01-06-2025

6001CMD30303125001P MD

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following can form erect, virtual, diminished image ?

(1) Plane mirror

(2) Concave mirror
(3) Convex mirror
(4) None of these

2) A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water (μ = 4/3). The focal length of the
mirror in water will be :-

(1) f

(2)
f

(3)
f

(4)
f

3) Match the corresponding entries of column-1 with coloumn-2 (Where m is the magnification
produced by the mirror) :-

Column-1 Column-2

(A) m = –2 (a) Convex mirror

(B) (b) Concave mirror

m=–

(C) m = +2 (c) Real image

(D) (d) Virtual image

m=+
A → b and c, B → b and c,
(1)
C → b and d, D → a and d.
A → a and c, B → a and d,
(2)
C → a and b, D → c and d
A → a and d, B → b and c,
(3)
C → b and d, D → b and c
A → a and d, B → b and c,
(4)
C → b and d, D → b and c

4) A man having height 6 cm. He observes image of 2cm height erect, then mirror used is :-
(1) concave
(2) convex
(3) plane
(4) none of these

5) For a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm, if the object is at a distance of 30 cm from the pole,
then the nature of the image and magnification will be:-

(1) real and –2

(2) virtual and –2
(3) real and +2
(4) virtual and +2

6) An object of length 6 cm is placed on the principle axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a
distance of 4f. The length of the image will be :-

(1) 2 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 1.2 cm

7) An object is placed in front of a convex mirror of focal length 50 cm. If the image is one-fourth the
size of the object, distance of the image from the mirror is :-

(1) 25 cm
(2) 37.5 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 75 cm

8) The longitudinal magnification of a mirror is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Magnification of a concave mirror :-

(1) Is always positive

(2) Is always negative
(3) Can be positive as well as negative
(4) Is always zero
10) Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at 90°. A ray of light is incident on one mirror. The
ray will undergo a total deviation of.

(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) Data insufficient

11) The power in dioptre of an equi-convex lens with radii of curvature of 10 cm and refractive index
1.6 is.

(1) +12
(2) +18
(3) +1.2
(4) +1.8

12) A luminous object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from convex mirror. A plane mirror is set so
that virtual image is formed by both mirror will coincide. If plane mirror is at distance of 12 cm from

object find out the focal length of mirror :-

(1) +5 cm
(2) –5 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 25 cm

13) Find the refractive index of the material, if a prism having an angle A = 90° which produces a
minimum deviation of 30° ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) In a concave mirror an object is placed at a distance x from the focus and the real image is
formed at a distance y from the focus. The focal length of mirror is :-

(1) x·y
(2)
(3) x + y
(4)

15) Focal length and power of a plane mirror is :-

(1) very less, very large.

(2) infinite, infinite
(3) zero, infinite
(4) infinite, zero

16) An object is approaching a spherical mirror with constant speed along principal axis. Choose the
correct statement.

(1) Image must approach mirror

(2) Image may approach mirror
(3) Image must recede mirror
(4) Image may recede mirror

17) When light travels from one medium to the other of which the refractive index is different, then
which of the following will change :

(1) Frequency, wavelength and velocity

(2) Frequency and wavelength
(3) Frequency and velocity
(4) Wavelength and velocity

18) A light wave has a frequency of 4 × 1014 Hz and a wavelength of 5 × 10–7 metres in a medium.
The refractive index of the medium is :-

(1) 1.5
(2) 1.33
(3) 1.0
(4) 0.66

19) A ray of light strikes a transparent rectangular slab of refractive index at an angle of
incidence 45°. The angle between incident and refracted rays is :-

(1) 15°
(2) 90°
(3) 75°
(4) None of these

20) A watch shows time as 3 : 25 when seen through a mirror, time appeared will be :-

(1) 8 : 35
(2) 9 : 35
(3) 7 : 35
(4) 8 : 25

21) A bubble in glass slab (μ = 1.5) when viewed from one side appears at 6 cm and 4 cm from other
side, then thickness of slab is :-

(1) 3.75 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 2.5 cm

22) In the given figure an observer in air (n = 1) sees the bottom of a beaker filled with water (n =

4/3) upto a height of 40 cm. What will be the depth felt by this observer.

