GE3181 Drilling Engineering
Drilling Hydraulics
Dung Trung Tran, PhD
GEOPET, HCMUT
Fall 2024
Purpose
• Provide students hydraulics calculations and
applications in drilling
Content
• Chapter 4 ADE textbook
Newton 2 nd law on a fluid element
At depth (TVD) D: D = 0; p = po
F1 = pA
F2 = (p+ (dp/dD)D) A
F3 = mg = g(AD)
D
𝐹 = 0
𝑑𝑝
= 𝜌𝑔
𝑑𝐷
Incompressible fluid column
𝑑𝑝
= 𝜌𝑔
𝑑𝐷
p0 = p(D=0)
→ p(D) = p0 + gD
In Field units:
12 𝑝𝑠𝑖
𝑝 𝑝𝑠𝑖 = 𝑝0 𝑝𝑠𝑖 + ∙ 𝜌 𝑝𝑝𝑔 ∙ 𝐷(𝑓𝑡)
231 𝑝𝑝𝑔. 𝑓𝑡
0.052
Equivalent Mudweight (EMW)
• In drilling hydraulics calculations, drillers
interchangeably use EMW as a proxy for pressure:
𝑝 − 𝑝0
𝐸𝑀𝑊 =
0.052𝐷
Compressible fluid column
𝑑𝑝
= 𝜌𝑔
𝑑𝐷
• Real gas law: pV = znRT (z: gas deviation factor)
use: number of mole: n = m/MW
(where: MW = gas molecular weight)
then
𝑚 𝑝(𝑀𝑊)
𝜌= =
𝑉 𝑧𝑅𝑇
Unit conversion: Find the dimensional constant for the density equation if
density in ppg; pressure p in psia, MW in lbm/lbmol; T in °R; and universal gas
constant R = 10.73 psi.ft3/(lbmol.°R)
Compressible fluid column
𝑑𝑝 𝑝(𝑀𝑊)
= 𝜌𝑔 𝜌=
𝑧𝑅𝑇
𝑑𝐷
𝑑𝑝 (𝑀𝑊)
= 𝑑𝐷
𝑝 𝑧𝑅𝑇
• Assume: constant z, T over the range of integration
𝑀𝑊(𝐷 − 𝐷0 )
𝑝 = 𝑝0 𝑒𝑥𝑝
𝑧𝑅𝑇
In Field Units:
𝑀𝑊(𝐷 − 𝐷0 )
𝑝 = 𝑝0 𝑒𝑥𝑝
1544𝑧𝑇
Example
• Consider a 10,000 ft column of methane. At the
surface, the conditions are:
p0 = 1000 psia; z = 1; T = 140°F
a) Calculate Pressure at 10,000 ft
b) Density at the surface
c) Density at 10,000 ft
d) Given p @ 10,000ft = 8,000 psia; what is p0 at the surface?
Solution
a) Pressure at 10,000 ft
𝑀𝑊(𝐷 − 𝐷0 )
𝑝 = 𝑝0 𝑒𝑥𝑝 = ⋯ = 1188 𝑝𝑠𝑖𝑎
1544𝑧𝑇
b) Density at the surface:
𝑝0 (𝑀𝑊)
𝜌0 = = ⋯ = 0.331 ppg
𝑧𝑅𝑇
c) Density at 10,000 ft
𝑝(𝑀𝑊)
𝜌= = ⋯ = 0.395 ppg
𝑧𝑅𝑇
Complex fluid column
Complex liquid column:
pi = pi-1 + gLi
After adding pressures by n columns
𝑝𝑛 = 𝑝0 + 0.052 𝜌𝑖 (𝐷𝑖 − 𝐷𝑖−1 )
𝑖=1
Example: max pumping pressure
during a cementing job
pa = ???
View the well as a manometer
Advanced: Effects of entrained
solids & gases in drilling fluid
• The drilling fluid in the annulus also contain:
• Rock cuttings
• Average density
• Finely divided gas (e.g. drilling through a gas formation)
• Gas bubbles with decreasing density as the mud goes up
• Returned mud with lower density due to “gas cut”
• Iteration required
• Example 4.5 p 117 ADE
Pipe dimension & weight look up
• Softwares:
• SLB i-handbook
• Halliburton eRedbook
• What can we do with the softwares:
• Drill pipes, casing, coiled tubing, drill collars
• Dimensions, weight, strengths
• Volume calculations (capacity, annulus capacity)
• Simple well schematic
• Jargons
Example (past final exam question!)
