22-06-2025

6001CMD30303225001P MD

PHYSICS

1) For the quadartic equation 10x2– 27x+5 = 0 possible roots are

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) 1

2)

If cosecθ = than tanθ is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

Position-time graph of a particle is shown :-

Find point at which speed is maximum ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

4) (1 – cos2 15°) + (1 – sin2 15°) = .....

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4)

5)

Which is correct statement :-

(1) sin (90° + θ) = cos θ

(2) tan (270° + θ) = – cot θ
(3) cos (180° + θ) = – cos θ
(4) All of the above

6)

The value of (sin 180° + cos90°)2 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

7)

780° = ....?... radian

(1)

(2) 4π

(3)

(4)

8) If 2y = –2x + 4 then angle made by the line with +ve x-axis is :-

(1) 135°
(2) 45°
(3) 225°
(4) 150°

9) For given graph of straight line, which is correct

(1) slope angle (θ) is 30º

(2)
slope m is
(3) c = –5
(4) All the above

10) For equation , graph will be :-

(1) Circle
(2) Ellipse
(3) Straight line
(4) Rectangular hyperbola

11) A particle moves along the straight line y = 3x + 5. Which coordinate changes at a faster rate ?

(1) x–coordinate
(2) y–coordinate
(3) Both x and y coordinates
(4) Data insufficient

12) Draw graph for equation .

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) Find maximum value of y = 4 – 3 sin θ :-

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 5

14) Calculate the distance between two points (0,–1,1) and (3,3,13) :

(1) 11
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 10

15) If y = (x2+5)3 then find =?

(1) (2x)3
(2) 3(x2 + 5)
(3) 6x(x2 + 5)2
(4) 3x(x2 + 5)

16) Differentiation of x = t2 – et + log t with respect to t is :-

(1)
2t – et +

(2)

(3) t + et + log t
(4) None

17) If y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36, then for minimum value of y is :

(1) x = 0
(2) x = 4
(3) x =1
(4) None
18) If y = e5 then = :-

(1) 5e4
(2) e5
(3) 0

(4)

19) If S = 4t2 – 6t + 2, where S is in m and t in sec, then find the acceleration :-

(1) 8t – 6 m/s2
(2) 8 – 6t m/s2
(3) 8 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s2

20) The sum of the mass of two bodies is M. Find the ratio of both bodies of gravitational forces
acting between them is maximum

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1

(4)

21) Value of is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None
23) The integral is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

24) Find integrals of given functions :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

25) Area under curve y = 3x2 + 2x + 1 from x = 0 to x = 1 is :-

(1) 2 unit
(2) 3 unit
(3) 4 unit
(4) 5 unit

26)

(1) t3 + 5cos t + 10 t
(2) 0
(3) t3 + 5[cos(2) – cos(1)] + 10 t + C
(4) None of these

27) The value of sum of first hundred natural numbers 1+2+3+....+100 is :-

(1) 4950
(2) 5050
(3) 5150
(4) 5250

28) Find the sum of given Arithmetic Progression, 4 + 8 + 12 +.........+ 64

(1) 464
(2) 540
(3) 544
(4) 646

29) The expression is a :-

(1) Unit vector

(2) Null vector
(3) Vector of magnitude
(4) Scalar

30) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

31) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the y-axis. What is
their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following is not a vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Which of the following is a scalar quantity:-

(1) Work
(2) Displacement
(3) Velocity
(4) Acceleration

34) In an clockwise system

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) If = (60 + 15 – 3 ) N and = (2 – 4 + 5 )m/s, then instantaneous power is :

(1) 195 watt

(2) 45 watt
(3) 75 watt
(4) 100 watt

36) Two vectors and are added. The magnitude of the sum of these vectors is:-

(1) 36
(2) 100
(3)
(4) 136

37) The resultant of which pair cannot have a magnitude of 4N ?

(1) 2N and 3N
(2) 3N and 3N
(3) 2N and 6N
(4) 3N and 8N

38) Volume is :-

(1) Scalar
(2) Vector
(3) Neither scalar nor vector
(4) Both scalar and vector

39) The direction of the angular velocity vector is along

(1) Along the tangent of circular path

(2) Along the direction of radius vector
(3) Along the axis of rotation
(4) Opposite to the direction of radius vector

40) If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of the these

41) If , then the angle between and is :-

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

42) The vector projection of a vector on y-axis is :

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) zero

43) A force of 5N acts on a particle along a direction making an angle of 60° with vertical. The
vertical component will be :

(1) 10 N
(2) 3 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 2.5 N

44) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors having magnitude P and Q
are found to be in the ratio 4 : 1. Which of the following relation is true?

(1) 3P = 2Q
(2) P = 4Q
(3) 3P = 5CQ
(4) P = 3Q
 CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following has the max. number of unpaired electrons ?

(1) Mg+2
(2) Ti+3
(3) V+3
(4) Fe+2

2) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s-orbital is :-

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

3) If in X2– ion no. of electrons are 20 then no. of electrons and protons in the X will be respectively :-

(1) 18, 18
(2) 18, 20
(3) 20, 20
(4) 22, 22

4) Angular momentum in third shell of H atom is x then angular momentum in third shell of He+ will
be :-

(1) 2x
(2) 3x
(3) 4x
(4) x

5) Velocity of electron in 1st orbit of H atom is x then velocity in its 3rd orbit will be :-

(1) x
(2) x/3
(3) 2x
(4) 3x

6) The mass of a proton is :

(1) 1.007 a.m.u

(2) 1.672 × 10–24g
(3) 1.672 × 10–27kg
(4) All of the above

7) How many angular nodes are present in 3s orbital ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

8) Which of the following set of quantum number is not valid ?

(1) n = 1, ℓ = 2
(2) n = 2, m = 1
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 0
(4) n = 4, ℓ = 2

9) Ratio of time period of electron in first and second orbit of H-atom would be -

(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

10) How many lines in the spectrum will be observed when electrons return from 7th shell to 2nd
shell ?

