16-07-2025

6001CMD30303225002 MD

PHYSICS

1) The location of a particle is changed. what can we say about the displacement and distance
covered by the particle:

(1) Both cannot be zero

(2) One of the two may be zero
(3) Both must be zero
(4) If one is positive, the other is negative and vice-versa

2) A ball is thrown upward with a velocity of 50 m/s. It will reach the ground after

(1) 10 s
(2) 20 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 40 s

3) A hall has the dimensions 10m x10mx10m. A fly starting at one corner ends up at a diagonally
opposite corner. The magnitude of its displacement is nearly

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) An insect starts climbing a conical birthday hat of radius 5 cm at base. It starts from point A and
reaches point B, taking spiral path on the hat. Find out its displacement if height is 12 cm:-

(1) 12 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 25 cm

5) Three particles P, Q and R are situated at point A on the circular path of radius 10 m. All three
particles move along different paths and reach point B as shown in figure. Then the ratio of distance
traversed by particles R and Q is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A train covers the first half of the distance between two stations with a speed of 30 km/h and the
other half with 70 km/h. Then its average speed is :

(1) 50 km/h
(2) 42 km/h
(3) 48 km/h
(4) 100 km/h

7) If a car cover 2/5th of total distance with v1 speed and 3/5 distance with v2 speed then the average
th

speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following pair of forces can give a resultant force of 2 N?

(1) 1 N and 2 N
(2) 1 N and 5 N
(3) 2 N and 5 N
(4) 1 N and 4 N

9) A person is moving in a circle of radius r with constant speed V. The change in velocity in moving
from A to B is
(1) 2V cos 40°
(2) 2V sin 40°
(3) 2V cos 20°
(4) 2V sin 20°

10) The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as x = at2 – bt3. The velocity at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero, where t is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The relation describes the position of a particle where x is in meters and t is in
seconds. The acceleration of particle is :–

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) zero

12) If for a particle position then :-

(1) velocity is constant

(2) acceleration is non zero
(3) acceleration is variable
(4) none of these

13) Which of the following equations represents the motion of a body moving with constant finite
velocity? in these equations, y denotes the displacement in time t and p, q and r are arbitary
constants :

(1) y = (p + qt)2 (r + pt)

(2) y = p + tqr
(3) y = (p + t) (q + t) (r + 1)
(4) y = (p + qt) rt

14) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the first 't'
seconds of tis descent is:-

(1) ut

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 40 seconds, it covers a distance
of:

(1) 200 m
(2) 800 m
(3) 1440 m
(4) 2980 m

16) A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in
the nth second to that covered in n seconds is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The position of a particle is given by . The initial velocity and acceleration are
respectively:

(1) b, 0
(2) –b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, –4d

18) A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If v is
velocity of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard is given by.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) The ratio of the distances traversed, in successive intervals of time by a body falling from rest,
are

(1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : ............
(2) 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 : ............
(3) 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13 : ............
(4) None of these

20) With what speed should a body be thrown upwards so that the distances traversed in 7th second
and 8th second are equal ?

(1) 58.4 m/s

(2) 49 m/s
(3)
(4) 68.6 m/s

21) A body is projected vertically up at t = 0 with a velocity of 100 m/s. Another body is projected
from the same point with same velocity after 6 seconds. Both bodies will meet at t =

(1) 6 s
(2) 8 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 13 s

22) ball is thrown vertically upwards. Assuming the air resistance to be constant and considerable :-

(1) the time of descent ≥ the time of ascent

(2) the time of descent < the time of ascent
(3) the time of descent > the time of ascent
(4) the time of descent = the time of ascent

23) A stone is thrown straight upward with a speed of 20 m/sec from a tower 200 m high. The speed
with which it strikes the ground is approximately
(g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 60 m/sec
(2) 65 m/sec
(3) 70 m/sec
(4) 75 m/sec

24) The velocity-time graph of an object is shown. The distance during the interval 0 to t5 is:-
(1) Area A + Area B +Area C +Area D +Area E
(2) Area A + Area C – Area B- Area D
(3) Area A + Area B + Area C + Area D
(4) Area A + Area C + Area E – Area B +Area D

25) A person walks along an east-west street and a graph of his displacement from home is shown in
figure. His average speed for the whole time interval is

(1) 0
(2) 23 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) None of these

26) Assertion: For one dimensional motion the angle between acceleration and velocity must be
zero.
Reason: One dimensional motion is always on a straight line.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; Reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

27) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at time t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as
shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be :
(1) 7.5 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 37.5 m/s

28) For the motion of a particle acceleration-time graph is shown in figure. The velocity time curve
for the duration of 0 – 4 seconds is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) Assertion: The average velocity of the object over an interval of time is either smaller than or
equal to the average speed of the object over the same interval.
Reason: Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; Reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

30) A ball is projected vertically upward from ground and goes to a certain height. Then return back
on ground. It hits the ground elastically. If this process is repeated the velocity time graph is -
[Take downward direction as negative]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) In the graph shown in fig. time is plotted along x-axis. Which quantity associated with a
projectile motion cannot be plotted along the y - axis?
(1) mechanical energy
(2) acceleration
(3) vertical velocity
(4) Horizontal velocity

32) Which of the following quantities remains constant during projectile motion?
(A) Average velocity between two points.
(B) Average speed between two points

(C)

(D)

(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

33) Three projectiles A, B and C are thrown from the same point in the same plane. Their
trajectories are shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(2) The launch speed is same for all the three
(3) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C
(4) The maximum height is same for all the three

34) A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of . If range of the projectile is four times
the maximum height attained by it then

(1) a = 2b
(2) b = a
(3) b = 2a
(4) b = 4a

35) A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100m. How much high above
the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball

(1) 200m
(2) 400m
(3) 100m
(4) 50m

36) A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If h1 and h2 be the maximum
height in the two cases, then:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Two bodies of masses 100kg and 50kg are projected horizontally from same height with speeds
40m/s and 20 m/s, simultaneously. The ratio of time taken by both the bodies to reach the ground is:-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

38) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly and attains a speed of 54 km/h in 10s, then it covers a
distance of