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

23) A light ray is incident at an angle 30º on a transparent surface separating two media. If the
angle of refraction is 60º then critical angle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 45°

24) A point source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of water of µ = . The minimum diameter
of a disc, which should be placed over the source, on the surface of water to cut off all light coming
out of water, is

(1) 1 m
(2) 6 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 3 m

25) Mirage is a phenomenon due to :-

(1) Refraction of light

(2) Reflection of light
(3) Total internal reflection of light
(4) Diffraction of light

26) A ray of light passes through the equilateral prism such that angle of incidence is equal to the
angle of emergence if the angle of incidence is 45°. The angle of deviation will be:-

(1) 15°
(2) 75°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

27) Figure shows graph of deviation δ versus angle of incidence for a light ray striking a prism.
Angle of prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

28) A ray of light is coming from air to water. Which of the following figure shows correct dispersion
of light ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) When light is passed through a prism, the colour which deviates least is:

(1) Red
(2) violet
(3) Blue
(4) Green

30) A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum

deviation which of the following is true ?

(1) PQ is horizontal
(2) QR is horizontal
(3) RS is horizontal
(4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal

31) A biconvex lens with equal radii of curvature has refractive index 1.6 and focal length 10 cm. Its
radius of curvature will be :

(1) 20 cm
(2) 16 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 12 cm

32) What is the the refractive index of material of a plano-convex lens, if the radius of curvature of
the convex surface is 10 cm and focal length of the lens is 30 cm ?

(1) 1.33
(2) 1.5
(3) 1.1
(4) None

33) A lens has focal length of 20 cm in air. What will be its focal length when immersed in water (μ =

1.5, μw = )

(1) 20 cm
(2) 80 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 50 cm

34) If a convave lens (μ = 1.5) is immersed in water (μ = 4/3), the lens will become :-

(1) More divergent

(2) Less divergent
(3) More convergent
(4) Less convergent

35) A screen is placed at a distance of 90 cm from an object. The image of this object is formed on
the screen is formed by a convex lens at two different locations separated by 20 cm. The focal length
of the lens is :-

(1) 18 cm
(2) 21.4 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 85.6 cm

36) In a simple microscope, if the final image is located at infinity then its magnifying power is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Magnifying power of a simple microscope is (when final image is formed at D = 25 cm from eye)
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The magnifying power of the objective of a compound microscope is 7 if the magnifying power of
the microscope is 35, then the magnifying power of eyepiece will be -

(1) 245
(2) 5
(3) 28
(4) 42

39) A person is in a room whose ceiling and two adjacent walls are mirrors. How many images are
formed :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

40) A man runs towards a mirror at a rate of If the mirror is at rest, his image will have a
velocity :

(1) +12 ms–1

(2) –6 ms–1
(3) 6 ms–1
(4) –12 ms–1

41) Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that a ray of light incident of the first mirror
(M1) and parallel to the second mirror (M2) is finally reflected from the second mirror (M2) parallel to
the first mirror (M1). The angle between the two mirrors will be :

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 75°
(4) 60°

42) A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The
power of combination is

(1) –1.5 D
(2) –6.5 D
(3) +6.5 D
(4) +1.5 D

43) A ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be –

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) Will not be reflected
(4) None of these

44) A ray is incident at 30° angle on plane mirror. What will be deviation after reflection from
mirror.

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

45) A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full image. Then required minimum length of the
mirror will be :-

(1) 12 feet
(2) 3 feet
(3) 6 feet
(4) Any length

CHEMISTRY

1) How many times the rate of reaction will change if temperature is increased from 20°C to 50°C?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

2) Rate constant of two reactions are given below. Identifying their order of reaction.

(1) (i) second order, (ii) first order

(2) (i) first order, (ii) second order
(3) (i) zero order, (ii) first order
(4) (i) second order, (ii) zero order

3) Radioactive disintegration is an example of

(1) Zero order reaction

(2) First order reaction
(3) Second order reaction
(4) Third order reaction

4) The rate constant for a first order reaction is min-1. The half-life period of reaction is

(1) 69.3 min.

(2) 34.65 min.
(3) 17.37 min.
(4) 3.46 min.

5) In pseudo unimolecular reactions,

(1) Both the reactants are present in low concentration
(2) Both the reactants are present in same concentration
(3) One of the reactant is present in excess
(4) One of the reactant is non-reactive.

6) The rate of the reaction, is given by: The order of

the reaction is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1/2
(4) 5/4

7) Which of the following expressions is correct for the rate of reaction given below?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Use the data to determine the orders of A and B in the reaction ; A + B → products

[A], [B], Rate,

Experiment –1 –1 –1 –1
mol L Mol L mol L s
1 0.10 0.10 0.0090
2 0.20 0.10 0.036
3 0.10 0.20 0.018
(1) Rate = k [A] [B]
(2) Rate = k [A]2 [B]
(3) Rate = k [A] [B]2
(4) Rate = k [A]2 [B]2

9) For A(g) + B(g) → C(g); rate = K[A]1/2 B2,

If initial concentration of A and B are increased by factors 4 and 2 respectively, then the initial rate
is changed by the factor :-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) None of these
10) The reaction 2A + B → P, follows the mechanism
2A ⇌ A2 (fast)
A2 + B → P (slow)
The order of the reaction is

