28-12-2025

0999OMD363162250011 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at points (0, a) and (0, –a) on the Y-axis. A positive charge
'q' is released from rest at the point (x < < a) on the x-axis. What is the angular frequency of motion
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Three concentric metallic shell of radius a, 2a, 3a has charges Q, –2Q and 3Q respectively. When

middle shell is earthed, then how much charge will flow from shell to earth :

(1)

(2) Q
(3) –Q
(4) zero

3) Two point charges (+Q) and (–2Q) are fixed on the X-axis at positions a and 2a from origin
respectively. At what positions on the axis, the resultant electric field is zero :-

(1) Only x =
Only x = –
(2)

Both x = ±
(3)

(4)
x= only
4)

If electric field at centre of charged arc of radius r and linear charge density λ is . Then α is :

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 30°
(4) 135°

5) Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at vertices of an equilateral triangle. The
resulting lines of force should be sketched as in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A cube have a point charge q on its centre and 2q & 3q point charges on vertices, as shown in the

diagram. Electric flux passing through the shaded face is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

7)

charge density of non-uniformly charged rod 'AB' is λ = , where α and β are constants and X
is distance of point from end 'A' on the rod. Find total charge on the rod :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The net electric field on two sides of a large charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by (ε0 is the

Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 2ε0
(2) 4ε0
(3) 10ε0
(4) Zero

9) A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The
electric potential at the point O lying at a distance L from the end A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Assertion (A) :- On the sharp edges of charged conductor electric field is higher.
Reason (R) :- Potential is higher at the sharp edges of conductor.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

11) A solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly throughout the volume. At what distance from its
surface, is the electric potential 1/4 of the potential at the centre ?

(1) 8R/3
(2) R/3
(3) 5R/3
(4) 2R/3

12) You are given an arrangement of three point charges q, 2q and xq separated by equal finite
distance from each other so that electric potential energy of the system is zero. Then the value of x
is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A uniform electric field exists in x-y plane. The potential of points A(2m, 2m), B(–2m, 2m) and
C(2m, 4m) are 4V, 16V and 12V respectively. The electric field is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) An electric dipole is placed along the x–axis at the origin O. A point P is at a distance of 20cm

from this origin such that OP makes an angle with the x-axis. If the electric field at P makes an
angle θ with the x–axis, the value of θ would be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) With reference to the figure given below, the electric potential of a dipole is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) If work done required to rotate electric dipole from stable equilibrium position through 60° is W,
then torque required to maintain dipole at that position will be :

(1) W

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105 V/m, between the plates. If the charge on
the capacitor plate is 1 µC, the force on each capacitor plate is :-

(1) 0.5 N
(2) 0.05 N
(3) 0.005 N
(4) none of these

18) Figure shows a network of capacitors. Find the value of C, if the effective capacitance between
the points A and B is 12 μF.
(1) 20 μF
(2) 18 μF
(3) 8 μF
(4) 24 μF

19) A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance 0.5 µF is taken. Plates are given charges as shown
in the figure. When key is open the energy stored in capacitor is U1 & when key is closed the energy

stored become U2. Find ?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

20) Two capacitors are connected in series. If a dielectric of dielectric constant 3 is filled completely
in between the plates of one capacitor, their equivalent capacitance becomes 14 F if the same is
filled completely in between the plates of second capacitor, their equivalent capacitance is 10 F. If
the same dielectric is inserted completely in between the plates of both the capacitors, their
equivalent capacitance will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are connected in parallel. A third capacitor of 6 µF is connected
in series. The combination is connected across a 12 V battery. The voltage across 2 µF capacitor is :-
(1) 2 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 6 V
(4) 1 V

22) A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of dielectric as shown in figure. This capacitor is
connected across a battery. The graph which shows the variation of electric field (E) & distance (x)

from left plate.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Consider the situation shown. The switch S is opened for a long time and then closed. The
charge flown through the battery when S is closed :

(1) CE
(2) CE / 2
(3) CE / 3
(4) CE / 4

24) A 3 μF capacitor is charged to a potential of 300 V and 2 μF capacitor is charged to 200 V. The
capacitors are then connected in parallel with plates of opposite polarities joined together. What
amount of charge will flow, when the plates are so connected?

(1) 1300 μC
(2) 800 μC
(3) 600 μC
(4) 300 μC

25) Express which of the following arrangement can be used to verify Ohm's law ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Cross-sectional area of a copper wire is equal to area of a square of length 2 mm. If this copper
wire draws 8 A electric current, then find the drift velocity of free electron. (Number density of
electron in copper wire is 8 × 1028 m–3) :

(1) 3.12 × 10–3 ms–1

(2) 3.12 × 10–2 ms–1
(3) 1.56 × 10–4 ms–1
(4) 1.56 × 10–2 ms–1
27) A carbon and an aluminium wire are connected in series. If the combination has resistance of
30Ω at 0°C and the resistance of the combination does not change with temperature. Then
resistances of carbon and aluminium wire are respectively :-
(αC = –0.5 × 10–3/°C, αA = 4 × 10–3/°C)

(1) 10Ω, 80Ω

(2)

(3)

(4) 40Ω, 80Ω

28) Assertion : Manganin and constantan are widely used in standard resistors. Reason : Manganin
and constantan resistance value would change very little with temperatures.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

29) When 5V potential difference is applied across a wire of length 0.1 m, the drift speed of
electrons is 2.5 × 10–4 ms–1. If the electron density in the wire is 8 × 1028 m–3, the resistivity of the
material is close to :-

(1) 1.6 × 10–6 Ωm

(2) 1.6 × 10–5 Ωm
(3) 1.6 × 10–8 Ωm
(4) 1.6 × 10–7 Ωm

30) Equivalent resistance between A and B is –

(each connecting arm has resistance 'r')

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) An infinite sequence of resistance is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A and
B will be, when R1 = 1 ohm and R2 = 2 ohm

(1) Infinity
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω

32) Find the current through 10 Ω resistor :-

(1) Zero
(2) 0.6 A
(3) 0.3 A
(4) 0.5 A

33) Find the potential difference (Va – Vb) between a and b in the given circuit

(1) 14 V
(2) 17 V
(3) 12 V
(4) –14V

34) For the given circuit as shown in figure. The value of V at point P :-

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 7.5 V

35) In the given figure a graph between the potential difference V across the terminals of a cell and
the current I is shown. The emf and the internal resistance of cell are :-