Without looking up the table, estimate the inside
diameter (inner diameter or ID) of
8-5/8” 38#/ft L-80 casing.
Given: casing (steel) density = 7850 kg/m3
Unit conversion:
s = 7850 kg/m3 = … = 490 lbm/ft3 =…. = ??? ppg?
Example Solution
• OD = 8.625 (in); weight per foot = 38 lbm/ft
consider a 1-ft portion of this casing: 1ft
m = 36 lbm = steel x Volume
= steel x Cross-sectional area x height
𝝅 𝑓𝑡 2
= 490 lbm/ft3 x 𝑶𝑫𝟐 − 𝑰𝑫𝟐 𝒊𝒏𝟐 x(1ft)
𝟒 144𝑖𝑛2
𝑶𝑫𝟐 − 𝑰𝑫𝟐 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟒𝟕
ID = 7.805 (in)
Note: this estimated value is slightly smaller than the nominal ID (7.825”) due to the
fact that the Wt/ft already accounts for the coupling weight.
Buoyancy
• Buoyance force = Weight of the replaced fluid
• Effective (Buoyed) Weight of a drillstring or casing
string in a column of single fluid:
We = W (1 – f/s)
• Average density of steel:
• s = 7850 kg/m3 = … = 490 lbm/ft3 =…. = ??? ppg?
Example
• 10,000 ft of 19.5 lbm/ft drillpipe & 600 ft of 147
lbm/ft drill collars are suspended (off the the
bottom) in a 15 ppg drilling mud. Calculate the
effective hook load that must be supported by the
derrick.
Solution
1. Weight in air of the drillstring:
W = (10,000 ft)x 19.5 lbm/ft + (600 ft)x 147 lbm/ft = ….
2. The effective weight of the drillstring in 15ppg mud
column:
We = W (1 – f/s) = … = 218,300 lbm
3. The effective hook load is …. 218,300 lbf
Flow rate example
• 12 ppg mud is being pumped at 400 gal/min
through a drillstring:
• Drillpipe: OD 5”; ID = 4.33”
• Drill collar: ID = 2.25”
• Bit: 9.875”
• Sketch the system and Calculate the average
velocity:
• In the Drillpipe
• In the Drill Collar (DC)
• In the annulus opposite the drillpipe
Solution
• Step 1: calculate the cross-sectional areas:
𝜋
• In the drillpipe: ADP = 𝐼𝐷𝐷𝑟𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑝𝑖𝑝𝑒 2
4
𝜋
• In the drill collar: ADC = 𝐼𝐷𝐷𝑟𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑐𝑜𝑙𝑙𝑎𝑟 2
4
𝜋
• In the annulus opposite the DP: ADP-BH = (𝐷ℎ𝑜𝑙𝑒 2 − 𝑂𝐷𝐷𝑟𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑝𝑖𝑝𝑒 2 )
4
• Step 2: Calculate the average velocities v = q/A
𝑔𝑎𝑙
400𝑚𝑖𝑛 231𝑖𝑛3 𝑓𝑡 𝑚𝑖𝑛
• In the drillpipe: 𝑣𝑑𝑝 = 𝜋 = 8.715 ft/s
(4.33)2 𝑖𝑛2 𝑔𝑎𝑙 12𝑖𝑛 60𝑠
4
𝑓𝑡
• Do the same for 𝑣𝑑𝑐 = ⋯ = 32.276
𝑠
𝑣𝑑𝑝𝑎 =… = 2.253 ft/s
Effect of Buoyancy force on
drillstring – Buckling phenomenon
• Long slender pipes have
low resistance to bending
moment, can buckle with
axial compression
Axial Force balance
Force balance for a drill
pipe element
Force balance for a drill
collar element
Plot axial force vs depth
Buckling & the need of Drill Collar