(1) 1.5
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

11) Which integrated equation is correct for the following Ist order reaction started with only A(g) in
a closed rigid vessel.
A(g) → B(g) + C(g) + D(g)
Pi = initial pressure;
Pt = total pressure at time t

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Correct statement about first order reaction is:-

(1)

(2)

(3) Unit of K is mole lit-1 s-1

(4)

13) The rate law for the single- step reaction is given by:

(1) Rate = k [A].[B]

(2) Rate = k [A]2.[B]
(3) Eate = k [2A].[B]
(4) Rate = k [A]2.[B]o

14) For a reaction experimental results were collected for three trials and the data
obtained are given below:
The correct rate law of the reaction is

0
(1) Rate = k[A] [B]2
(2) Rate = k[A] [B]2
(3) Rate = k[A] [B]
0
(4) Rate = k[A] [B]

15) The rate constant of a first order reaction is 6.9 × 10–3 s–1. How much time will it take to reduce
the initial concentration to its 1/8th value?

(1) 100 s
(2) 200 s
(3) 300 s
(4) 400 s

16) The rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature because of :

(1) Increase in the number of activated molecules

(2) Increase in the activation energy
(3) Decrease in the activation energy
(4) Increase in the number of molecular collisions

17) 99% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes when 99.9% of the reaction will
complete :

(1) 50 min
(2) 46 min
(3) 48 min
(4) 49 min

18) A reaction having equal activation energies for forward and reverse reaction has :

(1) ΔH = 0
(2) ΔS = 0
(3) Zero order
(4) None of these

19) The rate constant, the activation energy and the pre-exponential factor of a chemical reaction at
25ºC are 8.0×10–4 s–1, 112 kJ mol–1 and 4×1015 s–1 respectively. The value of the rate constant as
is

(1) 8 × 1016 s–1

(2) 4 × 104 s–1
(3) 4 × 1015 s–1
(4) 112 × 1012 s–1
20) A substance undergoes first order decomposition. The decomposition follows two parallel first
order reactions as;

The percentage distribution of B and C are

(1) 75% B and 25% C

(2) 76.83% B and 23.17% C
(3) 60% B and 40% C
(4) 90% B and 10% C

21) The inversion of cane sugar is represented by,

C2H22O11 + H2O → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
It is a reaction of :

(1) Second order

(2) Unimolecular
(3) Pseudo-unimolecular
(4) Zero order

22) The number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step of the reaction tells about:

(1) Molecularity of the reaction

(2) Mechanism of the reaction
(3) Order of reaction
(4) None of the above

23) The plot of ln k versus 1/T is linear with slope of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) True statement is :-

(1) Catalyst increases the rate of reaction

(2) During the course of the reaction, specific reaction rate remains constant
Rate constant always increases with rise in temperature whether the reaction is endothermic or
(3)
exothermic
(4) All are correct
25) A gaseous reaction, 2A(g) → B(g) + 5C(g) shows increase in pressure of B from 80 mm to 100
mm in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of A is :-

(1) 4 mm min–1
(2) 8 mm min–1
(3) 16 mm min–1
(4) 2 mm min–1

26) The following data pertain to reaction between A and B :

[A] [B] Rate

[Link].
mol L–1 mol L–1 mol L–1 sec–1

I 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–4

II 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–4

III 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 8 × 10–4

Which of the following inference(s) can be drawn from above data :
(A) Rate constant of the reaction is 10–4
(B) Rate law of the reaction is K[A] [B]
(C) ROR increases four times on doubling conc. of both the reactant.
Select the correct answer codes :
(1) A, B and C
(2) A and B
(3) B and C
(4) Only C

27) The rate of formation of SO3 in the reaction 2SO2 + O2 2SO2 is 100 g min–1. Hence, rate of
disappearance of O2 is

(1) 50 g min–1
(2) 100 g min–1
(3) 20 g min–1
(4) 40 g min–1

28) Analyse the figure given below and answer the following questions.

The curve shown in the above figure is known as

(1) Ludwing-Clark curve

(2) Arrhenius-van’t Hoff curve
(3) Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
(4) None of these

29) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient energy
lead to compound formation.
Statement II: Threshold energy = Activation energy + energy possessed by reacting species.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

30) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Order of reaction can be zero or fractional.
Statement II: We can not determine order from balanced chemical equation except elementary
reactions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct,

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

31) For producing the effective collisions, the colliding molecules must possess:

(1) A certain minimum amount of energy

(2) Energy equal to or greater than threshold energy
(3) Proper orientation
(4) Threshold energy as well as proper orientation of collision

32) Doubling the initial concentration of a reactant doubles t1/2 of the reaction, then order of
the reaction is :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

33) For the reaction,

Given

The relation between K1, K2 and K3 is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

34) Which of the following statement is correct for a reaction

X + 2Y → Product (P)

(1) The rate of disappearance of X = twice the rate of disappearance of Y.