(1) E = 2 volt, 2.5 ohm

(2) E < 2 volt, 2.5 ohm
(3) E > 2 volt, 0.4 ohm
(4) E = 2 volt, 0.4 ohm

36) A 5 V battery with internal resistance 2 Ω and a 2V battery with internal resistance 1Ω are
connected to a 10 Ω resistor as shown in the adjoining figure. The current in the 10 Ω resistor is :-

(1) 0.27 A, P2 to P1
(2) 0.03 A, P1 to P2
(3) 0.03 A, P2 to P1
(4) 0.27 A, P1 to P2

37) Total power consumption for the given circuit is:-

(1) 25 W
(2) 50 W
(3) 100 W
(4) 75 W
38)
Find maximum power in resistance R :-

(1) 11.25 W
(2) 20 W
(3) 15.5 W
(4) 25 W

39) Figure shows three similar lamps L1, L2 and L3 connected across a power supply. If the lamp L3

fuses, how will the light emitted by L1 and L2 change?

(1) No change
(2) Brilliance of L1 decreases and that of L2 increases
(3) Brilliance of both L1 and L2 increases
(4) Brilliance of both L1 and L2 decreases

40) When a shunt of 4Ω is attached to a galvanometer, the deflection reduces to 1/5th. If an additional
shunt of 2Ω is attached what will be the deflection :-

(1) th

(2) th

(3) th

(4) None of these

41) A galvanometer of resistance 25 Ω gives full scale deflection for a current of 10 milliampere, is to
be changed into a voltmeter of range 100 V by connecting a resistance of 'R' in series with
galvanometer. The value of resistance 'R' in Ω is :-

(1) 10000
(2) 10025
(3) 975
(4) 9975

42) A negligibly small current is passed through a wire of length 15 m and uniform cross-section
6.0 ×10–7 m2, and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is the resistivity of the material of
wire at the temperature of the experiment-
(1) 2.0 × 10–7 Ω × m
(2) 3.2 × 10–7 Ω × m
(3) 1.0 × 10–7 Ω × m
(4) 2.0 × 10–6 Ω × m

43) In a meter bridge the point D is a neutral point as shown in figure, then which of the following is

incorrect statement -

(1) The meter bridge can have no other neutral point for this set of resistances.
(2) When the jockey contacts a point on meter wire left of D, current flows to B from the wire.
When the jockey contacts a point on the meter wire to the right of D, current flows from B to the
(3)
wire through galvanometer.
(4) When R is increased, the neutral point shifts to left.

44) In the given circuit, with steady current the potential drop across the capacitor must be :-

(1) V

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The metallic plates of same areas shown in figure, with their charges :-
The final charges on inner and outer surfaces of plate C are respectively given as

(1) +5Q, +5Q

(2) +7Q, + 3Q
(3) +6Q, +4Q
(4) +8Q, + 2Q
 CHEMISTRY

1) Statement-I : Complex which contain identical ligand are homoleptic complex.

Statement-II : Homoleptic complex may be cationic, anionic and neutral complex.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I correct but Statement-II incorrect
(4) Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II correct

2) Which order is CORRECT in spectrochemical series of ligands ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Which of the following species cannot be a ligand -

(i) NH4+ (ii) NO+ (iii)

(1) i only
(2) i & ii only
(3) i & iii only
(4) i, ii & iii only

4) No. of coordination number, oxidation no., d- electron & unpaired d electron of metal in complex
[Co(NH3)5 CO3] ClO4 are respectively -

(1) 6 , 3 , 6 , 0
(2) 7 , 2 , 7 , 1
(3) 7 , 1 , 6 , 4
(4) 6 , 2 , 7 , 3

5) Which of the following coordination entities show's optical activity -

(i) Cis-[CrCl2(OX)2]–3
(ii) trans-[CrCl2(OX)2]–3
(iii) [Co(en)3]+3
(iv) Mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
correct code is

(1) i, iii, iv
(2) iii, iv
(3) i, iii
(4) i, ii, iii, iv
6) There are four complex of Ni select the complex/es which will be attracted by magnetic field-
(I) [Ni(CN)4]2– (II) [NiCl4]2–
(III) Ni(CO)4 (IV) [Ni(H2O)6]2+

(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) II III and IV
(4) II and IV

7) Which of the following complex is not a chelate complex ?

(1) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
potassium
(2)
ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(3) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(4) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)

8)

Order of number of chelate ring is correct for :-

(i) [Pt(Ox)2 (H2O)2] (ii) [Co(en)2(Ox)]+

(iii) [Ca(EDTA)]–2
(1) iii > i > ii
(2) iii > ii > i
(3) ii > iii > i
(4) None of these

9) Which of the following is complex salt ?

(1) KCl ⋅ MgCl2 ⋅ 6H2O

(2) FeSO4 ⋅ (NH4)2SO4 ⋅ 6H2O
(3) K2SO4 ⋅ Al2(SO4)3 ⋅ 24H2O
(4) 4KCN ⋅ Fe(CN)2

10)

Highest C–O bond length will be in

+
(1) [Mn(CO)6]
(2) [Cr(CO)6]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
(4) [Fe(CO)5]

11) In which of the following pairs, the EAN of central metal atom is not same ?

–3 –3
(1) [FeF6] and [Fe(CN)6]
 –3 –4
(2) [Fe(CN)6] and [Fe(CN)6]
+3 –3
(3) [Cr(NH3)6] and [Cr(CN)6]
(4) [Ni(CO)4] and [Fe(CO)5]

12) Which of the following IUPAC name is not correct

[Cu(H2O)(NH3)Br2]°
(1)
Ammineaquadibromo-copper(II)
Na2[Ni(EDTA)]
(2)
Sodium (ethylenediamminetetraacetato)nickelate(III)
Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
(3)
Sodium bisthiosulphatoargentate(I)
[Co(NH2)2(NH3)4]OC2H5
(4)
Diamidotetrammine-cobalt(III) ethoxide

13) The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(en)3]+3 is due to :-

(1) Geometrical isomerism

(2) Optical isomerism
(3) Linkage isomerism
(4) Ionisation isomerism

14) Assertion : Stability of K4[Fe(CN)6] is more than K4[FeF6]

Reason : K4[Fe(CN)6] Obey's sidgwick EAN rule.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

15) Which is inner orbital and low spin complex ?

