)

(a) notarial bond securing an existing debt or obligation

(b) collateral notarial bond
(c) notarial surety bond
(d) notarial covering bond
(e) notarial indemnity bond
(f) notarial debenture (obligation) bond
(g) notarial kinderbewys (bond to secure the property of children)

34. What are the required periods for the registration of a notarial bond in more than one
deeds registry? (4)

A notarial bond must be registered

- Within 3 months (1) after execution (1)
- In the deeds for the area
• where the debtor lives (1)
• where the debtor conducts business (1)
• where the registered office of a company or close corporation is located (1)

If registration in more than one office must be must be registered in the second office
within 1 month (1) after registration in the first office (1) and in each subsequent deeds
within a period of one month (1) done.

35. X is the owner of a residential erf in town, but she resides in a town house which she has
been renting from Z for many years. X is also the holder of a usufruct over the farm
Moreson just outside the town where she farms. X borrows money from a family
 18

member, Y. X instructs you, a notary, to draft and register in the deeds registry a notarial
bond over these three assets in favour of Y as security for payment of the debt. Fully
explain whether you will be able to execute the instruction. (10)

Residential erf – only movables cannot register a notarial bond

Town house – rented, mortgagor must be the owner, besides it is yet again immovable
Usufruct– cannot register a bond over a usufruct as it is a personal servitude which
grants the holder a right ot use the thing of another and to draw and use the fruits from
the thing while preserving the substance of the thing for a specified period or as long as
he lives but he cannot provide this personal right as a security.
The proceeds from her unharvested crops of her farming activities could however be
ceded to Y as security for payment of the debt.

36. X, the owner of a cargo ship, lets his goods shed to Z on a long-term lease. X also owns
a house in Cape Town as well as several vehicles. X owes Bank Y a large sum of
money. Bank Y requests you, as a notary, to draft a notarial bond.
(a) What advice would you give Bank Y about the security objects and the forms of real
security to be used here? (4)

Only movables may be offered as security under a notarial bond. A long term lease may
be regarded as such and will be offered as security together with the vehicles. The ship
will not be able to serve as a security object (a plane will also not be registerable). The
home and the goods will be regarded as immovable assets which could be bound in
terms of a normal mortgage bond.

37. Name three conditions relating to the payment of the debt that may not be included in a
bond (3)
A condition
a. Which is not sanctioned by law and that imposes a duty or obligation on the
registrar
b. Which states that in default of payment that the mortgagee will become owner
of the security object
c. Which states that in default of payment the mortgagee, without a court order
may sell the security object
d. that determines that the debt may not be repaid before a certain date
 19

STUDY UNIT 6

38. Define an antenuptial contract. (6)

An antenuptial contract is a written contract executed and attested by a notary. In such a

contract two parties who are by law competent to enter into a marriage or a civil union,
and who have the intention of entering into a marriage with each other, or entering into
such a union with each other, regulate the matrimonial property dispensation of the
proposed marriage or union, with the main aim of excluding the community of property
and the community of profit and loss in the proposed marriage or union. The antenuptial
contract has to be registered in the deeds registry to be enforceable against third parties.

39. It is a requirement that the place and date of execution of an antenuptial contract be
noted in the contract. Is it also necessary to indicate the precise time when the contract
was signed? Give reasons for your answer. (2)

The place and date of execution has to be stated, either in the preamble or in the
execution clause. If the marriage is to be solemnised on the same day as the antenuptial
contract is to be executed, it would be advisable to also indicate the time of signing in
order to exclude any possible dispute about whether the contract was executed before or
after solemnisation of the marriage

40. Explain whether an antenuptial contract may be entered into and registered after
solemnisation of the marriage. (3)

An antenuptial contract has to be concluded before solemnisation of the marriage.

An antenuptial contract has to be registered in the deeds registry within three months
after its execution or within such extended period as the court may allow on application.
If the antenuptial contract is executed outside the Republic of South Africa, it must be
registered within six months after its execution, or within such extended period as the
court may allow on application (s 87(1) and (2) of the Deeds Act).
The period within which registration has to take place is calculated as excluding the first
day and including the last day. Sundays and holidays are excluded for the purpose of
calculating the last day (see s 4 of the Interpretation Act 33 of 1957).
 20

41. X and Y, who live in Bloemfontein, conclude an antenuptial contract before a notary
while on holiday in Durban. In the contract X donates to Y his sectional title flat in
Pretoria, and undertakes to donate to Y his holiday home in Cape Town as well, later on,
when he has more resources.
a. Where must the antenuptial contract be registered? (3)
b. When must the antenuptial contract be registered? Give reasons for your answer. (2)
c. Indicate whether a prenuptial agreement entered into after marriage and may be
registered. (2)
a. An antenuptial contract has to be registered in the deeds registry within three
months after its execution or within such extended period as the court may
allow on application. If the antenuptial contract is executed outside the
Republic of South Africa, it must be registered within six months after its
execution, or within such extended period as the court may allow on
application (s 87(1) and (2) of the Deeds Act).
The period within which registration has to take place is calculated as
excluding the first day and including the last day. Sundays and holidays are
excluded for the purpose of calculating the last day (see s 4 of the
Interpretation Act 33 of 1957).
b. An antenuptial contract may be registered in any deeds registry, irrespective
of where it was executed, where the parties reside, or where the notary
practices (s 87(3) of the Deeds Act). An antenuptial contract registered in any
deeds registry in the country is valid throughout the country (Ex parte Schutte
et Uxor 1959 (2) SA 85 (C)).
If the parties need proof of the registered antenuptial contract in a deeds
registry other than the one where the antenuptial contract was registered, a
certified copy (by the notary or registrar) will suffice.
If any act of registration in respect of which proof of the antenuptial contract is
required occurs in another deeds registry than the registry where the
antenuptial contract was registered, a copy of the contract, certified by the
registrar or a notary, must be filed in that deeds registry (s 87(3) of the Deeds
Act). If the antenuptial contract creates or transfers a real right in immovable
property, such a copy must be filed in the deeds registry serving the area
where the immovable property is situated. Note that a donation of immovable
property or an undertaking to make a donation only creates a legal claim
(personal right) and not a real right.
 21

c. Signing a prenuptial agreement to marriage and the registration thereof within

a prescribed time may be ordered by the court (1), provided that the spouses
before marriage have agreed on the terms of the prenuptial agreement.
(Deeds Act, section 88)

42. Two minors approach you, as a notary, with a request to draft an antenuptial contract for
them as a matter of urgency. Their parents cannot be present, and there are no
witnesses available. Explain the legal position in respect of the execution and
registration of the contract, as well as the proposed marriage. (6)

Each of the minors must be assisted by a parent or a guardian at the signing of the
antenuptial contract (1). If the parents or guardians cannot be physically present, a
written consent by the parent(s) or guardian(s) to enter into the antenuptial contract
would suffice (1).
Without such assistance, the antenuptial contract is void (1) and the resulting marriage
would be entered into in community of property (1).
The contract cannot be ratified after the marriage or the coming of age of the minors (1).
The registrar of deeds has a discretion to dispense with the requirement that the contract
must be signed by two witnesses for the purpose of registration (1).

43. Which requirements have to be met when modifying an antenuptial contract? (4)

An antenuptial contract may be amended at any time, even after registration, by

agreement between the parties, on condition that the amendment occurs before the
marriage is solemnised (see RCR 33/1954, RCR 53/1966 and RCR 4/1969). The
amendment will have to be registered in the deeds registry to be enforceable against
third parties.
• The amendment should be made before confirmation of the marriage.
• The amendment will have to be registered in the deeds to be enforceable against third
parties.
• After confirming the marriage, a prenuptial agreement only in exceptional cases by a
court order be cancelled or modified.
• A marriage nuptial contract can by court order will be cancelled if the parties do not
proceed with the marriage, or
• where the parties to registration but to change the marriage plan and would rather act
in community of property in marriage.
 22

44. Which requirements have to be met when signing an antenuptial contract after
solemnisation of the marriage? (3)

After solemnisation of the marriage, only in exceptional circumstances may the terms of
an antenuptial contract be amended or cancelled by a court order (Ex parte De Zwaan
and Another 1909 TS 676; Ex parte Venter et Uxor 1988 (2) SA 175 (O), CRC 52/2011).
An antenuptial contract may also be cancelled by a court order if the parties do not
proceed with the marriage (Cross v Garner 1914 CPD 355; Ex parte Holm 16 SG 351),
or if the parties change their minds after registration but before solemnisation of the
marriage, and wish to marry in community of property instead (Ex parte Le Roux and
Another 1913CPD).