(2)
The rate of disappearance of rate of appearance of product (P)

(3)
The rate of appearance of product (P) the rate of disappearance of Y

(4)
The rate of appearance of product (P) the rate of disappearance of X

35) The rate constant for a first order reaction which has half life 480s is :-

(1)
(2) 1.44 s–1
(3)
(4)

36) For an exothermic reaction :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Any one of the above

37) For a reaction the initial rate is given as : by what factor, the initial rate of
reaction will increase if initial concentration of A is 1.5 times and B is tripled ?

(1) 4.5
(2) 2.25
(3) 6.75
(4) None of these

38) The correct expression for Arrhenius equation:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) The slope of the line for the graph of log k vs 1/T for the reaction ,

N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2
is –5000. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction :

(1) 95.7 KJ mol–1

(2) 9.57 KJ mol–1
(3) 957 KJ mol–1
(4) 0.957 KJ mol–1

40) Read the following statements

(i) Order of reaction can be fractional or zero
(ii) Molecularity of a reaction can be fractional but cannot be zero
(iii) Slowest step in the complex reaction is considered as a rate determining step
(iv) Units of rate of reaction are mol L s–1
(v) Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex reactions whereas moleularity is applicable
only for elementary reactmons.
Which of the following is te correct code of the statements above ?

(1) TTFFT
(2) TFTFT
(3) FFFTT
(4) FTTFF

41) The activation energy of the reaction , kcal is 20 kcal. What would be the
activation energy of the following reaction .

(1) 20 kcal
(2) –20 kcal
(3) 18 kcal
(4) 58 kcal

42) The order of a reaction with rate equal to k[A]3/2 [B]–1/2 is

(1) 1
(2) -1/2
(3) -3/2
(4) 2

43) , it would be a zero order reaction when

(1) The rate of reaction is proportional to square of concentration of A.

(2) The rate of reaction remains same at any concentration of A
(3) The rate remains unchangedat any concentration of B and C
(4) The rate of reaction doubles if concentration of B is increased to double
44) For a reaction ,rate of disappearance of 'A' is related to the rate of appearance of
'B' by the expression:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) For the given reaction,

A → Product

Initial conc. t1/2

0.1 M 2 hr
0.2 M 30 min
Order of reaction is :
(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) 3

BIOLOGY

1) Match the column I with column Il -

Column I Column Il
(Bioactive molecule) (Source)

A. Cyclosporin A (1) Monascus

B. Statins (2) Clostridium

C. Clot buster (3) Trichoderma

D. Butyric acid (4) Streptococcus

(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(2) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
(3) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
(4) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3

2) Cyclosporin A, an immunosuppressive agent used in organ-transplant patient, is obtained from:

(1) Monascus purpureus

(2) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Papaver somniferum
(4) Claviceps purpurea

3) Full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotics was established by

(1) Waksman
(2) Alexander Fleming
(3) E. Chain & H. Florey
(4) Fritsch

4) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement (A): Antibiotics have played a major role in controlling infectious disease like diphtheria,
whooping cough and pneumonia.
Statement (B): LAB grow in curd to convert it into more nutritious milk.

(1) Only B is correct

(2) Only A & B are incorrect
(3) Only B is correct
(4) Both A & B are correct

5) During sewage treatment methane is formed

(1) In anaerobic sludge digester

(2) In tertiary treatment steps
(3) In primary setting tank
(4) By aerobic bacteria

6) Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of ______.

(1) Propionibacterium shermanii

(2) Penicillium roquefortii
(3) Penicillium canenbertii
(4) Lactobacillus lacti

7) Yeast are used in all except

(1) Production of statins

(2) Formation of alcoholic beverages
(3) Baking industry
(4) Commercial production of acetic acid

8) What is true about BOD?

(a) BOD is directly proportional to potential.
(b) The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro- organism.
(c) BOD is the indirect measures of inorganic matter present in water.