(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16

11) Which of the following gave the idea of a nucleus of the atom?

(1) Oil drop experiment

(2) Cathode ray tube experiment
(3) α-ray scattering experiment
(4) None of these

12) An isotone of is:-

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) Only (i) & (ii)

(2) Only (ii) & (iii)
(3) Only (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

13) If shortest wavelength of Balmer series of H-atom is x then wave number of Ist line of Lyman
series of He+ is :-

(1)

(2) 12x

(3)

(4)

14) If angular momentum of electron in a shell is then in which excited state electron will be
present

(1) first excited state

(2) second excited state
(3) third excited state
(4) fourth excited state

15)

The radius of nucleus of 13Al27 will be :-

[R0= 1.33 × 10–15m]

(1) 1.2 × 10–15 m

(2) 2.7 × 10–15 m
(3) 10.8 × 10–15 m
(4) 4 × 10–15 m

16) Arrange the following particles in increasing order of values of e/m ratio : Electron (e), proton
(p), neutron (n) and α-particle (α) -

(1) n, p, e, α
(2) n, α, p, e
(3) n, p, α, e
(4) e, p, n, α

17) The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number, n = 3, and spin
quantum number, ms = – 1/2, is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 9

19) If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased four times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie
wave associated with it would become :-

(1) Two times

(2) Half
(3) One fourth
(4) Four times

20) Correct relationship is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Ratio of wavelength of series limit of bracket and Balmer series for H atom :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Increasing order of energy of electro magnetic radiation are :-

(1) Microwave, Infrared, U.V, X-ray

(2) X-ray, U.V, microwave, infrared
(3) Infrared, X-ray, U.V, microwave
(4) Infrared, microwave, X-ray, U.V
23) Incorrect relation according to Bohr’s theory is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The number of d-electrons in Mn is equal to that of :-

(1) p-electron in N
(2) s-electron in Na
(3) s-electron in He
(4) p-electron in B

25) What is a the name of orbital for Ψ210 ?

(1) 2px
(2) 2pz
(3) 2py
(4) 3pz

26) If e– moves from 4th excited state to 1st excited state then find total number of spectral lines in IR
region.

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0

27) An atom has 2 electrons in K - shell, 8 electrons in L - shell and 8 electrons in M - shell. The
number of p - electrons presents in the elements is :

(1) 10
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 4

28) Uncertainity in position of a particle of 25 g mass in space is 10–15 m. Hence, uncertainity in

velocity (in [Link]–1) is :
(Plank's constant, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)

(1) 2.1 × 10–18

(2) 2.1 × 10–34
(3) 0.5 × 10–34
(4) 5.0 × 10–24

29) 3py orbital has..........nodal plane :

(1) XY
(2) YZ
(3) ZX
(4) All of these

30) Match the following

Energy of ground
(a) (i) + 6.04 eV
state of He+

Potential energy of
(b) (ii) –27.2 eV
Ist orbit of H-atom

Kinetic energy of IInd

(c) (iii) 54.4 V
excited state of He+

lonisation
(d) (iv) –54.4 eV
potential of He+
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)

31) Any f-orbital can accommodate upto

(1) 2 electrons with parallel spin

(2) 6 electrons
(3) 2 electrons with opposite spin
(4) 14 electrons

32) The orbital diagram in which aufbau principle is violated is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) Identify the correct match.

Column I Column II

(a) 32 Ge76, 33As77 (i) Isotopes

(b) 26 Fe57, 26Fe58 (ii) Isodiaphers

(c) 92 U235, 90Th231 (iii) Isobars

(d) 1 H3, 2He3 (iv) Isotones

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

34)

Column I Column II
(Atom/Ion) (Electronic configuration)

(A) Cu (p) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10

(B) Cu2+ (q) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2

(C) Zn2+ (r) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1

(D) Cr3+ (s) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9

(t) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3

(1) A - s, B - r, C - p, D - t
(2) A - r, B - s, C - p, D - t
(3) A - r, B - s, C - t, D - p
(4) A - r, B - s, C - p, D - s

35) Match the columns:

Column II
Column I
(Information
(Quantum number)
provided)

(A) Principal quantum (p) orientation of the

number orbital

(B) Azimuthal quantum (q) energy and size of

number orbital

(C) Magnetic quantum

(r) spin of electron
number
 (D) Spin quantum number (s) Shape of the orbital
(1) A - q, B - s, C - p, D - r
(2) A - s, B - q, C - p, D - r
(3) A - q, B - p, C - s, D - r
(4) A - q, B - s, C - r, D - p

36) Which of the following statements of quantum mechanics was in agreement with Bohr's model?
(i) The path of an electron in an atom can never be determined accurately.
(ii) The energy of electrons in atom is quantized i.e., can only have specific values.
(iii) An orbital cannot contain more than two electrons.

(1) Only (i)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) Only (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

37) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding photoelectric effect?
(i) The number of electrons ejected is proportional to the intensity of light.
(ii) There is some time lag between the striking of light beam on the metal surface and the ejection
of electrons.
(iii) The kinetic energy of ejected electrons depends upon the brightness of light.
(iv) The kinetic energy of the ejected electron is proportional to the frequency of the incident
radiation.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) only
(4) (ii) and (iv)

38) Which of the following order of energies of subshell is correct :-

(1) 2s < 3s < 3p < 2p

(2) 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p
(3) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s
(4) 3s < 3d < 3p < 4s

39) For Li+2, r2 : r5 will be :-

(1) 9 : 25
(2) 4 : 25
(3) 25 : 4
(4) 25 : 9

40) The potential energy of an electron in the Hydrogen atom is –6.8 eV. Indicate in which excited
state, the electron is present?
(1) first
(2) second
(3) third
(4) fourth

41) Which of the following represent Heisenberg's uncertainity principle :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its :

