🧠 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM — QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
(Anatomy III – Nursing)
General Overview
1. Q: What is the main function of the digestive system?
A: To break down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed and used by the
body.
2. Q: What are the two main groups of digestive system organs?
A: The alimentary canal and the accessory organs.
3. Q: What is another name for the alimentary canal?
A: The gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
4. Q: List the organs of the alimentary canal in order.
A: Mouth → Pharynx → Esophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine →
Anus.
5. Q: Name the main accessory organs of digestion.
A: Salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas.
6. Q: What is digestion?
A: The mechanical and chemical breakdown of food into absorbable forms.
7. Q: What is absorption?
A: The movement of digested nutrients from the GI tract into the bloodstream or lymph.
8. Q: What is peristalsis?
A: Wave-like muscular contractions that move food along the digestive tract.
9. Q: Which nervous system controls most digestive activities?
A: The autonomic nervous system (especially the parasympathetic division).
10. Q: What is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity called?
A: The peritoneum.
Mouth and Oral Cavity
11. Q: What is the first part of the alimentary canal?
A: The mouth (oral cavity).
12. Q: What is the main function of the mouth?
A: Ingestion and mechanical breakdown of food by chewing.
13. Q: What is mastication?
A: The mechanical process of chewing food.
14. Q: What is the role of saliva in digestion?
A: It moistens food, begins starch digestion (via amylase), and aids in swallowing.
15. Q: Which enzyme is found in saliva?
A: Salivary amylase (ptyalin).
16. Q: How many pairs of major salivary glands are there?
A: Three pairs – parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands.
17. Q: What structure prevents food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing?
A: The soft palate and uvula.
18. Q: What is the tongue’s role in digestion?
A: Helps in chewing, mixing food, swallowing, and taste.
19. Q: What is the pharynx?
A: A muscular passage that connects the mouth to the esophagus.
20. Q: Which part of the pharynx is involved in digestion?
A: The oropharynx and laryngopharynx.
Esophagus
21. Q: What is the esophagus?
A: A muscular tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach.
22. Q: What type of muscle makes up the esophagus?
A: Skeletal muscle in the upper part and smooth muscle in the lower part.
23. Q: What prevents food from entering the trachea?
A: The epiglottis.
24. Q: What structure prevents acid reflux from the stomach?
A: The lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter.
25. Q: What is heartburn?
A: A burning sensation caused by stomach acid entering the esophagus.
Stomach
26. Q: What is the stomach’s main function?
A: To store, mix, and digest food both mechanically and chemically.
27. Q: Name the four regions of the stomach.
A: Cardiac region, fundus, body, and pylorus.
28. Q: What type of digestion occurs in the stomach?
A: Both mechanical (churning) and chemical (protein digestion).
29. Q: What enzyme begins protein digestion in the stomach?
A: Pepsin.
30. Q: What substance activates pepsin from pepsinogen?
A: Hydrochloric acid (HCl).
31. Q: What is chyme?
A: The semi-liquid mixture of food and gastric juice formed in the stomach.
32. Q: What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?
A: It regulates the passage of chyme into the small intestine.
33. Q: What protects the stomach from digesting itself?
A: The mucous lining of the stomach wall.
Small Intestine
34. Q: What is the main site of digestion and absorption?
A: The small intestine.
35. Q: Name the three divisions of the small intestine.
A: Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
36. Q: What is the main function of the duodenum?
A: It receives chyme, bile, and pancreatic juice for digestion.
37. Q: What increases the surface area for absorption in the small intestine?
A: Villi and microvilli.
38. Q: What are villi?
A: Finger-like projections that increase the surface area for nutrient absorption.
39. Q: Which enzyme completes carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine?
A: Maltase, sucrase, and lactase.
40. Q: Which hormone stimulates bile release from the gallbladder?
A: Cholecystokinin (CCK).
41. Q: What transports absorbed fats from the intestine?
A: Lacteals (lymphatic capillaries in villi).
Large Intestine
42. Q: What are the main parts of the large intestine?
A: Cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal.
43. Q: What is the main function of the large intestine?
A: Absorption of water and electrolytes, and formation of feces.
44. Q: What is the vermiform appendix attached to?
A: The cecum.
45. Q: What are haustra?
A: Pouches of the colon caused by the contraction of the teniae coli muscles.
46. Q: What is the function of intestinal bacteria?
A: To produce vitamins (e.g., vitamin K, B12) and aid in digestion.
47. Q: What is defecation?
A: The elimination of feces from the digestive tract through the anus.
48. Q: Which sphincter controls voluntary defecation?
A: The external anal sphincter.