(1) 75 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 400 m

39) Four persons P, Q, R and S of same mass travel with same speed u along a square of side 'd'
such that each one always faces the person next to him. After what time will they meet each other?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from roof tops of two
buildings 100m apart and of same height of 200m with the same velocity of 25 m/s. When and where
will the two bullets collide. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) after 2s at a height 180 m

(2) after 2s at a height 20 m
(3) after 2s at a height 120 m
(4) they will not collide

41) If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where A and B are constants, then the distance
travelled by it between 1s and 2s is:

(1)

(2) 3A + 7B

(3)

(4)

42) A stone falls freely such that the distance covered by it in the last second of its motion is equal to
the distance covered by it in the first 3 second. It remained in air for:

(1) 2s
(2) 3s
(3) 5s
(4) 6s

43)

A body is projected with a velocity of 60 ms–1 at 30° to horizontal

Column - I Column - II

i. Initial velocity vector a.

ii. Velocity after 3s b.

iii. Displacement after 2s c.

iv. Velocity after 2s d.

(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
(2) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - c
(3) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
(4) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
44) A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity at half of the maximum height is 20m/s. The
maximum height attained by it is (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 8m
(2) 20m
(3) 40m
(4) 16m

45) A body is thrown vertically upwards from the top A of a tower. It reaches the ground in
t1 second. If it is thrown vertically downwards from A with the same speed it reaches the ground in
t2 seconds. If it is allowed to fall freely from A, then the time t (in sec) it takes to reach the ground is
given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) X = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2

Find out the group of element X.

(1) 2nd
(2) 8th
(3) 7th
(4) 4th

2)

The elements with atomic number 117 and 120 are yet to be discovered. In which group would you
place these elements when discovered ?

(1) 17, 2
(2) 16, 4
(3) 15, 3
(4) 18, 2

3)

Select the correct order of size for:

(1) Cl > Cl–

(2) Cl– > Br–
(3) Na+ > Cl–
(4) Br– > Cl–

4) In 7th Period of the modern periodic table electronic energy levels are in the order :

(1) 7s, 5f, 6d, 7p

(2) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
(3) 7p, 5f, 6d, 7p
(4) None of these

5) Which of the following order is correct for 1st ionisation enthalpy ?

(1) Li < B < Be < C < O < N

(2) Li < Be < B < C < O < N
(3) Li > B > Be > C > N > O
(4) Li < B < Be < C < N < O

6) An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium (uut) belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) ƒ-block

7) IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 for an element is 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8 and 162.2 eV respectively then
element is :-

(1) Na
(2) Si
(3) F
(4) Ca

8) Which process required maximum energy ?

(1) Na(g) → Na+(g) + e–

(2) Al+3(g) → Al+4(g) + e–
(3) Al+2(g) → Al+3(g) + e–
(4) Na+(g) → Na+2(g) + e–

9) The element having very high ionization enthalpy but zero electron affinity is :-

(1) H
(2) F
(3) He
(4) Be

10) Select process having exothermic step:

– 2
(1) S (g) —→ S ¯(g)
(2) O(g) —→ O¯(g)
–
(3) N(g) —→ N (g)
2+ 3+
(4) Al (g) —→ Al (g)

11) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct increasing order of their
radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

12) Which is correct order for electron gain enthalpy ?

(1) S < O < Cl < F

(2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) Cl < F < S < O
(4) F < Cl < O < S

13) The successive ionisation energies of an element (in eV/atom) are:-

IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4 IE5

11.2 24.3 57.4 77.4 392.0
The outer electronic configuration of the element may be :-
0
(1) ns2np
(2) ns2np3
(3) ns2np1
(4) ns2np2

14) Among the following species the highest radius is of :–

(1) Al+3
(2) F—
(3) Na+
(4) N3–

15) Match the following :

Which of the following is correct option?

(1) A – (ii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (iii)

(2) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)
(3) A – (iv); B – (iii); C – (ii); D – (i)
(4) A – (i); B – (ii); C – (iii); D – (iv)

16) Which of the following have highest atomic radius.

(1) F
(2) CI
(3) Br
(4) I

17) Match the element in column I with that in column II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Copper (i) Non-metal

(b) Fluorine (ii) Transition metal

(c) Silicon (iii) Lanthanoid

(d) Cerium (iv) Metalloid

Identify the correct match :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

18) The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

(1) unnilennium
(2) unununnium
(3) ununoctium
(4) ununennium
19) The electronic configuration of an element is 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1. What is the atomic number
of last element of the same group which is recently discovered :-

(1) 20
(2) 119
(3) 111
(4) None

20) In which of the following the energy change corresponds to first ionisation potential only :-

+ –
(1) X(g) → X (g) + e
+ –
(2) X2(g) → X (g) + e
+ –
(3) X(s) → X (g) + e
+ –
(4) X(aq) → X (aq) + e

21) The correct order of electron affinity is :-

(1) Be < B < C < N

(2) Be < N < B < C
(3) N < Be < C < B
(4) N < C < B < Be

22) The ionic radii of N3–, O2– and F– are respectively given by -

(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71

(2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

23) Atomic number 15, 33, 51 represents the following family -

(1) Carbon family

(2) Nitrogen family
(3) Oxygen family
(4) None

24) Which among the following molecules have sp3d hybridisation with one lone pair of electrons on
the central atom?
(i) SF4 (ii) [PCl4]+
(iii) XeO2F2 (iv) ClOF3

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only
25) Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(1) O2
(2) B2
(3) NO
(4) All

26) Give the correct order of strength of H-bond

(a) O – H ----- O
(b) F – H ------ F
(c) Cl – H ----- Cl
(d) N – H ----- N

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > a > c > d
(3) b > a > d > c
(4) b > a > c = d

27) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

3
(1) XeF2 → sp d
3 2
(2) PCl5 → sp d
3
(3) NH3 → sp
3
(4) ClF3 → sp d

28) Give the correct order of stability among

Li2, Li2⊕, Li2–

⊕ –
(1) Li2 > Li2 > Li2
⊕ –
(2) Li2 > Li2 >Li2
– ⊕
(3) Li2 > Li2 > Li2
– ⊕
(4) Li2 > Li2 > Li2

29) Which of the compound is hypervalent :–

(1) IF7
(2) NH3
(3) BeF2
(4) CH4

30) Which of the following bond is strongest ?