45. Is an antenuptial contract that has not been notarially executed or registered of any
value? (2)

An antenuptial contract that has not been executed by a notary and registered in the
deeds registry is valid and enforceable between the parties to the contract, but if it has
not been thus executed and registered it is not enforceable against third parties (s 86 of
the Deeds Act). If the parties concluded an antenuptial contract but failed to have the
antenuptial contract executed by a notary and registered in the deeds office, they can
approach the High Court for permission to register the contract post-nuptially. The High
Court is the competent court, as the granting of the application will change the status of
the parties. The parties may follow one of the following two routes:
- Post-nuptial registration of an antenuptial contract executed before solemnisation of the
marriage, in terms of section 87(1) of the Deeds Act.
In this instance the antenuptial contract was executed by a notary before the marriage,
but it was not registered within the prescribed three months after its execution of the
marriage. The parties may then apply to the High Court for extension of the period within
which the contract has to be registered. The application has to be accompanied by a
declaration under oath by the notary confirming that the contract was executed before
solemnisation of the marriage. The High Court may then extend the period for
registration. The original contract executed before the marriage, and not a new contract,
then has to be registered within the extended period.
- Post-nuptial execution and registration of antenuptial contract, in terms of section 88 of
the Deeds Act.
 23

In this instance the parties agreed, in writing or orally, expressly or tacitly, to marry under
antenuptial conditions, but did not execute a notarial antenuptial contract before the
marriage and have it registered.

46. You as a notary executed an antenuptial contract for a betrothed couple before their
marriage. However, you failed to register the contract within three months of the
execution date. How would you handle the situation? (5)

In this instance the antenuptial contract was executed by a notary before the marriage,
but it was not registered within the prescribed three months after its execution of the
marriage. The parties may then apply to the High Court for extension of the period within
which the contract has to be registered. The application has to be accompanied by a
declaration under oath by the notary confirming that the contract was executed before
solemnisation of the marriage. The High Court may then extend the period for
registration. The original contract executed before the marriage, and not a new contract,
then has to be registered within the extended period.

47. Briefly discuss the guidelines laid down in Ex parte Oxford 1920 CPD 367 for an
application to register a post-nuptial contract. (?)

In Ex parte Oxford 1920 CPD 367 the court laid down the following guidelines for an
application to notarially execute and register a post-nuptial contract:
(1) There must be an affidavit signed by both parties.
(2) Before the solemnisation of the marriage both parties must have made a binding
agreement, either express or tacit, to marry out of community of property.
(3) There must be good reasons why the parties did not have the agreement executed
by a notary and registered in the deeds registry.
(4) The parties must have made the application as soon as possible after realising that
they had been married in community of property.
(5) The application must be accompanied by a copy of the contract.
(6) The rights of creditors have to be protected when this order is made.
If the Court is satisfied that the above requirements have been duly complied with it will
issue an order for the postnuptial execution of the contract before a notary and its
registration in the deeds registry.
 24

48. Briefly discuss the requirements for an application to modify spouses' matrimonial
property dispensation in terms of section 21 of the Matrimonial Property Act 88 of 1984.
(3)

Spouses may jointly bring an application to the High Court to modify their matrimonial
property dispensation. The spouses have to convince the court that
(1) there is a good and justifiable reason for the application (In Ex parte Coetzee et Uxor
1984 (2) SA 363 (WLD) the father of one of the spouses and the minister had insisted
that the parties marry in terms of a specific matrimonial property dispensation, namely
out of community of property. The court accepted this undue influence as good reason
for modifying the dispensation to a marriage in community of property.)
(2) the creditors of both spouses have been notified of the proposed modification of the
matrimonial property dispensation
(3) no other person will be prejudiced by the modification

49. You have been requested to draw up an antenuptial contract.

(i) Briefly explain the meaning of the accrual system. (8)
(ii) How is the accrual determined? (5)

All marriages entered into in the Republic of South Africa are in community of property
and of profit and loss, unless the contrary is expressly stated in an antenuptial contract. If
the parties choose to marry out of community of property, they have to conclude an
antenuptial contract before the solemnisation of the marriage in which the community of
property and of profit and loss is expressly excluded.
Since 1 November 1984, the date of the commencement of the Matrimonial Property Act
88 of 1984, all marriages out of community of property have in terms of section 2 of the
Act been subject to a dispensation of deferred profit called the accrual system, unless
this is expressly excluded in the antenuptial contract.
At the dissolution of a marriage subject to the accrual system, by divorce or by the death
of one or both of the spouses, the spouse whose estate shows no accrual or a smaller
accrual than the estate of the other spouse, acquires a claim against the other spouse or
his or her estate for an amount equal to half of the difference between the accrual of the
respective estates of the spouses (s 3(1)). The right of a spouse to share in the accrual
of the estate of the other spouse only comes into being at the dissolution of the marriage.
During the subsistence of the marriage the right to share in the accrual is thus not
claimable, transferable or liable to attachment, and does not form part of the insolvent
 25

estate of a spouse (s 3(2)). However, a court may, on the application of a spouse whose
marriage is subject to the accrual system and who satisfies the court that his or her right
to share in the accrual of the estate of the other spouse at the dissolution of the marriage
is being or will probably be seriously prejudiced by the conduct or proposed conduct of
the other spouse, and that other persons will not be prejudiced thereby, order the
immediate division of the accrual (s 8(1)).
The accrual of the estate of a spouse is the amount by which the net value of his or her
estate at the dissolution of the marriage exceeds the net value of his or her estate at the
commencement of that marriage. Assets obtained before commencement of the
marriage are thus not taken into account. However, the value of the estate of each
spouse as at commencement of the marriage must be disclosed in the antenuptial
contract or in a separate notarially executed document (s 21(c)).
Therefore, if either of the parties wished assets acquired by either party before
conclusion of the marriage to be excluded from accrual, the exclusion of these must be
expressly stated. If no value is disclosed and recorded, the net commencement value of
each estate will be presumed to be nil (see s 6(4)(a)±(b) referred to below). Donations
between spouses do not form part of the accrual, unless the parties agree to the contrary
in the antenuptial contract or in a separate notarial deed (s 5(2)).
The effect of the accrual system is that spouses, or their estates, share equally in the
assets gained after commencement of the marriage when the marriage is dissolved. The
rationale is that during the marriage each spouse makes a contribution in his or her own
special way to the ability of the other spouse to build up an estate, and that it is therefore
only fair that each should share equally in the net value of the other's estate (be it growth
or loss).
The following assets are not taken into account when accrual is calculated:
 any amount which accrued to that estate by way of damages, other than
damages for patrimonial loss (s 4(1)(b)(i))
 an asset, and its income, which has been excluded from the accrual system in
terms of the antenuptial contract (s 4(1)(b)(ii))
 an inheritance, a legacy or a donation received from third parties (s 5(1))
The accrual of the estate of a deceased spouse is determined before effect is given to
any testamentary disposition or donation mortis causa (s 4(2)), and a donation between
spouses, other than a donation mortis causa, is not taken into account, either as part of
the estate of the donor or as part of the estate of the donee (s 5(2)).
The accrual system only applies to assets gained during the duration of the marriage: the
difference between the net value of the estate of a spouse at the commencement of the
 26

marriage and the net value when the marriage is dissolved. The net value of the estate
of a spouse at the commencement of his marriage is deemed to be nil if (i) the liabilities
of that spouse exceed his assets at such commencement, or if (ii) a value was not
declared in his antenuptial contract, and the contrary is not proved (s 6(4)(a)±(b)).
If a spouse neglected to place a value on his estate in the antenuptial contract or other
notarial deed, the spouse may, within six months after conclusion of the marriage, have
a statement executed, in the presence of the other spouse, before a notary. The notary
must file the statement with the antenuptial contract of the parties in his protocol, and
issue a certified copy of the statement to the parties, certifying that the original of the
certificate and the antenuptial contract is in safe-keeping in his protocol. If the statement
is drafted by another notary than the one who executed the antenuptial contract, he must
send the original statement by registered mail to the notary in whose protocol the
antenuptial contract is kept (s 6(1)±(2)).
The right to share in the accrual of the estate of a spouse is a patrimonial benefit which
may on divorce be declared forfeit, either wholly or in part (s 9).

STUDY UNIT 7

50. Define a personal servitude. (5)

A limited real right over the movable or immovable thing of another person granting
specific entitlements of use and enjoyment to the holder in his or her personal capacity
with regard to that thing for a specified period or for as long as he or she lives.

51. Define a praedial servitude. (5)

A limited real right which grants the holder of the right in his/her capacity as owner of
land (the dominant tenement) certain entitlements of use and enjoyment over land (the
servient tenement) belonging to another.