Accessory Organs
49. Q: What is the largest gland in the body?
A: The liver.
50. Q: What are the main functions of the liver in digestion?
A: Production of bile, metabolism of nutrients, detoxification, and storage of glycogen.
51. Q: What is bile composed of?
A: Bile salts, bile pigments (bilirubin), cholesterol, and water.
52. Q: What is the function of bile?
A: Emulsifies fats to aid in digestion and absorption.
53. Q: Where is bile stored?
A: In the gallbladder.
54. Q: What is the function of the gallbladder?
A: To store and concentrate bile, releasing it into the duodenum.
55. Q: What are the digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas?
A: Amylase (carbohydrates), lipase (fats), and proteases (trypsin, chymotrypsin).
56. Q: What is the pancreatic duct’s function?
A: To deliver pancreatic juice to the duodenum.
57. Q: What hormone stimulates pancreatic secretion?
A: Secretin.
58. Q: What is the role of the pancreas as an endocrine organ?
A: It secretes insulin and glucagon to regulate blood glucose levels.
59. Q: Which organ detoxifies alcohol and drugs?
A: The liver.
60. Q: What connects the liver, gallbladder, and duodenum?
A: The bile duct system (hepatic, cystic, and common bile ducts).
APPLICATION QUESTIONS.
1. Referred Pain – Pancreatitis
Q: A patient with acute pancreatitis reports pain that bores straight through from the epigastrium
to the back. What major abdominal organ is anatomically positioned retroperitoneally,
contributing to this classic radiating pain pattern?
A: The pancreas.
Explanation: The pancreas lies retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen. Because of its deep
posterior location, inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis) irritates the posterior parietal
peritoneum and adjacent nerves, causing pain that radiates to the back.
2. Drug Absorption – Rectal Route
Q: A nurse administers a medication rectally (e.g., for seizures or nausea). What anatomical
feature of the venous drainage of the distal rectum allows this route to partially avoid the "first-
pass metabolism" effect of the liver, leading to quicker systemic action than oral medications?
A: Venous drainage of the lower rectum via the middle and inferior rectal veins into the
systemic circulation (internal iliac veins).
Explanation: Unlike the superior rectal vein, which drains into the portal system, the middle and
inferior rectal veins drain directly into the systemic circulation, bypassing the liver and thus
avoiding first-pass metabolism.
3. Auscultation – Return of Peristalsis
Q: When auscultating bowel sounds, which large bowel segment is typically the most active and
is often targeted for confirming the return of peristalsis following surgery?
A: The cecum (right lower quadrant).
Explanation: The cecum, located in the right lower quadrant, is the first part of the large
intestine and tends to regain motility earliest after surgery, making it ideal for assessing the
return of bowel activity.
4. NG Tube Placement – Anatomical Pathway
Q: When inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube, the nurse must ensure it passes through the
esophagus and into the stomach. Name the two muscular sphincters that the tube must pass
through or past before reaching the main body of the stomach.
A: The upper esophageal sphincter (cricopharyngeal sphincter) and the lower esophageal
(cardiac) sphincter.
Explanation: The NG tube travels from the nasal cavity → pharynx → esophagus → through
these two sphincters → into the stomach. Correct placement avoids the trachea and prevents
aspiration.
5. Fluid Balance – Water Reabsorption
Q: Diarrhea and vomiting can rapidly lead to dehydration. Which segment of the large intestine
has the primary function of reabsorbing water and electrolytes, and how does the colon's mucosa
differ from the small intestine's to facilitate this?
A: The colon (especially the ascending and transverse segments).
Explanation: The large intestine absorbs most remaining water and electrolytes. Its mucosa
lacks villi but contains numerous goblet cells that secrete mucus, easing the passage of feces
while allowing efficient water reabsorption.
6. Jaundice – Biliary Duct Obstruction
Q: Blockage of the common bile duct due to a gallstone can cause obstructive jaundice. Name
the two main ducts that merge to form the common bile duct, carrying bile from the
liver/gallbladder to the duodenum.
A: The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct.
Explanation: The right and left hepatic ducts join to form the common hepatic duct, which
unites with the cystic duct from the gallbladder to form the common bile duct that empties into
the duodenum.
7. Peptic Ulcer – Pain Location
Q: A patient complains of gnawing epigastric pain that worsens on an empty stomach. Which
region of the digestive tract is most likely affected, and why does the pain pattern help localize
it?
A: The duodenum (duodenal ulcer).
Explanation: Duodenal ulcers cause epigastric pain that improves after eating because food
neutralizes stomach acid, unlike gastric ulcers that worsen with meals.
