NETWORK ARCHITECTURE

Network Architecture
– 40 MCQs with Answers and
Explanations

1.
An enterprise wants to reduce spanning tree complexity, eliminate FHRP, and
have both uplinks from access switches actively forwarding traffic. Which design
approach should they consider?
A. Layer 3 access
B. Simplified campus design with VSS or StackWise Virtual
C. Traditional Layer 2 access with HSRP
D. Routed distribution with Layer 2 access
Answer: B
Explanation: The simplified campus design with switch clustering (VSS/SWV)
creates one logical switch, eliminating FHRP and enabling active-active uplinks
via MEC.

2.
In a routed access layer design, what replaces the need for STP in the access-to-
distribution uplinks?
A. EtherChannel
B. Layer 3 point-to-point links
C. Multiple VLAN spanning
D. VRRP
Answer: B
Explanation: Routed access uses Layer 3 links between access and distribution,
removing Layer 2 loops and the need for STP on uplinks.
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3.
Two distribution switches run VSS. An access switch is dual-homed to both.
What is the recommended uplink configuration on the access switch?
A. Two separate Layer 2 trunks
B. Two Layer 3 routed ports
C. One EtherChannel spanning both uplinks
D. One uplink active, one standby
Answer: C
Explanation: With VSS, both uplinks are treated as if they connect to a single
switch, allowing a cross-switch EtherChannel for active-active use.

4.
Which component in the network architecture is primarily responsible for
policy enforcement and access control?
A. Core
B. Distribution
C. Access
D. WAN Edge
Answer: B
Explanation: The distribution layer enforces network policies, route filtering,
and access control between the access and core layers.

5.
An engineer needs to ensure high availability in the control plane of a VSS pair.
Which feature must be enabled?
A. NSF only
B. SSO with NSF
C. HSRP
D. MSTP
Answer: B
Explanation: SSO provides a rapid switchover between supervisors, while NSF
maintains forwarding during control plane failover.
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6.
Which interface mode should be configured on a switch port connecting to a
lightweight AP in centralized architecture?
A. WLAN dynamic
B. Management
C. Trunk
D. Access
Answer: C
Explanation: A trunk port is required for the AP to carry multiple VLANs
(management, CAPWAP, WLAN VLANs) to the controller.

7.
What is the main advantage of using Layer 3 access over Layer 2 access with
FHRP?
A. Easier VLAN extension across buildings
B. Simpler routing and no need for STP on uplinks
C. Allows VTP to propagate VLANs
D. Higher port density
Answer: B
Explanation: Layer 3 access eliminates loops and STP on uplinks, simplifying
convergence and design.

8.
Which two features are associated with NSF? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains Layer 2 forwarding during RP switchover
B. Maintains Layer 3 forwarding during RP switchover
C. Requires routing protocol support
D. Eliminates the need for a standby RP
E. Runs only on access switches
Answer: B, C
Explanation: NSF maintains Layer 3 forwarding and requires protocol support to
keep neighbor relationships during failover.
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9.
Scenario: A packet is sent from a host through three routers. The initial TTL is 2.
Where will it expire?
A. First router
B. Second router
C. Third router
D. Destination host
Answer: B
Explanation: Each router decrements TTL by 1. TTL reaches zero at the second
router, triggering an ICMP Time Exceeded.

10.
Which spanning tree version provides a separate instance per VLAN?
A. MST
B. PVST+
C. RPVST+
D. CST
Answer: C
Explanation: RPVST+ runs a rapid spanning tree instance per VLAN for faster
convergence.