(i) subshells and (ii) orbitals would be respectively

(1) 3 and 5
(2) 3 and 7
(3) 3 and 9
(4) 2 and 5

43) Assertion : For n = 3, ℓ may be 0, 1 and 2 and m may be 0 ; 0, ; 0, and

Reason : For each value of n, there are 0 to possible values of ℓ ; and for each value of ℓ,
there are 0 to ℓ values of m.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

44) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and :

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Can be placed in order of increasing energy as

(1) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)

(2) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
(3) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(4) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)

45) If n + = 6, then possible number of subshell are :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

BIOLOGY

1) Most abundant element in human body is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Carbon

2) Name the four elements called 'big four' which make 95% of all elements found in a living system
:-

(1) C,H,O,P
(2) C,H,O,N
(3) C,N,O,K
(4) C,H,O,S

3) From the given below structure, identify the zwitter ions ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A and C
(2) Only A
(3) B and D
(4) A and B

4) Given below is the structure of :-

(1) oleic acid
(2) Galactose
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) Palmitic acid

5) The molecule given in diagram belongs to which category of biomolecules :-

(1) Fatty acids

(2) Phospholipids
(3) Triglycerides
(4) Steroids

6)

Read the following statement (A–D):-

(A) Fatty acid are saturated or unsaturated
(B) Lecithin is a phospholipid which is present in plasma membrane
(C) Melting point of oils are high. Hence they remain liquid in winter
(D) The molecular weight of lipid do not exceed 800 dalton but they are present in acid insoluble
pool.
How many statement are correct ?

(1) A,B,C,D
(2) A,B,D
(3) B,C
(4) A,C

7) In a protein chain the first amino acid is also called :-

(1) N – terminal amino acid

(2) C – terminal amino acid
(3) Both of them
(4) Valine

8) A living state is an/a -

(1) Equilibrium steady state

(2) Non-equilibrium steady state
(3) Non-equilibrium non-steady state
(4) Equilibrium non-steady state

9) Arrange the steps of catalytic cycle of an enzyme in order and choose the right option:
(i) Enzyme releases products of reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to another substrate.
(ii) Active site of enzyme is in close proximity of substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of
substrate.
(iii) Binding of substrate induces enzymes to alter its shape fitting more tightly around substrate.
(iv) Substrate bind to active site of enzyme fitting into active site.

(1) iv, iii, ii, i

(2) iii, ii, i, iv
(3) iv, ii, i, iii
(4) iii, iv, i, ii

10) Which of the following bond is absent in the tertiary structure of proteins :-

(1) Disulfide bond

(2) Hydrophobic bond
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

11) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high
temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat.
Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and
inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

12) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.

13) Consider the following statements.

(a) The abundance of Oxygen is maximum in Earth's crust and Human body.
(b) Abrin and Ricin are examples of toxins.
(c) The adundance of Proteins is 10-15% of total cellular mass.
(d) GLUT - 4 enables glucose transport into cells.
(e) Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex polysaccharide called chitin.
How many of the following are not incorrect?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

14) Observe the following given structure and select the correct option naming it.

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Glycerol
(3) Adenosine
(4) Cholesterol

15) Read the following given statements and select the correct option w.r.t. lipids.
Statement A: Lipids are generally water insoluble.
Statement B : Oils have lower melting point than ghee.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

16) Choose the odd one w.r.t. polymer of glucose.

(1) Cellulose
(2) Starch
(3) Inulin
(4) Glycogen

17) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
 Highly branched
(a) Peptide bond (i)
structure
Most abundant
(b) Glycosidic bond (ii) protein in whole
biosphere
(c) RuBisCO (iii) Maltose
(d) Glycogen (iv) Keratin
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(iii) , c(ii), d(i)

18) How many ester bonds are present in triglyceride molecule?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) No, ester bond present

19) Assertion (A) : Proteins are polypeptides. They are linear chains of amino acids linked by
peptide bonds.
Reason (R) : A protein is a heteropolymer and not a homopolymer.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

20) Assertion: Lipids are not strictly macromolecules

Reason: Lipids molecular weight not exceeding 800 Dalton

(1) Both A and R true, R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R true, R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

21) Read the following given statements

Statement A : C-terminal amino acid is the first amino acid of a polypeptide chain
Statement B : Addition of an amino acid in a polypeptide chain is accompanied by loss of water
moiety.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

22) Statement I : Cofactor of an enzyme may be a prosthetic group.

Statement II : NAD derived from niacin is a coenzyme.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

23) Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes ?

(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-factor

(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

24) A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :

A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a
(1)
glycerol molecule
Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also
(2)
attached
Only a unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is
(3)
also attached
A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
(4)
group is also attached

25) Assertion : Monosaccharides are simplest sugars.

Reason : Monosaccharides canont be further hydrolysed.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.

26) Assertion : All monosaccharides are 'reducing sugars'.

Reason : In monosaccharides free aldehyde or ketone groups are capable of reducing Cu+2 to Cu+.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.

27) Match the right pair

Example No. of C

I. Palmitic acid A. 18

II. Stearic acid B. 16

 III. Arachidonic acid C. 20

IV. Oleic acid D. 24

(1) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-A
(2) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(3) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
(4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

28) Secondary metabolites are observed in

(1) plant cells

(2) fungal cells
(3) microbial cells
(4) all of these

29) In the above diagrammatic

representation of glycogen, glycosidic bonds represented by A,B and C are :-

A B C
(1) α-1'-4" α-1'-6" α-1'-4"
(2) β-1'-4" β-1'-6'' β-1'-4"
(3) α-1'-6" α-1'-4" α-1'-4"
(4) β-1'-6'' α-1'-4" β-1'-4"
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Variations in proteins are due to -

(1) Sequence of amino acids

(2) Number of amino acids
(3) R - group
(4) None

31) ATP is-

(1) Nucleotide
(2) Nucleoside
(3) Nucleic acid
(4) Vitamin

32) In a segment of DNA molecule 3.2 kilobases are present. If DNA segment has 820 adenine
molecules, then what will be the number of cytosine?