(1) 2s-2s
(2) 2s-2p
(3) 1s-1s
(4) 2p-2p

31) Hybridisation state of CF4 and XeF4 is respectively :-

(1) sp3d2, sp3

(2) sp3d2, sp2
(3) sp2, sp3
(4) sp3, sp3d2

32) Consider two elements with atomic no. 37 and 53, the bond between their atoms would be :-

(1) Covalent
(2) Ionic
(3) Co-ordinate
(4) Metallic

33) Minimum lone pair on central atom will be present in :-

(1) XeO3
(2) XeF4
(3) ClF3
(4) HOCl

34) Which of the following is a polar molecule ?

(1) XeF4
(2) BF3
(3) SF4
(4) SiF4

35) Which is not correctly matched ?

(1) XeO3 → Trigonal Bipyramidal

(2) ClF3 → Bent T-shape
(3) XeOF4 → Square pyramidal
(4) XeF2 → Linear

36) Which of the following is paramagnetic and bond order is 0.5 ?

(1) F2
+
(2) H2
(3) N2
–
(4) O2

37) In which of the following pairs of molecules have bond order three and are isoelectronic :-
(1) NO+, CO+
(2) CN–, CO
CN–,
(3)

(4) CO,

38) Decreasing order of bond angle :-

(1) CO2 > CH4 > BF3

(2) BF3 > CH4 > CO2
(3) CO2 > BF3 > CH4
(4) CO2 > BF3 = CH4

39) Number of paired electrons in O2 molecule according to MOT.

(1) 8
(2) 14
(3) 16
(4) 10

40)

Which of the following is most ionic?

(1) NaCℓ
(2) MgCℓ2
(3) AℓCℓ3
(4) KCℓ

41)

The dipole moment of which compound is maximum?

(1) H – I
(2) H – Br
(3) H – F
(4) H – Cℓ

42) Which pair of species does not exist :-

(1) He2, Li2

+ +
(2) H2 , He2
(3) B2, O2
(4) Be2, Ne2

43) Which of the following is a electron defficient molecule?

(1) BeCl2
(2) PCl5
(3) H2O
(4) All of these

44) If inter nuclear axis is "y"-axis in a molecule and it is forming two π-bonds, then they are formed
by overlapping of :-

(1) px + px
(2) py + py
(3) pz + pz
(4) Both (1) and (3)

45) Correct statement regarding molecules SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are :

(1) 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of central atom respectively

(2) 1, 0 and 1 lone pair of central atom respectively
(3) 0, 0 and 2 lone pair of central atom respectively
(4) 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of central atom respectively

BOTANY

1) The main plant body of bryophytes is ___A___. It produces ___B___, hence is called a ___C___. Fill in
the blanks by choosing the correct option for A, B and C.

(1) A–diploid, B–spores, C–sporophyte

(2) A–haploid, B–gametes, C–gametophyte
(3) A–diploid, B–endospores, C–sporophyte
(4) A–haploid, B–conidia, C–gametophyte

2) Which of the following statement is false for Funaria, Polytrichcum and Sphagnum.

(1) Their main plant body is gametophytic.

(2) They have elaborate mechanism for spore dispersal.
(3) They have tracheids in xylem.
(4) They have multicellular, branched rhizoids.

3) Statement-I: Bryophytes play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks/soil.

Statement-II: Gametophyte stage of mosses consist of protonema stage and leafy stage.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
4) Which of the followings are correct statements.
(a) Algae are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid, autotrophic & largely aquatic organisms.
(b) Cytotaxonomy is based on the chemical constituents of the plants.
(c) Algin and carrageen are commercially produced by red algae.
(d) Archaegonium of bryophytes is flask-shaped and produces a single egg.

(1) a, b & c only

(2) a & b only
(3) b, c & d only
(4) a & d only

5) Match the column given below :

Column-I (Genus) Column-II (Class)

A. Adiantum (i) Sphenopsida
B. Lycopodium (ii) Pteropsida
C. Equisetum (iii) Psilopsida
D. Psilotum (iv) Lycopsida
Correct option is :
(1) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii
(3) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
(4) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii

6) Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct option (A). In
gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence (B). The
multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium
(C). All gymnosperms are heterosporous.
Of these statements :

(1) (A) and (C) are true but (B) is false.

(2) (A) and (B) are true but (C) is false.
(3) (B) and (C) are true but (A) is false.
(4) (B) and (C) are false but (A) is true.

7) Gametophytic generation is dominant in

(1) Pteridophyta (Pteris)

(2) Bryophyta (Riccia)
(3) Angiosperms (Rose)
(4) Gymnosperms (Pinus)

8) Bryophytes are often called “amphibians of the plant kingdom” because:

(1) They can live both in water and on land

(2) They have a life cycle that requires water for reproduction
(3) They are capable of photosynthesis in the dark
(4) They have specialized amphibious structures

9) Read the following statements and select the correct option:

I. Heterospory is found in all members of pteropsida
II. Selaginella is advanced among pteridophytes as it produces seeds
III. Pinus has unbranched stem and has male and female cones on separate plants
IV. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of life cycle of Fucus

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Both II and III are correct
(3) Only II is correct
(4) Only IV is incorrect

10) Read the following statements and select the correct statements among them.
I. Numerical taxonomy is based on all observable characteristics and each character is given equal
importance.
II. Volvox show Oogamy where fusion between one large, non-motile female gamete and a smaller,
motile male gamete took place.
III. Members of phaeophyceae or brown algae are found primarily in marine habitats.
IV. Sunken stomata in gymnosperms helps to reduce water loss.

(1) I,IV
(2) II,IV
(3) I only
(4) I,II,III,IV

11)
How many statements are incorrect with respect to above diagram
I. It is member of phaeophyceae.
II. It has r-phycoerythrin in their body.
III. Found in warmer marine areas.
IV. Food is stored as floridean starch.
V. Two, unequal and laterally attached flagella are present in its gametes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) ___________ species of marine algae are used as food

(1) 70
(2) 80
(3) 50
(4) 60

13) Fusing gametes are non-flagellated and similar in size in

(1) Fucus
(2) Eudorina
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Ulothrix

14) Find the incorrect statement for the given diagram

(1) Zygote develops into young embryo within the female gametophyte
(2) Posses small leaves
(3) Spore germinates to give rise to inconspicuous prothallus on the ground
(4) Sporophylls form distinct compact structures called strobili

15) Assertion (A): Most pteridophytes are homosporous.