52. Name the characteristics of a servitude. (4)

(1) No one may have a servitude over his or her own thing (nulla res sua servit).
(2) A servitude cannot exist over another servitude (servitus servitutis esse non potest).
For example X, the holder of the servitude, or B, the owner of the servient land, cannot
register a right of use in Y's favour over X's right of way on B's land.
 27

(3) A holder of the servitude must exercise his or her right in the least prejudicial way
(civiliter modo) with regard to the owner of the servient land.
(4) A servitude cannot place a positive obligation on the owner of the servient land (the
so-called principle of passivity).
(5) The right of the holder of the servitude is absolute and thus enforceable against the
whole world. The holder of the servitude can protect his or her right with the real remedy
actio confessoria.
(6) The servitude must be enforceable by someone ± the holder acquires a limited real
right in respect of the owner's property.
On the principle that no-one may have a servitude in respect of his or her own thing, the
court found that this only holds if the right of ownership is exactly the same in respect of
both properties affected by the servitude, that is the dominant and the servient land. It
would therefore be possible for the owner of one piece of land (the dominant tenement)
to acquire a praedial servitude over another piece of land (the servient tenement) of
which he or she is only a co-owner, and vice versa (Mocke v Beaufort West
Municipality).

53 Name the different types of servitude that are found. (4)

 praedial servitudes (real servitudes)

 personal servitudes
 public servitudes
 statutory servitudes

54 Name the characteristics of praedial servitudes. (8)

(1) It can be granted only in respect of immovable property. (In terms of the Deeds Act
servitudes are registered over land. A notarial deed purporting to establish a
praedial servitude over, eg a registered lease would not be accepted for registration.
(2) Two pieces of land, a dominant tenement and a servient tenement, are prerequisites
(see Resnekov v Cohen 2012 (1) SA 314 (WCC)).
(3) It is always created in favour of a person only in his or her capacity as owner of the
dominant tenement.
(4) It is perpetual in nature ± perpetual in the sense that it is intended to exist for an
unlimited time and that it binds all successors in title of the land. A praedial servitude
for a limited period may, however, be registered (see Deeds Act s 76(1)).
 28

(5) It is inseparably attached to the land and can be transferred only with the land.
(6) It is indivisible. A servitude cannot be subdivided nor can it be acquired in part.
(7) The dominant and servient tenements must be adjacent to each other or must be in
close proximity of each other.
(8) It must serve to benefit the dominant tenement. It must enhance the value and use
of the dominant tenement.
(9) There is no prerequisite for the contents of a praedial servitude and it can therefore
be framed in various ways. Common examples are a right of way, a right of
aqueduct, a right of relaying electricity or a right of grazing.

55 Name the characteristics of personal servitudes. (4)

(1) It can be acquired over one or more movable or immovable things.

(2) It is granted in favour of a specific person or persons and is inseparably attached to
the person of the beneficiary.
(3) It cannot be transferred
Section 66 of the Deeds Act confirms this principle yet also provides for the
``transfer'' of a personal servitude to the owner of the land. The intention with the
proviso in this section is unclear because here one cannot speak of a ``transfer'' of a
personal servitude to the owner: such a ``transfer'' amounts to the termination of the
personal servitude by merger. In addition it is, in accordance with the nulla res sua
servit principle, not possible to establish a servitude over your own thing. One must
distinguish between the non-transferability of a personal servitude and the
transferability of the entitlements of a personal servitude. The holder of a personal
servitude can let, sell or even encumber with a mortgage his or her entitlements of
use and enjoyment. However, if the personal servitude terminates, the entitlements
granted in terms of the personal servitude lapse automatically.
(4) It is not perpetual and holds only for a specific period or for the lifetime of a natural
person, or in the case of a legal person, for a period of 100 years or up to the
termination of the legal person itself, whichever is the earlier, or until such time as it
is cancelled.

56 Differentiate between use (usus) and habitation (habitatio). (8)

(1) Usufruct (ususfructus). A usufruct can be defined as a personal servitude which

grants the servitude holder, as the entitled person, a limited real right to use the
 29

movable or immovable thing of another and to pick and fully utilise the fruits thereof
with the obligation to return the thing substantially intact to the owner on the
termination of the usufruct.
(2) Use (usus). Use can be defined as a personal servitude which grants the user, as
the entitled person, a limited real right to use the moveable or immovable thing of
another for the benefit of himself or herself and his or her household with the
obligation to return the thing substantially intact to the owner on termination of the
use. Unlike in the case of usufruct, the user is only allowed to pick and utilise as
much of the fruits as are required for himself or herself and his or her household's
personal use. Fruits may not be sold and (unlike in the case of usufruct and
habitation), the entitlements of use may also not be alienated. Use is indivisible.
(3) Habitation (habitatio). Habitation can be defined as a personal servitude which
grants the dweller, as the holder of the right, a limited real right to occupy the
building of another with the obligation to the return the building substantially intact to
the owner on termination of the habitation. Unlike in the case of use, the dweller is
not entitled to fruits. However, (unlike in the case of use, but similar to the case of
usufruct), he or she is entitled to alienate the entitlements in terms of the habitation.

57 Define usufruct. (8)

A public servitude is a limited real right created in favour of the general public. It is
considered to be a servitude with its own character (sui generis) because the ordinary
legal rules pertaining to servitudes do not apply to a public servitude. It does not conform
to praedial servitudes because two tenements are not a requirement and it does not fit in
with personal servitudes because it is created, not in favour of a specific person, but in
favour of the general public. Examples of public servitudes are grazing rights, public
roads or right of way.

58 How are servitudes terminated? (6)

(1) on cancellation by agreement or by unilateral waiver by the holder of the right

(2) when it becomes impossible to exercise the servitude
(3) through lapse of time owing to the expiry of the period for which the servitude was
originally granted, or in the case of a personal servitude, on the death of the holder of
the right in the case of a natural person, or after 100 years or earlier liquidation where
the holder of the personal servitude is a legal person
 30

(4) on merger where the holder of the servitude becomes the owner of the thing
encumbered by the servitude
(5) by means of prescription if the holder of the servitude was prevented from exercising
the servitude for an uninterrupted period of 30 years or if the holder of the servitude
refrains from exercising a positive servitude for an uninterrupted period of 30 years
(6) by legislation, for example in the case of expropriation

59 X, the holder of a usufruct over a farm, concludes an agreement with Y in terms of which
Y leases the usufruct from X. You are requested to draft the deed of lease and to have it
registered. Advise the parties on the legal position with regard to the contract. (3)

A lease between A and B can be set and executed and will be valid and enforceable. It
will not be registered since Article 3 (p) of the Deeds Act provides that only leases over
immovable property may be registered on land. (Registration will not be possible
because it would amount to the registration of a limited real right over another limited real
right).

60 X is the holder of a registered servitude of right of way over an adjacent farm,

Tonteldoos. X buys the adjacent farm, but on registration of transfer onto his name, he
fails to cancel the servitude in the deeds registry. Some time later X gets a good offer for
his original farm, and sells it to B. May B claim a servitude of right of way over the
adjacent farm, Tonteldoos, which still belongs to X? Substantiate your answer. (4)

Because it was registered in the deeds registry the purchaser is deemed to have
knowledge of the servitude by way of constructive notice
Should the purchaser have actual or constructive knowledge of the agreement, he is
bound on the grounds of the doctrine of notice.
In addition, if the purchaser, who has no knowledge of the servitude agreement and thus
is not bound, sells to another who indeed has knowledge of the original agreement, that
purchaser will also be bound on the grounds of the doctrine of notice.

A personal servitude may be reserved by means of a notarial agreement or a reservation

in the power of attorney to pass transfer as a condition in a deed of transfer of land if the
reservation is
 in favour of the transferor
 31

 in favour of the transferor and his or her spouse or the surviving spouse, if they are
married in community of property
 in favour of the surviving spouse if transfer is passed or given from the joint estate of
spouses who were married in community of property
The servitude is registered in favour of the transferor over another’s property and
registered in the name of the transferor.

61 X agrees with his friendly neighbour, Y, to maintain the fence on their communal
boundary while X moves abroad for an unlimited period. The parties request you to
execute the agreement notarially and register it in the deeds registry. Will you be able to
do this in your capacity as a notary? (5)

Personal rights are in principle not registrable (1). Only real rights may be registered (1).
The agreement will not be registered as a personal servitude or a preadial servitude, as
it imposes an obligation on Y, the owner of the dominant erf (1).