(1) 1560
(2) 1480
(3) 780
(4) 740

33) Fungal cellulose is

(1) Starch
(2) Cellulose
(3) Chitin
(4) Glycogen

34) Cofactor of carbonic anhydrase is -

(1) Cu++
(2) Zn++
(3) Mg++
(4) Mn++

35) Represented below is the effect of change in pH on enzyme activity. Which one of the following

conclusions can be made by this diagram ?

Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH, activity
(1)
declines
(2) With increasing pH, activity increases upto a limit then it become constant
(3) At a particular pH, activity is minimum, both below and above this pH activity increases
(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical graph

36) An important quality of such enzymes isolated from thermophylic organisms :-

(1) Optimum temperature for enzymes is 20-35° C

(2) Thermal stability
(3) Damaged at high temperature
(4) Work at very low temperature

37) Most of the enzymes are made up of –

(1) Polynucleotides
(2) Polypeptides
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) Polythene

38) Which of the following statements are correct about enzymes ?

(a) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by increasing the activation energy of substrate
molecules.
(b) Enzymes generally have similar temperature optimum but different pH optimum
(c) Lower is the value of km for an enzyme higher is the substrate binding affinity of enzyme.
(d) Enzymes are biomolecules and they are functional only inside cells.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) a and b
(4) a, b, c and d

39)
In the following diagram inhibitor is :-

(1) Competitive, reversible inhibitor

(2) Competitive, irreversible inhibitor
(3) Non competitive, reversible inhibitor
(4) Non competitive, irreversible inhibitor

40) During competitive inhibition :-

(1) Km value and Vmax remain unchange

(2) Km decreases but Vmax remains
(3) Km increases but Vmax remains unchange
(4) No change in Km value but Vmax decreases

41) Enzymes which catalyze hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, gycosidic bond belongs to class :-
(1) Oxidoreductase
(2) Tranferase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Ligase

42) Column I containg the graph for rate of reaction and column II contain the four factor known to
affect the rate of enzyme controlled reaction. Choose the correct option :-

Column I Column II

(A) (I) pH

(B) (ii) Temperature

(iii) Product concentration

(iv) Substrate concentration

(1) A–i, ii, B–ii, iv
(2) A–ii, iii, B–i, iv
(3) A–i, ii, B–iv
(4) A–i, iii, B–i, ii

43) What does a and b represent in the given graph?

(1) a - pH, b - substrate concentration

a - velocity of reaction,
(2)
b - substrate concentration
(3) a - temperature, b - substrate concentration
(4) a - substrate concentration, b - temperature.

44) What is denoted by X and Y in the given graph ?

 X Y

Activation energy Activation energy

(1)
without enzyme with enzyme

Activation energy Activation energy

(2)
with enzyme without enzyme

Substrate Substrate
(3) concentration with concentration
enzyme without enzyme

Substrate Substrate
(4) concentration concentration
without enzyme with enzyme
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Refer the given reaction -

C12H22O11 + H2O 2C6H12O6

Enzyme A used in the reaction belong to which class ?

(1) Oxidoreductases
(2) Transferases
(3) Hydrolases
(4) lyases

46) Match the column-I and column-II. Find out the correct answer :

Column-I Column-II

(A) A P de candolle (I) Binomial system

(B) Julian Huxley (II) Taxonomy

(C) Gaspard Bauhin (III) New systematics

(1) A-I ; B-II ; C-III
(2) A-I ; B-III ; C-II
(3) A-II ; B-III ; C-I
(4) A-III ; B-II ; C-I

47) A species can be differentiated with another species based on distinct __________

(1) Leaf shape

(2) Internal features only
(3) Morphological differences
(4) None of the above

48)

Anoxygenic photosynthesis is observed in some members of ................

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) Protista and Plantae

49) "Systema Naturae" book was written by:-

(1) Engler and Prantl

(2) Darwin
(3) Linnaeus
(4) Oswald & Tippo

50) All the categories used in classification of organism constitute :-

(1) Taxonomy
(2) Systematics
(3) Taxonomic hierarchy
(4) Taxonomic affinity

51) Which of the following is / are not correctly matched?

Common Name Genus Family

(i) Man Homo Hominidae

(ii) Housefly Diptera Muscidae

(iii) Mango Mangifera Anacardiaceae

(iv) Wheat Triticum Poaceae

(1) i & ii
(2) only i
(3) only ii
(4) iii & iv

52) Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II
(a) Kingdom (i) Triticum aestivum
(b) Order (ii) Solanum
(c) Family (iii) Plantae
(d) Genus (iv) Poaceae
(e) Species (v) Sapindales
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-iii, b-v, c-ii, d-iv, e-i
(4) a-i, b-v, c-ii, d-iv, e-iii

53) Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order beginning from fundamental unit
of classification :
(i) Division (ii) Family
(iii) Class (iv) Species
(v) Order (vi) Genus
(vii) Kingdom

(1) iv → vi → ii → v → iii → i→ vii

(2) iv → vi → ii → iii → i → vii → v
(3) iv → vi → iii → ii → v → vii → i
(4) iv → vi → ii → iii → v → i → vii

54) When we move from species to kingdom in taxonomic hierarchy, the common characters from
one taxon to another taxon :

(1) Can increase

(2) Can decrease
(3) Always decrease
(4) Remain constant

55) Assertion : Insects represents a group of organisms sharing common features like three pairs of
jointed legs.
Reason : Taxonomic groups are distinct biological entities and not merely morphological
aggregates.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

56) Which option is related with only monera and not related with other kingdom of R.H. Whittaker?

(1) Decomposer nature

(2) Presence of cell wall and cell membrene
(3) Well develop tissue system
(4) Nitrogen fixation ability

57) Which of the following is incorrect about blue green algae ?

(1) They may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous

(2) Their colonies are generally surrounded with membranous sheath
(3) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
(4) Some of the members can fix atmospheric nitrogen

58) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Mesosomes - Cell respiration

(2) Plasmid - bear photosynthetic pigments
(3) Flagella - help in formation of conjugation tube
(4) Capsule - help in locomotion

59) How many organisms are included in Monera in given list ?