Reason (R): Salvinia is homosporous pteridophyte.

(1) A is correct and R is incorrect

(2) A & R both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is incorrect and R is correct

16) Horse tails and ferns

(1) Lack archegonia

(2) Produce seeds
(3) Are vascular cryptogams
(4) Have dominant gametophytic phase in life cycle

17) Read the following Assertion (A) & Reason (R) and choose the correct answer
Assertion (A): Spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical
regions
Reason (R): Prothallus of pteridophyte require cool, damp and shady places to grow

(1) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A & R both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect and R is correct

18) Select the mismatch :-

(1) Pinus – Coralloid roots

(2) Cycas – Unbranched stem
(3) Ginkgo – Naked seeded plant
(4) Equisetum – Homosporous

19) Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by the formation of specialized structures called:-

(1) Gemmae
(2) Zoospores
(3) Sporangia
(4) Microspores

20) Kelps are :-

(1) Fresh water algae

(2) Marine green algae
(3) Profusely branched marine brown algae
(4) Large marine parenchymatous red algae

21) A protonema is?

(1) A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops

(2) A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes
(3) A creeping, green, filamentous and gametophytic structure produced in bryophytes
(4) A primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes

22) In gymnosperms, the nucellus is protected by integument and this composite structure is known
as :-

(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Anther
(4) Strobili

23) Assertion (A): In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and
carried by air currents.
Reason (R): Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male
gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

24) Classification of algae is mainly based up on :-

(1) Reproductive organs

(2) Structure of spores
(3) Pigments
(4) Stored food

25) Independent alternation of generation is found in

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Spermatophyta
(3) Thallophyta
(4) Bryophyta

26) Pyrenoids are characteristically found in algae. A pyrenoid consists of:

(1) Core of starch surrounded by protein

(2) Core of protein surrounded by starch
(3) Core of fatty acids covered by starch
(4) Nucleic acid and protein

27) In which of the following algae sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous or
oogamous?

(1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(4) Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

28) Match the following column I with column II and choose the correct answer

Column I Column II

a. Algin i. Sphagnum

b. Peat ii. Brown algae

c. Agar iii. Red algae

Used for culturing

d. r-phycoerythrin iv.
microbes in labs
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
29) Alga shown in the following figure is ---A----, and shows-----B----kind of sexual reproduction

(1) A-Colonial; B-Isogamous

(2) A-Filamentous; B-Anisogamous
(3) A-Profusely branched form ;B-oogamous
(4) A-Colonial ; B-oogamous

30) Which of the following options correctly describes the structure of zoospores in Phaeophyceae

(1) Pear shaped and have 2 - 8 unequal flagella attached at apex

(2) Ribbon shaped and have 2 equal laterally attached flagella
(3) Pear shaped and have 2 unequal laterally attached flagella
(4) Pear shaped without flagella

31)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Artificial classifications separated the closely related species
Reason (R): Artificial classifications are based on a few characteristics
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

32)

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to choose the correct answer
Assertion (A): Heterospory is a precursor to the seed habit considered an important step in
evolution
Reason (R): In heterosporous type of pteridophytes, zygote develops into young embryo within the
female gametophyte

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

33)
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to choose the correct answer
Assertion (A): Giving equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics is not acceptable in
plant classification.
Reason (R): Vegetative characters are more easily affected by environment.

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

34) —————— is added to ice creams to increase its viscosity

(1) Mannitol
(2) Agar
(3) Starch
(4) Chlorellin

35) Which of the following algae are used as food

(1) Laminaria
(2) Porphyra
(3) Sargassum
(4) More than one options is correct

36) Type of taxonomy which involves using computers, numbers and codes

(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Chemotaxonomy
(3) Cladistics
(4) Numerical taxonomy

37) What is the chromosome number in capsule, gemma and protonema, if spore mother cell
contains 20 chromosomes?

(1) 10, 10 and 20 respectively

(2) 10, 20 and 10 respectively
(3) 20, 10 and 10 respectively
(4) 10, 10 and 10 respectively

38)

How many of the following belongs to brown algae

Sargassum, Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Chara, Ulothrix, Gelidium.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

39) Stored food material in Brown algae is

(1) Floridian starch

(2) Mannitol
(3) Starch
(4) Glycogen

40) Statement I: Chlorella a filamentous alga rich in proteins is used as food supplement.
Statement II: Chlorella is unicellular free living non motile algae not filamentous.

(1) Both I & II are correct

(2) Both I & II are incorrect
(3) I is correct & II is incorrect
(4) I is incorrect & II is correct

41) Agar is obtained from the cell walls of ________

(1) Dictyota and Laminaria

(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Spirogyra and Ulothrix
(4) Chara and Chlorella

42) Assertion A: Mosses and lichens are the pioneer species in the process of ecological succession
and play a crucial role in soil formation.
Reason R: By decomposing rocks, mosses make the substrate suitable for the growth of higher
plants and prevent soil erosion.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

43) Statement I: Gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are enclosed by an ovary wall and
remain unexposed.
Statement II: Nucellus helps in pollen formation in pinus plant.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

44) Statement I: Roots in Cycas have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza.
Statement II: The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature,
humidity, and wind.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

45) Statement I: In cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne on the same tree.
Statement II: The megaspore mother cell divides meiotically to form four megaspores.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

ZOOLOGY

1) In the central nervous system change in voltage stimulates opening of sodium ion channel
completely to initiate a nerve impulse is referred to as :-

(1) Refractory potential

(2) Threshold potential
(3) Action Potential
(4) Resting membrane potential

2) Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junction are called :

(1) Hormones
(2) Neurotransmitters
(3) Lymph
(4) Cerebrospinal fluid

3) Resting membrane potential is maintained by

(1) Hormones
(2) Neurotransmitters
(3) Ion pumps
(4) Receptors

4)

Read the following statements (a – d) ;

(a) Somatic nervous system relays impulses from the CNS to skelatal muscles
(b) Autonomic nervous system transmit impulses from CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth
muscles
(c) The Autonomic nervous system is classified into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system.
(d) CNS is divided into Somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

5) If myelin sheath is continuous in Myelinated nerve fibre; what will happen in nerve conduction?