62 Name those characteristics of personal and praedial servitudes which are similar. (5)

A praedial servitude and a personal servitude may be created by registration of a notarial

deed in the deeds registry, or by means of a reservation in a power of attorney to pass
transfer of land, which is then registered as a condition in the deed of transfer.
The reservation of a servitude in a power of attorney to pass transfer of land is a much
cheaper process for the relevant parties than to have a notarial deed prepared and
registered.
Both can be created by a reservation of a servitude in a power of attorney, created by
court order, statute and prescription and a notarial agreement registered in the deeds
registry.
A negative personal servitude not to obstruct their view cannot be created by way of a
reservation of a servitude in the transfer of ownership. It must be clearly identified and
written acceptance must be provided as a supporting document submitted with the deed
for registration.

A personal servitude may be reserved by means of a reservation in the power of attorney

to pass transfer as a condition in a deed of transfer of land if the reservation is
 in favour of the transferor
 32

 in favour of the transferor and his or her spouse or the surviving spouse, if they
are married in community of property
 in favour of the surviving spouse if transfer is passed or given from the joint
estate of spouses who were married in community of property

Negative personal servitudes may also be reserved by means of a power of attorney to

pass transfer of land. The last proviso to section 65(1) of the Deeds Act provides that
``conditions which restrict the exercise of any right of ownership in immovable property
may be included in a deed of transfer of such immovable property''. These conditions
refer to negative personal servitudes which may be reserved by means of a reservation
in the power of attorney to pass transfer as a condition in the deed of transfer, provided
that such conditions must be enforceable by a person who is clearly identified and who
has signified his or her acceptance of such right.

A praedial servitude can be reserved by means of a reservation in the power of attorney

to pass transfer of land as a condition in a deed of transfer if the servitude is imposed on
the land transferred in favour of other land registered in the name of the transferor, or is
imposed in favour of the land transferred on other land registered in the name of the
transferor (s 76(1) of the Deeds Act). Section 76(1)(a)±(c) also provides for the
reservation in the power of attorney where the land being transferred is subject to
unregistered servitude rights.

Praedial and personal servitudes can also be created by a court order or by way of
prescription. Registration of such servitudes merely serves as rectification of the deeds
registry records as the servitude immediately vests on the granting of the court order or
at the moment all the prerequisites for the completion of acquisitive prescription have
been met.

In all other instances where parties decide by mutual agreement to create a servitude
over their land, it has to be embodied in a notarial agreement which has to be registered
in the deeds registry.
 33

63 X, a grain farmer and owner of the farm, Rooiwal, has a servitude of right of way to the
main road over Y's farm, Thabeng. Z, whose farm, Sunrise, is directly adjacent to
Rooiwal, develops a holiday resort on Sunrise. Sunrise has limited access to the main
road. X grants Z permission to use the servitude road over Thabeng to enable easy
access to Sunrise. X and Z request you to draw up a notarial agreement between them
and to have the agreement registered in the deeds registry. Briefly explain the legal
position with reference to case law. (5)

A servitude cannot exist over another servitude (servitus servitutis esse non potest). For
example X, the holder of the servitude, or B, the owner of the servient land, cannot
register a right of use in Y's favour over X's right of way on B's land.

64 X wishes to transfer his house to his son subject to a usufruct in favour of himself and his
spouse. Indicate and explain the procedures that may be followed to vest the usufruct as
a limited real right. (7)

A personal servitude can be defined as a limited real right which grants to the holder of
the servitude as the entitled person, in his or her personal capacity, certain entitlements
of use and enjoyment over the movable or immovable thing of another for a specific
period or the lifetime of the holder (see Johannesburg Municipality v Transvaal Cold
Storage Ltd 1904 TS 722; Goliath v Estate Goliath 1937 CPD 312).

A personal servitude can be defined as a limited real right and not a creditor's right
(personal right). It is called ``personal'' because the right that is acquired attaches
inseparably to the person of the holder of the servitude.

A mere servitude agreement, even if notarially executed, will not establish a servitude.
The rights created in a servitude agreement are creditor's rights (personal rights) and
only on registration do they become operative as limited real rights:
Now a servitude, like any other real right, may be acquired by agreement. Such an
agreement, however, though binding on the contractual parties, does not by itself vest
the legal title to the servitude in the beneficiary, any more than a contract of sale of land
passes the dominium to the buyer. The right of the beneficiary is to claim performance of
the contract by delivery of the servitude, which must be affected coram lege loci by an
entry made in the Register and endorsed upon the title deeds of the servient property.
(Innes CJ in Willoughby's Consolidated Co Ltd v Copthall Stores Ltd 1918 AD 1 at 16)
 34

and The conclusion of an oral agreement, for residence of life on land, provides no right
of habitatio. Registration thereof is an indispensable prerequisite for the validation of
such personal servitude. (Claasen J in Janse van Rensburg v Koekemoer 2011 (1) SA
118 (GSJ) at 126)
However, before such rights can be registered, the registrar of deeds must ensure that
they are registrable as real rights. It is therefore necessary to have a clear understanding
of the distinction between creditor's rights (personal rights) which in principle are not
registrable and real rights
When preparing a deed of servitude, the nature and characteristics of a servitude as well
as the requirements for registration must always be kept in mind by a notary.
The reservation of a servitude in a power of attorney to pass transfer of land is a much
cheaper process for the relevant parties than to have a notarial deed prepared and
registered.
A personal servitude can be created by a reservation of a servitude in a power of
attorney, created by court order, statute and prescription and a notarial agreement
registered in the deeds registry.

65 X who owns a holiday home in Port Alfred and has been transferred abroad by his
employer. X agrees with his neighbour, Y, to maintain the house and garden for a period
of 10 years. X and Y execute before you as a notary a notarial agreement and request
you to register the agreement in the deeds registry. Will the registrar of deeds accept the
conditions of the agreement for registration as a servitude or any other registrable right?
Briefly substantiate your answer and apply the test used by the courts in this regard as
part of your answer. (5)

The registrar will not accept the deeds for registration (.). The agreement does not create
a personal servitude because it does not grant Y any entitlements of use or enjoyment
over the property of X (.). It is also not a praedial servitude because it merely places a
duty on Y to maintain the property (.). There is therefore no question of a servient and
dominant tenement where the one piece of land is subject to a burden which benefits the
other piece of land (.). In any case a servitude cannot compel the owner of a servient
tenement to perform a positive act (.). The agreement also does not create a registrable
real right (.). According to the ``subtraction from dominium'' test (.) a right must, to qualify
as a real right, place a burden on the land (.) which must amount to a diminution (a
subtraction from) of Y's ownership (.). The duty to maintain X's house merely places a
 35

burden on Y in his personal capacity (.) and therefore creates a personal right (.) which,
in principle, cannot be registered (.).

66 X, a married person, wants to sell one of his farms but wishes to retain the right of use of
a road over the farm that is to be sold. The purchaser, Y, demands use of water from the
dam which is situated on X's remaining farm. Indicate how the needs of the parties can
be converted into rights to which their successors in title will also be entitled. (5)

Y can grant X a right of way and X can grant a right of aqueduct

The reservation of a servitude in a power of attorney to pass transfer of land is a much
cheaper process for the relevant parties than to have a notarial deed prepared and
registered.
Both can be created by a reservation of a servitude in a power of attorney, created by
court order, statute and prescription and a notarial agreement registered in the deeds
registry.

67 Name five guidelines determined by the court in Van Rensburg v Coetzee 1979 (4) SA
655 (A) for the granting of a way of necessity. (5)

 The description of the claim must be of such a nature that it portrays the
necessity as well as the reason why the way of necessity must cross over the
defendants land
 The width of the road that is claimed as well as the grounds for the claim
 A predetermined route that would be the most proper needs to be laid before the
court for its consideration
 A predetermined amount for compensation must be laid before the court for
consideration

53. Discuss implied servitude and the right to exclusive areas in terms of the Sectional Titles
Act. (5)

Section 28(1)(a)(i) and (ii) and section 29(1)(b)(i) and (ii) make provision for implied
servitudes in a scheme. These implied servitudes are in favour of each section over
other sections and the common property. These servitudes grant owners of sections the
right (exercised by the body corporate) of reasonable access to each section and the
exclusive use areas. For example, owners may use this right to maintain, repair or renew
 36

any part of the building or any pipes, wires, cables or ducts therein, or to make
emergency repairs that are necessary to prevent damage to the common property or to
any other section or sections.

