04-06-2025

6001CMD30303125001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that a ray of light incident of the first mirror
(M1) and parallel to the second mirror (M2) is finally reflected from the second mirror (M2) parallel to
the first mirror (M1). The angle between the two mirrors will be :

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 75°
(4) 60°

2) The frequency of incident ray is 3 × 108 Hz. The frequency after reflection-

(1) Decrease
(2) Remain same
(3) Increases
(4) Either 1 or 3

3) A ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be –

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) Will not be reflected
(4) None of these

4) A ray is incident at 30° angle on plane mirror. What will be deviation after reflection from mirror.

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

5) A man is 180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm below the top of his head. In order to see his entire
height right from toe to head, he uses a plane mirror kept at a distance of 1 m from him. The
minimum length of the plane mirror required is

(1) 180 cm
(2) 90 cm
(3) 85 cm
(4) 170 cm

6) If two mirrors are kept at 60° to each other, then the number of images formed by them is-
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

7) Two mirrors labelled L1 for left mirror and L2 for right mirror in the figure are parallel to each
other and 3.0 m apart. A person standing 1.0 m from the right mirror (L2) looks into this mirror and
sees a series of images. The second nearest image seen in the right mirror is situated at a distance :

(1) 2.0 m from the person

(2) 4.0 m from the person
(3) 6.0 m from the person
(4) 8.0 m from the person

8) A man runs towards a mirror at a speed 15 m/s. The speed of the image relative to the man is :-

(1) 15 ms–1
(2) 30 ms–1
(3) 35 ms–1
(4) 20 ms–1

9) Which of the following could not produce a virtual image :

(1) Plane mirror

(2) Convex mirror
(3) Concave mirror
(4) All the above can produce a virtual image

10) A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the
awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is

(1) –20 cm
(2) –30 cm
(3) –40 cm
(4) –60 cm
11) A convex mirror has a radius of curvature of 22 cm. If an object is placed 14 cm away from the
mirror then its image is formed at -

(1) 6.2 cm on the front side of the mirror

(2) 6.2 cm on the back side of the mirror.
(3) 51.3 cm on the front of the mirror.
(4) 51.3 cm on the back side of the mirror.

12) The focal length of a convex mirror is 20 cm its radius of curvature will be

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

13) The focal length of a concave mirror is 50 cm, where an object be placed so that its image is two
times magnified, real and inverted :-

(1) 75 cm
(2) 72 cm
(3) 63 cm
(4) 50 cm

14) In a concave mirror experiment, an object is placed at a distance x1 from the focus and the image
is formed at a distance x2 from the focus. The focal length of the mirror would be :-

(1) x1x2
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A beam of monochromatic blue light of wavelength 4200Å in air travels in water ( ). Its
wavelength in water will be

(1) 2800 Å
(2) 5600 Å
(3) 3150 Å
(4) 4000 Å

16) Velocity of light in glass, whose refractive index w.r.t. air is 1.5, is 2 × 108 m/sec. In a certain
liquid the velocity of light is found to be 2.5 × 108 m/sec. The refractive index of liquid w.r.t. air is

(1) 0.64
(2) 0.80
(3) 1.20
(4) 1.44

17) A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of
refraction at the first face (i.e., incident face) of the prism is

(1) Zero
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

18) The bottom of a container filled with liquid appears slightly raised because of

(1) Refraction
(2) Interference
(3) Diffraction
(4) Reflection

19) Determine the direction in which a fish under water see the setting sun with respect to the
horizontal. Refractive index of water is 2

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

20) An object is placed at 24 cm distance above the surface of a lake. If water has refractive index of
4/3, then at what distance from lake surface, a fish will sight the object -

(1) 32 cm above the surface of water

(2) 18 cm over the surface of water
(3) 6 cm over the surface of water
(4) 6 cm below the surface of water

21) A glass slab (μ = 1.5) of thickness 2cm is placed on a spot. The shift of spot if it is viewed from
top.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Brilliance of diamond is due to

(1) Shape
(2) Cutting
(3) Reflection
(4) T.I.R.

23) One of the refracting surfaces of a prism of angle 30° is silvered. A ray of light incident at angle
of 60° retraces its path. The refractive index of the material of prism is

(1)
(2)
(3) 3/2
(4) 2

24) A small angle prism (µ = 1.62) gives a minimum deviation of 4.8°. The angle of prism is :-

(1) 7.74°
(2) 5°
(3) 6.36°
(4) 3°

25) A concave lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has both surfaces of same radius of curvature R.
On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave as a :-

(1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

(2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

26) A lens of focal length f is cut into two halves by a vertical plane the focal length of each half is

(1) f
(2) f/2
(3) 2f
(4) None of these

27) We wish to make a planoconvex lens of focal length 16 cm from glass having refractive index 1.5.
It is to be used in air. What should be the radius of curvature of the curved surface?