(1) Only a
(2) Only a & b
(3) Only b & c
(4) All a, b, & c

9) Vineger is prepared from alcohol with the help of

(1) Lactobacillus
(2) Acetobacter
(3) Azotobactor
(4) Rhizobium

10) (A) Tertiary treatment of waste water is done due to make this fit for domestic use
(B) Tertiary treatment removes DDT, Pesticides, Pathogen from the waste water

(1) Both (A) & (B) are incorrect

(2) Both (A) & (B) are correct
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only B is correct

11) Match the List - I with List - II

List - I List - II

(A) Biogas I Glomus

(B) Mycorrhiza II Baculovirus

(C) Lady bird III Methano bacterium

(D) Biological Control IV Aphids

Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(1) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(2) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(4) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

12) How many are produced by distillation of the fermented broth from the given example?
Wine, Brandy, Rum, Beer, Whisky

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

13) The product of monascus purpureus has been commercialised as

(1) Immunosuppressive agent

(2) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
(3) Clot buster
(4) Cleaning agent of bottled juices

14) Flocs are :

(1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria only

(2) Masses of anaerobic bacteria & fungi
(3) Masses of aerobic microbes and fungal filaments
(4) Masses of cyanobacteria

15) Assertion (A): New antibiotics are required to be discovered constantly.

Reason (R): Pathogenic microorganism usually develop resistant to present antibiotics.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

16) Which of the following is sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

(1) Secondary treatment

(2) Tertiary treatment
(3) Primary treatment
(4) Sludge treatment

17) Technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to efforts of

(1) IARI
(2) KVIC
(3) ICAR
(4) Both (1) & (2)

18) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: Trichoderma species are free living fungi that are very common in root ecosystem.
Statement B: Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both Statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

19) Biogas produced in anaerobic sludge digester is a mixture of

(1) Methane & CO2 only

(2) Hydrogen Sulphide & methane only
(3) Methane, CO2 & Hydrogen sulphide
(4) CO2, methane & oxygen

20) BOD is measure of

(1) Organic matter present in water

(2) Amount of oxygen dissolved in water
(3) Demand of oxygen by aquatic organism for aerobic respiration
(4) Amount of oxygen required for complete decomposition of all organic matter by microbes

21) Read the statement A & B and select the correct answer.
Statement-A: Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insect and arthropod.
Statement-B: These viruse, have species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal applications.

(1) Both statement (A) & (B) are incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Both statement A & B are correct and B is correct explanation of A.
(4) Both statement A & B are correct but B is not correct explanation of A

22) Toddy a traditional drink of southern India is made by fermenting sap from

(1) Palm
(2) Barley
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Maize

23) During secondary treatment of sewage, BOD of the effluent is reduced due to the activity of

(1) Aerobic bacteria and fungi

(2) Anaerobic bacteria
(3) Anaerobic fungi and bacteria
(4) Methanogens

24) The following diagram represents

(1) Nucleo proteinaceous particles which is capable of causing respiratory infections

(2) Proteinaceous infectious agents
(3) A prokaryote which causes respiratory disorder
(4) Fungal colony growing in a petridish

25)
Symbiotic association is exhibited by-
I. Glomus II. Rhizobium
III. Azotobacter IV. Lichen

(1) I, III, IV
(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) I, II, IV
(4) I, II

26) A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given

(1) Cyclosporin A
(2) Statins
(3) Penicillin
(4) Streptokinase

27) Statement-I : Statin function is based on competitive inhibition.

Statement-II : Due to host specificity viruses can be used as bio insecticides.

(1) Both statement I and Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Only statement I correct.
(3) Only statement II correct.
(4) Both statement I and Statement II is correct.

28) IPM stands for :-

(1) Integrated parasite management.

(2) Internal pest management.
(3) Internal pest mission.
(4) Integrated pest management.

29) Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between

(1) Bacteria and fungi

(2) Algae and fungi
(3) Fungi and roots of higher plants
(4) Blue green algae and roots of higher plant

30) Which ministry has initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan?

(1) Ministry of Rural Development

(2) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(3) Ministry of Community Health and Diseases
(4) Ministry of Environment and Forest

31) Match the following :

 Column - I Column - II

(a) (i) Bacillus

(b) (ii) Cocci

(c) (iii) Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)

(d) (iv) Adenovirus

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

32) Identify the colonies labelled as A and B

(1) A-Fungai; B-Bacterial

(2) A-Bacterial; B-Fungal
(3) A-Algal; B-Viral
(4) A-Fungal; B-Algal

33) The microbe used for making bread is :

(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(2) Saccharomyces ellipsoidens
(3) Saccharomyces pireformis
(4) Saccharomyces sake

34) Microbial colonies :

(1) Can be grown on nutritive media

(2) Can be seen by naked eyes
(3) Are useful in study of microbes
(4) More than one option is correct

35) Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is -

(1) Lady bird bettle

(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Streptococcus sp.

36) During aestivation & hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through _____ in frogs.

(1) Lungs
(2) Skin
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Both (2) & (3)

37) Assertion: Frog is a ureotelic animal.

Reason: It excretes uric acid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

38) Which of the following options is correct?

(1) X → Testis – A pair of whitish ovoid structures present in male frog.