B obtained a loan from Bank X to be insured by the registration of a mortgage on the

remainder of the farm "Hatley" who bought B of C and C in turn F, the current owner of
Hatley, bought. F the farm "Hatley", which currently has a mortgage bond in favor of Bank Y,
divided into Part I and the remainder. F also sold Section I to D but with a reservation of
mineral rights on Portion I in favor of himself. Registration of transfer would also B a usufruct
in favor of his mother, a co-applicant for the loan from Bank X, ocr remainder of the farm
"Hatley create.
Indicate the possible methods that can be followed to the usufruct dealing with registration of
the mortgage. (4)

- The mortgage may be registered as being subject to the usufruct, in which case the
provisions of the servitude must be set out fully in the morgage - This procedure will not be
easily followed.
- B and his mother can register their interest in the property as co-owners, this will only be
possible if B and his mother applied for the loan jointly
- The mother may waive her right in favor of the mortgage by way of a notarial deed, or by
including the wording of the waiver in the mortgage itself.
- B as the owner of the land or his mother may, as principal debtor, either burden the land
with a servitude or a mortgage and either may, as surety in the same mortgage burden the
land with a servitude or mortgage.

STUDY UNIT 8

68 Define a lease. (6)

A lease is defined as a reciprocal agreement between one party, the lessor (also called
the ``landlord''), and another party, the lessee, in terms of which the lessor binds himself
to give the lessee the temporary use and enjoyment of the thing (land), wholly or in part,
for a specified period, in return for the payment of monetary remuneration (rent) by the
lessee.
 37

69 May the registrar of deeds register a short-term lease over movable and immovable
property? (4)
The Deeds Act does not contain any directives with regard to the form or format for a
lease agreement in order to be acceptable for registration, apart from providing that it
has to be executed by a notary (ss 3(1)(p) and 77(1)). Section 3(1)(p) authorises the
registrar of deeds to register notarial leases of land. The section does not distinguish
between a short-term and a long-term lease. The lease could thus be either long- or
short-term. The only requirement is that it has to be a lease of land contained in a deed
executed by a notary. A valid lease of movable property or of a servitude, such as a
usufruct, can therefore not be registered in the deeds registry.
Section 82 of the Deeds Act provides for the registration of a notarial bond over a
registered lease and sub-lease. As notarial bonds can only be registered over movables,
this implies a registered short-term lease. A registered long-term lease cannot be
hypothecated by a notarial bond. It can only be hypothecated by an ordinary mortgage
bond because in terms of section 102 of the Deeds Act it is defined as immovable.

70 Name the essential elements that a contract has to contain in order to qualify as a lease.
(3)

The key elements of a lease are therefore:

(1) an undertaking by the lessor to make the use and enjoyment of the thing (land)
available to the lessee
(2) an agreement between the parties that the lessee will have temporary (for a specified
period) use and enjoyment of the thing (land)
(3) an undertaking by the lessee to pay rent (The rent is payable in money or, in the case
of partiarian leases of agricultural land, it may also consist of part of the yield of the fruits
of the leased land.)

71 Y wishes to let a part of his farm on a long-term basis to X.

a. Must the lease agreement be in writing in order to be valid? Substantiate your
answer. (2)
b. Name the essential elements which the contract must contain in order to qualify
as a contract of lease. (3)
c. Name three essential requirements that have to be met before the contract of
lease will be accepted for registration. (3)
 38

(i) No, the contract need not be in writing to be valid (1). See section 1(1) of
the Formalities in Respect of Leases of Land Act 18 of 1969 (1).
(ii) The contract must contain:
a. an undertaking by the lessor to make the land available to the
lessee (1);
b. an agreement that the lessee will have temporary use and
enjoyment of the land (1) an undertaking by the lessee to pay
rent (1)
(iii) The contract must be in writing and must be executed by a notary(1) and
signed by both parties personally. Because only a part of the land is to be
subject to the lease, the land will have to be surveyed and an SG diagram
in respect of the that part must accompany the deed of lease when lodged
for registration (1) together with the consent of the Minister in terms of the
Subdivision of Agricultural Land Act 70 of 1970 (1). The consent of the
mortgage holder and servitude holder is not required for registration.

72 Does the Consumer Protection Act 68 of 2008 have any effect on the huur gaat voor
koop rule? Briefly discuss. (6)

The lessor is fully liable for any lease pertaining to the leased premises in favour of any
lessee as between the lessor and the purchaser/creditor. The lessor further guarantees
that the purchaser/creditor is to have and enjoy quiet possession of the leased
premises, unless such lease was disclosed in writing to the purchaser/creditor prior to
the conclusion of the transaction or agreement (s 44(1)(c) and (d)). Where the lessor
failed to inform the purchaser/creditor in this manner, the lessor is also liable to the
lessee to the extent of the infringement or compromise of that lessee's rights pertaining
to the leased premises(s 44(2)).

The purchaser or creditor who has not been duly informed of a lease need therefore not
acknowledge the rights of the lessee of an unregistered lease on the land. These
provisions invalidate the protection a lessee of an unregistered lease enjoyed under the
``huur gaat voor koop'' rule. The notary must take full cognizance of the provisions of
this Act.

73. X is the holder of a right of residence (habitation) regarding Y's house. S approach X to
let either the house or the entitlements that X has in terms of the habitatio right to him,
 39

provided that the lease is registered in the Deeds Office. Briefly discuss the feasibility of
S's request. (4)

Only Y, the owner of the house has the authority to lease the house and register the
lease. (1) The holder of the personal servitude’s co-operation may be necessary. (½) A
personal servitude is not transferable and therefore X willy only be able to enter into an
agreement with S whereby the rights of habitatio will be let to S. (½) Such an agreement
does not create a real right and is therefore not registrable (1)

STUDY UNIT 9

73 Define briefly in your own words the concept of a trust. (6)

A trust may be defined as a concept of law where a person or a body as trustee (1), in
accordance with formulated prescriptions (1) of another person or body (founder) (1), is
the owner or person entitled to the trust assets (1) subject to the obligation to apply the
assets of the trust exclusively for the benefit of specific or specifiable beneficiaries (1) or
in order to achieve a specific personal aim (1).

74 Which four main requirements have to be met before a trustee may act as such in terms
of a trust? (4)

a. the person must be competent to act as such,

b. must accept the nomination as trustee and
c. must be duly appointed by the Master of the High Court.
d. A founder of a trust may also be appointed as trustee.
In terms of section 4 of the Trust Property Control Act 57 of 1988, a trustee may not act
as such before a letter of authorisation has been issued by the Master (see Simplex (Pty)
Ltd v Van der Merwe and Others NO 1966 (1) SA 111 (WLD); Kriel v Terblanche NO en
Andere 2006 (6) SA 132 (NCD)).

75 Name the persons who are incompetent to act as a trustee in terms of the Trust Property
Control Act 57 of 1988. (5

The following persons are not competent to act as trustees:

a. persons who do not have contractual capacity
 40

b. persons who are excluded or disqualified by the trust document

c. persons (as well as their spouses) who are appointed as trustees in the will and who
have signed the will as witnesses
d. a director of a company as trustee on behalf of the holders of debentures (cf
Companies Act 61 of 1973, s 122)
e. The Master of the High Court in his official capacity (Administration of Estates Act 66
of 1965, s 99)

76 Name the key requirements that a trust has to meet to function as such. (7)

a. A trust must function as an independent autonomous entity.

b. The founder must intend to create a trust. A trust cannot be created
c. inadvertently.
d. There must be a clear separation between the estate of the founder and the trust
assets.
e. The trust assets must be clearly circumscribed, whether they are movable or
immovable, corporeal or incorporeal.
f. A clear and binding obligation to assign the assets to the trust, and allow the trust to
be managed by the trustee, has to be created in the trust deed. This can be in the
form of a contract, for example a separate independent deed of trust or a provision in
an antenuptial contract, or by will, or by a court order.
g. The trust must have a clear objective or aim. A trust is usually created to benefit
certain persons or classes of persons, or with a charitable object, or with specific
religious or educational aims.
h. The purpose of the trust must be legal.
i. The trustees must accept their nomination as trustees.

If the above elements are not present, a trust cannot be established.

77 In which ways may a trustee's office be terminated? (3)

A trustee may resign from his or her office, or be removed therefrom.

Removal may be by court order or on authority of the Master.
 41

A trustee may resign at any time with written notice to the Master and the beneficiaries.
On resignation the trustee is obliged to return his or her written authorisation to the
Master (s 20(3); s 21).

A trustee may be removed from his or her office by the court if the court is satisfied that
such removal will be in the interests of the trust and its beneficiaries. The Master or any
person who has an interest in the trust property may apply for such an order.