(1) 24 cm
(2) 16 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 12 cm

28) The focal length of convex lens is 2.5 cm. Its magnifying power for minimum distance of distinct
vision will be:

(1) 25
(2) 52
(3) 11
(4) 1.1

29) An object is located at 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. Find the position
and nature of image :-

(1) 60 cm, real

(2) 60 cm, virtual
(3) 5.45 cm, virtual
(4) 5.45 cm, real

30) Two thin lens of power +4D and –2D is kept in contact. Equivalent focus length of the
combination is :-

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 50 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 20 cm

31) Focal length of simple microscope is 2.5 cm. Find out its magnifying power when image is (a) At
minimum distance of distinct vision (b) at infinite:-

(1) 11, 10
(2) 10, 11
(3) 12, 13
(4) 13, 14

32) A convex lens is immersed in a liquid, whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of
the material of the lens. Then its focal length will

(1) Decreases
(2) Becomes zero
(3) Become infinite
(4) Remains the same

33) The magnifying power of the objective of a compound microscope is 7 if the magnifying power of
the microscope is 35, then the magnifying power of eyepiece will be -

(1) 245
(2) 5
(3) 28
(4) 42

34) An object is placed at a distance of 16 cm. from the first principle focus of a convex lens
produces real image at a distance 25cm. from the second focus find out focal length of lens
(1) 20 cm.
(2) 40 cm.
(3) 30 cm.
(4) 5 cm.

35) For the two position of a single conversing lens we are getting image at the screen. What is focal

length of lens :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 25 cm

36) If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure :-

(1) No image will be formed by the remaining portion of the lens

(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens

37) When light is passed through a prism, the colour which deviates least is:

(1) Red
(2) Violet
(3) Blue
(4) Green

38) If refractive index of red, violet and yellow lights are 1.42, 1.62 and 1.50 respectively for a
medium. Its dispersive power will be.

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1
39) If the refractive index of a material of equilateral prism is √3, then angle of minimum deviation
of the prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

40) The wavelength of light in two liquids 'x' and 'y' is 3500 Å and 7000Å , then the critical angle
when light goes from denser medium to rarer medium will be

(1) 60°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 15°

41) Focal length and power of a plane mirror is :-

(1) Very less, very large.

(2) Infinite, infinite
(3) Zero, infinite
(4) Infinite, zero

42) A virtual image larger than the object can be obtained by

(1) Concave mirror

(2) Convex mirror
(3) Plane mirror
(4) None of these

43) Absolute refractive indices of glass and water are and . The ratio of velocity of light in glass
and water will be :-

(1) 4 : 3
(2) 8 : 7
(3) 8 : 9
(4) 3 : 4

44) Consider the object O placed between mirrors M1 and M2 as shown. Number of images formed
will be :

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

45) Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 40°. An object is placed in symmetrical position
between them. Calculate number of images :-

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 6

CHEMISTRY

1) For a given reaction 3A + B → C + D the rate of reaction can be represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

2) The half life period for catalytic decomposition of AB3 at 50 mm is found to be 4 hrs and at 100
mm it is 2 hrs. The order of reaction is:

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

3) A gaseous reaction A2(g) → B(g) + C(g) shows increases in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm in 5
minute. The rate of disappearance of A2 is :-

(1) 4 mm min–1
(2) 8 mm min–1
(3) 16 mm min–1
(4) 2 mm min–1

4) Which of these factors affect the value of the specific rate constant for the reaction 2A(g) →B (g) ?
(I) Concentration
(II) Pressure
(III) Temperature

(1) I, II and III

(2) II and III only
(3) I and II only
(4) III only

5) A gaseous hypothetical chemical equation 2A 4B + C is carried out in a closed vessel. The

concentration of B is found to increase by 5 × 10 mol l–1 in 10 second. The rate of appearance of B
–3

is :-

(1) 5 × 10–4 mol l–1 sec–1

(2) 5 × 10–5 mol l–1 sec–1
(3) 6 × 10–5 mol l–1 sec–1
(4) 4 × 10–4 mol l–1 sec–1

6) The rate constant, the activation energy and the pre-exponential factor of a chemical reaction at
25ºC are 8.0×10–4 s–1, 112 kJ mol–1 and 4×1015 s–1 respectively. The value of the rate constant as
is

(1) 8 × 1016 s–1

(2) 4 × 104 s–1
(3) 4 × 1015 s–1
(4) 112 × 1012 s–1

7) For the reaction 3A + 2B → C + 4D, which of the following does not express the rate of reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) For the given reaction

A(g) + 3B(g) → 2C(g)
The rate of the reaction is 3×10–3 M min–1. What is the rate of disappearance of B in M min–1 ?
(1) 3 × 10–3
(2) 9 × 10–3
(3) 10–3
(4) 1.5 × 10–3

9) The order of reaction whose rate constant is 2.3 × 10–5 L mol–1 s–1.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

10) For the reaction

A + B → product,
If rate is given as r = k[A] [B]. If B is taken in excess the order of reaction would be :

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) zero

(4)

11) For a first order reaction, find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3

12) If the rate of reaction increases by two times with every 10°C rise in temperature, then if we
raise the temperature by 40°C. The new rate of reaction will be

(1) 4 times
(2) 8 times
(3) 32 times
(4) 16 times

13) Given below are two statements-

Statement-1 : Number of reacting species taking part in an elementary reaction which must collide
simultaneously in order to bring about a chemical reaction is called molecularity of a reaction.
Statement-2 : Order of reaction is applicable to elementary reaction only and for complex reaction
order has no meaning.
(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true
(2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are false
(3) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false but statement-2 is true

14) For which of the following, the units of rate constant and rate of the reaction are same -

(1) First order reaction

(2) Second order reaction
(3) Third order reaction
(4) Zero order reaction

15) For a gaseous reaction the rate equation is

r = k[A][B]. If the volume of the gaseous system is suddenly reduced to 1/3 of initial volume. The
rate would become –

(1) 1/9 times

(2) 9 times
(3) 1/6 times
(4) 6 times

16) For a reaction, the rate constant is expressed as,

k = A.e–40000/T
The energy of the activation is -

(1) 40000 cal

(2) 88000 cal
(3) 80000 cal
(4) 8000 cal

17) Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B :