–2
(1) [NiCl4]
–3
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
–3
(3) [CoF6]
–3
(4) [FeF6]

16) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (atomic number of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. The correct
distribution of 3d electron in the chromium of the complex is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) Which complex does not follow EAN rule ?

(1) [Co2(CO)8]
(2) [Mn2(CO)10]
(3) [Fe2(CO)9]
(4) [Co(CO)4]

18)

Which of the following order of stability is correct ?

–4 –3
(1) [Fe(CN)6] > [Fe(CN)6]
+2 –3 –1
(2) [Fe(NH3)6] < [Fe(ox)3] < [Fe(EDTA)]
+3 +3 +3
(3) [Co(H2O)6] > [Rh(H2O)6] > [Ir(H2O)6]
–3 –3
(4) [Co(CN)6] < [Co(ox)3]

19) Match the following-

Column-I Column-II
(Compound) (Hybridisation of central atom)

(A) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (p) sp3

(B) [PtCl4]2– (q) sp3 d2

(C) [Ni(CO)4] (r) dsp2

(D) [Co(ox)3]3– (s) d2sp3

(1) A–q, B–r, C–p, D–s
(2) A–p, B–r, C–q, D–s
(3) A–s, B–q, C–r, D–p
(4) A–q, B–s, C–p, D–r

20) In an octahedral crystal field, the t2g orbitals are -

(1) Raised in energy by 0.4 Δ0

(2) Lowered in energy by 0.4 Δ0
(3) Raised in energy 0.6 Δ0
(4) Lowered in energy by 0.6 Δ0

21) Correct relation between Δ0 and Δt is :

(1) 4Δ0 = 9Δt

(2) 9Δ0 = 4Δt
(3) Δ0 = 2Δt
(4) None of these

22) If Δo < P then correct configuration for d6 system would be :

6 0
(1) t2g eg
3 3
(2) t2g eg
4 2
(3) t2g eg
4 2
(4) eg t2g

23) Which complex is most stable ?

Where Kd = Dissociation constant

– –16
(1) [Cu(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–4 –37
(2) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–3 –44
(3) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
– –20
(4) [Ag(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10

24) Value of CFSE, in tetrahedral complex having 3d4 configuration of metal ion, surrounded by
weak field ligands, will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which of following is not correct :-

+3 +3 +3
(1) [Co(en)3] < [Rh(en)3] < [Ir(en)3] : (CFSE)
–2 –2 –2
(2) [NiCl4] < [PdCl4] < [PtCl4] : wave length of absorbed light during d-d transition
+2 +3 +3
(3) [Zn(NH3)4] < [Ti(H2O)6] < [Cr(NH3)6] : Magnetic moment (μ)
+3 + –
(4) [Cr(H2O)6] <[Cr(ox)(H2O)4] < [Cr(ox)2(H2O)2] : chelation (no. of chelate ring)

26)

Which kind of isomerism is shown by the complex [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]SO4 ?

1. Ionisation isomerism
2. Linkage isomerism
3. Geometrical isomerism
4. Optical isomerism

(1) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(2) 1, 3 and 4 are correct only
(3) 1 and 2 are correct only
(4) 2, 3 and 4 are correct only

27)

Which complex ion is useful in black and white photography ?

–3
(1) [Ag(S2O3)2]
–
(2) [Ag(CN)2]
3–
(3) [Ag(SO3)2]
+
(4) [Ag(NH3)2]

28) Match the column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice :-

Column-I Column-II

Estimation of hardness
(A) (i) Cis-platin
of water

(B) Test of Ni+2 (ii) EDTA

(C) Electroplating (iii) Dimethylglyoxime

Potassium
(D) Treatment of cancer (iv)
dicyanoargentate (I)
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

29) Which of the following is planar due to back bonding :-

(1) CH4
(2) N(CH3)3
(3) N(SiH3)3
(4) PF3

30) Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis

(1) CCl4
(2) NCl3
(3) NF3
(4) all of them

31) The order of acidic character for BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 will be :

(1) BF3 = BCl3 = BBr3

(2) BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3
(3) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(4) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3

32) Statement-I :- In dimer of BeH2. Be is sp hybridized.

Statement-II :- The bridge bond present has overlap of sp–s–sp type.

If both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of
(1)
statement I.
If both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation for
(2)
statement I.
(3) If statement I is true but statement II is false.
(4) If both statement I and statement II are false.

33)

Which of the following molecules has equal number of X–O–X Linkages

(a) (HPO3)3 (b) S3O9
(c) H2S2O7 (d) H2S2O5

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) c,d
(4) a,b,c,d

34) Increasing order of stability of the +2 oxidation state of the ions :-

(1) Ca+2 < Sr+2 < Ba+2

(2) Pb+2 < Ge+2 < Sn+2
(3) Ge+2 < Sn+2 < Pb+2
(4) Cu+2 < Au+2 < Ag+2

35) Which is the correct statement for the given acids ?

(1) Phophinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
(2) Phosphinic acid is monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
(3) Both are tiprotic acid
(4) Both are diprotic acids

36) Which of the following halogen disproportionate in water ?

(1) F2
(2) Cl2
(3) I2
(4) All three

37)
(a) Al A (b) Al B
High temp. High temp.

Product A and B on hydrolysis yields respectively.

(1) Ammonia and acetylene
(2) Ammonia and methane
(3) Nitric oxide and acetylene
(4) None

38) In which of the following dangling bond is absent?

(1) Diamond
(2) Graphite
(3) Fullerene
(4) All

39)

Fullerene is C60 comprise of sp2 hybridized C. It will have :-

(1) 12 pentagon rings & 15 hexagonal rings

(2) 12 pentagon rings & 20 hexagonal rings
(3) 20 pentagon rings & 12 hexagonal rings
(4) 15 pentagon rings & 15 hexagonal rings

40) Potash alum is a double salt, its aqueous solution does not shows the characteristics of :-

(1) Al+3 ions

(2) K+ ions
–2
(3) SO4 ions
(4) Na+ ions

41) Ionisation enthalpy (ΔiH1 kJ mol–1 ) for the elements of Group 13 follows the order.