(1) Velocity will be increased

(2) Conduction will be slow
(3) Conduction will stop
(4) No effect

6) Which of the following part of your brain has very convoluted surface to provide additional space
for many more neurons?

(1) Mid brain and cerebrum

(2) Cerebrum and Cerebellum
(3) Pons and cerebellum
(4) Thalamus and Medulla

7) Interpretate the given condition with respect to axonal membrane :-

(1) Neuron during resting phase

(2) Neuron during hyperpolarization state
(3) Neuron during repolarization state
(4) Both (2) and (3)

8) Hypothalamus does not control :-

(1) Hunger and satiety

(2) Thermoregulation
(3) Libido
(4) Creativity, thinking and consiousness

9) Pons varoli is characterised by a centre called:-

(1) Hunger centre

(2) Thirst centre
(3) Cardiac acceleratory centre
(4) Pneumotaxic centre
10) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord consist :-

(1) Multipolar neuron

(2) Bipolar neuron
(3) Unipolar neuron
(4) Pseudounipolar neuron

11) Division is not possible in neuron due to absence of :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Centriole
(3) Nissl's granule
(4) Neurofibril

12) Nissl's granules are found in____ and helps in ________ :-

(1) Cyton only, Lipid synthesis

(2) Cyton & Axon, Protein synthesis
(3) Dendron & Axon, Protein synthesis
(4) Dendron & cyton, Protein synthesis

13) Select the correct match :–

(A) CNS - Brain & spinal cord
(B) PNS - SNS & CNS
(C) Afferent fibre :- CNS to involuntary organ
(D) Efferent fibre : CNS to voluntary organ

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) A & D

14) Vascular and internal protective coat around brain is–

(1) Pia mater

(2) Arachnoid
(3) Duramater
(4) Sub-dural space

15) Amygdala and Hippocampus are the parts of–

(1) Fore brain

(2) Mid brain
(3) Hind brain
(4) Brain stem

16) The major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling is–
(1) Thalamus
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) Optic lobes

17) Statement – 1 : Medulla oblongata is part of hind brain.

Statement – 2 : Pons is found in forebrain.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both Statements are false.
(3) Statement–1 is true and Statement–2 is false.
(4) Statement–2 is true and Statement-1 is false.

18) Which of the following is the function of parasympathetic nervous system :-

(1) Increase BMR

(2) Relaxes muscles of urinary bladder
(3) Stimulates secretion of saliva
(4) Stimulates secretion of sweat glands

19)

Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?

(1) Vacuoles and fibres

(2) Flagellum and medullary sheath
(3) Nucleus and mitochondria
(4) Perikaryon and dendrites

20)

Which brain structure converts short term memory to long term memory ?

(1) Corpus mamilare

(2) Amygdala
(3) Thalamus
(4) Hippocampus

21)

Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct option:-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Axoplasm (i) impermeable to – ve charged proteins

(B) Axolemma (ii) low K+ and high Na+

(C) Fluid outside axon (iii) Active transport

 (D) Na+ – K+ pump (iv) High K+ and low Na+
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)

22) The process by which two or more organs interact and complement the functions of one another
is called :-

(1) Homeostasis
(2) Coordination
(3) Accommodation
(4) Adaptation

23) Value of threshold potential is :-

(1) –60mV
(2) –10mv
(3) +10mV
(4) +10nV

24) Which one of the following does not act as a neuro transmitter ?

(1) Nor-epinephrine
(2) Cortisone
(3) Acetylcholine
(4) Epinephrine

25) Which structure is absent in unmyelinated axon?

(A) Neurilemma (B) Axolemma
(C) Ranvier's node (D) Myelin sheath

(1) A, C & D
(2) Only A & D
(3) Only C & D
(4) A, B & D

26) Which statement is incorrect about electrical synapse ?

(1) These are commonly found in human

(2) Synaptic delay is very common
(3) Synaptic fatigue is found
(4) All of the above

27) Irritability and conductivity are maximum developed in :-

(1) Muscular tissue
(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

28) In a neuron, nerve impulse travels :-

(1) Away from cyton

(2) Towards cyton
(3) Both away and towards cyton
(4) Towards dendron

29)

Action potential of a nerve cell is created by?

(1) Ca2+
(2) K+
(3) Na+
(4) Cl–

30) Spinal cord and brain are wrapped in protective membranes known as :-

(1) Myelin sheath

(2) Menix/Meninges
(3) Axonal membrane
(4) Plasmalemma

31) The release of chemical messenger from synaptic vesicles is under the influence of these ion(s) :-

(1) Cl–
(2) Fe++ and S++
(3) Ca++
(4) Mg++ and Sr++

32) Identify wrong statement among given regarding transmission of Impulse?

(1) Electrical synapses can not be blocked

(2) Most of the synapses in our system are chemical synapses.
(3) Distance between two neurones are always more in electrical synapse than in chemical synapse.
(4) In chemical synapse pre - synaptic membrane has voltage gated Ca++ channel.

33)

Match the following columns :

 Column-I Column-II
(A) Electrical signals (i) Neuroglia
Bundles of
(B) (ii) Diffusion
nerve fibres
(C) Packing cells (iii) Nerve impulses
(D) Ion channels (iv) Nerves

A B C D
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) iii iv i ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Parasympathetic nerve ending releases:

(1) GABA
(2) Dopamine
(3) Acetylcholine
(4) Noradrenaline

35) Which one of the following statements are correct about neuron impulse?
(i) Impulse transmission through electricle synapse is slow than a chemical synapse.
(ii) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is commonly found in ANS and somatic neural systems.
(iii) Multipolar neurons are specially found in cerebral cortex where pseudo unipolar neurons are
found in dorsal root ganglia.
(iv) Neural organisation is very simple in human beings.

