EURO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

SESSION (2025-26) CLASS – X

SUBJECT- [Link] CODE: - PB-3 (10/2)
DATE: TIME- 3 HRS. M. M. - 80
STUDENT’S NAME- ROLL NO.-

General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science,
and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question
should not exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should
not exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should
not exceed 120 words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks
each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2
marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks).
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be
attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually
Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions
are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.

SECTION-A

HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Match the following concepts with their correct descriptions and choose the correct option:

Column I Column II (Description)

(Concept)
A. Absolutist 1. A vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to
actually exist.
 B. Utopian 2. When an abstract idea is expressed through a person or a
thing.
C. Allegory 3. A government or system of rule that has no restraints on the
power exercised.
D. Plebiscite 4. A direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to
accept or reject a proposal.
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

2. In the image below, Giuseppe Mazzini is seen founding an underground society in Berne in
1833. What was his core belief regarding the formation of nations?

(a) That nations should be formed as a patchwork of small states and kingdoms.
(b) That monarchy was the best form of government for a nation.
(c) That God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind.
(d) That nations should be formed based on a single common language only.

3. What was the ‘elle’, the unit of measurement, used for in the German-speaking regions
in the first half of the nineteenth century?
(a) Grain (b) Land
(c) Cloth (d) Currency

4. The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary was a patchwork of many
different regions and peoples. Which of the following was NOT one of the groups living
within the boundaries of the empire?
(a) Bohemians and Slovaks (b) Croats and Romans
(c) French and Spanish (d) Slovenes and Magyars
5. A. ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold,’ remarked Metternich.
Explain this statement with reference to the impact of revolutionary ideas in Europe.
or
B. ‘The memory of the French Revolution continued to inspire liberals in Europe.’
Explain this statement by highlighting one major issue taken up by liberal-nationalists
against the conservative order.

6. A. ‘The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and
territorial expansion.’ Support the statement with examples of cultural contributions.
or
B. The period after 1848 saw nationalism in Europe move away ‘from its association with
democracy and revolution.’ Justify this statement with the example of German
unification.

7. A. ‘The new middle class played a crucial role in the rise of nationalism in Europe.’
Analyze this statement.
or
B. ‘The formation of the nation-state in Britain was a strange case, different from the
rest of Europe.’ Analyze this statement.

8. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit
of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state
and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family –
should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society
of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that
modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. In 1815,
representatives of the European powers met at Vienna to draw up the Treaty of Vienna,
with the object of undoing most of the changes from the Napoleonic wars. The main
intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown. The conservative
regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and
sought to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of their governments, often
imposing censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays and songs.
1. According to the source, what traditional institutions did conservatives believe should be
preserved?
2. What was the main object of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
3. Analyze the dual nature of the conservative regimes set up in 1815, which embraced some
modern changes while remaining autocratic.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2 marks)

9. Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Peasant Satyagraha in Gujarat.
(B) Jallianwalla Bagh incident.

SECTION-B

GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. What is the primary role of forests in the ecological system?

(a) They are secondary consumers on which other beings depend.
(b) They primarily provide land for agricultural expansion.
(c) They are the primary producers on which all other living beings depend.
(d) They only serve as habitats for human communities.

11. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding the classification of
forests.

Forest Type Description

? Regarded as the most valuable for conservation.
Protected Forest ?
(a) Unclassed Forest, Wastelands belonging to government and private individuals
(b) Reserved Forest, Forest lands protected from any further depletion
(c) Permanent Forest, Other forests and wastelands
(d) Community Forest, Forests managed by local communities

12. In the Alwar district of Rajasthan, the inhabitants of five villages have declared 1,200
hectares of forest as the Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’. They have their own set of rules
which do not allow hunting and protect the wildlife against outside encroachments.
What is the most significant inference that can be drawn from this action?
(a) Government involvement is always necessary for successful conservation.
(b) Local communities can play a vital role in protecting habitats, sometimes even
rejecting government involvement.
(c) Conservation efforts are only successful in states with high forest cover.
(d) Economic development is more important than wildlife protection for local villagers.

13. Based on your understanding of wildlife conservation in India, which of the following
was a significant legal framework implemented in 1972 with various provisions for
protecting habitats and an all-India list of protected species?
(a) The Indian Forest Act
 (b) The Environmental Protection Act
(c) The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act
(d) The National Forest Policy

14. Which of the following traditional practices involves the worship and preservation of
virgin forests in their pristine form, referred to as ‘the forests of God and Goddesses’ ?
(a) Joint Forest Management (JFM)
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Beej Bachao Andolan
(d) Sacred Groves

15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary objective of the Joint
Forest Management (JFM) programme introduced in 1988?
(a) To transfer complete ownership of forests from the government to private corporations.
(b) To focus solely on planting commercial timber species for industrial use.
(c) To involve local communities in the management and restoration of degraded forests.
(d) To declare all degraded forest lands as wastelands unfit for any use.

16. State any two ways in which the biological loss of forests and wildlife has led to the
cultural loss of indigenous communities.