(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl

(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) B < Al > Ga < In > Tl
(4) B > Al < Ga > In < Tl

42) Among the oxide x oxide are acidic and y oxide are neutral. Find sum of x + y?
CO2, SiO2, SnO2, PbO2, CO

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

43)

Red here X is

(1) α Black P
(2) White P
(3) β-Black P
(4) None

44) Statement-1 : Ozone is powerfull oxidising agent in comaprison to O2.

Statement-2 : Ozone is diamagnetic but O2 is paramagnetic.

(1) Both statements are true, statement-2 is correct explanation of statement-1

(2) Both statements are true, statement-2 is not correct explanation of statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false
(4) Both statements are false

45) Which graph correctly describes a trend found in halogen group ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Ligation of alien DNA at which site will lead to the loss of tetracycline resistance in pBR-322
plasmid :-

(1) Pvu I
(2) EcoR I
(3) Pst I
(4) Bam HI

2) A plant genetic engineer wishes to transfer a gene of human into a pea plant. Which of the
following would be the vector of choice :-

(1) λ phage
(2) pBR322 plasmid
(3) Retroviral vector
(4) Ti plasmid

3) In the following figure :-

Which DNA is not digested ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Among the following select which is not the tools of r-DNA technology

(1) Restriction enzymes

(2) Vectors
(3) Host
(4) Promotor

5) In pBR322, Pvu I site is present at ?

(1) ampR
(2) tetR
(3) Ori
(4) rop

6) Which of the following is direct method of gene transfer, suitable for plants ?

(1) Ti plasmid
(2) Biolistics
(3) Microinjection
(4) Cosmid

7) The following figure shows :-

(1) Elution
(2) Spooling
(3) Biolistics
(4) Downstream processing

8) Ethidium bromide stained agarose gel is exposed to _____, to observe DNA as bright orange
colored bands.

(1) Air
(2) UV light
(3) Infra-red light
(4) Green light

9) Assertion : The processes of separation and purification, are collectively referred to as

downstream processing.
Reason : The product has to be subjected through a series of processes before it is ready for
marketing as a finished product.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

10) Assertion : If one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA , it should be cloned in a
vector whose origin support high copy number.
Reason : Origin of replication (ori) is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

11) Restriction endonucleases :-

A. Are found in bacteria
B. Are very useful in genetic engineering
C. Cut the DNA at particular sites
D. Are used naturally in a bacterial cell to defend against foreign DNA

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

12) Match the Column I and II and select correctly matched option :-

Column-I Column-II
Chromogenic
(A) EcoRI (i)
substrate
Restriction
(B) Gene gun (ii)
endonuclease
(C) X-Gal (iii) Gene transfer
Digest bacterial cell
(D) Lysozyme (iv)
wall
Options:-
A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Select the correct match :

Differentiate
Insertional
(1) recombinants from non-
inactivation
recombinants

Any protein encoding

Recombinant
(2) gene is expressed in a
protein
homologous host

A series of process
which start from raw
Downstream
(3) material and going on
processing
up to completion of
biosynthetic product.

Introduction of the
(4) Cloning identified DNA into the
host.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Statement-I: The first restriction Endonuclease-EcoRI.

Statement-II: More than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from over 250 strain of
bacteria.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

15) Statement I :- The normal [Link] cells do not carry resistance against ampicillin,
chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin etc.
Statement II :- The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the plasmid
in the bacteria does not have an insert.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

16) Read the following statements for PCR :-

(a) Polymerase chain reaction was developed by Kary Mullis.
(b) The DNA polymerase used in PCR is thermostable.
(c) The denaturation of DNA is carried out at 94–98°C.
(d) The primers used in PCR are oligonucleotides and primer annealing occurs at 90°C.
How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

17) Vectors used to deliver genes of our interest into organisms, must not have –
(i) Restriction sites of many restriction endonucleases.
(ii) Many restriction sites of single restriction endonuclease enzyme.
(iii) Genes of pathogenicity like T–DNA.
(iv) Origin of replication
(v) Selectable marker genes

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (i), (iv) and (v)

18) The flowchart given below represent the process of recombinant technology. Identify A to D.

A–Restriction endonuclease
B–Restriction exonuclease
(1)
C –RNA ligase
D–Transformation
A–Restritction endonuclease
B–Restriction endonuclease
(2)
C –DNA ligase
D–Transformation
A–Restriction exonuclease
B–Restriction endonuclease
(3)
C–DNA polymerase
D–Transduction
 A–Restritction endonuclease
B–Restriction endonuclease
(4)
C–DNA polymerase
D–Transformation

19) The transgenic animals are those which have :-

(1) Foreign RNA in some of their cells

(2) Foreign DNA in all their cells
(3) Foreign protein in some of their cells
(4) Both (1) & (3)

20) Which of the following is not true regarding the use of transgenic animals ?

(1) In study of normal physiology and development.

(2) Understanding of development of diseases.
(3) α-1 antitrypsin can be synthesised using them.
(4) Toxicity testing in such animals is possible but it takes much time.

21) Cry gene which is responsible for cry protein synthesis, is isolated from :-

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis

(2) Rhizobium
(3) Agrobacterium
(4) Clostridium

22) RNA interference (RNAi) is a useful method occuring in eukaryotic cells for :-

(1) Micropropagation
(2) Cell proliferation
(3) Cell defence
(4) Cell differenciation

23) A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night-blindness in developing
countries is :–

(1) Bt. Soybean

(2) Golden rice
(3) Flavr Savr tomatoes
(4) Starlink maize

24) For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made
up of :-

(1) Silicon or Platinum

(2) Gold or Tungsten
(3) Silver or platinum
(4) Platinum or zinc

25) The activated Bt toxin binds to the surface of which cells of the target insect ?

(1) Foregut epithelial cells

(2) Midgut endothelial cells
(3) Hindgut epithelial cells
(4) Midgut epithelial cells

26) Assertion :- [Link] is used to form human insulin through genetic engineering.
Reason :- Insulin from an animal source, caused some patients to develop allergy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) Assertion :- ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplanation & enzyme
replacement therapy but both approaches are not completely curative.
Reason :- The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
deaminase deficiency.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Match column-I containing transgenic organisms with their specific characteristics in column-II
and select the correct answer from codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Golden rice (i) Protein enriched milk
(B) Bt cotton (ii) Increased shelf life
(C) Flavr Savr (iii) Enriched with Vitamin A
High yield and
(D) Rosie cow (iv)
pest resistant
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(ii)

29) Match the following and choose the correct option-

Column I Column II
(a) Eli Lilly (i) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Bt (ii) Human insulin
(c) Gene therapy (iii) Meloidogyne incognita
 Adenosine deaminase
(d) RNAi (iv)
deficiency
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

30) Statement-I : Mature insulin is composed of three peptide chain A, B and C.