8. Surgical Anatomy – Gallbladder Removal
Q: During a cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal), which anatomical triangle is identified to
locate and safely ligate the cystic artery?
A: Calot’s triangle (Cystohepatic triangle).
Explanation: Bounded by the cystic duct, common hepatic duct, and inferior border of the liver,
Calot’s triangle is an essential landmark for identifying the cystic artery during surgery.
9. Appendicitis – Pain Shift
Q: In early appendicitis, pain is felt around the umbilicus but later localizes to the right lower
quadrant. What anatomical reason explains this shift?
A: Referred visceral pain shifts to localized somatic pain as inflammation spreads to the
parietal peritoneum.
Explanation: The appendix is midgut-derived, so visceral pain is referred to the umbilical region
(T10 dermatome). As inflammation involves the parietal peritoneum, pain becomes localized at
McBurney’s point in the RLQ.
10. Portal Hypertension – Varices Formation
Q: In liver cirrhosis, why do patients develop esophageal varices and hemorrhoids?
A: Due to portal hypertension causing blood to divert through portosystemic anastomoses.
Explanation: Increased portal venous pressure leads to dilation of veins at sites where the portal
and systemic circulations connect — such as the lower esophagus and rectum — resulting in
varices and hemorrhoids.
Would you like me to continue with a “Digestive System Clinical Scenarios (Part 2)” —
another 10 applied questions focusing on surgical, radiological, and nursing procedures (e.g.,
liver biopsy, gastric tube feeding, endoscopy, hernias)?
It would round up your applied anatomy section perfectly for exam prep.
You said:
Surgical Landmark: The appendix is a potential site of infection (appendicitis). Which specific
anatomical junction of the large intestine does the appendix project from? * Vomiting Reflex:
Severe vomiting (emesis) is controlled by the medulla oblongata. Which specific cranial nerve is
responsible for the motor (efferent) innervation of the pharynx, larynx, and abdominal viscera
that contributes to the physical act of vomiting? * Feeding Tube Complication: Improper
placement of a nasoduodenal or jejunal feeding tube can bypass the site of pancreatic enzyme
and bile release. Which segment of the small intestine does the pancreatic duct and common bile
duct empty into? * Hepatomegaly Assessment: When palpating the liver, the nurse assesses for
hepatomegaly (enlargement). Under normal conditions, in which abdominal quadrant is the liver
predominantly found, and why is it usually non-palpable below the costal margin?
1. Surgical Landmark – Appendix Location
Q: The appendix is a potential site of infection (appendicitis). Which specific anatomical
junction of the large intestine does the appendix project from?
A: The appendiceal base projects from the posteromedial wall of the cecum at the ileocecal
junction.
Explanation: The appendix arises from the cecum, about 2 cm below the ileocecal valve, where
the small intestine (ileum) joins the large intestine (cecum). This location is clinically important
in identifying McBurney’s point — a surface landmark used to diagnose appendicitis.
2. Vomiting Reflex – Cranial Nerve Involvement
Q: Severe vomiting (emesis) is controlled by the medulla oblongata. Which specific cranial
nerve is responsible for the motor (efferent) innervation of the pharynx, larynx, and abdominal
viscera that contributes to the physical act of vomiting?
A: The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X).
Explanation: The vagus nerve provides motor fibers to the pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles
and parasympathetic innervation to the gastrointestinal tract. During vomiting, the vagus
mediates contraction of abdominal and visceral muscles under medullary control.
3. Feeding Tube Complication – Entry of Digestive Secretions
Q: Improper placement of a nasoduodenal or jejunal feeding tube can bypass the site of
pancreatic enzyme and bile release. Which segment of the small intestine does the pancreatic
duct and common bile duct empty into?
A: The second (descending) part of the duodenum.
Explanation: The main pancreatic duct and common bile duct unite to form the
hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater), which opens into the medial wall of the second part of the
duodenum at the major duodenal papilla, allowing bile and pancreatic juices to mix with chyme
for digestion.
4. Hepatomegaly Assessment – Liver Palpation
Q: When palpating the liver, the nurse assesses for hepatomegaly (enlargement). Under normal
conditions, in which abdominal quadrant is the liver predominantly found, and why is it usually
non-palpable below the costal margin?
A: The liver lies mainly in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen, deep to the
right costal margin.
Explanation: The liver is protected by the lower ribs and diaphragm; in a healthy adult, its lower
edge is usually just below or at the right costal margin and thus not easily palpable.
Hepatomegaly causes the liver to extend below the costal margin, making it palpable on deep
inspiration.