Rate mol L–1 s–1 [A] [B]

2 × 10–3 0.1 M 0.1 M
–3
4 × 10 0.2 M 0.1 M
–2
1.6 × 10 0.2 M 0.2 M
The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively are :
(1) 1, 0
(2) 0, 1
(3) 1, 2
(4) 2, 1

18) The rate constant k1 and k2 for two different reactions are 1016 e–2000/T and 1015 e–1000/T respectively.
The temperature at which k1 = k2 is :
(1) 2000 K
(2) 1000/2.303 K
(3) 1000 K
(4) 2000/2.303 K

19) The unit of rate constant for zero order reaction is

(1) mol L–1 s–1

(2) L mol–1 s–1
(3) mol–2 L2s–1
(4) s–1

20) The overall order of a reaction which has the rate expression, is

(1)

(2) –1

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Order of a reaction cannot be zero

(2) Molecularity is applicable to elementary as well as complex reaction
(3) Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex reactions
(4) For complex reaction, order is given by the fastest step

22) In a reaction, X + Y → product, if concentration of X is increased to three times then rate

increases by a factor of 3 and when the concentrations of both the reactants (X and Y) are tripled,
then rate increases by a factor of 9. The rate law for the reaction can be written as

(1) Rate = K[X] [Y]

(2) Rate = K[X] [Y]2
(3) Rate = K[X]3 [Y]
(4) Rate = K[X]3 [Y]3

23) A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant, . The half life of the
reaction is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
24) r = k[A] for a reaction, 50% of A is decomposed in 120 minutes. The time taken for 90%
decomposition of A is

(1) 400 min

(2) 6.67 hr
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) 400 sec.

25) The following questions consist of two statements. Mark the answer as follows.
Statement-I : The rate of zero order reaction is independent of concentration of reactants.
Statement-II : The t1/2 of zero order reaction depends on concentration of reactants.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

26) Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as :

k = Ae–Ea/RT
In this equation, Ea represents

(1) The total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T

(2) The fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the reaction
(3) The energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
(4) The energy below which all the colliding molecules will react

27) 50% of a first order reaction is completed in 120 sec . the time required for 75% of the reaction
to be completed in minutes is

(1) 240
(2) 480
(3) 4
(4) 2

28) The slope of line plotted between ln k versus (1/T) for Arrhenius equation is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Statement–I : For any complex reaction, value of order and molecularity is always same.
Statement–II : Order of reaction is found experimentally. In general molecularity of reaction is
given by sum of coefficient of reactants present in rate determining step (Provided intermediate is
not present).

(1) Statement–I and Statement–II both are correct

(2) Statement–I and Statement–II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement–I is correct
(4) Only statement–II is correct

30) For the following reaction,

A + B → C + 56 kJ mol–1,
energy of activation is 113 kJ mol–1. For the reaction: C → A + B, the energy of activation will be

(1) 57 kJ mol–1
(2) 169 kJ mol–1
(3) 56 kJ mol–1
(4) 226 kJ mol–1

31) The number of collisions per second per unit volume of reaction mixture is known as ______.

(1) Frequency factor (A)

(2) Activation energy (Ea)
(3) Collision frequency (Z)
(4) Effective collisions

32) The half-life period of a first order reaction is l0 minutes. The time required for the
concentration of the reactant to change from 0.08 M to 0.02 M is:

(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 30 min
(4) 40 min

33) The chemical reaction 2O3 → 3O2 proceeds as follows

O3 O2 + O ............. (fast)
O + O3 → 2O2 ............. (slow)
The rate law expression should be –

2
(1) r = K[O3]
2 –1
(2) r = K[O3] [O2]
(3) r = K[O3][O2]
(4) Unpredictable

34) For a reaction A + B, enthalpy of reaction is –4.2 kJ mol–1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ
mol-1. The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) For a reaction pA + qB → products, the rate law expression is r = k [A]l [B]m, then:

(1) (p + l)< (l + m)
(2) (p + q) > (l + m)
(3) (p + q) may or may not be equal to (l+m)
(4) (p + q) = (l + m)

36) The commercial production of ammonia is represented by the equation,

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g).
If the rate of disappearance of H2(g) is mol/min, what is the rate of appearance of
NH3(g)?

(1) 2.4 × 10–3 mol/min

(2) 1.8 × 10–3 mol/min
(3) 1.2 × 10–3 mol/min
(4) 8.0 × 10–4 mol/min
37) The half- life for a reaction is ......... in temperature:-

(1) Independent
(2) Increased with increase
(3) Decreased with increase
(4) None

38)

In Arrhenius equation , the quantity of e– E /RT is referred as :-

a

(1) Boltzmann factor

(2) Frequency factor
(3) Activation factor
(4) None of these

39)

A zero-order reaction A → B. At the end of 1 h, A is 75% reacted. How much of it will be left
unreacted at the end of 2h. :-

(1) 12.5 %
(2) 6.25 %
(3) 3.12 %
(4) 0 %

40) In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is reduced to 12.5% in one hour. When
was it half completed ?

(1) 20 min
(2) 15 min
(3) 3 hr
(4) 30 min

41) Rate constant for A → 2B reaction is 0.05 mol L–1S–1. If initially 2mol A are taken in 1L container
then find concentration of A after 20 seconds.