Statement-II : Recombinant insulin induce unwanted immunological responses in human.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

31) Statement-A : At present about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human
use the world over.
Statement-B : 27 documented varieties of Basmati rice are grown in India.

(1) Both A and B are true

(2) Only A is true
(3) Only B is true
(4) Both A and B are false

32) Which of the following statement is not true regarding Bt cotton?

(1) Bt cotton is resistant to dipteran insect.

(2) High yield and resistant to bollworm.
(3) Bt toxin exist as inactive protoxin inside the plant.
(4) Bt toxin encoded by gene cry IAC and cry IIAb control cotton bollworm.

33) Which of the following statement is true regarding use of genetically modified crops?

(1) Made crops more tolerant to biotic stresses like heat, cold, drought etc.
(2) Increased reliance on chemical pesticides.
(3) Increase post harvest losses.
(4) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants.

34) Fill up the blanks.

I. Using ....A.... vectors, Nematode specific genes are introduced into the host plant.
II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B..... .
III. The genes .....C.... and .....D.... controls cotton bolloworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to protect the same form corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be :-

A-fungal, B-pest resistance,

(1)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac
 A-nematode, B-protection against nematodes,
(2)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
A-Agrobacterium, B-cellular defense,
(3)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
A-virus, B-protection against viral infection,
(4)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

35) Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. Genetic modification has made crops intolerant to abiotic stress.
B. A nematode Meloidegyne incognita infects the leaves of tobacco plant.
C. Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect.
D. Today transgenic models exist for many human disease such as cancer.
E. Toxicity testing in transgenic animals will allow us to obtain results in less time.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) B, C and D only

(2) C, D and E only
(3) A, B and E only
(4) A, B and D only

36) In anther culture, anthers of some plants are used for regeneration of new plants. These anthers
can be referred as ?

(1) Protoplast
(2) haploid plant
(3) Explant
(4) Cybrid

37) Capacity to generate a whole plant from explant is called :-

(1) Tissue culture

(2) Micropropagation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Totipotency

38) Assertion : Somaclones are produced by tissue culture.

Reason : In tissue culture, all plants are genetically identical to the original plant, whose explant is
used.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Which of following statement is not correct ?

(1) Virus free banana is obtained by meristem culture.

(2) Somatic embryogenesis is a most common type of micropropagation.
(3) Polyethylene glycol induces the fusion of protoplast.
(4) Haploid plants are only produced by anther culture.

40)

Match the following :-

A B

Protoplast of different
i Somaclones a varieties of plants are
fused.

Capacity to generate a
ii Totipotency b whole plant from any
plant cell.

Somatic Genetically identical

iii c
hybrid to original plant.

Meristem
iv d Virus free plant.
culture

Option:-
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Read the following statements :-

(A) Cyclosporin A is used as a clot buster
(B) Whisky, brandy & rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth
(C) NPV are the major baculoviruses used as biological control agents
(D) The biogas production technology in India in developed by ICAR.
Which of the above statements are not incorrect?

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) A & D

42) Select incorrect match :-

(1) Citric acid : Aspergillus flavus

(2) Clot Buster : Streptococcus
(3) Cyclosporin A : Trichoderma
(4) Butyric acid : Clostridium butylicum
43) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Ladybird Nitrogen
A. (i)
beetle fixation

B. Mycorrhiza (ii) Bio gas

C. Methanogens (iii) Aphids

D. Rhizobium (iv) Glomus

A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Assertion : Bottled fruit juice brought from market are clearer as compared to those made at
home.
Reason : Bottled juice possess pectinases and proteases.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) Read the following statements -

(A) The large holes in 'swiss cheese' are due to production of a large amount of CO2 by a fungus.
(B) The dough which is used for making bread, is fermented using baker's yeast.
(C) The dough, which is used for making dosa and idli is fertmented by bacteria.
(D) Full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic was establishes by Chain and Florey.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

46) Match the column A with column B :-

Column A Column B
 (a) Pest control method (i) Mosquito

(b) Dragon flies (ii) Attacks on insects and arthopods

(c) Trichoderma (iii) Relies on natural predator

(d) Bacculo viruses (iv) Kill plant pathogen

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

47) Consider the following statements (a – d)

(a) Roquefort cheese are ripened by growing a specific bacteria on them.
(b) Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste.
(c) Statins act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
(d) Methanogens are commonly found in aerobic sludge during sewage treatment.
Select the option which includes incorrect statements only.

(1) a, b and c only

(2) only d
(3) a and d only
(4) b and c only

48) Statement-I : Cyclosporin A, that is used as an immuno-suppressive agent in organ-transplant

patients, is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
Statement-II : Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus have been commercialised as
blood-cholesterol lowering agent.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

49) Identify the correct match from Column-I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Acetobacter
1 Alcohol a i Bacteria
aceti

Immuno
2 Acetic acid b suppressive ii Yeast
agent

Nitrogen Blue-green
3 Cyclosporin-A c iii
fixation algae

Saccharomyces
4 Anabaena d iv Trichoderma
cerevisiae
(1) 1-a-i, 2-d-ii, 3-b-iv, 4-c-iii
(2) 1-a-i, 2-d-ii, 3-b-iii, 4-c-iv
(3) 1-d-ii, 2-a-i, 3-b-iv, 4-c-iii
(4) 1-c-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-d-ii, 4-a-i

50) Consider the following statements

a. Propionibacterium sharmanii is useful to prepare swiss cheese.
b. Azospirillum and Azotobacter performs symbiotic N2 fixation.
c. Statins produced by Monascus purpureus have been commercialized as blood cholesterol lowering
agent.
d. BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.

(1) a, c, & d are correct

(2) b & d are incorrect
(3) a, b, c & d are correct
(4) a & c are incorrect

51) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody

(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life style and infections
(4) Gambusia is used to control diseases like malaria, elephantiasis and dengue.

52) Which is the "Allergic antibody" ?