11.
You configure:
ip access-list extended 100
deny tcp host [Link] eq 80 any
permit ip any any
What is blocked?
A. Traffic from [Link] to TCP port 80 on any host
B. Traffic to [Link] from TCP port 80
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C. All HTTP traffic

D. All TCP traffic
Answer: A
Explanation: This blocks only source host [Link] when using TCP port 80 as
the source port.

12.
An enterprise wants both distribution switches to be completely independent
for fault isolation. Which design is preferred?
A. VSS-based simplified campus
B. Traditional Layer 2 access with FHRP
C. Routed access with Layer 3 distribution
D. Fabric-based campus
Answer: B
Explanation: Traditional designs keep independent control planes and fault
domains, unlike VSS/StackWise Virtual.

13.
In a three-tier design, the core layer’s primary purpose is to:
A. Enforce access control lists
B. Provide high-speed transport between distribution blocks
C. Aggregate access switches
D. Control spanning tree topology
Answer: B
Explanation: The core focuses on fast, reliable transport between distribution
blocks, not policy enforcement.

14.
Which benefit of EtherChannel is most relevant to the simplified campus
design?
A. Loop prevention without STP
B. Load balancing and increased bandwidth
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C. Dynamic VLAN pruning

D. IP address conservation
Answer: B
Explanation: EtherChannel allows multiple links to act as one, increasing
bandwidth and providing load balancing.

15.
An engineer wants VLANs to span across multiple access switches without
blocked uplinks. Which design element enables this?
A. Routed access layer
B. STP root guard
C. MEC or cross-stack EtherChannel
D. VTP pruning
Answer: C
Explanation: MEC or cross-stack EtherChannel allows VLANs to span without
creating STP blocking links.

16.
Which two network actions occur in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. Add/remove 802.1Q header
B. Process NETCONF RPC
C. Run OSPF
D. Match destination MAC in CAM table
E. Negotiate BGP session
Answer: A, D
Explanation: Data plane actions involve frame/packet forwarding, such as VLAN
tagging and MAC lookups.

17.
In a traditional design, why is HSRP needed at the distribution layer?
A. To prevent loops between access switches
B. To provide a single default gateway for VLANs spanning both distribution
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switches
C. To speed up STP convergence
D. To reduce control plane load
Answer: B
Explanation: HSRP provides a virtual gateway IP so hosts can reach the network
regardless of which distribution switch is active.

18.
Which redundancy mode in HSRP allows both routers to actively forward
traffic?
A. Active-standby
B. Active-active
C. Load-sharing
D. Virtual active
Answer: C
Explanation: HSRP can be configured for load-sharing by making different
VLANs active on different routers.

19.
Scenario: Two distribution switches are connected via MEC to multiple access
switches. A single supervisor failure occurs. What happens?
A. Traffic is interrupted until STP reconverges
B. The standby supervisor takes over with SSO, traffic is preserved
C. All EtherChannels break
D. VLANs lose their gateway
Answer: B
Explanation: With SSO in a MEC/VSS setup, the standby takes over instantly,
preserving traffic flows.

20.
Which campus design model generally has the smallest Layer 2 domains?
A. Traditional
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B. Routed access
C. Simplified campus
D. Flat VLAN design
Answer: B
Explanation: Routed access puts Layer 3 boundaries at the access layer,
reducing broadcast domain size.

21.
Scenario: A core switch in a two-tier routed access design fails. What is the
impact on local VLAN traffic between two hosts connected to the same access
switch?
A. Traffic stops completely
B. Traffic continues unaffected
C. Traffic reroutes through the distribution switch
D. Traffic is flooded to all ports
Answer: B
Explanation: In routed access, local VLAN traffic within the same switch is
switched locally, unaffected by core failures.

22.
In a VSS deployment, which protocol synchronizes control-plane information
between the chassis?
A. VSL (Virtual Switch Link)
B. MEC
C. HSRP
D. VRRP
Answer: A
Explanation: The VSL carries control-plane and some data-plane traffic between
VSS members for state synchronization.

23.
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Which design reduces the blast radius of broadcast storms the most?
A. Large Layer 2 VLANs
B. Routed access with small VLANs
C. VTP transparent mode
D. STP portfast
Answer: B
Explanation: Routed access creates small VLANs and contains broadcasts within
a single access switch.