• Buckling forces are resisted by the moment of
inertia of the pipe, eg
𝜋
•𝐼= 𝑂𝐷4 − 𝐼𝐷4
64
• The DC length to eliminate buckling tendency of
the drillpipe is (Goins, 1980)
𝐹𝑏
𝐿𝐷𝐶 = 𝑆𝐹 𝜌𝑓
𝑤𝑑𝑐 (1 − )
where, 𝜌𝑠
SF: safety factor ~1.3
Fb : weight on bit (lbf)
wdc: weight per foot of DC (lbf/ft)
Example:
• Drilling at 10,600’ with 15 ppg drilling mud
• 5” DP with ID = 4.206in 19.5 #/ft
• 8” DC with ID = 3 in
• Expected maximum bit weight is 68,000 lbf
Calculate the minimum length of drill collars to
prevent buckling of the drill pipe
Solution
• Weight per foot of DC: wdc = g steel x A
𝜋
= 490 lbf/ft3 x (𝑂𝐷𝐷𝐶 2 − 𝐼𝐷𝐷𝐶 2 )=… = 147 lbf/ft
4
Required Length of drill collars to prevent buckling:
𝐹𝑏 68,000 𝑙𝑏𝑓
𝐿𝐷𝐶 = 𝑆𝐹 𝜌𝑓 = 1.3 15𝑝𝑝𝑔
𝑤𝑑𝑐 (1− 𝜌 ) 147 𝑙𝑏𝑓/𝑓𝑡(1− )
𝑠 𝑙𝑏𝑚 𝑓𝑡3 231𝑖𝑛3
490 3
𝑓𝑡 123 𝑖𝑛3 𝑔𝑎𝑙
= 780 ft
Note: without the SF, the LDC = 600 ft, similar to our earlier example
Energy consideration
for a generalized flow system
𝐹∆𝐿 = 𝑝𝐴∆𝐿 = 𝑝𝑉
at point 1
𝐸1 + 𝑝1 𝑉ത1 Enthalpy per unit mass of the fluid entering the system
−𝑔𝐷1 Potential energy per unit mass of the fluid entering the system
𝑣ҧ1 2 /2 Kinetic energy per unit mass of the fluid entering the system
Similarly, at point 2
𝐸2 + 𝑝2 𝑉ത2 Enthalpy per unit mass of the fluid leaving the system
−𝑔𝐷2 Potential energy per unit mass of the fluid leaving the system
𝑣ҧ 2 2 /2 Kinetic energy per unit mass of the fluid leaving the system
So, for one unit mass of fluid moving from point 1 to point 2
ENERGY IN – ENERGY OUT = WORK DONE + HEAT GAINED
∆𝑣 2
∆𝐸 − 𝑔∆𝐷 + + ∆ 𝑝𝑉ത = 𝑊 + 𝑄
2
W: work done on the fluid (by the pump)
Q: heat gained by the fluid
Define: friction loss = change in internal energy of the fluid + heat gained by the fluid
(~ lost Work or energy wasted by viscous forces within the flowing fluid)
2
note unit: energy per unit
𝐹𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 = ∆𝐸 + න 𝑝𝑑 𝑉ത − 𝑄
mass
1
& assuming mud being an incompressible fluid, the energy equation can be rewritten as
∆𝒗𝟐
∆𝒑 − 𝝆𝒈∆𝑫 + 𝝆 = ∆𝒑𝒑𝒖𝒎𝒑 − ∆𝒑𝒇𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒔
𝟐
Example:
• Determine the pressure at the bottom of the
drillstring at 10,000 ft TVD, given:
• Mud density 12ppg
• Mud flow rate 400 gal/min
• Mud pressure increase by the pump: 3000 psi
• Friction pressure loss in the drillstring: 1400 psi
• Drill collars at the bottom of the drillstring: 2.5” ID
Solution:
∆𝒗𝟐
∆𝒑 − 𝝆𝒈∆𝑫 + 𝝆 = ∆𝒑𝒑𝒖𝒎𝒑 − ∆𝒑𝒇𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒔
𝟐
or,
𝒗𝟐 𝟐 − 𝒗𝟏 𝟐
𝒑𝟐 = 𝒑𝟏 + 𝝆𝒈 𝑫𝟐 − 𝑫𝟏 −𝝆 + ∆𝒑𝒑𝒖𝒎𝒑 − ∆𝒑𝒇𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒔
𝟐
p1 = atmospheric pressure = 0 (psig)