(2) Y → 10-12 vasa efferentia enter in the kidney.
(3) Z → Bidder’s canal which communicates with the urinogenital tract.
(4) None of the above

39) Select the Incorrect statement w.r.t. adult frogs

(1) The skin of frogs is smooth and slippery

(2) The frog never drinks water but absorbs it throught the skin
(3) The colour of ventral side of body is generally olive green with dark irregular spots
(4) Neck and tail are absent.

40) How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain of frog?

(1) 12 pairs
(2) 10 pairs
(3) 8 pairs
(4) 9 pairs

41) Mesorchium in frog refers to

(1) Fold of peritoneum between a kidney and a testis

(2) Internal tissue of testis
(3) Site of spermatogenesis
(4) Fold of peritoneum between a testis and adrenal gland

42) A frog never drinks water but absorbs it through one of its respiratory organ. Identify the organ.

(1) Skin
(2) Lung
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) None of the above

43) Male frogs can be distinguished from the female frogs by the presence of
A. A sound-producing vocal sac
B. A copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

44) The alimentary canal of adult frogs is shorter than their larval forms because they

(1) Can digest cellulose

(2) Are carnivores
(3) Feed on plants and planktons
(4) Lack the first part of small intestine

45) The dissolved oxygen in the water is exchanged through the skin of frogs by

(1) Active transport

(2) Simple diffusion
(3) Facilitated diffusion
(4) Osmosis
46) These are various levels of biological organisation arranged in a sequence with increasing
complexity. Fill in the blanks :-
Macromolecules → A → Tissue → Organs → B → Population → C → Ecosystems → D

A B C D

(1) Cells Organelles Biome Biosphere

(2) Cells Organism Community Biome

(3) Organelles Organ system Species Landscape

(4) Proteins Organism Community Biosphere

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Sexual deciet in Ophrys is related with phenomenon :-

(1) Heterofertilisation
(2) Pseudofertilisation
(3) Pseudocopulation
(4) Sexual dimorphism

48) A relationship in which the parasitic bird (Cuckoo) lays its egg in the nest of its host (Crow) and
lets the host incubate them, is known as :-

(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Brood parasitism
(4) None of them

49) Which one of the following interactions between species explain the major conduit for energy
transfer across trophic levels?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Competition
(3) Predation
(4) Commensalism

50) Some of the most fascinating examples of mutualism in nature are seen in :-

(1) The cattle egrets and grazing cattle in close association

(2) Plant-pollinator interactions
(3) Between abingdon tortoise and goats
(4) Between Balanus and Chathamalus living in close association

51) Select the statement which is not true for parasitism:-

(1) Presence of adhesive organ like suckers
(2) Loss of digestive system
(3) Complex life cycle
(4) Kill the host instantly

52) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the
same __________.

(1) biome
(2) habitat
(3) territory
(4) niche

53) Physiological ecology tries to explain ______.

(1) How different type of organisms interact among themselves.

(2) How different type of ecosystems interact with local abiotic factors.
How different organisms are adapted to environments in forms of not only survival but also
(3)
reproduction
(4) How different type of abiotic factors interact among themselves and one factor remains limiting

54) Which statement is/are correct ? (a) Ecology is a subject which deals with the interaction among
organisms and between the different organisms and with its physical (abiotic) environment. (b)
Ecology is a subject which deals with the interaction between the organism and with its physical
(abiotic) environment only.
(c) Ecology is a subject which deals with the interaction between the organism with its biotic
environment only.
(d) Ecology is a subject which deals with the interaction between organisms and its biotic and
physical (abiotic) environment.

(1) Only d are correct

(2) Only a are correct
(3) a and d are correct
(4) a, b, c, d are correct

55) On removing superior species, range of distribution of inferior species become expanded. This is
called as :-

(1) Competitive exclusion

(2) Competitive release
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Interference competition

56) Which of the following means was used by warblers to promote co-existence rather than
competition :-

(1) Difference in foraging activities

(2) Habitat fragmentation
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) All of the above

57) Which type of interaction is shown by the above graph

between species A and B ?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Ammensalism

58)

Standing crop is :-
(a) Biomass in an unit area
(b) Number of living organism in unit area
(c) Amount of nutrient such as P, S, N, H in unit area
(d) Amount of detritus in unit area

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) & (b)
(3) (a), (b) & (c)
(4) (a), (b) & (d)

59) Mark True (T) and False (F) for the given statements.
Statement I : The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs 'sexual deceit' to get pollination done by a
species of bumble bee.
Statement II : Pacific salmon fish and bamboo breed only once in their lifetime.

(1) Statement I is true and statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false and statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true and statement II is true
(4) Statement I is false and statement II is false

60) Find out the true statement regarding competition.