24.
An engineer wants to extend VLANs across multiple buildings while keeping
both uplinks active. Which feature combination should they use?
A. MST + HSRP
B. VSS + MEC
C. Routed access + OSPF
D. EtherChannel + VRRP
Answer: B
Explanation: VSS with MEC allows VLANs to span buildings with both uplinks
active and no STP blocking.

25.
In which design is FHRP not needed?
A. Traditional Layer 2
B. Routed access
C. Simplified campus
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
Explanation: Routed access and simplified campus designs eliminate VLAN
spanning across distribution switches, removing FHRP needs.

26.
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Which benefit does NSF provide during supervisor switchover?

A. Prevents packet loss in the control plane
B. Maintains forwarding in the data plane
C. Rebuilds routing tables from scratch
D. Eliminates need for routing protocols
Answer: B
Explanation: NSF keeps forwarding entries active while the control plane
restarts, minimizing traffic disruption.

27.
In a simplified campus with VSS, where is the default gateway for end devices?
A. One of the distribution switches
B. The logical VSS switch
C. An external router
D. The access switch
Answer: B
Explanation: In VSS, both physical chassis act as one logical switch, which hosts
the gateway IP.

28.
Scenario: An access switch uplink fails in a routed access design. What happens
to VLAN traffic for that switch?
A. All VLANs fail
B. Only VLANs mapped to that uplink fail
C. All VLANs reroute through the second uplink
D. No traffic is affected
Answer: C
Explanation: Routed access uses redundant Layer 3 uplinks, so traffic is
rerouted via the remaining link.

29.
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Which two characteristics describe the core layer? (Choose two.)

A. Low latency
B. Policy enforcement
C. High redundancy
D. VLAN termination
E. Direct user access
Answer: A, C
Explanation: The core layer focuses on fast, reliable transport with minimal
policy functions.

30.
Why might a large enterprise avoid the simplified campus design?
A. Complexity of FHRP configuration
B. Limited scalability with VSS in very large deployments
C. Inability to run EtherChannel
D. Higher broadcast traffic
Answer: B
Explanation: Very large environments may face scalability or operational limits
with a single control plane in VSS.

31.
In traditional Layer 2 access, how does STP prevent loops on redundant uplinks?
A. By disabling one of the uplinks
B. By load-balancing across both uplinks
C. By using both uplinks with different VLANs
D. By blocking VLAN trunking
Answer: A
Explanation: STP blocks one redundant path to maintain a loop-free topology.

32.
Which design allows per-VLAN load balancing across distribution switches in a
traditional model?
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A. MSTP
B. PVST+
C. RPVST+
D. PVST+ with different STP roots per VLAN
Answer: D
Explanation: By configuring each distribution switch as STP root for different
VLANs, load can be split.

33.
In NSF operation, what role do routing neighbors play?
A. They send keepalive messages to restart NSF
B. They hold routes in place while the NSF router recovers
C. They re-advertise default routes immediately
D. They block all traffic until NSF finishes
Answer: B
Explanation: NSF-capable neighbors maintain adjacency and routes to allow
seamless recovery.

34.
Scenario: You see MAC addresses from multiple VLANs on the same uplink to a
wireless controller. Which interface type is likely used?
A. Routed port
B. Access port
C. Trunk port
D. SPAN port
Answer: C
Explanation: Trunk ports carry multiple VLANs, typical for WLC uplinks.

35.
Which two are valid reasons to choose traditional Layer 2 access over routed
access? (Choose two.)
A. Simpler troubleshooting for small teams
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B. Need to extend VLANs across multiple access switches

C. Desire for faster convergence
D. Minimizing broadcast domains
Answer: A, B
Explanation: Layer 2 access allows VLAN extension and can be simpler to
manage in smaller environments.