D2 – D1 = 10,000 ft; = 12 ppg
V1 = ~0 (average mud velocity in the mud tank)
𝑔𝑎𝑙
𝑞 400𝑚𝑖𝑛 231𝑖𝑛3 𝑓𝑡 𝑚𝑖𝑛
V2 = 𝑣𝑑𝑐 = =𝜋 = 26.14 ft/s (mud velocity in the drill collars)
𝐴𝐷𝐶 (2.5)2 𝑖𝑛2 𝑔𝑎𝑙 12𝑖𝑛 60𝑠
4
ppump = 3,000 psi (given)
pfriction loss = 1,400 psi (given)
• Now everything left is unit conversion
𝒗𝟐 𝟐 − 𝒗𝟏 𝟐
𝒑𝟐 = 𝒑𝟏 + 𝝆𝒈 𝑫𝟐 − 𝑫𝟏 −𝝆 + ∆𝒑𝒑𝒖𝒎𝒑 − ∆𝒑𝒇𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒔 = ⋯ = 𝟕𝟖𝟒𝟎 𝒑𝒔𝒊𝒈
𝟐
The kinetic energy caused by fluid acceleration term:
𝒗𝟐 𝟐 − 𝒗𝟏 𝟐
𝝆
𝟐
𝒍𝒃𝒎 𝟐𝟔. 𝟏𝟒𝟐 𝒇𝒕𝟐 /𝒔𝟐 𝒈𝒂𝒍 𝟏𝟐𝒊𝒏 𝒍𝒃𝒇
= 𝟏𝟐
𝒈𝒂𝒍 𝟐 𝟐𝟑𝟏𝒊𝒏𝟑 𝒇𝒕 𝟑𝟐. 𝟏𝟕𝟒 𝒍𝒃𝒎 . 𝒇𝒕/𝒔𝟐
= 6.6 psi
is small compared to other energy terms and can be ignored, except…flow through bit
nozzles
Flow through bit nozzles
2
∆𝑝𝑏 = 𝑝1 − 𝑝2
Pressure drop
across the bit
For one unit mass of fluid moving from point 1 to point 2
∆𝑣 2
∆𝐸 − 𝑔∆𝐷 + + ∆ 𝑝𝑉ത = 𝑊 + 𝑄
2
Flow through jet bits (nozzles)
• Potential head ~ = 0
𝒗 𝟐−𝒗 𝟐
• No work done W = 0 𝒑𝟐 = 𝒑𝟏 − 𝝆
𝟐 𝟏
𝟐
• Friction loss ~=0
• v1 = q/ADC << v2 = q/(TFA) (prove this)
where, TFA Total Flow Area of a bit = (number of
nozzles) x (cross-sectional area of one nozzle)
Drill bits have N nozzles whose sizes are in 32-th of an inch
For example, 12 ¼ bit used for Manora-1 (7 14/32” nozzles):
𝜋 14 2
TFA = 7 × 4 32 𝑖𝑛 =1.052 in2
Manora-1 well 12 ¼” bit
Nozzle velocity, in reality
2∆𝑝𝑏
“Ideal”: 𝑣𝑛 = 𝜌 ;
2∆𝑝𝑏
𝑣𝑛 = 𝐶𝑑
𝜌 ;
for Field units: vn (ft/s); pb (psi) & (ppg);
∆𝑝𝑏
then 𝑣𝑛 = 𝐶𝑑
8.073×10−4 𝜌
Cd = discharge coefficient (~0.95), from experiments
𝑞
We know that 𝑣𝑛 =
𝑇𝐹𝐴
𝜌𝑞2
Thus, the pressure drop across the bit ∆𝑝𝑏 =
2(𝐶𝑑 )2 (𝑇𝐹𝐴)2
Impact Force on the rock at the
bottom of the hole
Consider only flow in vertical direction:
Mud is traveling at vn when leaving (one) nozzle
then right after striking the hole bottom, vertical velocity is zero.
Newton 2nd law for the net force acting on the jet
Fz = 𝜌𝑞∆𝑣𝑥 = −𝜌𝑞𝑣𝑛
2∆𝑝𝑏
We have: 𝑣𝑛 = 𝐶𝑑 𝜌 ;
Newton 3rd law, the (vertical) impact force the jet acting on the rock at hole bottom is
𝐹𝑧 = 2𝐶𝑑 𝑞 𝜌∆𝑝𝑏
Example
• 12ppg drilling mud pumped at 400 gal/min through
the bit that has 3 nozzles of (13/32) inch.
• Calculate:
a) the pressure drop across the bit
b) the impact force on the rock formation at
the hole bottom.
Solution
a) 𝜋 13 2
Total flow area: TFA = 3 × 4 32 𝑖𝑛 = 0.3889 in2
Pressure drop across the bit:
𝜌𝑞 2
∆𝑝𝑏 =
2(𝐶𝑑 )2 (𝑇𝐹𝐴)2
12 𝑙𝑏𝑚/𝑔𝑎𝑙 × 4002 𝑔𝑎𝑙/𝑚𝑖𝑛 2
= ×
2 0.95 2 0.3889 2 𝑖𝑛4
231𝑖𝑛3 𝑓𝑡 𝑚𝑖𝑛2 𝑙𝑏𝑓
× 𝑔𝑎𝑙 12𝑖𝑛 3600𝑠 2 32.174𝑙𝑏𝑚.𝑓𝑡/𝑠 2
= 1,169 psi
Solution:
From previous slide, the pressure drop across the bit:
𝜌𝑞2
∆𝑝𝑏 = 2 2 =… = 1169 psi
2(𝐶𝑑 ) (𝑇𝐹𝐴)
The impact force on the rock formation at the hole
bottom.