17. A. “The destruction of forests and wildlife is not just a biological issue.” Justify this
statement by evaluating five ways in which human activities have led to the depletion
of flora and fauna.
or
B. “Community participation is crucial for the effective conservation of forests and
wildlife.” Justify this statement by evaluating five examples of community involvement
in conservation efforts in India.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the authorities realised that
the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the
century. The major threats to the tiger population are numerous, such as poaching for trade,
shrinking habitat, depletion of prey base species, and growing human population. The trade
of tiger skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in Asian countries,
left the tiger population on the verge of extinction. Since India and Nepal provide habitat to
about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population, they became prime targets for poaching.
”Project Tiger”, one of the most well-publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was
launched in 1973. Initially, it showed great success. However, conservation projects are now
focusing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its components. There is now a more intensive
 search for different conservation measures. In the notification under the Wildlife Act of 1980
and 1986, several hundred butterflies, moths, beetles, and one dragonfly have been added to
the list of protected species. In 1991, plants were also added to this list for the first time.
1. What was the estimated tiger population in 1973 when Project Tiger was launched?
2. Mention any one major threat to the tiger population as described in the passage.
3. “Conservation projects are now focusing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its
components.” Analyse the shift in conservation strategy mentioned in this statement.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (3 marks)

19. On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbols.
I. (p) The leading producer state of rice.
or
(q) The leading producer state of sugarcane.
II. Any two of the following:
(i) Mumbai Port
(ii) Hyderabad International Airport
(iii) Tehri Dam

SECTION-C

POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true when comparing democratic and non-
democratic governments?
I. Democratic governments are more accountable to their citizens.
II. Non-democratic rulers do not have to bother about public opinion.
III. Decision-making is always faster and more efficient in a democracy.
IV. A democratic government is a legitimate
government. Choose the correct option:
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) All of the above

21. The map shows that the Sinhala-speakers are a majority in Sri Lanka. After independence,
the leaders of this community sought to secure dominance over the government. What is this
belief in majority community rule called?
 (a) Accommodation (b) Federalism
(c) Majoritarianism (d) Secularism

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option-
In a district in rural India, all the Panchayat Samitis come together to form the apex local
government body. Members of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district are also its
members.
What is this body called?
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat
(c) State Government (d) Zilla Parishad

23. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements
and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Caste alone cannot determine election results in India.
Reason (R): No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one
single caste, so every candidate needs to win the confidence of more than one community.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

24. What are the criteria for a political party to be recognised as a ‘National Party’ in India?
25. ‘The Belgian model of accommodation is considered a successful example of managing
ethnic diversity.’ Highlight any two key elements of this model that ensured peace.

26. ‘Democracy’s ability to handle social differences, divisions, and conflicts is a definite
plus point.’ Support this statement with two suitable arguments.

27. A. ‘The proportion of women in Indian legislatures is very low, which has led to
demands for their fair representation.’ Explain the status of women’s representation
and the steps taken to address it.
or
B. ‘Political parties need to face and overcome several serious challenges to remain effective
instruments of democracy.’ Analyse any five such challenges.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions.
India’s language policy was a second major test for its federation. Our Constitution did
not give the status of a national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the
official language, but it is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians.
Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there
are 22 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages. The Central Government
responded to the demands of non-Hindi speaking states by agreeing to continue the use
of English along with Hindi for official purposes. This flexibility helped our country avoid
the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
1. What is the official language of India as identified in the Constitution?
2. How many languages, besides Hindi, are recognised as ‘Scheduled Languages’ ?
3. Explain how the flexibility of India’s language policy has strengthened its federal
structure.

SECTION-D

ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. A shoe manufacturer writes a paper instructing their bank to pay a specific amount to a
leather supplier from their account. This transaction is an example of:
(a) A barter system exchange (b) A payment using a cheque
(c) A loan from an informal source (d) A withdrawal of cash from the bank

30. What is a significant limitation of the informal credit sector?

(a) Lenders charge very low interest rates.
(b) There is no organization that supervises the credit activities of lenders.
(c) Borrowers are required to provide extensive documentation.
(d) It is mainly accessible to rich households.
31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates how Self-Help Groups (SHGs) help
women become financially self-reliant?
(a) Women take loans from a moneylender for household expenses.
(b) Women get a loan from a bank by providing land as collateral.
(c) A group of women pool their regular savings to give small loans to members, making
them eligible for bank loans later.
(d) Women work for a landowner who provides them with credit when needed.

32. In a modern economy, what constitutes the “stock of money”?

(a) Only the currency held by the public.
(b) The value of all assets like land and buildings.
(c) Currency held by the public and their demand deposits in banks.
(d) Only the demand deposits held by the public in banks.

33. The poor are often prevented from getting bank loans due to the absence of assets to
use as a guarantee. Which of the following is designed to specifically overcome this
problem of a lack of collateral?
(a) Taking loans from moneylenders
(b) The use of cheques for payments
(c) The formation of Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
(d) The government’s demonetization policy

34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the components of ‘Terms of
Credit’.

Column A Column B (Description)

(Component)
1. Interest Rate i. The manner in which a loan is to be paid back, e.g.,
monthly instalments.
2. Collateral ii. Papers showing employment records, salary, etc.
3. Documentation iii. An asset owned by the borrower used as a guarantee to
the lender.
4. Mode of Repayment iv. A specified rate which the borrower must pay along with
the principal.

Choose the correct option:

(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
(b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
(c) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
(d) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
35. Evaluate the importance of ‘demand deposits’ in the modern economy.

36. ‘Higher cost of borrowing is a key feature of the informal credit sector.’ Justify this
statement with its consequences.

37. Highlight the three main reasons why getting a loan from a bank is often difficult for poor
households.

38. A. Megha has taken a loan of Rs 5 lakhs from a bank to purchase a house, which is to be
repaid over 10 years at a 12% annual interest rate. On the basis of her case, analyse the
key components that constitute the ‘terms of credit’.
or
B. “For the country’s development, it is essential that the total formal sector credit
increases, and it is also necessary that everyone receives these loans.” Support this
statement with arguments.