36.
In a VSS design, what happens if the VSL fails but both switches are still
running?
A. Both switches become active, causing a split-brain
B. The standby shuts down to prevent split-brain
C. All MEC links fail
D. Traffic reroutes via STP
Answer: B
Explanation: VSS has a mechanism where one chassis shuts down in case of VSL
failure to avoid dual-active scenarios.

37.
Which type of switch interface is best for a routed access uplink?
A. Access port
B. Trunk port
C. Routed port (no switchport)
D. EtherChannel trunk
Answer: C
Explanation: Routed access uplinks use Layer 3 point-to-point links, configured
as routed ports.

38.
Why does Layer 3 access eliminate STP on uplinks?
A. Because VLANs are extended to distribution
B. Because uplinks are in different VLANs
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C. Because uplinks are purely Layer 3 and have no STP participation

D. Because MST disables it
Answer: C
Explanation: STP operates at Layer 2, so Layer 3 point-to-point uplinks are
unaffected.

39.
Scenario: You’re troubleshooting a network where hosts are intermittently
losing connectivity to the gateway in a traditional Layer 2 design. What should
you check first?
A. Routing protocol timers
B. HSRP status on both distribution switches
C. VLAN pruning
D. EtherChannel hashing algorithm
Answer: B
Explanation: HSRP issues can cause gateway failovers and intermittent
connectivity in traditional designs.

40.
Which statement about SSO is correct?
A. It restarts all routing protocols during switchover
B. It synchronizes hardware and software state to the standby
C. It only applies to Layer 2 switching
D. It prevents the need for NSF
Answer: B
Explanation: SSO synchronizes the active and standby supervisors’ state,
enabling a near-hitless switchover.

Network Architecture and Components: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. What is the primary function of the access layer in a hierarchical LAN
design?
A. Provide a high-speed backbone for campus connectivity.
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B. Aggregate access layer switches and apply policies.

C. Connect end-user devices, such as PCs and IP phones, to the network.
D. Serve as the point of access to external networks like the internet.
Answer: C
Explanation: The access layer, also known as the network edge, is designed to
connect end-user devices like PCs and IP phones to the network. It's the point
where clients get network access and it segments the network into smaller
collision domains.

2. Which architectural design is also known as a collapsed core?

A. Three-tier design.
B. Spine-and-leaf design.
C. Two-tier design.
D. Distributed core design.
Answer: C
Explanation: The two-tier design is an enterprise network architecture that
combines the core and distribution layers into a single layer, earning it the
nickname collapsed core.

3. Which of the following describes a key characteristic of a spine-and-leaf

architecture in a data center design?
A. It uses a three-tier design to reduce cabling complexity.
B. Each leaf device connects to every spine device in a full mesh.
C. It primarily focuses on Layer 2 forwarding and eliminates Layer 3 routing.
D. It is limited to 1 Gbps uplinks between layers.
Answer: B
Explanation: In a spine-and-leaf architecture, a key characteristic is that every
leaf device connects to every spine device in a full mesh. This design helps to
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reduce server-to-server latency and eliminate bandwidth bottlenecks often

seen in traditional three-tier data center architectures.

4. What is the purpose of 802.1Q trunking in an Ethernet LAN?

A. To provide power over Ethernet to connected devices.
B. To aggregate multiple physical links into a single logical link.
C. To allow a single physical link to carry traffic for multiple VLANs.
D. To prevent Layer 2 switching loops.
Answer: C
Explanation: The 802.1Q protocol enables a single physical link, known as a
trunk, to carry traffic for multiple VLANs. It does this by inserting a 4-byte
header into Ethernet frames, which tags the traffic with its specific VLAN ID.

5. What mechanism does a lightweight Access Point (AP) use to communicate

with a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC)?
A. IPsec tunnel.
B. CAPWAP tunnel.
C. GRE tunnel.
D. Directly over Layer 2.
Answer: B
Explanation: Lightweight APs communicate with a WLC using a CAPWAP
(Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points) tunnel. This tunnel
separates control plane traffic from data plane traffic, allowing the WLC to
centrally manage the APs while the APs handle the real-time 802.11 processes.