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgD
(4) IgM

53) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

54) In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients, contains preformed antibodies
against the snake venom. This type of immunization is :-

(1) Active aquired immunity

(2) Passive aquired immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Non-specific immunity

55) Which of the following disease is caused by protozoan :-

(1) Typhoid
(2) Common cold
(3) Filariasis
(4) Malaria

56) Which of the following statements are not incorrect ?

(a) Smack is chemically diacetyl morphine which is obtained by acetylation of heroin
(b) Morphine is obtained from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum
(c) Drugs having their effects on cardiovascular system of body are being abused by some sports
persons.
(d) Crack interfers with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) c, d

57) Anamnestic response is -

(1) Feeble
(2) Low intensified
(3) Highly intensified
(4) primary response

58) (a) Coke

(b) Diacetylmorphine
(c) Brown in colour
(d) Odourless
(e) Sweet compound
(f) Extracted from latex of Bhang plant
How many statements/informations are correct for heroin :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

59) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Infection
1 Bacteria a Plasmodium i
of lungs

Wuchereria Fever
2 Virus b ii
bancrofti with chill

Haemophilus Inflammation
3 Protozoa c iii
influenzae of lower limbs
 Infection of
4 Helminth d Rhino virus iv upper respiratory
tract
(1) 2-c-i, 1-d-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii
(2) 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii, 2-c-iv, 1-d-i
(3) 4-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 1-c-i, 2-d-iv
(4) 4-b-iii, 3-a-i, 1-c-ii, 2-d-iv

60) Formation of sporozoites of Plasmodium takes place in :-

(1) Human liver

(2) Human RBC
(3) Human salivary gland
(4) In mosquito

61) Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where
all blood cells, including lymphocytes, are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

62)

Mark Bacterial diseases.

(A) Common cold
(B) Typhoid
(C) Malaria
(D) Pneumonia
(E) Diphtheria

(F) Filariasis
(1) B, D, E
(2) A, D, E
(3) A, B, C
(4) A, E, F

63) Haemophilus influenzae causes :-

(1) Typhoid
(2) Plague
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Influenza
64) To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from
the eyes, belong?

(1) Physiological barriers

(2) Physical barriers
(3) Cytokine barriers
(4) Cellular barriers

65)

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Malignant tumours exhibit metastasis

(2) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
(3) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis
(4) Heroin accelerates body functions

66) After entering the human body sporozoites first go to :-

(1) RBC
(2) Salivary gland
(3) Liver
(4) Brain

67) Which one of the following is non infectious disease which is fatal ?

(1) AIDS
(2) Cancer
(3) Black death
(4) Hepatitis-B

68) Which one of the following statement is incorrect about N.K. Cell?

(1) Large granular lymphocyte

(2) Kill virus infected cell
(3) Large agranular lymphocyte
(4) Part of innate immunity

69) If a person shows the production of interferon in his body, the chances are that he has got an
infection of

(1) Typhoid
(2) Measles
(3) Tetanus
(4) Malaria

70) Which of the following is not a property of cancerous cells ?

(1) Excessive mitosis
(2) Abnormal mitosis
(3) Uncontrolled mitosis
(4) Contact inhibition

71) Read the following statements (A - D)

(A) When people are healthy they are more efficient at work
(B) Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance of
certain humors
(C) William Harvey thought that persons with 'blackbile' belonged to hot personality and would have
fevers
(D) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host.
How many of the above statements are false ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

72) Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release ?

(1) Aldosterone
(2) Cortisol
(3) nor-epinephrine
(4) Corticoids

73) Each molecule has four polypeptide chains ,two small called light chains and two longer called
heavy chains (represented as H2L2). Which of the following is not directly related to above described
molecule

(1) Army of proteins produced by B- lymphocytes

(2) Present in blood
(3) Humoral immunity
(4) Cell mediated immunity(CMI)

74) Cannabinoid receptors are mainly present in :

(1) Brain
(2) Spinal chord
(3) Gastro intestinal tract
(4) Tongue

75) Cocaine interfere with transport of which neurotransmitter ?

(1) Serotonin
(2) Dopamine
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Gamma amino butyric acid

76) Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.

77) Assertion (A) :- B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our
blood to fight with them.
Reason (R) :- Each antibody molecule has two light chain and two heavy chains.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

78) Assertion : The foetus receives some antibodies from their mother through placenta during
pregnancy; this is an example of passive immunity.
Reason : When readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents
called passive immunity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) Match the columns with regard to innate immunity :-

Column I Column II

(A) Interferon (i) Physiological barrier

(B) Gastric juice, saliva, tear (ii) Physical barrier

(C) Mucosa and Skin (iii) Cellular Barrier

(D) Neutrophils, monocyte, N–K cells (iv) Cytokine Barrier

(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
(3) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
(4) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii

80)

Mark correctly matched option :

 Effect of
Source
compound

– Effect on
(A)
CVS

– Sedative and
(B)
painkiller

(C) – Hallucinogen

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) Only C

81)

Which drug is being excessively taken by some sports persons now a days :

(1) Valium
(2) Barbiturates
(3) Cannabinoids
(4) LSD

82) Withdrawal symptoms are characterised by :-

(A) Reckless behaviour (B) Anxiety
(C) Nausea (D) Vandalism
(E) Sweating (F) Violence
(G) Shakiness

(1) A, D, F
(2) A, D, E, G
(3) B, C, E, G
(4) C, D, F, G

83) Which of the following is correct statement?

(1) Passive immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.
(2) Osteoarthritis which affects many people in our society is an autoimmune disease.
(3) After maturation the lymphocytes migrate to primary lymphoid organs.
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
(4)
is called allergy.

84) Match the item of column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(A) LSD (i) Cannabis sativa
(B) Morphine (ii) Erythroxylum coca
(C) Charas (iii) Papaver somniferum
(D) Cocaine (iv) Claviceps purpurea
(1) A→i , B→ii , C→iv , D→iii
(2) A→ii , B→i , C→iii , D→iv
(3) A→iii , B→i , C→ii , D→iv
(4) A→iv , B→iii , C→i , D→ii

85) Which scientist proved the "Good Humor Hypothesis" ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Indian Ayurvedic System of Medicine
(3) William Harvey
(4) (1) and (2)

86) Assertion (A) : Those who take drugs intravenously (direct injection into the vein using a
needle and syringe), are much more likely to acquired serious infection like AIDS and Hepatitis B.
Reason (R) : The viruses which are responsible for AIDS and Hepatitis-B, are transferred from one
person to another by sharing of infected needles and syringes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

87) Nicotine is -

(1) Opiod
(2) Alkaloid
(3) Cannabinoid
(4) Hallucinogen
88) What is vaccine?