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct

(2) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(3) (i) and (iii) are correct
(4) (ii) and (iii) are correct

36) Assertion: Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into other across electrical
synapse.
Reason: Membranes of pre & post synaptic membranes are in very close proximity in electrical
synapse.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) Assertion: Brain acts as command and control system of our body.
Reason: Both voluntary and involuntary activities are controlled by brain.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Assertion: Inner part of cerebral hemisphere has opaque white appearance.
Reason: Nerve fibres are covered with myelin sheath in cerebrum.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Assertion: Cerebellum provides additional space for accomodation of many more neurons.
Reason: Cerebellum has convoluted surface.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) In which of the following, speed of conduction is the fastest? Note :

Diameter and length of all the three a, b, c, are same.

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) a, b
41) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a–axon, b–synaptic cleft, c–pre synaptic membrane, d–synaptic vesicle, e–receptor, f–post
(1)
synaptic membrane
a–axon terminal, b–synaptic vesicles, c–pre synaptic membrane, d–synaptic cleft, e–post synaptic
(2)
membrane, f–neurotransmitters
a–synaptic vesicles, b–axon terminal, c–post synaptic membrane, d–neurotransmitter, e–pre
(3)
synaptic membrane, f–receptor
a–axon terminal, b–synaptic vesicles, c–pre synaptic membrane, d–synaptic cleft, e–post synaptic
(4)
membrane, f–receptors

42) Above diagram represents the nerve conduction, in this

diagram point A and B represent respectively:

(1) Resting membrane potential, threshold potential

(2) Action potential, threshold potential
(3) Threshold potential, Action potential
(4) Resting membrane potential, action potential

43) The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement,
pleasure, rage, fear etc., are:

(1) Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus

(2) Brain stem & epithalamus
(3) Corpus callosum and thalamus
(4) Limbic system & hypothalamus

44) In man the osmotic centres are situated in-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) Medulla oblongata

45) Respiratory control in brain occurs in:-

(1) Medulla oblongata

(2) Cerebellum
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Pericardium
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 1 4 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 1 2 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 1 1 1 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 4 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 2 3 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 1 4 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 3 2 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 3 4 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 2 4 4 1 1 1 3 3 4 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 3 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 1 1 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Both cannot be zero

2)

3)

4) 13 cm

5)

6) 42 km/h

7)

8)

9) 2V sin 20°

10)

11) 2 m/s2

12) velocity is constant

13) y = p + tqr

14)

15) 800 m
16)

17)

18)

19) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : ............

20) 68.6 m/s

21) 13 s

22) the time of descent > the time of ascent

23) 65 m/sec

24) Area A + Area B +Area C +Area D +Area E

25) 8 m/s

26) One dimensional motion is always along straight line. But acceleration may be opposite of
velocity and so angle between them will be 180°.

27) 15 m/s

28)

29) Because displacement distance and so average velocity average speed.

 30)

31) vertical velocity

32) C and D

33) The launch speed is same for all the three

34) b = a

35) 50m

36)

37) 1 : 1

38)

39)

40) after 2s at a height 180 m

41)

42)

43) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY
46)

Group no. for d-block.

(n – 1) d + ns e–
5 + 2 = 7 group.

47)

Atomic no. 117 placed in group 17th and 7th period while atomic no. 120 placed in 2nd group and
7th period.

48)

Size order :
anion > neutral > cation atom

49)

n=7
ns (n–2) f, (n–1)d, np

50)

IP : P1 < S2 (Penetration effect)

IP : P4 < P3 (Half filled stability)

51)

UUT – 113
Group – 13
p-Block

52)

I.P. I II III IV V
7.1 14.3 35.5 46.8 162.2

Max. difference in IP
Number of valence electrons = 4
Element = Si

53) +ve charge↑ zeff↑ I.E.↑

54) Inert gases have high I.E. due to max. zeff in a period and zero electron affinity due to
most stable inert gas conf. (Complete octet)
55) First E.A. of neutral atom is exothermic always except stable configuration like (s2, p3, p6)

56)

For iso electronic species

Ionic radius ∝ ∝
Ionic radius order : Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–

57) Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is maximum.

58) Difference between IE4 and IE5 is maximum means outermost shell contain 4 electrons.

59)

For isoelectronic series

Ionic Radius ∝ ∝

60) CO: Neutral oxide

BaO : Basic oxide
Al2O3 : Amphoteric oxide
Cl2O7 : Acidic oxide

61)

Asking for : To identify the element with the largest atomic radius among F, Cl, Br, and I.

Concept: Atomic radius generally increases down a group in the periodic table due to the
addition of electron shells, increasing the distance of the outermost electrons from the
nucleus.

Solution : F, Cl, Br, and I are Group 17 elements (halogens) arranged in increasing order of
atomic number down the group. As we move down the group, the number of electron shells
increases, leading to a larger atomic size.

Answer : Option : 4

62)

Ans. (2)
Cu → Transition metal
F → Non-metal
Si → Metalloid
58Ce → Lanthanoid (58-71)
63) Question Explanation:
Find The IUPAC name of Z = 119

Concept:
This question is based on IUPC name of elements

Solution:

Hence,
Correct Option: (4)

64)

Explain Question : Determining the atomic number of the last element (most recently
discovered) in the same group as the element with the given electronic configuration.
Concept : This Question is based on Long form periodic table
Solution : The element is copper (z = 29), in group 11. The last discovered element in this
group is Roentgenium (Rg), Z = 111.
Final Answer option (3)

65)

Question Explanation :

Concept :

The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral isolated gaseous atom and convert
in into a positively charged gaseous ion is called Ionisation energy.

Solution :

In this question we have to select current option, which represent the 1st I.P. process.

Hence,

Option (1) is correct.

66)

Concept:

But N has half filled P orbitals which make it very stable. So N does not want to take
an easily, therefore, its E.A. becomes less than B & C.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
In this question we have to compare electron affinity order.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

67)

Anionic charge ∝ Size

∴ Hence, ionic radii order
N3– > O2– > F–
1.71 > 1.40 > 1.36

68)

Atomic Number 15 → P
Atomic Number 33 → As
Atomic Number 51 → Sb
→ Above these elements belong to nitrogen family.