6. Which of the following is an example of a cloud-based AP architecture?

A. Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Controller.
B. Cisco Mobility Express.
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C. Cisco Meraki.
D. Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
Answer: C
Explanation: Cisco Meraki provides a cloud-based AP architecture where all
access points are managed and monitored centrally through a cloud-based
dashboard, offering a simplified and scalable solution.

7. What is the primary benefit of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) in a

WAN architecture?
A. It uses only Ethernet as the access link technology.
B. It simplifies management of secure access to network resources.
C. It uses simple labels instead of complex routing tables for traffic forwarding,
enabling efficient traffic engineering.
D. It provides site-to-site VPNs using IPsec.
Answer: C
Explanation: MPLS is highly beneficial in WANs because it uses simple labels to
forward traffic, which is more efficient than the complex routing table lookups
used in traditional IP routing. This allows for powerful traffic engineering
capabilities.

8. What is the control plane's role in a traditional network device?

A. It handles the forwarding of packets based on lookup tables.
B. It manages the device configuration and monitoring.
C. It determines how and where to forward traffic by building and maintaining
routing tables and MAC address tables.
D. It interacts with external automation applications through APIs.
Answer: C
Explanation: The control plane is responsible for building and maintaining the
lookup tables (e.g., routing tables, MAC address tables) that the data plane uses
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to forward traffic. It's where the decision-making logic resides, handling tasks
like running routing protocols, ARP, and STP.

9. Which Cisco DNA Center application is primarily responsible for group-

based access control permissions?
A. Design.
B. Provision.
C. Policy.
D. Assurance.
Answer: C
Explanation: The Policy application in Cisco DNA Center is used to define and
manage group-based access control permissions, allowing for scalable and
flexible security policies across the network.

10. In a Cisco SD-Access deployment, which component is responsible for

connecting the fabric to external Layer 3 networks?
A. Fabric edge node.
B. Fabric border node.
C. Control plane node.
D. Fabric wireless LAN controller.
Answer: B
Explanation: The fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment is the
component that connects the SD-Access fabric to external Layer 3 networks,
acting as the gateway for traffic leaving or entering the fabric.

11. What is the main characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?

A. It runs as an application on top of an existing operating system.
B. It is a software emulation of a virtual server.
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C. It runs directly on the bare metal hardware of the host server.

D. It combines multiple physical switches into a single logical device.
Answer: C
Explanation: A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as a bare-metal hypervisor, runs
directly on the physical hardware of the host server without an underlying
operating system. This direct access provides better performance and security
compared to Type 2 hypervisors.

12. Which QoS mechanism allows an administrator to control the maximum

rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface by dropping packets that
exceed the configured rate?
A. Policing.
B. Shaping.
C. Classification.
D. Marking.
Answer: A
Explanation: Policing is a QoS mechanism that enforces a traffic rate by
dropping packets that exceed the configured rate, effectively controlling the
maximum traffic flow on an interface.

13. What is the purpose of Network Address Translation (NAT) in IPv4

networks?
A. To expand the IPv6 address space.
B. To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses, conserving public
IPv4 addresses and enabling internet access for internal hosts.
C. To assign dynamic IP addresses to network devices.
D. To secure wireless network connections.
Answer: B
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Explanation: NAT is a crucial technology in IPv4 networks. Its primary purpose

is to translate private IPv4 addresses used within a local network into a single or
a pool of public IPv4 addresses for communication with the internet. This helps
conserve the limited public IPv4 address space.

14. Which wireless security protocol is considered the most secure and is
recommended for modern deployments?
A. WEP.
B. WPA.
C. WPA2.
D. WPA3.
Answer: D
Explanation: WPA3 is the latest and most secure wireless security protocol. It
offers enhanced encryption and authentication, including individualized data
encryption in public Wi-Fi networks and stronger password-based
authentication.