(1) 1.9 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 1 M
(4) 0.5 M

42) The slope of the line for the graph of log k versus for the reaction, N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2 is
–5000. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction (kJ K–1 mol–1) :-

(1) 95.7
(2) 9.57
(3) 957
(4) None of these

43) The value of ΔH for the reaction R→ P by the following graph :

(1) X
(2) Y
(3) Z
(4) X + Y

44) Effective collisions are those in which molecules must :-

(1) Have energy equal to or greater than the threshold energy

(2) Have proper orientation
(3) Acquire the energy of activation
(4) All of these

45) A first order reaction was started with a decimolar solution of the reactant, 8 minutes and 20
seconds later it is concentration was found to be M/100, so the rate constant is :

(1) 2.603 × 10–4 s–1

(2) 2.303 × 10–5 s–1
(3) 2.303 × 10–4 s–1
(4) 4.606 × 10–3 s–1

BIOLOGY

1)

Autecology refers to :-

(1) Plant ecology

(2) Animal ecology
(3) Ecological study of individual species
(4) Ecological study of group of species, which are grown together

2) Which of the following are correct matching pairs:

 Name of the
Species 1 Species 2
Interaction

(i) – 0 (A) Mutualism

(ii) + – (B) Competition

(iii) + 0 (C) Parasitism

(iv) + + (D) Commensalism

(v) – – (E) Ammensalism

(1) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-iv, E-ii
(2) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-ii, E-iv
(3) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-iii
(4) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii, E-i

3) National committee for environmental planning and co-ordination was established in -

(1) 1992
(2) 1972
(3) 1974
(4) 1987

4)

In a given inter-specific interaction, a species shows high reproductive potential, simple morphology
and anatomy but complex life cycle. Such species is more likely to be a

(1) Predator species

(2) Parasitic species
(3) Prey species
(4) Commensal species

5) Match column-I and II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Camouflaged (1) Acacia

(b) Distasteful (2) Calotropis

Monarch
(c) Thorns (3)
Butterfly

Cardiac
(d) (4) Frogs
glycosides
Options :
(1) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(3) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(4) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

6) Which statement is not true about predators ?

(1) Predators keep prey population under control

(2) Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community
(3) If a predator is not efficient the prey population will become extinct
(4) Tiger is an example of predator

7) Father of ecology in India, Mr. Ramdeo Mishra laid the foundations for :-

(1) Understanding of tropical communities and their succession.

(2) Environmental responses of plant populations and productivity
(3) Nutrient cycling in tropical forest and grassland ecosystems
(4) All of these

8) Ecology deals with the study of :-

(1) Living components

(2) Non living components
(3) Organism
(4) Reciprocal relationship between living and Non living components

9) Female mosquito require human blood for

(1) Respiration
(2) Locomotion
(3) Digestion
(4) Reproduction

10) Cuscuta is an example of

(1) Ectoparasitism
(2) Brood parasitism
(3) Endoparasitism
(4) Predation

11) Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example of :-

(1) Mutualism
(2) Parasitism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Commensalism

12) Study statements (a–d) and select two correct ones:

(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are cosumers
(b) Predator star fish, Pisaster, helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(c) Predators ultimately lead to extinction of prey species
(d) Plant chemicals like nicotine and strychnine are produced due to metabolic disorders

(1) c and d
(2) a and d
(3) a and b
(4) b and c

13)

Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when:

(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value of 'r' approaches zero

14)

The impact of immigration on population density is:

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Both positive and negative
(4) Neutralized by natality

15) The orchid plant that grows on other plant are

(1) Parasites
(2) Epiphytes
(3) Saprophytes
(4) Halophytes

16) Concept of resource partitioning is given by :

(1) Gause
(2) Conell's
(3) Mac Arthur
(4) E. Mayer

17) The kind of association between cattle egret birds and cattle is :

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Predation
18)

Which is potent force in organic evolution :-

(1) Predation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Interspecific competition
(4) Intraspecific competition

19) Assertion (A) : You never see any cattle or goats browising on the weed Calotropis.
Reason (R) : The weed Calotropis produces highly poisonous cardiac glycosides.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (R) is true but (A) is false

20) Predator are important for a natural ecosystem because :–

(a) They keep prey population under control.
(b) Help in maintaining species diversity
(c) They can be used in biological control method, to control pests and insects
(d) They reduce the intensity of competition among competiting prey species.

(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only a, b, d
(4) All of the above

21) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

22)

A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not posses. These are
(a) birth (b) birth rate
(c) death rate (d) sex ratio
(1) a and d only
(2) b and d only
(3) b, c and d only
(4) All of the above

23) Below pyramid shown is representing

(1) Expanding population

(2) Stable population
(3) Declining population
(4) None of above

24) Nt = N0ert this equation is for :-

(1) Exponential growth

(2) Sigmoid growth
(3) Logistic growth
(4) S-shaped growth

25) Assertion : In some case, the percent cover or total biomass is a more meaningful measure of
the population size.
Reason : Population density need not necessarily be measured in number, if the population is huge
and counting is impossible or very time consuming.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) ____ is the number of individuals of population who left the habitat during the time period.

(1) Mortality
(2) Emigration
(3) Natality
(4) Immigration

27) ______ is the death rate of a population.