(A) Slime moulds (B) Dinoflagellates
(C) Protozoans (D) Pseudomonas
(E) Archebacteria (F) Basidiomycetes

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

60) Which of the following group of organisms produce auxospore ?

(1) Dinoflagellate
(2) Diatoms
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Slime molds

61) Diatomite is used in polishing of stone and metals because :

(1) Gritty cell wall

(2) Prokaryote
(3) Eukaryote
(4) Major producer of ocean

62) Read the following statements.

(i) Presence of flagella
(ii) Soap box like cell wall
(iii) Predating on other smaller organisms
(iv) Formation of diatomaceous earth
How many statements are true about chrysophytes?

(1) (i), (ii), (iv)

(2) (ii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii)

63) I. Mostly marine II. Appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red colour
III. Photosynthetic
IV. Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates
V. Most of them have two flagella Above statements are correct for :

(1) Diatoms
(2) Chlorella
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Euglena

64) Assertion : Gonyaulax makes the sea appear red (red tides).
Reason : They undergo rapid multiplication in the sea.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

65) Identify the diagram given below and choose the incorrect statement from option given next to

it.

(1) Cell wall is divided into stiff cellulosic plates on the outer surface.
(2) It is a desmid secreting toxins killing other marine animals.
(3) It undergoes rapid multiplication
(4) Most of them have two flagella lying at the right angle to each other.

66) Identify the virus and name the structure marked A, B, C, D and E :

Bacteriophage, A = Head, B = Sheath,

(1)
C = Collar, D = Tail fibre, E = Base plate
Bacteriophage, A = Head, B = Collar,
(2)
C = Base plate, D = Sheath, E = Tail fibre
 Bacteriophage, A = Head, B = Sheath,
(3)
C = Tail fibre, D = Collar, E = Base plate
Bacteriophage, A = Head, B = Collar,
(4)
C =Sheath, D = Tail fibre, E = Base plate

67) Identify A and B in the given diagram

(1) A-Heterocyst, B-Filamentous BGA

(2) A-Heterocyst, B-Colonial BGA
(3) A-Trichoderm cell, B-Nostoc
(4) A-Mucilagenous sheath, B-Spirulina

68) Match column I with column II by identifying types of protozoan and their example ?

Column-I Column-II
Amoeboid
(i) (a) Entamoeba
protozoans
Flagellated
(ii) (b) Plasmodium
protozoans
Ciliated
(iii) (c) Paramoecium
protozoans
(iv) Sporozoans (d) Trypanosoma
(1) (i)-a, (ii)-d, (iii)-c, (iv)-b
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-b
(3) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-a, (iv)-d
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a

69) Read the following pair :-

(A) Diatoms - Ascospore
(B) Dinoflagellates - armoured algae
(C) Slime mould - decomposer nature
(D) Euglenoids - sometime behave like predator
(E) Protozoa - unicellular prokaryotes
Choose the correct pair

(1) A,B,C,D
(2) B,C,D,E
(3) B,C,D
(4) A,C,D,E

70) Under suitable conditions slime moulds form an aggregation, called :-

(1) Pseudopodia
(2) Basidiocarp
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Gemma

71) Character belongs to slime moulds

A. Saprophytes
B. Forms plasmodium under favourable condition
C. Spores posses true walls
D. Spores are dispersed by water
E. Body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic matter.

(1) All except E

(2) All except D
(3) All except C and E
(4) All except B

72) Select correct statement about slime moulds?

(1) Saprophytic, plasmodium with cell wall, spores dispersed by air currents
Saprophytic, plasmodium without cell wall, spores with true cell wall and dispersed by air
(2)
currents
(3) Parasitic, plasmodium without cell wall, spores dispersed by air current
(4) Parasitic, plasmodium without cell wall, spores with true wall and dispersed by water current

73) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Fungi prefer to grow in cold and humid places

(2) Karyogamy in fungi occurs after plasmogamy
(3) Yeast are used to make bread and beer.
(4) Fungi body consist of long, slender thread like structures called mycelium.

74) Which of the following is not a feature of phycomycetes ?

(1) Members have coenocytic, aseptate hyphae

(2) Members asexually reproduce by zoospores and aplanospores
(3) Some members are found in aquatic habitats
(4) All the members are parasitic

75) The fungus, commonly known as bread mould is :

(1) Alternaria
(2) Rhizopus
(3) Penicillium
(4) Aspergillus

76) Late blight of potato is caused by :-

(1) Albugo candida

(2) Cleviceps purpurea
(3) Puccinia graminis
(4) Phytophthora infestans

77) Study the given examples carefully :-

Saccharomyces, Penicillium, Rhizopus, Puccinia, Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Ustilago, Albugo,
Trichoderma, Agaricus, Mucor, Neurospora.
How many Genus belongs to phycomycetes ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

78) Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work.

(1) Ustilago
(2) Puccinia
(3) Neurospora
(4) Aspergillus

79) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : In Ascomycetes, asexual spore are conidia, produced exogenously on the special
hypha called conidiophore.
Statement-II : In Ascomycetes, sexual spore are called ascospores which are produced
endogenously in sac like asci.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below
:

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

80) Asexual spores are generally absent in

(1) Agaricus
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Neurospora
(4) Yeast
81) Which class of fungi is known as bracket fungi ?

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

82) After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in -

(1) Agaricus
(2) Alternaria
(3) Neurospora
(4) Saccharomyces

83) Read the following statements:

(A) Sex organs are absent
(B) Karyogamy and meiosis take place in club-shaped structures
(C) Rust and smut disease
(D) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common
Above statements are related with :-

(1) Deuteromycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Ascomycetes

84) Which one of the following statement is not true?