15. Which of the following authentication methods for wireless clients

provides a framework for authentication but is not an authentication method
itself?
A. Open Authentication.
B. WEP.
C. 802.1x/EAP.
D. LEAP.
Answer: C
Explanation: 802.1X/EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) is a framework
that provides a structure for authentication between a client and an
authentication server. It's not an authentication method itself, but it allows for
different EAP types (like LEAP, PEAP, EAP-TLS) to be used within its framework.
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16. What is the primary purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a Layer 2
LAN?
A. To aggregate multiple physical links into a single logical link.
B. To provide dynamic IP address assignment to hosts.
C. To prevent Layer 2 switching loops while allowing for redundant paths.
D. To prioritize certain types of network traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation: STP is a Layer 2 protocol designed to prevent switching loops in a
network with redundant paths. It does this by selectively blocking certain ports,
creating a loop-free logical topology while still allowing for physical redundancy.

17. What is the default VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) mode on a Cisco switch?
A. Client.
B. Server.
C. Transparent.
D. Off.
Answer: B
Explanation: The default VTP mode on a Cisco switch is Server. In this mode, a
switch can create, modify, and delete VLANs, and these changes are advertised
to other switches in the same VTP domain.

18. What is the main advantage of EtherChannel?

A. It encrypts traffic for enhanced security.
B. It prevents Layer 2 loops in the network.
C. It aggregates multiple physical links to provide increased bandwidth and link
redundancy.
D. It dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices.
Answer: C
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Explanation: EtherChannel aggregates multiple physical Ethernet links into a

single logical link. This provides the dual benefits of increased bandwidth and
link redundancy, as traffic can be distributed across the links and a single link
failure won't cause the logical link to go down.

19. Which routing protocol is described as a link-state protocol and uses

Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm to calculate the best routes?
A. RIPv2.
B. EIGRP.
C. OSPF.
D. BGP.
Answer: C
Explanation: OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol. It
uses Dijkstra's algorithm, also known as the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm,
to calculate the best routes to all destinations within an OSPF area.

20. What is the administrative distance of a directly connected route in Cisco

IOS?
A. 0.
B. 1.
C. 90.
D. 110.
Answer: A
Explanation: A directly connected route has an administrative distance (AD) of
0. This is the most trusted and preferred AD value, meaning it will always be
chosen over routes learned from other sources.

21. Which type of IPv4 address is typically assigned to hosts within an

organization's internal network and is not routable on the public Internet?
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A. Public IP address.
B. Multicast IP address.
C. Private IP address.
D. Loopback IP address.
Answer: C
Explanation: Private IP addresses are specified in RFC 1918 and are used for
internal networks. They are not globally unique and cannot be routed on the
public internet, requiring NAT to communicate with external networks.

22. What is the purpose of DHCP Snooping on a Layer 2 switch?

A. To dynamically assign IP addresses to clients.
B. To prevent unauthorized DHCP servers and malicious DHCP activities by
validating DHCP messages.
C. To provide a secure remote access method for network devices.
D. To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses.
Answer: B
Explanation: DHCP Snooping is a Layer 2 security feature that validates DHCP
messages to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from operating on the
network. It also helps mitigate DHCP starvation and spoofing attacks by building
a binding table of trusted DHCP information.

23. Which Layer 2 security feature restricts the number of MAC addresses
learned on a switch port to prevent CAM table overflow attacks?
A. DHCP Snooping.
B. Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI).
C. Port Security.
D. 802.1X.
Answer: C
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Explanation: Port Security is a Layer 2 security feature that allows an

administrator to control the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a
specific switch port. This prevents a threat actor from flooding the switch's
CAM table and causing a denial-of-service attack.

24. Which Cisco IOS command is used to verify the entries in a switch's MAC
address table?
A. show interfaces status.
B. show mac address-table.
C. show vlan brief.
D. show ip route.
Answer: B
Explanation: The show mac address-table command is used to display the
contents of a switch's MAC address table, which maps MAC addresses to the
ports on which they were learned.