(1) Natality
(2) Mortality
(3) Sex ratio
(4) Population dynamics

28) The tiger counting in our national parks and tiger reserves is often based on

(1) Pug marks

(2) Mannual counting
(3) Fecal plates
(4) Both (1) and (3)

29) In 1981 the r-value for human population in India was :

(1) 0.015
(2) 0.12
(3) 0.0205
(4) 0.0502

30) A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the natality was 250, mortality
240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :

(1) 15
(2) 05
(3) zero
(4) 10

31) The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the Island is an example of :

(1) Parasitism
(2) Resource Partitioning
(3) Commensalism
(4) Competitive Exclusion

32) Connell's elegant field experiment explains :

(1) Inferior eliminated by superior

(2) Superior eliminated by inferior
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Mutualism

33) Feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the inhibitory presence of the other
species even if resources are abundant. This is known as :

(1) Competitive exclusion

(2) Competitive release
(3) Interference competition
(4) Intraspecific competition

34) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) Soil moisture

35) Which of the following ecosystem is most productive ?

(1) Tundra
(2) Coniferous forest
(3) Deciduous forest
(4) Tropical rain forest

36) Energy storage at consumer level is called :-

(1) Gross primary productivity

(2) Net community productivity
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Secondary productivity

37) (a) Trophic level represents functional level and not species.
(b) Pyramid of biomass, energy & number is upright in grassland ecosystem.
(c) Pyramid of energy always upright
(d) Pyramid of biomass shows biotic potential of ecosystem.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) Only d
(2) a, b only
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d

38) The pyramid of energy in an ecosystem is always upright because

(1) The flow of energy is unidirectional from consumer to producer

(2) The energy decreases at each trophic level from producer to consumer level
(3) There is no loss of energy during its transfer from one trophic level to other
(4) Number of producers is always higher than that of consumers

39) In the following food chains, if 10 kJ energy in the form of sunlight, then what would be the
difference in amount of energy obtained by lion in food chain I and food chain II?
I. Plant →Deer→ Lion
II. Plant →Deer →Jackal →Lion

(1) 9 J
(2) 0.09 kJ
(3) 0.9 J
(4) 90 J

40) Ecological pyramids were given by :

(1) Elton
(2) Haeckel
(3) Odum
(4) Reiter

41) Out of the annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere , ______ and ______ billion
tonnes is from land and oceans respectively :

(1) 170 and 70

(2) 70 and 55
(3) 55 and 70
(4) 115 and 55

42) Limitations of ecological pyramids is/are :-

(1) It does not take in to account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
(2) It assumes a simple food chains, it does not accommodate a food web
(3) Saprophytes are not given any place
(4) All of the above

43) If producer is a large tree that supports a number of herbivorous animals which are further
attacked by ectoparasites, the pyramid of number shall be:-

(1) Inverted
(2) Upright
(3) Irregular
(4) Spindle shaped

44) Plants capture only ……………….. of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire
living world.

(1) 5-10 per cent

(2) 2-10 per cent
(3) 1-5 per cent
(4) 70-80 per cent

45) Read the statement carefully and answer the question accordingly
(A) Ecosystems are exempted from the Second Law of thermodynamics.
(B) Trophic level represents a species level, not a functional level.
(C) A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same food chain at the same time.
(D) Organisms at each trophic level depend on those at the lower trophic level for their energy
demands.
How many statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

46) How does statins lower blood cholesterol level?

(1) Destroy cholesterol in blood

Competitively inhibiting the enzyme HMG -CoA reductase, responsible for synthesis of
(2)
cholesterol
(3) Non-competitively inhibiting reductase enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis
(4) Destroy the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol

47) For what purpose nucleopolyhedro viruses are being used now a days?

(1) Species - specific, broad spectrum insecticidal application

(2) Species - specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal application
(3) Non - species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal application
(4) Non - species specific, broad spectrum insecticidal application

48) What would happen if our intestine harbours microbial flora exactly similar to that found in the
rumen of cattle?

(1) Able to digest all substances present in our foods

(2) Able to digest all starch and proteins present in our foods
(3) Produces organic acid
(4) Able to digest cellulose present in our foods

49) Which of the following is a rod-shaped virus?

(1) Bacteriophage
(2) CMV
(3) TMV
(4) All of these

50) Which microbe is used for the production of swiss cheese?

(1) Propionibacterium sharmanii

(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Penicillium notatum
(4) Monascus purpureus

51) Why are flocs important in biological treatment of wastewater?

(1) Microbes present in flocs consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent
(2) Significantly reduces the BOD
(3) Serve as inoculum for biological treatment in STP
(4) All of these

52) How do mycorrhizal fungi help the plants, harboring them?

(1) Absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant

(2) Increase resistance to salinity and drought
(3) Increase resistance to root-born pathogens
(4) All of these

53) Which organisms is involved in biogas production?

(1) Glomus
(2) [Link]
(3) Methanobacterium
(4) Both 1 and 3

54) Three water samples namely river water, sewage water, secondary effluent from STP were
subjected to BOD test. The samples were labelled A, B, C respectively. The BOD values of three
sample were 200 mg/L, 8 mg/L and 400 mg/L. Can you assign BOD value to each sample

(1) A = 200 mg/L, B = 400 mg/L, C = 8 mg/L

(2) A = 400 mg/L, B = 80 mg/L, C = 200 mg/L
(3) A = 8 mg/L, B = 400 mg/L, C = 200 mg/L
(4) A = 8 mg/L, B = 200 mg/L, C = 400 mg/L

55) How many of the following are nitrogen fixing organism?

Azospirillum, [Link], Azotobacter, Nostoc, Penicillium, Anabaena

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) Alexander Fleming is famous for his discovery of

(1) Penicillin
(2) Streptomycin
(3) Staphylococcus
(4) Both 1 and 3

57) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is

(1) Eukaryote
(2) Prokaryote
(3) Bacteria
(4) Both 2 and 3

58) What will happen if a wheat field is inoculated with bacteria Rhizobium?