78 On which grounds may a trustee be removed from office by the Master of the High
Court? (6)

A trustee may at any time be removed from his or her office by the Master
a. if he or she has been convicted of any offence of which dishonesty is an element or
of any other offence for which he or she has been sentenced to imprisonment without
the option of a fine
b. if his or her estate is sequestrated or liquidated (in the case of a legal person) or
placed under judicial management
c. if he or she has been declared by a court to be mentally ill or incapable of managing
his or her own affairs or if he or she is, by virtue of the Mental Health Act 18 of 1973,
detained as a patient in an institution or as a State patient
d. if he or she fails to give security or additional security, as the case may be, to the
satisfaction of the Master within two months after having been requested to do so or
such longer period as the court may determine, as to the due exercise of his or her
office
e. if he or she fails to perform satisfactorily any duty imposed upon him or her by or
under the Trust Property Control Act 57 of 1988
f. he or she fails to comply with any lawful request of the Master's.

79 Under which circumstances is a trust terminated? (5)

A trust may be amended or terminated if

a. such provision is made in the trust document
b. the founder, trustees and beneficiaries unanimously agree to the amendment or
termination (the beneficiaries naturally must have contractual capacity, and no
one may be prejudiced)
 42

c. the court is of the opinion that the deed of trust contains a provision that is
contrary to the public interest, or which prejudices the interests of the
beneficiaries, or is contrary to the aims of the founder.

80 The founder of a trust together with the trustee has just executed a deed of trust before
you, as a notary. Indicate what essential formal requirements still have to be complied
with in respect of the deed of trust and the trustee before the trustee will be qualified to
act as such. (6)

81 When drafting a deed of trust it is essential that the parties are divided into at least three
groups. Name these three groups and very briefly indicate the purpose and function of
each. (6)

A trust always includes three parties: the founder(s), the trustee(s) and the
beneficiary(ies). A trust may be established in one of the following two ways:
(1) An inter vivos deed of trust. A founder of a trust may create a trust during his or her
lifetime in terms of which he or she transfers assets during his or her lifetime to a trustee
to control and administer in favour of the beneficiary. The trust is established when the
founder and the trustee conclude the agreement, or at such later time that they may
determine. An inter vivos trust may also be created in an antenuptial contract.
(2) A will (mortis causa trust). A trust may be created in terms of a provision in a will, and
comes into operation on the death of the testator (the founder). A testamentary trust may
also be embodied in an antenuptial contract.

82 Distinguish between a trust in the narrow sense and a ``bewind'' trust. (5)

In a trust in the narrow sense, the trustee is therefore the owner or person entitled to the
trust assets, not for his own benefit, but on behalf of the person or body designated in
the deed of trust as beneficiary. The trust in the narrow sense must be distinguished
from a bewind trust. In a bewind trust the trust assets vest in the beneficiary, and the
trustee merely acts as administrator (eg as curator of the estate of a person declared
unfit by the court to manage his or her own affairs).

83. Duties of trustee

a. Handing in of deed of trust

 43

b. Security
c. Address
d. Care
e. The trust account
f. Identification of trust property
g. Custody of documents
h. Administration

STUDY UNIT 10

84. Define a bill as defined in the Bills of Exchange Act 34 of 1964. (9)

85. Define a promissory note as defined in the Bills of Exchange Act 34 of 1964. (8)

86. Briefly distinguish between a drawer, drawee and payee. (3)

Drawer
 44

The person issuing the cheque or bill who gives written instruction to pay is called the
drawer or instructor. In the case of a promissory note, he or she is called the promissor
or maker.

Drawee
The person who is instructed to pay is called the drawee (normally a bank).

87. Presentment of a bill for acceptance is only compulsory in certain circumstances.

 If a bill is payable after sight (1)

 If a bill expressly stipulates that it shall be presented for acceptance (1)
 If a bill is drawn payable elsewhere than at the place of residence or place of
business of the drawee (1)
 If the holder of a bill, drawn payable elsewhere than at the place of residence or
business of the drawee, has no time to present the bill for acceptance before
presenting it for payment on the day that it falls due (1), the delay is excused (1)

88. Briefly indicate when this is the case. (5)

In terms of section 39 of the Act, a bill is duly presented for acceptance if the following
requirements are met:
(a) The presentment must be made by or on behalf of the holder at a reasonable hour on
a business day, and before the bill is overdue, to the drawee, or to a person authorised
to accept or refuse acceptance on his behalf.
(b) If a bill is addressed to two or more drawees, who are not partners, presentment must
be made to them all, unless one has authority to accept for all, in which case
presentment may be made to him only.
(c) If the drawee is dead, presentment may be made to his executor.
(d) If the drawee is insolvent, presentment may be made to him or his trustee.
(e) A presentment by post, if in due course, is sufficient

Presentment in accordance with the provisions of section 39(1) is excused, and a bill
may be treated as dishonoured by non-acceptance
(a) if the drawee is dead or insolvent, or is a fictitious or non-existing person or a person
not having capacity to contract
(b) if, after the exercise of reasonable diligence, such presentment cannot be effected
 45

(c) if, when irregular presentment is made, acceptance is refused on some other ground

89. Indicate which circumstances are required for the due presentment for payment of a bill.
(5)

It is compulsory to present a bill for payment, and it has to be done duly in accordance
with the provisions of the Act. If this is not done, the drawer and endorser are
discharged. A bill is duly presented for payment if it is done in accordance with the
following rules:
(a) If the bill is not payable on demand, presentment must be made on the day it falls
due.
(b) If the bill is payable on demand, presentment must, subject to the provisions of the
Act, be made within a reasonable time, within the meaning of subsection (3), after its
issue, in order to render the drawer liable, and within such a reasonable time after its
endorsement, in order to render the endorser liable.
(c) Presentment must be made by the holder, or by some person authorised to receive
payment on his behalf, at a reasonable hour on a business day, at the proper place,
either to the person designated by the bill as payer, or to some person authorised to pay
or refuse payment on his or her behalf, if with the exercise of reasonable diligence such
person can be found there.
(d) If the bill is drawn upon, or accepted by two or more persons who are not partners,
and no place of payment is specified, presentment must be made to them all.
(e) if the drawee or acceptor of the bill is dead and no place of payment is specified,
presentment must be made to his executor, if there is one and, with the exercise of
reasonable diligence, he can be found.

In determining what is a reasonable time regard shall be had to the nature of the bill, the
usage of trade with respect to similar bills, and the facts of the particular case.

90. Who must be given notice of dishonour, and why is it important? (3)

If a bill is dishonoured by non-acceptance or non-payment, notice has to be given to the

drawer and endorsers. If this is not done, they are discharged of their liability, provided
that failure to give notice of non- acceptance shall not prejudice the rights of the holder in
due course
 46

Although the Act does not determine that notice of dishonour shall be given by a notary,
it would be advisable that a notary give such notice, as he may in any event require the
relevant information and facts later, when noting and protesting.
The Act prescribes the following rules for giving notice of dishonour:
(1) Notice of dishonour, in order to be valid and effectual, must be given in accordance
with the following rules, namely
(a) The notice must be given by or on behalf of the holder, or by or on behalf of an
endorser who, at the time of giving it, is himself liable on the bill.
(b) The notice may be given by an agent, either in his own name or in the name of
any party entitled to give notice, whether that party is his principal or not.
(c) The notice may be given in writing, or by personal communication, and may be
given in any terms which sufficiently identify the bill and intimate that the bill has
been dishonoured by non-acceptance or non-payment.
(d) The return of a dishonoured bill to the drawer or an endorser is, in point of form,
deemed to be a sufficient notice of dishonour.
(e) A written notice need not be signed, and an insufficient written notice may be
supplemented and validated by verbal communication.
(f) If notice of dishonour is required to be given to any person, it may be given either
to such person himself or to a person authorised to receive such notice on his
behalf.
(g) If the drawer or an endorser is dead, and the party giving notice knows it, the
notice must be given to the executor, if there is one and, with the exercise of
reasonable diligence, he can be found.
(h) If the drawer or an endorser is insolvent, notice may be given either to himself or
to his trustee.
(i) If there are two or more drawers or endorsers who are not partners, notice must
be given to each of them, unless one of them has authority to receive such notice
for one or more of the others, in which case notice to the one having such
authority shall be deemed to be notice to such other person or persons.
(j) The notice may be given as soon as the bill is dishonoured, and must be given
within a reasonable time.
(k) If a bill, when dishonoured, is in the hands of an agent, he may give notice either
to the parties liable on the bill or to his principal, and if he gives notice to his
principal, he must do so within the same period of time that would have been
allowed if he were the holder.
 47

(2) If the notice is given by or on behalf of the holder, it ensures for the benefit of all
subsequent holders and all prior endorsers who have a right of recourse against the
party to whom it is given.
(3) If notice is given by or on behalf of an endorser entitled to give notice by virtue of the
provisions of subsection (1), it ensures for the benefit of the holder and all endorsers
subsequent to the party to whom notice is given.