69) (i) SF4 Bond pair = 4

Lone pair = 1
(ii) [PCl4]+ Bond pair = 4
Lone pair = 0
(iii) XeO2F2 Bond pair = 4
Lone pair = 1
(iv) ClOF3 Bond pair = 4
Lone pair = 1

70)

Explanation:

A. Para-magnetism arises from the presence of unpaired electrons in a molecule.

B. We use Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT) to determine the number of unpaired electrons.

Concept:

A. O₂ (16 electrons): (σ2s)² (σ2s)² (σ2pz)² (π2px)² (π2py)² (π2px)¹ (π*2py)¹

Two unpaired electrons (paramagnetic).

 B. B₂ (10 electrons): (σ2s)² (σ*2s)² (π2px)¹ (π2py)¹

Two unpaired electrons (paramagnetic).

C. NO (15 electrons): (σ2s)² (σ2s)² (σ2pz)² (π2px)² (π2py)² (π2px)¹

One unpaired electron (paramagnetic).

Answer option 4, (All).

71)

Explanation - The question asks to arrange the given hydrogen bonds (O-H, F-H, Cl-H, N-H)
in the correct order of their bond strength.

Concept - (Bond Strength Order)

A. F-H----F (b) has the strongest H-bond due to fluorine's high electronegativity.
B. O-H----O (a) is strong, but less than F-H----F.
C. N-H----N (d) is weaker than O-H----O.
D. Cl-H----Cl (c) has the weakest H-bond due to chlorine's lower electronegativity.

Final Answer - Option (3)

72)

Explanation:
Question is asking about which is incorrect match
Concept:
PCl5 has sp3d hybridisation having 5 bond pair and no lone pair. Rest are corrrectly matched.
Answer: 2

73)

Explanation:
Question is asking about which order is correct regarding stability
Concept:
Stabiility.
Solution:
Li₂ (Neutral):
Has a bond order of 1, with four electrons in bonding molecular orbitals and two electrons in
antibonding orbitals.
Li₂⁺ (Cation):
Has a bond order of 0.5, with three electrons in bonding molecular orbitals and two electrons
in antibonding orbitals, so it has a weaker bond than Li₂.
Li₂⁻ (Anion):
Has a bond order of 0.5, with four electrons in bonding molecular orbitals and three electrons
in antibonding orbital, making it less stable than Li₂ and Li₂⁺.
The stability of Li₂, Li₂⁺, and Li₂⁻ increases in the order Li₂⁻ < Li₂+ < Li₂
Answer: 1

74)

hypervalent IF7

75)

Explanation:
Question is asking about which of the following overlapping is strongest
Concept:
Overlapping
1s-1s has the lowest n values more overlapping due to smallest size. 8 more altraction.
Answer: 3

76) Explanation -
The question asks you to determine the hybridization state of the central atom in two
molecules: CF4 (carbon tetrafluoride) and XeF4 (xenon tetrafluoride).

Concept - (Hybridization of CF4 & XeF4)

Hybridisation = (4σ + 0 lp) sp3 ( XeF4 )

Hybridisation = (4σ + 2 lp) sp3d2

Final Answer - Option (4)

77)

Bond formed

78)

Explanation

To find the minimum lone pair on the central atom, we need to determine the Lewis structure
 and count the lone pairs around the central atom for each molecule.

Concept

A. XeO₃:
A. These form 1 lone pair on Xe and 3 lone pairs on each O (total 9).
B. Lone pairs on central Xe = 1.
B. XeF₄:
A. These form 2 lone pairs on Xe and 3 lone pairs on each F (total 12).
B. Lone pairs on central Xe = 2.
C. ClF₃:
A. These form 2 lone pairs on Cl and 3 lone pairs on each F (total 9).
B. Lone pairs on central Cl = 2.
D. HOCl:
A. O has 2 lone pairs; Cl has 3 lone pairs.
B. Lone pairs on central O = 2.

Answer option 1, (XeO₃).

79)

Asking for:

Identify the polar molecule from the given options: XeF₄, BF₃, SF₄, and SiF₄.

Concept:

A. Polar Molecule: A molecule with a net dipole moment due to an uneven distribution of
electron density.
B. Dipole Moment: A measure of the polarity of a molecule.
C. Molecular Geometry: The spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, which affects the
overall dipole moment.
D. Electronegativity: The tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair of electrons.

Formula:

A. Dipole moment (μ) is a vector quantity.

Solution/Explanation:

A. XeF₄ (Xenon Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: Square planar

B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
xenon atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.
B. BF₃ (Boron Trifluoride):

A. Shape: Trigonal planar

B. Arrangement: The three fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
boron atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.
 C. SF₄ (Sulfur Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: See-saw
B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms and one lone pair are arranged around the central
sulfur atom in a see-saw shape.
C. Polarity: The lone pair creates an uneven distribution of electron density, resulting in a
polar molecule.
D. SiF₄ (Silicon Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: Tetrahedral
B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
silicon atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.

Therefore, SF₄ is the only polar molecule among the given options.

Answer : Option : 3

80)

XeO3 (sp3-Hybridisation)
1 ℓp + 3 s (Pyramidal shape)

81)

82)

Explanation: B.O = 3 & isoelectronic species is asked

Concept: MOT
Solution:
CN⁻ CO
(14e⁻) (14e⁻)
B.O = 3 BO = 3
Both CN⁻ & CO having bond order = 3 & are isoelectronic species.

83) EXPLANATION:- decreasing order of bond angle among CO₂, CH₄, and BF₃
Concept Used:- BOND ANGLE

SOLUTION:-

Molecule Shape Hybridization Ideal Bond Angle

CO₂ Linear sp 180°
BF₃ Trigonal planar sp² 120°
CH₄ Tetrahedral sp³ 109.5°

So, the decreasing bond angle is simply based on their ideal [Link]₂ (180°)>BF₃
(120°)>CH₄ (109.5°)
 Final Answer : Option (3)

84) Conceptual

85)

Polarization ↑ CC ↑ Ionic character ↓

Polarization ∝

CC ∝
CC ∝ Anion (Size or Charge)

86)

Dipole moment ∝ ∆EN

87)

Asking for : To identify the pair of diatomic species that are not expected to exist based on
molecular orbital theory.