(1) In Alternaria mycelium is septate and branched

Members of deuteromycetes commonly called as imperfect fungi because only sexual stage of
(2)
these fungi are known
(3) The deuteromycetes reproduced by asexual spores known as conidia
Some members of deuteromycetes are saprophytes or parasite while a large number of them
(4)
are decomposers

85) Viroids are non-cellular agents that contain :-

(1) Protein and ss RNA

(2) Only ds DNA
(3) Only ss RNA
(4) Protein and ds DNA

86) In T.M.V. capsid, number of capsomers are :-

(1) 1230
(2) 2310
(3) 3120
(4) 2130

87) In general, viruses that infect plants have :-

(1) Single Stranded RNA

(2) Single Stranded DNA
(3) Double Stranded RNA
(4) Double Stranded DNA

88) Lichen can not grow in -

(1) Unpolluted areas

(2) Area where there is humidity
(3) Area polluted with SO2
(4) All of these

89) Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association between :-

(1) Algae and fungi

(2) Fungus and roots of Bryophytes
(3) Fungus and roots of higher plants
(4) Algae and Bacteria

90) In which kingdom would you classify the archaebacteria and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the
five kingdom system of classification is used?

(1) Monera
(2) Plantae
(3) Fungi
(4) Protista
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 2 4 4 1 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 2 3 4 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 1 4 2 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 1 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 4 4 3 2 1 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 1 3 4 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 1 3 1 1 1 4 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 1 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 4 2 3 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Both (1) & (2)

2)

Conceptual

3)

Conceptual

4) sin2 15 + cos2 15 = 1

5)

All of the above

6) 1. Explanation (30 words):

We are asked to find the value of (sin(180∘) + cos(90∘)) 2 This involves evaluating the
trigonometric values and then squaring the result.
2. Concept (20 words):
Use the known values of trigonometric functions sin(180∘) and cos(90∘) then square their sum.
3. Formula:

4. Calculation (Minimum Steps):

1. sin(180∘) = 0 and cos(90∘) = 0

7)

= radian

8)

Conceptual

9)
Conceptual

10)

Conceptual

11)

y = 3x + 5 ⇒
⇒ y–coordinate changes at faster rate.

12)

Conceptual

13)

Conceptual

14)

Conceptual

15)

6x(x2 + 5)2

16)

17)

y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36

6x2 – 24x = 0
6x2 = 24x
6x (x – 4) = 0
x = 0, x = 4

at x = 4,
x = 4 is point for local minima

18)

19)

Conceptual

20)

Conceptual

21)

22)

23)

Conceptual

24)

Conceptual

25)

Area =

=
= (13 – 03) + (12 – 02) + (1 – 0)
= 3 unit

26)

Conceptual
27) 1+2+3+...+n

28) Sn = [4 + 64] = 544

29)

Unit vector

30) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
b=

31)
Angle between & is 0°

32)

33)

Work

34)

Conceptual

35)

Conceptual

36)

Conceptual
37)

|A – B| ≤ R ≤ A + B

38)

Volume is scalar

39)

Along the axis of rotation

40) Question explanation: Expression of unit vector

Solution: Unit vector can be expressed as the ratio of vector to its magnitude i.e.

Concept: Types of vector

Formula:

41) θ = 120°

42) As the multiple of in the given vector is zero therefore the vector lies in XZ plane and
projection of this vector on y-axis is zero.

43)
The component of force in vertical direction

= F cos θ = F cos 60° = 5 × = 2.5 N

44)

∴ cos α = , cos β = , cos γ =

45)
 Conceptual

CHEMISTRY

46)

Conceptual

47)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the value of the orbital angular momentum of an
electron in the 2s-orbital. In simpler terms, it wants to know how much angular momentum the
electron has when it is in the second energy level and s-orbital (which has zero angular
momentum quantum number).

Underlying Concept: Orbital angular momentum in quantum mechanics is related to the

angular momentum quantum number (â„“) of an electron in an atom. Each type of orbital (s, p,
d, f) has a different â„“ value, which determines the magnitude of the angular momentum. For
s-orbitals, â„“ = 0, which means the angular momentum is zero.

Relevant Formulas: The orbital angular momentum L is given by where

is the orbital angular momentum, is the azimuthal quantum number or orbital angular
momentum quantum number, and is Planck's constant.

Step-by-Step Calculation: For the 2s-orbital, , so substituting in the formula:

Therefore, the orbital angular momentum is zero.

Tips and Tricks: Recall that the s-orbitals always have zero orbital angular momentum,
regardless of the principal quantum number . This is an easy shortcut-if it's an s-orbital, the
angular momentum is zero.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to confuse the principal quantum number with
the angular momentum quantum number , leading to an incorrect value for angular
momentum.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like , , or assume nonzero

angular momentum quantum numbers, which do not hold for s-orbitals where .

48)

Conceptual
49)

Conceptual

50)

Conceptual

51)

All of the above

52)

Conceptual

53)

Conceptual

54)

Conceptual

55)

Conceptual

56)

α-ray scattering experiment

57)

Only (ii) & (iv)

58)

59)

third excited state

60)
61) Electron Proton Neutron α-particle
e 1 unit 1 unit zero 2 units
m 1/1837 unit 1 unit 1 unit 4-units
e/m 1837 1 zero 1/2

62)

63)

Conceptual

64)

Conceptual

65)

66)

Conceptual

67)

Microwave, Infrared, U.V, X-ray

68)

69) Mn : [Ar]4s2, 3d5 d-e– ⇒ 5

N : 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 p-e– ⇒ 3
Na : 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s s-e– ⇒ 5
2 2 6 1

He : 1s2 s-e– ⇒ 2
B : 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 p-e– ⇒ 1

70)

Conceptual

71)
Conceptual

72)

Conceptual

73)

2.1 × 10–18

74)

Conceptual

75)

A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)

76)

2 electrons with opposite spin

77)

78)

a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

79)

80)

A - q, B - s, C - p, D - r

81) Statement (i) is related to Heisenberg's uncertainity principle. Statement (iii) belongs to
Pauli's exclusion principle.
 82) For statement (ii) there is no time lag between striking of light beam and the ejection of
electrons. For statement (iii) refer statement (iv).