91. Distinguish between noting and protest. (8)

Noting
When a bill is dishonoured by non-acceptance or non-payment, the holder approaches a
notary to note and protest this state of affairs. The notary's initial task is to present the bill
once again. If the bill is again dishonoured, the notary drafts a short report or noting slip
in which he or she notes the dishonour in writing. The noting slip is therefore a short note
in which the notary factually confirms the presentment of the bill and the reaction to the
presentment. It would be advisable for the notary to initial the bill and identify it with a
number in the protocol register, referring to where the copy of the bill and the duplicate
original noting slip is filed.

Protest
Protest is the formal written report by a notary in which he or she states that the bill was
dishonoured, and that the holder intends to claim the amount of the bill together with all
costs that he or she had to incur in respect thereof.
The Act provides that, if a notary is not available, a local property owner or family head
may issue in the presence of two witnesses a certificate of refusal, which will have the
same operation as a formal protest.

92. What is the purpose and function of noting and protest of a bill? (4)

The purpose of notarial noting and protest is to create authentic evidence that a
negotiable instrument was duly presented (for acceptance or payment), and that it was
dishonoured after presentment. When a notarial noting and protest is drafted by a notary,
this is prima facie evidence of the facts contained therein, and it may not be contested in
preliminary trial proceedings. It may only be contested at the main trial.
93. Explain the purpose of notarial noting and protest and indicate the procedural benefit it
has. (8)
 48

94. Which facts have to be noted in a protest? (7)

NOTING
On request of .......... (name)
Presented to .......... (name)
at .......... (place)
Claim submitted for .......... (amount)
Answer ...... (particulars of answer)
Noted for .......... (amount)
Notice to .......... (name
Cost .......... (amount)
Date .......... (day, month, year)
Signature ....................................... (of notary)

PROTEST
Must contain a copy of the bill signed by the notary and must contain:-
- On whose request the bill is protested
- The place and date of the protest
- The cause of the protest
- The claim being made
- The supporting answer or that the acceptor/maker could not be found
Take note that on .......... (date), on request of .......... (name), holder of a bill of which a
copy appears above, I .......... (name), a notary, practising at .......... (place) in the
province .......... (province) went to .......... (place of presentment) and there presented the
abovementioned bill/note to the payee (acceptor/drawer) of the abovementioned bill/note
and claimed payment/acceptance thereof, to which he/she replied .......... (particulars).
Thereafter, on the same day, I went to the office of ......... (name) at ......... (place;
residential/business address), the drawer/acceptor of abovementioned bill/note, and
notified him or her of the dishonouring thereof by abovementioned holder
(acceptor/maker), and claimed payment thereof, to which he/she replied ..........
(particulars). On the same day I wrote letters, of which copies are attached, to ..........
(particulars), the endorser(s) of abovementioned bill, which letters were duly addressed,
stamped and sent by registered post.
 49

Since the drawer and endorsers did not pay as requested, I ........., the notary, am
protesting, on request of the abovementioned .......... (name) against the drawer and
endorsers of abovementioned bill/note, and against all other parties thereto, for all losses
and damages incurred or to be incurred due to the non-acceptance/non-payment of the
bill/note.
Signed at ............................... (place) on the ....................... (date) ...........................
Notary

83. Explain under which circumstances a cheque will be negotiable and indicate how such a
cheque is negotiated. (7)

A bill must be payable either to bearer or to order to be negotiable.

A bill is payable to bearer if it is expressed to be so payable, or if the only or last
endorsement on it is an endorsement in blank, or if it is expressed to be payable to the
order of ``cash'' or to ``cash or order'' (s 6(2)). An endorsement is blank if the endorser
merely endorses the bill, without appointing an endorsee (beneficiary). Such bill then
becomes payable to bearer (s 31(a)).
A bill is payable to order if it is expressed to be so payable, or if it is expressed to be
payable to a particular person and does not contain words prohibiting transfer or
indicating an intention that it should not be transferable (s 6(3)). If it contains such words
such a bill is not negotiable (s 6(5)).
A bill is negotiated if it is transferred from one person to another in such a manner as to
constitute the transferee the holder of the bill (s 29(1)). A bill payable to bearer is
negotiated by delivery (s 29(2)). A bill payable to order is negotiated by the endorsement
of the holder completed by delivery (s 29(3)).

84. With regard to a negotiable instrument, distinguish between drawer, drawee and payee.
(3)

Drawer
The person issuing the cheque or bill ± who gives written instruction to pay ± is called
the drawer or instructor. In the case of a promissory note, he or she is called the
promissor or maker.
Drawee
The person who is instructed to pay is called the drawee (normally a bank).
Payee and endorser
 50

The person or institution in whose favour the instruction is given, in other words, the
person who in the first instance is entitled to claim payment from the drawee, is called
the payee or beneficiary. The payee has no liabilities in respect of the document. If the
payee (or the beneficiary) transfers the negotiable instrument to another person, or
negotiates it by endorsement, the payee becomes the endorser. In this way the payee as
endorser also becomes a party incurring liability in respect of the document.

85. Name the instances where a notice of dishonour to a drawer may be dispensed with. (5)

(a) if after the exercise of reasonable diligence, notice as required by the Act cannot be
given to or does not reach the drawer or endorser sought to be held liable;
(b) by express or implied waiver, either before the time of giving notice has arrived, or
after omission to give due notice;
(c) as regards the drawer in the following cases, namely
(i) where drawer and drawee are the same person;
(ii) where the drawee is a fictitious person or a person not having capacity to contract;
(iii) where the drawer is the person to whom the bill is presented for payment;
(iv) where the drawee or acceptor is not bound, as between himself and the drawer, to
accept or pay the bill;
(v) where the drawer has countermanded payment;
(d) as regards an endorser in the following cases, namely
(i) where the drawee is a fictitious person or a person not having capacity to contract,
and such endorser was aware thereof at the time he endorsed the bill.

Delay in giving notice of dishonour is excused if the delay is caused by circumstances

beyond the control of the party giving notice and provided that if the cause of delay
ceases to operate, the notice must be given with reasonable diligence

STUDY UNIT 11

86. When is transfer duty payable? (3)

Transfer duty is a form of tax on the acquisition of land and real rights to land or to the
enhancement of the value of immovable property as a result of the renunciation of an
interest in or a restriction upon the use or disposal of immovable property (in this regard
see the definition of property in section 1 of the Act). Although proof of payment of
 51

transfer duty must be rendered, for example, when registering a deed of transfer for the
transfer of ownership of land, it is in fact a levy on the remuneration a purchaser (the
transferee) pays for acquiring the right to claim transfer of ownership. Transfer duty is
payable within six months after date of acquisition as defined in section 1 of the Act

87. Where must transfer duty be paid? (2)

At the office of the Receiver of Revenue (1) within whose jurisdiction the land is
situated(1) , if the land falls under the jurisdiction of more than one such office then at
any one of those offices, (1) or otherwise, at the office in the area where the deed is
registered. (1)

88. Who is liable for the payment of duty. Explain briefly. (2)

The purchaser is liable for the payment of duty Y because he acquires ownership of the
land

89. When must transfer duty be paid? (2)

Duty must be paid within 6 months (1) after signing the deed of sale. (1)

90. X and Y, who are married in community of property, are the owners of a house and a
farm. The marriage breaks down, and in terms of the order of divorce, Y gets the house.
After the divorce X dies. In his will he left the farm to Y. What is the position in respect of
payment of transfer duty? (3)
No transfer duty is payable upon the half share arising from the marriage in community
of property. Transfer duty is payable upon the transfer of the house upon divorce. No
transfer duty is payable upon attaining the farm in terms of the will

91. X is the owner of a farm worth R500 000. He marries Y in community of property. What
is the position in respect of payment of transfer duty? (2)

Y attains a share in terms of the marriage but is exempted from paying transfer duty in
terms of Section 9(k) of the Transfer duty Act.
 52

92. X is the owner of two farms, subject to his mother's usufruct. X sells one farm to Y.
Before transfer can take place, X dies. The executor of X's deceased estate transfers the
sold farm to Y and the remaining farm, in terms of an bequest in the will, to Y's heir. The
mother waives her usufruct. What is the position in respect of payment of transfer duty?
(3)
Y will be liable for transfer duty of the full value of the farm. In terms of Section 9(e)(ii) Z’s
heir is exempted from paying transfer duty, regardless of whether his mother waives her
usufruct before or after transfer of the farm to the heir’s name

93. X is the owner of the farm Riverside and of a half share in the farm Geluk. X wants to
bequeath these properties to his three sons. How would you advise X, in terms of the
provisions of the Subdivision of Agricultural Land Act 70 of 1970? Substantiate your
answer. (6)

Without the consent of the Minister (1) agricultural land may not be subdivided (1) (and
an undivided share in land may not be diminished). (If the Minister's consent to give
effect to such a bequest cannot be obtained, the properties must be sold and the
proceeds divided (1).) X can bequeath Riverside and the half share in Geluk separately
to each of his two sons and an equalising sum of money to the other son (1).
Alternatively he can bequeath the land to a company of which his sons are the
shareholders (1) or a trust with the sons as beneficiaries (1).