(1) Totally unrelated species could also compete for the same resources
(2) Resources need not to be limiting for competition to occur
In interference competition, feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the
(3)
interfering and inhibitory presence of the other species, even if resources are abundant
(4) All are true

61)

In equation = rN ; here K is defined by :-

(1) Maximum population density achievable under available resources

(2) Carrying capacity of habitat
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Maximum intrinsic rate of growth

62) The magnitude of r-value for the Norway rat is :

(1) 0.015
(2) 0.12
(3) 0.15
(4) 1.5

63) Which one is correct equation of population density at time t + 1?

(1) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B+I) – (D + E)]

(2)
Nt+1 = rN
(3) Nt+1 = rN

(4)

64) Assertion (A): Population ecology is a link between ecology to population genetics and
evolution.
Reason (R): Natural selection operates at population level to evolve desired traits.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

65) When resources are unlimited, type of growth curve observed is

(1) Linear
(2) S-shaped
(3) J-shaped
(4) Zig-zag type

66) The percent area cover or biomass is a more meaningful measure of population size in the case
of :-
(1) Bacteria in flask
(2) Tiger in forest
(3) Fishes in pond
(4) Parthenium and banyan tree

67) In a pond there are 400 lotus plant last year, through reproduction 16 new lotus plants are
added, taking the current population to 416, then calculate the birth rate.

(1) 0.4 offspring per year

(2) 0.6 offspring per year
(3) 0.08 offspring per year
(4) 0.04 offspring per year

68) Secondary productivity means.

(1) Rate of formation of organic matter by producer.

(2) Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
(3) Rate of formation of inorganic matter by producer.
(4) Rate of formation of inorganic matter by consumers.

69) Find out the total number of incorrect statements from the following:
(A) Decomposition is largely an anaerobic process.
(B) Fragmentation, leaching and catabolism occur simultaneously on detritus.
(C) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different level is called stratification.
(D) Pond is a marine water body.
(E) The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) Which of the following is not a functional component of ecosystem?

(1) Productivity
(2) Decomposition
(3) Species composition
(4) Nutrient cycling

71) Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the food web shown bélow:
 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) rat dog tortoise crow

(2) squirrel cat rat pigeon

(3) deer rabbit frog rat

(4) dog squirrel bat deer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Study the following statements and select the correct ones:-
(i) Pyramids of energy production can never be inverted, since this would violate the laws of
thermodynamics.
(ii) Pyramids of standing crop and numbers can be inverted, since the number of organisms at a time
does not indicate the amount of energy flowing through the system.
(iii) There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids such as they do not take into account the
same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
(iv) Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in
the ecosystem.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) & (iv)

73) Read the following statements. Find out how many statements are correct :-
(a) In a tree ecosystem the pyramid of numbers is inverted for a parasitic food chain.
(b) Pyramid of number show biotic potential of a ecosystem.
(c) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem is inverted.
(d) Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate.
Option

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c & d
(3) a, c
(4) only d

74) Gross primary productivity is -

(1) Rate at which organic molecules are formed in an autotroph
(2) Rate at which organic molecules are used up by an autotroph
(3) Storage of organic molecules in the body of an autotroph
(4) Rate at which organic molecules are transferred to next higher trophic level

75) The natural residence of every organism is known as

(1) Niche
(2) Habit
(3) Habitat
(4) Biome

76) Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called

(1) Detritus
(2) Humus
(3) Standing state
(4) Standing crop

77) When peacock eats snake which eats insects that depends on green plants, the peacock is ?

(1) Primary consumer

(2) The apex of the food pyramid
(3) A primary decomposer
(4) A final decomposer of plants

78) Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption by

(1) Herbivores only

(2) Carnivores only
(3) Decomposers only
(4) Herbivores and decomposers

79) 'Niche' of an organism includes :-

(1) a distinct functional role in the ecological system

(2) diversity in the resources it utilises
(3) defined range of conditions that it can tolerate
(4) All of the above

80) Leaching is :-

(1) Break down of detritus into smaller particles

(2) Downward movement of water soluble organics & inorganic nutrients
(3) Degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic nutrients
(4) Releasing of inorganic nutrients from humus
81) Which of the following factor does affects the rate of decomposition :

(1) Presence of oxygen

(2) Environmental temperature
(3) Nutritional status of detritus
(4) All of the above

82) Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly matched ?