(1) The soil will become rich in calcium

(2) The soil will become rich in nitrogen
(3) There will be no effect on soil nitrogen.
(4) The soil will be rich in oxygen

59) Match the following list of bioactive substances and their role?

Bioactive
Role
substance

I Statin A Removed of oil stains

II Cyclosporin A B Removal of clots from blood vessel

III Streptokinase C Lowering of blood cholesterol

IV Lipase D Immuno - supressive agent

(1) I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - D
(2) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C
(3) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(4) I - C, II - D, III - B, IV - A

60) What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge(flocs) is reduced?

(1) It will increase the rate of degradation of organic matter

The flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of
(2)
flocs
(3) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around flocs
(4) Protozoa would grow in large numbers

61) Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can

(1) Be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank

Absorb pathogenic bacteria present in wastewater while sinking to the bottom of the settling
(2)
tank
(3) Be discarded and anaerobically digested
(4) Absorb colloidal organic matter

62) Assertion : Micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus and others commonly called LAB grow in
milk and convert it to curd.
Reason : During growth, the LAB produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk protein.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

63) Assertion : Dried spores of bacillus thuringiensis are mixed with water and sprayed on to
vulnerable plants such as brassicas and fruit trees for killing of insect Larval
Reason : When these leaves eaten by the insect larvae, toxin is released in gut of the larvae, results
in killing of larvae

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

64) Broad spectrum antibiotic is that which

(1) Acts on both pathogens and hosts

(2) Acts on all bacteria and virus
(3) Act on a variety of pathogenic micro organisms
(4) Is effective in very small amount

65) The most abundant prokaryotes helpful in humans in making curd from milk and in production of
antibiotics are the ones categorized as

(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs

(2) Heterotrophic bacteria
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Archaebacteria

66) The domestic sewage in large cities

(1) Processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in STPs

(2) When treated in STPs does not really require the areation step
(3) Has very high amount of suspended solids and dissolved salts
(4) Has a very low BOD

67) Select the mismatch

(1) Frankia - Alnus

(2) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza
(3) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(4) Rhizobium - Alfalfa

68) A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be

(1) Species-specific and symbiotic

(2) Free living and broad spectrum
(3) Narrow spectrum and symbiotic
(4) Species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms

69) Which of the following statements about methanogens is not correct?

(1) They can be used to produce biogas.

(2) They are found in the rumen of cattle and their excreta
(3) They grow aerobically and breakdown cellulose- rich food
(4) They produce methane gas

70) Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ?

(1) Floating debris

(2) Effluents of primary treatment
(3) Activated sludge
(4) Primary sludge

71) Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column I Column II

A Dragon flies I Biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens

B [Link] II Get rid of mosquitoes

C Glomus III Narrow spectrum insecticidal applications

D Baculovirus IV Biocontrol agents of Lepidopteran plant pests

V Absorb phosphorus from soil

(1) A - II, B - IV, C - V, D - III
(2) A - III, B - V, C - IV, D - I
(3) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(4) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - V

72) Match List - I with List - II

List - I List - II

A Aspergillus niger I Acetic acid

B Acetobacter aceti II Lactic acid

C Clostridium butylicum III Citric acid

Butyric
D Lactobaccillus IV
acid
(1) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(2) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(3) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(4) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

73) The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the effort of

(1) IARI and IISC

(2) KVIC and EFB
(3) KVIC and GEAC
(4) IARI and KVIC

74) During sewage treatment, biogas are produced which include

(1) CH4, H2S, CO2

(2) CH4,O2, H2S
(3) H2S, CH4,SO2
(4) H2S, N2, CH4

75) Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungus
(3) Protozoa
(4) Virus

76) Statement-I: The ventricles open in to a sac like sinus venosus on the ventral side of the heart.
Statement-II: In frogs, RBCs are nucleated & contain Red coloured Pigment namely haemoglobin.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

77) A male frog can be differentiated from a female frog on the basis of presence of
(a) Cloaca
(b) Vocal sacs
(c) Webbed feet
(d) Copulatory pads
Select the correct option

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and d
(4) b and d

78) In frogs, testes are attached to kidney by a double fold of peritoneum known as

(1) Pericardium
(2) Mesorchium
(3) Urinogential duct
(4) Vasa efferentia

79) Mark the false statement w.r.t frog

(1) Frog is a ureotelic animal

(2) There are ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from brain
(3) Forebrain includes cerebellum and medulla oblongata
(4) Midbrain is characterised by a pair of optic lobes

80) Assertion: Frogs are not seen during peak summer and winter, as they take shelter in deep
burrows. This is known as aestivation and hibernation respectively.
Reason: Frogs are called cold blooded or poikilotherms i.e., their body temperature varies with the
temperature of the environment.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

81) The number of ova, a mature female frog can lay at a time, may reach up to

(1) 20
(2) 500
(3) 1000
(4) 3000

82) Trace the correct path of passage of the sperm in male Rana tigrina:

(1) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urogenital duct → Cloaca
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urogenital duct → Cloaca
(4) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urogenital duct → Cloaca

83) On land, frog respires by

(1) Skin only

(2) Skin and buccal cavity only
(3) Skin, lungs and buccal cavity
(4) Lungs only

84) Statement–I : In frogs, 10 pair of cranial nerves arises from the brain.
Statement–II : Midbrain includes olfactory lobes, paired cerebral hemispheres and paired
diencephalon.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is incorrect.

85) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram showing male reproductive system.

A B C

(1) Testes Vasa efferentia Cloaca

(2) Vasa efferentia Adrenal gland Urinary bladder

(3) Adrenal gland Testes Cloaca

(4) Vasa efferentia Urinogenital duct Urinary bladder

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of frog?

(1) The skin is moist and slimy.

(2) Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end in five digits.
(3) Hepatic portal and renal portal systems are present.
(4) Skin, buccal cavity and lungs are the respiratory organs.

87) A group of students were performing an experiment on a frog in the lab. They dissected the
heart of frog and kept it in a jar. Later, they noticed that the heart kept on beating for sometime.
Select the option that explains this situation.

(1) Frogs have a myogenic heart.

(2) Frogs are poikilotherms.
(3) Frogs have sinus venosus.
(4) Frogs have a 3-chambered heart.

88) Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in

(1) Both males and female frogs

(2) Male frogs
(3) Human males
(4) Human females

89) Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are

(1) Nucleated and without haemoglobin

(2) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
(3) Nucleated and with haemoglobin
(4) Very much smaller and fewer

90) Which of the following statements is false?

(1) The ovaries in frog are structurally and functionally connected with kidneys
(2) A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000, unfertilised ova at a time
In male frog there are 10-12 vasa efferentia arise from testes and enter kidneys on their side
(3)
and open into Bidder’s canal
(4) In frog, fertilization is both internal and external
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 4 2 3 3 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 3 1 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 1 4 3 1 1 2 3 2 3 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 1 1 2 2 4 3 3 4 1 3 2 4 4 3 2 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 1 2 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 4 3 3 4 1 1 3 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 2 4 4 2 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

60°

2)

Remain same

3)

< i = < r = 0°

4) Asking : To find the deviation by single plane mirror.

Concept : Deviation by plane mirror
Formula : δ = 180–20
Solution : Given θ = 30
Calculation :
δ = 180 – 2 × 30
= 180–60
= 120°
Correct Ans. option (1)

5)

90 cm

6)

7)

second image from L2 is at 5m from mirror

distance from person = 5+1 = 6m

8) Relative velocity of image w.r.t. man = 15 – (–15) = 30 m/s

 9)

All the above can produce a virtual image

10)

–20 cm

11) ⇒ V = 6.2 cm

12)

R = 2f = 2 × 20 = 40 cm

13)

75 cm

14)

Given u = (f + x1) and n = (f + x2)

The focal length

On solving, we get f2 = x1x2 or f =

15)

3150 Å

16) C = 3 × 108 m/s

Now
17) Angle of prism, A = r1 + r2 For minimum deviation
r1 = r2 = r ∴ A = 2r
Given, A = 60°

Hence, r = = 30º

18)

Question Explanation : To Identify the phenomena from given option due to which bottom of
contaniner appears raised
Concept : Refraction at plane surface (Snell's law)

Vissual AID :

Formula : Conceptual dabb =

Calculation : Its conceptual, due to retraction phenomena apparent depth of container always
less than real dept.

Final Answer : (1)

19)

sin ic = ⇒ ic = 30°
Angle at eye = 2ic = 60°

20)

32 cm above the surface of water

21)

shift ⇒

22)

T.I.R.

23)

24)

25)

Given, concave lens, µg = 1.5; µm = 1.75

Refractive index medium

m
µg = =
Applying Lens maker's formula,

⇒f=
Since, f is positive it behaves as convergent lens of focal length (+3.5R).

26)

2f

27)

8cm

28)
m=1+ = 1+ = 11

29) u = – 10 cm ; f = + 12 cm

-ve sign : virtual

30) P = P1 + P2 = 4 – 2
P=2

F=
= 50 cm

31)

When image is
(a) At minimum distance of distinct vision magnification

m=1+
(b) When image is at infinite

m=

32)

Given,
µ g = µl
The focal length of convex lens in liquid f is given by

Or
Its focal length will become infinite.

33) me × m0 = 35
me × 7 = 35
me = 5

34) Newton's formula f2 = x1x2

35)

= 15 cm

36) Since aperture of lens reduces so brightness will reduce but there will be no effect on size
of image.

37)

Red

38)

0.4

39)

60°

40)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

We are given the wavelength of light in two liquids:
λx = 3500 Å (in liquid X), λy = 7000 Å (in liquid Y) We need to determine the critical angle (C)
when light passes from liquid X to liquid Y.

Concept:
The refractive index (μ) of a medium is inversely proportional to the wavelength of light in that
medium: μ ∝ 1/λ.

Formula: sin C = μy/μx = λx/λy

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
sin C = 3500 / 7000
sin C = 1/2
C sin-1 (1/2) = 30º

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

41) R = ∞, f = ∞ , ⇒P=0

42)
 Focal length of mirror doesnot change on medium.

43) υ ∝

44)
5 Image

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

2n–1 = 2
n–1=1
n=2

48)

8 mm min–1

49)

III only

50)

5 × 10–4 mol l–1 sec–1

51)

4 × 1015 s–1

52)

53)

(ROD)B = 9 × 10–3M min–1

54)

Unit of K = sec–1
On comparing
1 – n = –1
n=2

55)

r = K[A] [B]
r = K’[A] (as B is in excess so its concentration will be almost constant)
order = 1

56)

57)

ΔT = 40

= 16 times

58)

Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false.