𝐹𝑧 = 2𝐶𝑑 𝑞 𝜌∆𝑝𝑏
𝑔𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑏𝑚 𝑙𝑏𝑓 231𝑖𝑛3 𝑓𝑡 𝑚𝑖𝑛2 𝑙𝑏𝑓
= 2(0.95)(400) 12 1169 2
𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑔𝑎𝑙 𝑖𝑛 𝑔𝑎𝑙 12𝑖𝑛 3600𝑠 2 32.174𝑙𝑏𝑚. 𝑓𝑡/𝑠 2
= 821 lbf
Frictional pressure loss
for fluid flow in pipe & annulus
Drilling Fluid &/or cement Flow regime
rheology
Assumptions for pf derivations
• Drillstring is placed concentrically in the open hole
or inside the casing
• Drillstring is not being rotated
• Drilling fluid is incompressible
• Isothermal flow
Velocity profile for laminar flow
Pipe flow (r1 =0; r2 = pipe ID/2) Annular flow
r1 = pipe OD/2;
𝑑𝑝𝑓
r2 = open hole radius, or casing ID/2
1
𝑣 𝑟 = 4𝜇 𝑟2 2 − 𝑟 2 𝑑𝑝𝑓
𝑑𝐿 1 ln 𝑟2 /𝑟
𝑣 𝑟 = 4𝜇 𝑟2 2 − 𝑟 2 − 𝑟2 2 − 𝑟1 2
𝑑𝐿 ln 𝑟2 /𝑟1
Note: Fluid Velocity is 0 at pipe and annulus’ walls.
Newtonian, laminar flow
(Lamb’s equation)
• Average velocity = flow rate / cross-sectional area
𝑣ҧ = 𝑞/𝐴 So 𝑞 = 𝐴𝑣ҧ = 𝑣 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟
Pipe flow: 𝜋 𝑑𝑝𝑓
𝑞= 𝑟2 4
8𝜇 𝑑𝐿
𝑑𝑝𝑓 32𝜇 𝑣ҧ 𝜇 𝑣ҧ 𝑝𝑠𝑖 𝑖𝑛2
= =
𝑑𝐿 𝐼𝐷2 1496𝐼𝐷2 𝑓𝑡 𝑐𝑝. 𝑓𝑡/𝑠
Annular flow: 2−𝑟 2 2
𝜋 𝑑𝑝𝑓 𝑟2 1
𝑞= 𝑟2 4 − 𝑟1 4 −
8𝜇 𝑑𝐿 ln 𝑟2 /𝑟1
𝑑𝑝𝑓 𝜇 𝑣ҧ 𝑝𝑠𝑖 𝑖𝑛2
=
𝑑𝐿 2 2 𝑑2 2 − 𝑑1 2 𝑓𝑡 𝑐𝑝. 𝑓𝑡/𝑠
1496 𝑑2 + 𝑑1 −
ln 𝑑2 /𝑑1
(Narrow) Slot flow approximation
for annular flow
• For d1/d2 (= r1/r2) > 0.3; the annular flow can be
approximated as slot flow, and the equation for
friction loss (Newtonian, laminar flow) is
𝑑𝑝𝑓 12𝜇 𝑣ҧ 𝜇 𝑣ҧ 𝑝𝑠𝑖 𝑖𝑛2
= 2
= 2
𝑑𝐿 𝑟2 − 𝑟1 997.5 𝑑2 − 𝑑1 𝑓𝑡 𝑐𝑝. 𝑓𝑡/𝑠
Example
• Calculate the friction pressure loss for 15cP 9ppg
Newtonian fluid circulated at 80 gal/min in the annulus
(CSG of 7” ID & DP of 5” OD) in a 10,000 ft vertical well.
• Solution:
- check d1/d2 = 5/7 >0.3 → can use slot flow approximation)
- average flow in the annulus: v = q/A =… = 1.362 ft/s
- friction pressure loss gradient:
𝑑𝑝𝑓 𝜇𝑣ത 𝑝𝑠𝑖 𝑖𝑛2
= =…= 0.00512 psi/ft
𝑑𝐿 997.5 𝑑2 −𝑑1 2 𝑓𝑡 𝑐𝑝.𝑓𝑡/𝑠
- Friction pressure loss over the length of the well:
pf = 51 psi