83) Order of energies of subshell is 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p

84)

rn = 0.529 × Å
rn ∝ n2

for Li+2, r2 : r5 will be

85)

P.E. = –6.8 ev
P.E. = 2 × E
–6.8 = 2 × E
E = –3.4 ev
So, electron present first excited state.

86)

87)

Conceptual

88) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

89)

(d) < (b) < (c) < (a)

90)

Conceptual

BIOLOGY

91) Explanation:
 Oxygen makes up about 65% of our body mass, primarily as part of water (H₂O).Therefore,
the answer is Oxygen.

The correct answer is 2.

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

93)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to identify which of the given molecular structures
are zwitter ions. A zwitter ion is a molecule that contains both positive and negative charges at
different locations within the same molecule.

Underlying Concept: Zwitter ions are molecules that have both a positively charged group
and a negatively charged group, but the overall molecule is electrically neutral. In amino
acids, this typically means having an 9NH3+ (ammonium) group and a 9COO- (carboxylate)
group simultaneously.

Tips and Tricks: Focus on the presence of charged groups specifically 9NH3+ and 9COO- in
the molecule to identify zwitter ions.

Common Mistakes: Confusing molecules that have only one charged group or lack either
9NH3+ or 9COO- as zwitter ions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options without both the 9NH3+ and 9COO- groups are
not zwitter ions and thus incorrect. For example, if a molecule has only a neutral or singly
charged group, it is not zwitterionic.

94) NCERT XI Pg.# 145

95) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 145

96) NCERT XI Pg # 144

97)

Proteins and nucleic acids are biomacromolecules and are found in the acid-insoluble fraction
during the chemical analysis of living tissues.

Lipids are not biomacromolecules because their molecular weight is less than 800 Da, and they are
found in the acid-soluble fraction, not the acid-insoluble fraction.
 The correct answer is:

2. i and ii

98)

Non-equilibrium steady state

99)

iv, iii, ii, i

100)

The bond absent in the tertiary structure of proteins is 4. Phosphodiester bond.

Explanation: Phosphodiester bonds are found in the backbone of DNA and RNA, not in
protein structure.

101)

Concept: Enzymes are sensitive to temperature. Low temp slows them down (reversible),
high temp can denature (irreversible).

A. Competitive inhibition occurs when an inhibitor mimics the substrate and competes for the
active site.

Explanation
Both statements are scientifically accurate regarding enzyme behavior and inhibition.
Final Answer
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

102) Concept:
Exothermic reactions release energy, meaning the products have lower energy than the
reactants.
Endothermic reactions absorb energy, meaning the products have higher energy than the
reactants.
 Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a reaction, but they don't change the overall
energy of the reaction.
D. Explanation:
the reaction is exothermic, the products will be at a lower energy level than the reactants.
The enzyme lowers the activation energy, which is represented by the difference in energy
between A and B.
Since the reaction is exothermic, energy A is higher than B when the enzyme is present, and
energy A is in the absence of the enzyme.
Final Answer: Option 4: Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in
absence of enzyme.

103) Concept
Oxygen is the most abundant element in both Earth's crust and human body (in different
forms).

Explanation:

Abrin and Ricin are toxic proteins.

Proteins typically form 10-15% of cellular mass.
GLUT-4 is a glucose transporter in insulin-sensitive tissues.
Chitin is a polysaccharide present in arthropod exoskeletons.
Answer is option (4) 5

104)

Concept
Cholesterol is a lipid molecule with a characteristic four-ring structure and is an essential
component of cell membranes.
Explanation
Phospholipids: Contain a glycerol backbone, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group.
Glycerol: A three-carbon molecule, part of triglycerides and phospholipids.
Adenosine: A nucleoside made of adenine and ribose.
Cholesterol: A sterol with a four-ring structure, plays a critical role in membrane fluidity.
Final Answer
Option 4: Cholesterol is the correct answer.

105)

Concept

A. Lipids are hydrophobic (water-insoluble) molecules, including fats and oils.

B. Oils generally have lower melting points than solid fats like ghee (which is a type of clarified
butter, solid at room temperature).

Explanation
Statement A: Correct Lipids, including fats and oils, are generally water-insoluble due to their
hydrophobic nature.
Statement B: Correct - Oils are typically liquid at room temperature and have a lower melting point
than ghee, which is solid at room temperature.
Final Answer
Option 1: Both statements are correct.

106) Concept
Inulin, however, is a polymer of fructose, not glucose.
Explanation
Inulin: A polymer of fructose, not glucose.
Final Answer
Option 3: Inulin is the odd one out because it is a polymer of fructose, not glucose.

107)

Concept:

A. Peptide bond: The covalent bond that links amino acids together in proteins.

B. Glycosidic bond: The covalent bond that joins carbohydrate molecules together.

C. RuBisCO: Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase, an enzyme crucial for

carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

D. Glycogen: A highly branched polysaccharide used for energy storage in animals.

Explanation:

A. (a) Peptide bond: This bond links amino acids. Keratin is a protein, therefore it is made up of
peptide bonds. So (a) matches with (iv).
B. (b) Glycosidic bond: This bond links monosaccharides. Maltose is a disaccharide (two
glucose molecules) linked by a glycosidic bond. So (b) matches with (iii).
C. (c) RuBisCO: This is the most abundant protein in the biosphere, playing a vital role in
photosynthesis. So (c) matches with (ii).
D. (d) Glycogen: This is a storage polysaccharide with a highly branched structure. So (d)
matches with (i).

108) Question Explanation: A triglyceride consists of glycerol and three fatty acids linked by
ester bonds.
Correct Answer: Option 3 (Three)
Explanation: In a triglyceride, each of the three fatty acid molecules is attached to glycerol by
an ester bond, resulting in three ester bonds in total.