94. X bequeaths his farm Koppies to his two sons in equal parts, subject to a usufruct in
favour of his widow, and subject to a servitude of aqueduct in favour of his other farm,
Elangeni, which he bequeaths to his daughter. Is it possible to give effect to the
stipulations in this will? Substantiate your answer with reference to the provisions of the
Subdivision of Agricultural Land Act 70 of 1970. (12)

Section 3(a) prohibits the physical subdivision of agricultural land, section 3(b) the
transfer of an undivided share in agricultural land which has not yet been held as such by
anyone, and section 3(c) the further reduction of an undivided share in agricultural land.
Consequently it is possible that a co-owner can transfer a part of his or her undivided
share to the remaining co-owners without the permission of the Minister, provided that,
simultaneously with the transfer, a certificate of registered title in terms of section 35 of
the Deeds Act is taken out in respect of each co-owner's total undivided share in the
 53

land. This increases the shares of the remaining owners and at the same time prevents
the newly acquired share from being dealt with separately.
The effect of the will, will not be carried out without Minister's consent (1). (They may
however redistribute, and agree that the land will be transferred only to one person or
that the transfer of the entire property will be transferred to a company of which the heirs
may be equal shareholders.
In terms of section 5 the executor is obliged to sell the land if the Minister's permission
cannot be obtained and if the heirs cannot reach agreement and the proceeds divided
among the children (1)
In terms of section 6A the registration of a servitude, except in exceptional
circumstances, is also regarded as a division of agricultural land. Note that a usufruct
over only a part of a piece of land does not qualify as an exception.
If X and his wife were married in community of property (1) and the usufruct is to be
registered over the whole of the property (1), the will may be given effect to without the
consent of the minister in terms of the usufruct.
If the servitude of aqueduct is narrower than 15 meters it may be registered without the
consent of the minister.
Transfer of the farm, Elangeni to his daughter will be able to take effect, however the
farm Koppies cannot be divided and will an agreement have to be reached that one son
will get a portion in money that is equal to the half share value of the farm, alternatively it
will have to be sold

95. X, Y and Z are co-owners in equal shares of the farm, Rietwal. Z requests you to draw
up his will in terms of which he inter alia bequeaths his 1/3 share in the farm in equal
parts to X and Y. Advise Z on the legal position and the practical execution of such a
bequest. (7)

96. X, a wealthy farmer, instructs you to draft a trust deed and a will. The trust is set up with
his two sons, Y and Z, as beneficiaries. X donates all his farms except the farm Vivo to
the trust. The will stipulates that on his death the farm Vivo shall devolve directly upon
the two sons in equal shares.
Advise X on the legal position with regard to
a. the payment of transfer duty (3)
A trust is liable for transfer duty when immovable property is acquired, and it is
assessed at the same rate as a company or close corporation. Transfer duty
 54

must be paid within 6 months of the registration of the trust deed, in respect of
the Vivo Farm no transfer duty will be paid by the heirs.
b. the practicability of the instruction in view of the provisions of the Subdivision of
Agricultural Land Act 70 of 1970 (12)

97. X stipulates in his will that on his death his farm Koppies must be subdivided into two
portions. He bequeaths Portion 1 of Koppies to the provincial government to be
developed as a nature reserve. The Remainder of Koppies he bequeaths to his two sons
in equal parts, subject to a usufruct in favour of his widow, Y, and a servitude of
aqueduct in favour of his other farm, Elangeni, which he bequeaths to his daughter, Z.
Explain the legal position and the steps you would consider in order to give effect, as far
as possible, to the stipulations in the will. Substantiate your answer with reference to the
provisions of the Subdivision of Agricultural Land Act 70 of 1970. (13)

98. In terms of an antenuptial contract, X donates a sectional title flat to his prospective wife,
Y, and also grants Y a usufruct over one of his farms. X asks you to register the contract.
Explain point by point the position in respect of the time of payment and the furnishing of
evidence of payment of transfer duty. (7)

Transfer duty is payable within six months (1) from the date of the transaction in terms of
which a claim to a real right is acquired (1). Transfer duty will therefore be payable on
both the flat and the usufruct within six months after signature of the antenuptial contract
(1). Proof of payment (by means of a transfer duty receipt) in respect of the flat will have
to be furnished when the deed of transfer for the transfer of the flat is lodged in the
deeds registry (1). Proof of payment in respect of the usufruct will, however, have to be
furnished on lodgement of the antenuptial contract for registration in the deeds registry
(1) because here the contract serves as the document of transfer (1).
The date of acquisition is not the date of the vesting of the real right (eg the date of
registration of transfer of immovable property in the deeds registry) but the date of the
transaction – the date on which the right to claim the immovable property or real right in
respect of the immovable property was granted (s 1(ix) of the Transfer Duty Act 40 of
1949; Commissioner for Inland Revenue v Freddies Consolidated Mines Ltd 1957 (1) SA
306 (A)).
If immovable property is donated in an antenuptial contract, the date of execution of the
antenuptial contract is thus the date of the acquisition. Transfer duty is therefore payable
within six months after the date of execution of the antenuptial contract, irrespective of
 55

when, if ever, the property is transferred to the grantee (Ex parte De Zwaan and another
1909 TS 676).
An undertaking to donate per se must be distinguished from a donation. An undertaking
to donate does not create a claim to the transfer (or acquisition) of ownership, but a
claim to the fulfilment of an undertaking which will lead to a claim for the transfer of the
right of ownership.
An undertaking in an antenuptial contract to donate immovable property or a real right in
such property at a future time to a spouse would therefore not be subject to the payment
of transfer duty. Transfer duty would be payable within six months after conclusion of the
actual donation agreement - once again, irrespective of when transfer of the property
takes place. If land or a real right in land has been donated to an intended spouse in
terms of an antenuptial contract, no transfer of such land and no cession of such right by
the donor to any person other than the intended spouse may be registered in the deeds
registry unless the transfer duty payable has been provided for or paid
(ii) No donation tax is payable in respect of the value of property donated to the spouse
of the donor under a duly registered antenuptial contract (s 56(i) of the Income Tax Act
58 of 1962).
(iii) No stamp duties are payable in respect of an antenuptial contract. The Stamp Duties
Act has been repealed with effect from 1 April 2009 (Revenue Laws Amendment Act 60
of 2008).

99. X buys a very expensive house of Y. X wants to save duty and agree with Y that the
agent's commission should not be included in the purchase price but would be paid
directly to the estate agent. In its pro forma invoice the conveyancer calculated the
transfer duty on all payments by X in respect of the acquisition of the property, namely
the purchase price, the agent's commission, the outstanding taxes on the property and
the transfer fees. Advise X on the correctness of the account. (4)

Transfer duty is payable on all amounts in respect of the acquisition of property,

including the purchase price (1) and agent's commission (1), but specifically excludes all
taxes and levies paid to authorities (1) and transfer fees ( 1) from the payment of transfer
duty.

100. Name two instances where an antenuptial agreement will be subject to payment of
duty. Is there a way payment of these charges at the conclusion of a prenuptial
agreement could be avoided or postponed? (4)
 56

Transfer Duty is payable upon the donation of immovable property

Donate money for the purchase of immovable property
Undertaking to donate will postpone the payment of the transfer duties

101. X and Y, a brother and sister, are co-owners in equal parts of a farm R1 000 000,00
was. The farm is located in an area rich in mineral deposits. The title deed contains no
reference to mineral rights. X and Y decided to split the farm between them. They
agreed that the one that received the part with the house, must pay to the other R80
000,00. They further agree that if any one of them sell its share for a profit, the profit
obtained, shall be divided equally among them. Is duty payable? Motivate. (2)

The Duty Act 40 of 1949 (Section 9 (1) (g)) provides that duty is not payable on the
acquisition of land under a co-owned deed of transfer between the co-owners, (½)
except if compensation is paid to the equalize the distribution (½). The one that receive
part of the house, will receive the part of the farm with a greater value and will therefore
be liable for the payment of duty on the equalizing amount (1).