25. What is the function of a Northbound API in a Software-Defined

Networking (SDN) environment?
A. To allow communication between the controller and network devices (e.g.,
switches, routers).
B. To provide programmatic control of abstracted network resources through a
centralized controller to network management applications.
C. To manage the physical infrastructure (underlay network).
D. To enable communication between virtual machines.
Answer: B
Explanation: Northbound APIs are the interface between the SDN controller
and network management applications. They allow these applications to
programmatically control and manage network resources at a higher, more
abstract level.
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26. Which of the following is a characteristic of JSON (JavaScript Object

Notation)?
A. It is a proprietary Cisco data encoding format.
B. It uses XML for data encoding.
C. It provides a standardized data structure using human-readable text,
commonly represented as key:value pairs, for data interchange.
D. It is used exclusively for network configuration, not for other data types.
Answer: C
Explanation: JSON is a lightweight, human-readable data interchange format. It
provides a standardized structure for data using key:value pairs and is widely
used for network automation, web APIs, and many other applications.

27. What is the purpose of VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) in modern network
architectures?
A. To extend Layer 2 networks over a Layer 3 underlay, enabling greater
scalability and flexibility.
B. To provide Quality of Service (QoS) for real-time applications.
C. To encrypt traffic between network devices.
D. To manage wireless access points.
Answer: A
Explanation: VXLAN is an overlay tunneling technology that allows a Layer 2
network to be extended over a Layer 3 network. This is a key technology for
building scalable and flexible virtual networks in data centers and with SD-
Access.

28. Which of the following refers to a software emulation of a physical server

with an operating system, enabling multiple isolated computing environments
on a single physical host?
A. Container.
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B. Virtual Machine (VM).

C. Hypervisor.
D. Virtual Switch (vSwitch).
Answer: B
Explanation: A Virtual Machine (VM) is a software emulation of a physical
server. It runs on a hypervisor and has its own operating system, allowing
multiple isolated computing environments to share the resources of a single
physical host.

29. What is the role of a virtual switch (vSwitch) in a virtualized environment?

A. To manage the physical NICs on the host.
B. To provide connectivity between virtual machines on the same host and
between VMs and the physical network.
C. To create and manage hypervisors.
D. To allocate CPU and memory resources to VMs.
Answer: B
Explanation: A virtual switch (vSwitch) provides Layer 2 connectivity in a
virtualized environment. It allows virtual machines on the same host to
communicate with each other and also connects them to the physical network
through the host's network adapters.

30. Which of the following is considered an agentless automation tool?

A. Chef.
B. Puppet.
C. Ansible.
D. SaltStack (Agent and Server Mode).
Answer: C
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Explanation: Ansible is an agentless automation tool. It does not require any

special software (agents) to be installed on the managed devices. It typically
operates over standard protocols like SSH.

31. What is the key characteristic of an Extended Access Control List (ACL) in
IPv4?
A. It filters traffic based only on the source IP address.
B. It filters traffic based on source IP, destination IP, port numbers, and protocol
types.
C. It applies filters only to incoming traffic on an interface.
D. It uses named ACLs exclusively.
Answer: B
Explanation: Extended ACLs provide more granular control than standard ACLs.
They can filter traffic based on a wider range of criteria, including source and
destination IP addresses, protocol types (like TCP, UDP), and source and
destination port numbers.