109) Concept :
Proteins: Proteins are indeed polypeptides, formed by amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
Heteropolymer vs. Homopolymer: A homopolymer is made of identical repeating units (like a
polymer of a single type of amino acid), while a heteropolymer is made of different types of
repeating units (In the case of proteins, different amino acids).
Explanation
 Assertion (A): True Proteins are indeed polypeptides consisting of amino acids joined by
peptide bonds
Reason (R): True A protein is a heteropolymer, made from different amino acids, rather than
just one type of amino acid.
However, Reason (R) does not directly explain Assertion (A) because the reason focuses on the
diversity of amino acids in proteins, while Assertion (A) explains the nature of protein as a
linear chain of amino acids.
Final Answer ; Option 1: Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is NOT the correct
explanation of Assertion.

110)

The correct answer is option 1. Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

A. Assertion: Lipids are not strictly macromolecules – True.

Their molecular weight typically does not exceed 800 Dalton

A. Reason: Their molecular weight typically does not exceed 800 Dalton – True

This explains why they are not considered typical macromolecules

111) Solution/Explanation:

A. Statement A: C-terminal amino acid is the first amino acid of a polypeptide chain.
B. This is incorrect. The C-terminal amino acid is the last amino acid in the chain. The first amino
acid is the N-terminal amino acid.
C. Statement B: Addition of an amino acid in a polypeptide chain is accompanied by loss of water
moiety.
D. This is correct. Each time an amino acid is added to the chain, a peptide bond is formed
through a dehydration reaction, releasing a water molecule.

The correct answer is [Link] statement B is correct.

112)

The correct answer is option 4. Both statement I and statement II are correct

A. Statement I: Cofactors can be prosthetic groups (tightly bound) or coenzymes (loosely

bound).

Statement II: NAD (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is a coenzyme derived from niacin (vitamin
B3).

113)
Concept: Holoenzyme: The catalytically active enzyme, consisting of the apoenzyme and its
cofactor.
Explanation: The holoenzyme is the complete, active enzyme.
The apoenzyme is the inactive protein part. The cofactor is the non-protein part, which can be
a metal ion or an organic molecule (coenzyme).
Therefore, the holoenzyme is formed by the combination of the apoenzyme and the cofactor.
Final Answer: 1 Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-factor

114) NCERT XI, Page # 114.

115) Module-10, Pg # 115

116) Module-10, Pg#116

117) Module-10 Pg#123

118)

all of these

119)

Conceptual

120)

Sequence of amino acids

121)

Nucleotide

122)

Conceptual

123)

Fungal cellulose is Chitin

124)

Conceptual
125) NCERT-XI Page no. 107

126) Module-3 Pg # 127

127)

NCERT XI Pg.# 117

128)

Conceptual

129)

Competitive, reversible inhibitor

130)

Km increases but Vmax remains unchange

131)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 158

132) NCERT Page # 157

133)

a - velocity of reaction, b - substrate concentration

134) NCERT XI Pg # 115

135) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 158

136)

A-II ; B-III ; C-I

137)

Morphological differences

138)
 Monera

139)

Engler and Prantl

140)

The correct answer is 3. Taxonomic hierarchy.

Explanation: Taxonomic hierarchy refers to the arrangement of categories (like species,
genus, family, order, class, etc.) used in the classification of organisms, from the most specific
to the most general. This system helps in organizing and understanding the relationships
among different organisms.

141)

The correct answer is 3. only ii.

Explanation:

A. (i) Man: The genus Homo is correct, and the family is Hominidae. This is a correct match.
B. (ii) Housefly: The genus is Musca (not Diptera, which is an order). So, this is not a correct
match.
C. (iii) Mango: The genus Mangifera and family Anacardiaceae are correctly matched.
D. (iv) Wheat: The genus Triticum and family Poaceae are also correctly matched.

142)

a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i

143)

iv → vi → ii → v → iii → i→ vii

144)

Always decrease

145) NCERT Pg. # 8

146)

NCERT XI Pg. # 13

147) NCERT XI pg.# 19

148) Option 1: Correct. Mesosomes are invaginations of the plasma membrane in bacteria,
involved in cellular processes like cell respiration.
Option 2: Incorrect. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules, not involved in bearing
photosynthetic pigments.
Option 3: Incorrect. Flagella are involved in locomotion, not in the formation of conjugation
tubes.
Option 4: Incorrect. Capsules protect bacteria and help in avoiding immune responses, not in
locomotion.

149)

Solution:

The Monera kingdom includes prokaryotic organisms, such as:

A. Pseudomonas (a bacterium)

B. Archaebacteria (a type of archaea)

Answer :- 1

150)

Diatoms

151)

Gritty cell wall

152) NCERT XI, Pg. # 14

153) NCERT (XIth), Pg. # 20, 21

154)

NCERT Pg # 21

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

156)

Bacteriophage, A = Head, B = Collar,

C =Sheath, D = Tail fibre, E = Base plate
157) NCERT Page-19

158)

(i)-a, (ii)-d, (iii)-c, (iv)-b

159)

Conceptual

160) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 21

161)

All except D

162) NCERT Pg. No. 21

163)

Fungi prefer to grow in cold and humid places

164) NCERT XI Pg. # 23

165) Rhizopus

166) Phytophthora infestans

167) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 23 & 24

Rhizopus, Albugo, Mucor

168) NCERT, Pg. # 17, 18

169)

Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

170)

NCERT Pg # 24

171)
Basidiomycetes

172) Agaricus

173) NCERT XI, Page # 24

174)

Members of deuteromycetes commonly called as imperfect fungi because only sexual stage of
these fungi are known

175) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 27

176)

Conceptual

177) NCERT Pg. # 26, Para-2.6

178)

Area polluted with SO2

179)

Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants. This
relationship is mutually beneficial, where the fungus aids the plant in absorbing water and
nutrients, while the plant provides the fungus with carbohydrates.

The correct answer is: OPTION (3) Fungus and roots of higher plants

180) Refer NCERT