(1) A treatment for pathogens

(2) A suspension of attenuated/inactivated pathogens or antigenic protein.
(3) A type of antibiotic
(4) A genetic modification of pathogens

89) Cell mediated immune response is responsible for the -

(1) Allergy
(2) Graft rejection
(3) Hepatities B-vaccine formation
(4) All of these

90) Which of the following is not a symptom of amoebiasis ?

(1) Constipation
(2) Abdominal pain and cramps
(3) Stool with excess mucous and blood clots
(4) Intestinal blockage
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 3 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 3 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 3 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 4 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 4 2 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 1 4 2 1 4 1 3 2 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 1 4 3 2 3 4 1 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 1 Three 2 3 1 3 1 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 1 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 3 1 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 2 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
r=
= –2Fcosθ

=
For x << a

a= x ≡ a = –ω2x

ω=

2)

q = –3Q
qflow = qi – qf
= –2Q – (–3Q)
=Q

3)
 At P → E = 0 ⇒

⇒ d=
⇒d=
x=a–d=a–
x=

4)

Electric field due to an uniformly charged arc

= sin 60° ⇒
ϕ = 120°

5)

Correct diagram is

Option - (1)

Electric field does not make close loop so option (2), (3), (4) are incorrect. In (1) electric field start
from positive charge and ends at infinites so option (1) in correct

6)

ϕ=

7)
 For small element dx

dq = λdx = dx

Q= dx =

8)

Electric field due to a large changed sheet is

Let External field = Eext

For Positive charged sheet, field is away from the sheet

⇒ on the left Side, Net field = E1 = 8 V/m

⇒ E1 = Eext – Esheet ___(1)
⇒ on the Right side, Net field = E2 = 12 V/m
⇒ E2 = Eext + Esheet ____ (2)
Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2)
⇒ E2 – E1 = Eext + Esheet – (Eext – Esheet)
⇒ 12 – 8 = 2 Esheet

⇒
∴ σ = 4ε0

9)

10) Charged density on surface of charged conductor is inversely proportional to radius of

curvature of surface. So, at sharp edges where radius of curvature is small charge density is
high and high electric field is present but surface of charged conductor is equipotential.
11)

Vcentre = ⇒ Vout =

⇒r= distance from the surface

12)

U= =0

⇒x=

13)

14)

angle with x-axis

15)

16)

17)

Force between the plates will be the product of charge on one plate & electric field produce by
the other plate.
The electric field due to one plate will be the half of net electric field between the plates.

F = 0.05 N

18) Given circuit can be reduced

⇒ = 12 ⇒ C = 18µF

19) Key open

U1 = = 1 µJ
Key closed

U2 = = = 1 µJ

20)
On solving we get C2 = 2C1

So

So C2 = 2 ×
When both capacitor fill with same dielectric (K = 3)

Ceq =

Ceq =

Ceq = F

21) Cp = 2 + 4 = 6 µF

or C = 3µF

Total charge,
Q = CV = 3 × 12 = 36 µC

Voltage across 6 µF capacitor =

∴ Voltage across each of 2 µF and 4 µF
capacitors =12 V – 6 V
V=6V

22) Em = E.F in medium

E0 = E.F in air / vaccum
Er = K = Dielectric constant
 &

23)

Initial charge supply by battery

Q1 =
Final charge supply by battery
Q2 = CE

ΔQ = Q2 – Q1 =

24)

VCM =

= = 100 V
Qflow = Qinitial – Qfinal
= 3 × 10–6 × 300 – 3 × 10–6 × 100 = 600 μC

25) Voltmeter should be connected in parallel with resistance or combination of resistance and
ammeter should be connected in series in battery branch of circuit to measure current given
by battery.

26)

=
= = 1.56 × 10–4 m/s

27) ΔR = ΔRC +
0= ΔT
⇒ αCRC = –

⇒ =– = 8 .........(i)
also RC + = 30Ω .........(ii)
from (i) and (ii)

⇒ RC = & =

28) Temperature coefficient of resistance for manganin and constantan is very small, so their
resistance approximately remain constant with change in temperature.

29)

J= ⇒ρ=

ρ= ×

ρ= ×

ρ= ⇒ 1.6 × 10–5

30)

31) x = 1 +
x2 – x – 2 = 0
x2 – 2x + x – 2 = 0
x(x–2) + 1(x–2) = 0
x = –1 ; x = 2Ω

32) Apply KCL

i1 + i2 + i3 = 0

3V – 9 + 10V – 45 +5V = 0
18V = 54 ⇒ V = 3 Volt
Current through = 10Ω

i1 = = =0

33) Va – 6 – 5 + 3 – 6 = Vb
Va – Vb = 14 V

34)

I1 = I2 + I3 …(1)

…(2)
150 – 3V = 6V – 30
⇒ V = 20 volt

35)

Emf & internal resistance of cell are related as

Vt = E – ir
 If i = 0, Vt = E = 2V (Intercept)

Slope = – r =
r = 0.4Ω

36)

Eeq =

⇒ req =

Now I = = 0.03 A

37) R1 = =121 Ω
R2 = = 363 Ω
Rtotal = 121 + 363 = 484 Ω

total power =

38)

Ckt can be redrawn as

By maximum power transfer theorem R = r = 5Ω

I=

Pmax = I2R = × 5 = 11.25 W

39) When lamp L3 fuses, equivalent resistance of circuit increases so brightness of lamp L1
decreases but current through lamp L2 increases (∵ current through lamp L3 become zero) so
brightness of lamp L2 increases.
40)

×G= × 4 ⇒ G = 16Ω

I × 16 = (Ig – I)

I=

41)

Vg = GIg = 25 × 10 = 250 mV

R = G[n – 1] =

42)

R=

43)

When R is increased, the neutral point shifts to left.

44)

I=
VB – VA = 2V – I(2R)

= 2V – (2R)
 =
VB – VA = VC + V

VC = –V=

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) NCERT 2022 12 /part I/page 122

th

Both Statements are correct.