Concept : The existence of a diatomic species is predicted by its bond order. A bond order
greater than zero indicates a stable molecule. Bond order = (Number of bonding electrons -
Number of antibonding electrons) / 2.
Solution:

A. He₂ : Electron configuration (σ1s​)2 (σ∗1s​)2. Bond order = (2-2)/2 = 0. Does not exist.
B. Li₂ : Electron configuration (σ2s​)2. Bond order = (2-0)/2 = 1. Exists.
C. Be₂ : Electron configuration (σ2s​)2 (σ∗2s​)2. Bond order = (2-2)/2 = 0. Does not exist.
D. Ne₂ : Electron configuration (σ2s​)2 (σ∗​2s)2 (σ2pz​)2 (π2p​x)2= (π2p​y)2 (π∗2px​)2 = (π∗2px​)2 (σ∗2p​z)2.
Bond order = (10-10)/2 = 0. Does not exist.

Therefore, the pair Be₂ and Ne₂ does not exist.

Answer : Option : 4

88)

Electron deficient molecule is BeCl2

89)

Both (1) and (3)

90)

According VSEPR THEORY

BOTANY

91) NCERT-XI, Page # 29

92)

NCERT-XI, Page # 29
Bryophytes lack xylem

93)

NCERT-XI, Page # 30
Mosses grow in dense clumps (gregarious) and have protonema + leafy stages.

94) NCERT-XI, Page # 24,29

(a) All are algae traits
(b) Cytotaxonomy uses chromosomes, not chemicals.
(c) Algin is from brown algae; carrageenan from red algae.
(d) Characters of Archegonium structure.

95) NCERT-XI, Page # 32

96) NCERT [Link]. 39

97) NCERT [Link]. 35

98) They have a life cycle that requires water for reproduction

99) The correct answer is (a) All are incorrect .

100) NCERT XI, Page # 23-33

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 23-33

102)

NCERT [Link]. 26

103)

NCERT [Link]. 24
104)

NCERT [Link]. 31

105)

NCERT [Link]. 32

106) NCERT [Link]. 30

107)

NCERT [Link]. 32

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 22

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 26

111) Allen Module pg- 132

112) Allen Module pg- 128

113) Allen Module pg- 121

114) Allen Module Pg-100, Q no. 141

115) Allen Module pg-103

116) Allen Module pg-99

117) NCERT [Link]. 26, 27

118) NCERT [Link]. 26, 27, 29

119) NCERT [Link]. 24,25

120) NCERT page no. 27

121) NCERT [Link].23

122) NCERT [Link]. 32

123) NCERT [Link]. 25

124) NCERT [Link]. 26

125) NCERT [Link]. 26

126) NCERT [Link]. 24

127) Spore mother cell is 2n = 20; Capsule (2n) = 20; Gemma (n) = 10; Protonema (n) = 10

128) NCERT [Link]. 27

129) NCERT [Link]. 27

130) NCERT [Link]. 26, 28

131) NCERT [Link]. 27

132) The assertion is true as mosses and lichens are often the first organisms to colonize bare
rocks, starting the process of ecological succession that leads to soil formation. The reason is
also true and is the correct explanation for the assertion because by decomposing rocks,
mosses contribute to the formation of soil, which is necessary for the growth of higher plants.
Additionally, the dense mats formed by mosses help in reducing soil erosion by cushioning the
impact of falling rain.

133) Statement I: Incorrect. Gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by
any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after fertilisation, hence the seeds are
naked.
Statement II: Correct. The giant redwood tree Sequoia, which belongs to the gymnosperms,
is indeed one of the tallest tree species.

134) Statement I: Incorrect. In Cycas, the roots are associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria
and are called coralloid roots, not mycorrhiza, which is found in genera like Pinus.
 Statement II: Correct. The leaves in gymnosperms are indeed well-adapted to withstand
extremes of temperature, humidity, and wind, which is a characteristic feature of these plants.

135) Statement I: Incorrect. In cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different
trees, not on the same tree.
Statement II: Correct. The megaspore mother cell undergoes meiotic division to form four
megaspores, which is a typical process in the development of female gametophytes in plants.

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT page: 233

137)

NCERT page: 234

138)

NCERT page: 233

139)

NCERT page: 231

140)

As myelin sheath doesn't conduct electricity, if its continuous then conduction will stops.

141) NCERT page: 236

142)

NCERT page: 233

143) NCERT page: 236

144)

Pons varoli has an important centre called pneumotaxic centre which helps in regulating the
rhythm of respiration.
145)

Pseudounipolar neuron is found in dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord.

146)

Centriole

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 231, 232

148)

NCERT page: 231

149)

NCERT page: 235

150) The correct answer is 1. Fore brain.

The amygdala and hippocampus are both key structures located within the forebrain.

151)

The thalamus is the major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling in the brain. It
acts as a relay station, receiving sensory signals from the body and directing them to the
appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex. It also plays a role in coordinating motor functions by
connecting various motor-related areas.

152)

NCERT page: 236

153)

Stimulates secretion of saliva

154)

Perikaryon and dendrites are special structures found in neurons.

155)

Hippocampus converts short term memory to long term memory.

156)

NCERT page: 232

157)

NCERT page: 230

158)

Threshold stimulus is usually of –60 to –55mv value

159)

Cortisone is hormone produced by cortex of adrenal gland.

160)

In unmyelinated neurons there will be no myelin sheath and hence node of Ranvier.

161)

NCERT page: 234

162)

Conductivity is the property of nervous tissue.

163)

NCERT page: 232

164)

Factual

165)

NCERT page: 232, 233

166)

NCERT page: 234

167)
NCERT page: 234

168)

Application question

169)

PSNs releases Ach which brings negative effect on maximum target organs.

170)

Application question.

171) NCERT_Page No. (E) 319, (H) 319

172) NCERT_Page No. (E) 320, (H) 321

173) NCERT_Page No. (E) 321, (H) 321

174) NCERT Pg. # 321

175)

More the number of moles of Ranvier, more faster would be the conduction.

176)

NCERT page: 234

177) represents threshold stimulus and +30mv represents action potential.

178)

NCERT page: 236

179)

Hypothalamus has osmotic centres which respond to change in body fluid volume.

180)

NCERT page: 236