59)

Zero order reaction

60)

9 times

61)

80000 cal

62)

r = k[A]x[B]y ...(1)
from experimental data of I & II ; order with respect to A is 1
from experimental data of II & III ; order with respect to B is 2

63)

1000/2.303 K

64) Unit of k for nth order reaction is

When n = 0
Unit of k = mol L–1 s–1

65) The rate expression,

The overall order is

66) Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex reactions whereas molecularity is

applicable only for elementary reactions.

67) In a reaction, X + Y → product

r = k[X]a [Y]b ..... (i)
3r = k[3X]a[Y]b ...... (ii)
9r = k[3X]a[3Y]b .....(iii)
⇒ from equation (iii) and (ii)
(equation) (iii) (equation) (ii)

⇒ From equation (ii) equation (i)

68) For first order reaction

69)

r = k[A]
So this is first order reaction.
∴

∴
For 90% decomposition

t.

⇒
t ≈ 400 min

70)

Both statements are correct.

71) In Arrhenius equation, Ea is the energy of activation, which is required by

the colliding molecules to react resulting in the formation of products.

72)

73)

74)

Only statement–II is correct

75)

169 kJ mol–1

76)

Collision frequency (Z)

77)
t1/2 =

78) O3 O2 + O (Fast) ......(1)

O + O3 2O2 (Slow) ......(2)

* We write rate from slow step by considering it elementary reaction.
r = K1[O] [O3] …(3)
Intermediate
* We write equilibrium expression for reversible reaction and eliminate intermediat with the
help of this expression.

KC =
[O] = KC[O3][O2]–1 …(4)
Place [O] in equation (3)
r = K1{KC[O3][O2]–1} [O3]
r = K[O3]2[O2]–1

79) In the case of exothermic reaction, the potential energy of product B will be less than that
of reactant A.

80)

(p + q) may or may not be equal to (l+m)

81)

82)

Decreased with increase

83)

Boltzmann factor

84)

0%

85)
 20 min

86)

1M

87)

95.7

88)

A: Question Explanation

The question asks to determine the value of ΔH (enthalpy change) for the reaction R → P using
the provided potential energy diagram.

C: Concept :
Enthalpy change
ΔH = H(Products) – H (Reactants)

A. Enthalpy Change (ΔH):

B.

Explanation & Solution :

In the given diagram, the products (P) have lower potential energy than the reactants (R),
indicating an exothermic reaction.

From the diagram, the difference in potential energy between the reactants and products is
represented by Z.

A. ΔH = Potential energy of products - Potential energy of reactants

B. ΔH = -Z (since products are lower in energy)

E: Final Answer

The value of ΔH for the reaction R → P is Z.

Therefore, the correct option is: (3)

89)

All of these

90)

4.606 × 10–3 s–1

BIOLOGY

91) Module Pg. # 1

95) NCERT XII Pg.#234 (E)

NCERT XII Pg.#254 (H)

96)

NCERT XIIth Pg.#233 (E)

NCERT XIIth Pg.#253 (H)

97) NCERT Page no. 189

101) NCERT Pg. # 234

102) NCERT/P–198(PMT 2010)

103) NCERT/P–195 (NEET 2017)

104) NCERT/P–193 (NEET 2020)

106) NCERT XII Pg.#235

107) NCERT XII Pg.#236

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 194, 195

112) NCERT XII Pg.# 192

114)

NCERT XII, Page # 194

115) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. 192,

119) NCERT, Pg # 194

 122)

Explanation: Joseph Connell conducted a classic field experiment on barnacles (Balanus and
Chthamalus) on a rocky intertidal shore. He found that:

A. Chthamalus (the inferior competitor) could survive in both upper and lower zones when
alone.

B. However, in the presence of Balanus (the superior competitor), Chthamalus was

excluded from the lower zone due to competition.

This experiment demonstrated competitive exclusion, where the superior competitor

eliminates the inferior from overlapping niches.

Correct Answer: (1) Inferior eliminated by superior

123) NCERT-XII, Pg # 199

124) NCERT XII Pg.# 244

125)
Explanation:
Primary productivity refers to the rate at which plants and other producers convert solar
energy into biomass. Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is highest in tropical rainforests due to:

A. High temperature throughout the year.

B. Abundant rainfall (2000–4000 mm annually).
C. High biodiversity with dense vegetation.

Efficient nutrient cycling that supports continuous growth.

Correct Answer: 4 Tropical rain forest

134) The correct answer is 2-10 per cent.

Plants are remarkably inefficient at capturing solar energy. Of all the sunlight that reaches
Earth, only a small fraction is in the PAR (Photosynthetically Active Radiation) range, and
plants only manage to capture a small percentage of that for photosynthesis. This small
amount of captured energy then supports all life on Earth.

166) The ventricles open in to a sac like conus arteriosus on the ventral side of the heart.

173) [NCERT Pg. 118]

174) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 83

175) NCERT XI Page # 83

176) Frog having a pair of forelimb and hindlimb is appended to the trunk. The forelimb
consists of the proximal upper arm, the middle fore arm, wrist and a hand bearing four fingers.
The hindlimb consists of proximal thigh, the middle shank, a long ankle and a foot bearing five
toes.

178) Duct arising from kidney in male frog is both urinary duct and a sperm duct hence it is
called a urinogenital duct.

179) RBC is frog are nucleated, oval, biconvex and have haemoglobin (respiratory pigment)
which is yellow to red colour, iron containing pigment.

180) In frogs, pair of testes are attached to kidneys, but ovaries do not have any functional or
internal connection with kidneys.