32. What is the function of traceroute as a network diagnostic tool?

A. To check the reachability of a destination host (ping).
B. To display the path (hops) that packets take to reach a destination and
measure transit times for each hop.
C. To capture and analyze network traffic on an interface.
D. To display the routing table of a router.
Answer: B
Explanation: The traceroute command is a network diagnostic tool that shows
the path, or sequence of hops, that a packet takes to reach a destination. It also
provides the round-trip time for each hop, which helps in identifying where
delays or packet loss might be occurring.
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33. When configuring OSPFv2 on Ethernet interfaces, what is the default

network type?
A. Point-to-point.
B. Non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA).
C. Broadcast.
D. Point-to-multipoint.
Answer: C
Explanation: The default OSPF network type on an Ethernet interface is
Broadcast. In this network type, OSPF routers on the segment elect a
Designated Router (DR) and a Backup Designated Router (BDR) to reduce the
number of adjacencies needed.

34. Which Cisco DNA Center component helps organize the network
infrastructure for provisioning and automation, supporting global to local
sites?
A. IP Address Pools.
B. Network Hierarchy.
C. Assurance Dashboard.
D. Template Editor.
Answer: B
Explanation: The Network Hierarchy in Cisco DNA Center's design tool is used
to organize network devices by their physical location, from a global view down
to specific floors within a building. This structure is essential for scalable
provisioning and automation.

35. Which wireless AP mode allows an AP to scan configured channels for

rogue access points without serving clients?
A. Local.
B. Bridge.
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C. Monitor.
D. Sniffer.
Answer: C
Explanation: In Monitor mode, a lightweight AP dedicates its radio to scanning
for rogue access points, interfering devices, and other wireless threats. It does
not allow any clients to connect while in this mode.

36. What is the purpose of DHCP Option 43 in a wireless network?

A. To provide the default gateway for wireless clients.
B. To specify the SSID for wireless networks.
C. To help lightweight Access Points (APs) find the IP address of a Wireless LAN
Controller (WLC) for registration.
D. To configure WLAN security settings.
Answer: C
Explanation: DHCP Option 43 is a Vendor Specific Option that is used to
provide the IP address(es) of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) to lightweight
APs. This allows the APs to discover and register with the WLC for centralized
management.

37. What is a key benefit of using data modeling languages like YANG?
A. They provide human-readable scripts for automation.
B. They offer a standardized and structured way to define network
configuration and state data, improving consistency and scalability across multi-
vendor environments.
C. They are used exclusively for XML encoding.
D. They are Cisco proprietary and not applicable to multi-vendor networks.
Answer: B
Explanation: YANG (Yet Another Next Generation) is a data modeling language
that provides a standardized, structured way to define network configuration
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and state data. This standardization is critical for achieving consistency and
scalability in network automation, especially in multi-vendor environments.

38. Which QoS component involves classifying traffic into different categories
and then marking packets (e.g., with CoS or DSCP values) to indicate their
priority?
A. Queuing.
B. Congestion Avoidance.
C. Classification and Marking.
D. Policing and Shaping.
Answer: C
Explanation: Classification and marking is the first step in applying QoS
policies. Classification is the process of categorizing traffic (e.g., voice, video,
best-effort), and marking is the act of adding a value to the packet header (like
CoS or DSCP) to indicate its priority and treatment.

39. In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which technology encapsulates wireless client

traffic from fabric APs to their first-hop fabric edge node?
A. LISP.
B. GRE.
C. IPsec.
D. VXLAN.
Answer: D
Explanation: In a Cisco SD-Access wireless solution, VXLAN is the overlay
technology that encapsulates wireless client traffic. The fabric APs encapsulate
the client traffic and send it through a VXLAN tunnel to their first-hop fabric
edge node, where it can be handled by the fabric services.

40. What is the purpose of VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol)?

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A. To provide a secure remote access method for routers.

B. To provide first-hop redundancy for IPv4 gateways, allowing multiple routers
to share a virtual IP address and MAC address.
C. To load-balance traffic across multiple active routers.
D. To automatically discover neighboring routers on a segment.
Answer: B
Explanation: VRRP is a standards-based first-hop redundancy protocol (FHRP).
It allows a group of routers to act as a single virtual gateway by sharing a virtual
IP and MAC address. If the primary router fails, a standby router takes over,
ensuring continuous network connectivity for the clients.