47)

NCERT- 2022, XIIth_ Part-1_Pg. # 132

48)

A. (i) NH4+ (ammonium ion) :

A. The nitrogen atom in NH4+ has no lone pair of electrons.
B. because no. l.p. are present.

49)

50) New NCERT- 2022_ Solved Example Pg. # 127

51)

(II) & (IV) - both have Ni+2 & W.F.L. having 2 unpaired el–.

52)

Monodentate ligands do not show chelation.

53)

The number of chelate rings are

(i) 2(from 2 oxalate)
(ii) 3 (from 2 en and 1 oxalate, and
(iii) 5 (from 1 EDTA).
Therefore, the correct decreasing order of the number of chelate rings is iii > ii > i.

54)

55)

Question explanation: This question is asking about C–O bond length affected by
backbonding.
Concept: This question is based on more negative charge increases backbonding, weakening
and lengthening C–O bonds.
Solution: Anionic complexes have more electron density → stronger π-backbonding → weaker,
longer C–O bonds.
Among given options, [V(CO)₆]⁻ is most electron-rich, so it has the longest C–O bond.
Final answer: Option 3

56)

EAN = (At. no. of central atom – O.S.) + (2 × coordination no.)

57)

IUPAC Nomenclature rules.

58) [M(aa)3]
Complex show's only optical isomerism.

59) More synergic bond ⇒ More stability

Stability of K4[Fe(CN)6] is more due to more +ve charge on CMA.

60) SFL present, So it forms I.O.C (Mn+3 complex) remaining W.F.L.

61)
0 0
Cr+3 = [Ar] 4s 3d3 (t2g3 eg )
µs = 3.83 (It has 3 unpaired e–)
These 3 electrons are present in.
3d1xz , 3d1yz , 3d1xy

62) [Co(CO)4] EAN value = 35

63)

Stability of complex ∝ number of chelate rings.

64)

NCERT 2022_XIIth_PART-I # Pg. # 128-129

65)

66)

67) Δ0 < P ⇒ Pairing not occur

So, t2g4, eg2

68)

[Kd↓ ⇒ Stability of complex↑]

69) CFSE = Value for 3d4 (Tetrahedral complex)

⇒ Δt

70)
For Pd, Pt, Cl– ligand
4d 5d series
act as SFL. So E↑ , λ↓

71)

NCERT XII 2022 Part-I, Page No. # 127, 128

It is a type of Ma5b complex where a and b are monodentate ligands, these complex do not
show geometrical and optical isomerism. It can show only ionisation and linkage isomerism.

72)

Fact.
NCERT-XII (2022) Pg. # 136-137

73) New NCERT-12th (2022)_Part-I_Pg.# 136-137

74)

Final Answer: Option (3)

75)

CCl4, NF3 donot under hydrolysis due to absence of vacant orbital.

76)

Due to Back Bonding

77)

78)
79)

Due to inert pair effect.

⇒ Top to bottom stability of lower O.S. ↑

80)

81)
0 –1 +1

82)

83)

dangling bond present in diamand & graphite

84)

12 pentagonal & 20 hexagonal rings

85)

86)

B > Al < Ga > In < Tℓ IP

87)

CO2, SiO2 ⇒ Acidic, CO = Neutral, SnO2, PbO2 Amphoteric

88) α-Black Phosphorous

89) Nescent oxygen

Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent compared to O2.

90)
 V.W.F ∝ MW ∝ size

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT(XIIth) Pg # 199(E), 216 (H)

92)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 200

93) NCERT Pg # 198

94) NCERT-XII Pg. No 195

95) NCERT-XII Pg. No. 169

96)

NCERT-XII, Page # 171

97) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 201

98) NCERT XII, Pg. # 198

99) NCERT XII Pg # 205

100) NCERT XII Pg # 199

101)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 165

102)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. # 195-201

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 164, 173, 174

104)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. # 195

105)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 199-200

106) NCERT XII, Pg. No. # 202

107)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 199

108)

NCERT Pg # 197

109)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 212

110) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 183, 184

111)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 209

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 180

113)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 208

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

115) NCERT (XII) Pg # 208

116) NCERT XII Pg # 211(E), 231(H)

117) NCERT XII, Page # (E) 211, (H) 232

118)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. # 208

119)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 208 - 2011

120)

XII OLD NCERT Pg # 182

121) NCERT Pg # 210, 214

122) NCERT Pg. # 208, 209

123) NCERT Pg. # 208

124) NCERT XII Pg # 180

125) NCERT Pg. 179, 180, 182, 183, 184

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 177

127) NCERT XII, Pg. # 177

128) NCERT XII Pg. # 178

129) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 177 (E), 192 (H)

130) NCERT Pg. # 177, para 9.4

131) NCERT XII Pg. # 152, 153, 156

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 153

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 156,157,158

134) NCERT XII Pg # 152

135)

NCERT XII Pg. # 181, 182

B, C, D are correct.

136) NCERT-XII, Page # 187 (10.5)

137) NCERT Pg. # 181,183, 185

138) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 183

139) NCERT XII Pg.# 182,183, 188 (E)

Pg.# 200,201, 207 (H)

140)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 181 - 188

141) NCERT-XII Pg. # 135

142)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 153

143)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 131

144) NCERT Pg. 152

145) NCERT XII Pg. # 146,147

146)

NCERT XII Pg. # 158, 159 (E)

147)

NCERT Pg. No. 151

148)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 142

149)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 131

150)

NCERT - Page # 148

151)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 138

152) NCERT-XII Pg. # 130-131

153)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 131

154)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 134

155)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 140-141

156) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 148(E), 159(H)

157) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 146

158) NCERT XII Pg. # 151, Para-8.2.1

159) NCERT-XII Pg. # 135

160) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 157, Para-8.4

161)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 129-130

162)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 144

163)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 135

164)

NCERT XII, Pg # 119

165)

NCERT XII, Pg # 115

166) NCERT-XII Pg # 151, 152 (Option 4 from Module)

167)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 135

168)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 136

169) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 150,151, para-8.2.1

170)

NCERT XII, Pg # 159

171)

NCERT XII, Pg # 159

172) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 145 (E) (para-7.5.2)

159 (H)

173) NCERT Pg. # (E) 153, (H) 165

174) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 159, 158

175)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 129

176) NCERT Pg # 174

177)

Module Pg. No. : 160

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 152

179) NCERT Pg. No. # 152

180) NCERT Pg No. # 148(E), 159(H)