Carried out by organisms such as

(1) Fragmentation —
earthworm
Leads to the accumulation of a dark
colured substance humus, which is
(2) Humification — resistant to microbial action and
under- goes decomposition at a very
fast rate
Last step in the decomposition under
(3) Catabolism —
fully anaerobic condition
Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise
(4) Leaching —
to the top layers of soil
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) How many following statements regarding humus is/are correct -

(A) Highly resistant to microbial action
(B) Decompose very fast
(C) It is colloidal in nature
(D) It is degraded by detrivores

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

84) Assertion (A): The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in early 1920s caused havoc by
spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland.
Reason (R): When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become
invasive and start spreading first because the invaded land does not have its natural predators.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

85) Find out false statement

(1) Parasite that feeds on the external surface of the host organism are called ectoparasite
(2) Endoparasites are those that live inside the host body at different sites
(3) Parasites render the host more vulnerable to predation by making it physically strong
Endoparasites have simplified complex morphological and anatomical feature with high
(4)
reproductive potential

86) Which one is true?

(1) Commensalism when none of the population in the interaction affects each other.
(2) Symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations.
(3) Symbiosis when neither population affect each other.
(4) Commensalism when the interaction is useful to both the populations.

87)

Predator are important for a natural ecosystem because :–

(a) They keep prey population under control.
(b) Help in maintaining species diversity
(c) They are used in biological control method.
(d) They reduce the intensity of competition among competiting prey species.

(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only a, b, d
(4) All of the above

88) Competition for nutrients, food, light and space is more severe between two :-

(1) Unrelated species having non-overlapping niches

(2) Unrelated species having overlapping niches
(3) Closely related species having overlapping niches
(4) Closely related species having overlapping niches

89) Ammensalism is an association between two species where:

(1) one species is harmed and other is benefitted

(2) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(3) one species is benefitted and other unaffected
(4) Both the species are harmed.

90) The interaction is detrimental to both the species, in

(1) Predation
(2) Commensalism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Competition
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 4 3 4 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 2 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 3 1 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 3 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 2 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 1 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 1 3 4 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 4 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 3 1 3 2 4 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Based on case of convex mirror

2) Focal length of the mirror remains unchanged.

5) v =

= = – 60 cm

m=– =– =–2

6)

h2 = 2 cm

7)

m=

u = 375 cm

8) Concept : Longitudinal magnification = rate of change of image distance to object distance,

for small displacements.

Formula : Longitudinal Magnification =

Calculation : For mirrors, longitudinal magnification is . So the correct answer is

option (2)
 12)
for spherical mirror u = –20 cm
v = 4 cm

⇒
f = +5 cm

13) QUESTION EXPLANATION:

We are given the prism angle and the minimum deviation angle, and we need to find the
refractive index of the prism material.

CONCEPT:
Prism and Deviation:
Minimum Deviation:

SOLUTION:
FORMULA:
The refractive index (μ) of the prism material is related to the prism angle (A) and the
minimum deviation angle by the following formula:

CALCULATION:
1. Given:

A. Prism angle (A) = 90°

B. Minimum deviation (δm) = 30°

Substitute the given values into the formula:

Evaluate the trigonometric functions:

sin(60°) =

3. sin(45°) =
Substitute the values:

μ=
μ= ×

µ=

μ=

μ=

μ=

4. μ =

ANSWER:

Option (1)

14) Newtons formula

f=
so f=

15) R = ∞, f = ∞ , ⇒P=0

16)
So VI and V0 will always be opposite

17) EXPLANATION:
The question asks which properties of light change when it travels from one medium to
another with a different refractive index.
SOLUTION:
CONCEPT:
• Wavelength: Since the frequency remains constant, if the speed changes, the wavelength
must also change
• Frequency: The frequency of the light does not change.
FORMULA:

ANSWER:
Option (4) Wavelength and velocity

18) μ = = 1.5
19)
∴ r = 30°
∴ δ = i – r = 45° – 30° = 15°

20) Concept

Mirror image time =12:00 - actual time shown on the clock.

Formula

Mirror time =12:00 - Actual time

Calculation

12:00-3:25=8:35

So, in the mirror, the watch appears to show 8:35

Correct answer: 8:35

21)

...(1)

and ...(2)

⇒ so d = 15 cm

22)
AD = 30 cm

23)

Snell's law gives μ1sin30° = μ2sin60° but critical angle

24)

25) Theoretical
26)

In minimum deviation (i = e)
δmin = 2i – Å
= 90° – 60°
= 30°

28) 1sini = µsinr

and λv is minimum λR is maximum.

31)

Question explanation: We are given the focal length and refractive index of a biconvex lens
with equal radii and asked to find the radius of curvature.

Concept: Use the lens maker's formula for a lens in air with equal radii of curvature.

formula:

Calculation:
Given

Final answer: Option 4

Question level: Medium

32) ∵ = (µ – 1)

= (µ – 1)

= (µ – 1) ×

= (µ – 1) ⇒ µ = +1= = 1.33

35) By the displacement method

36)

37)

Question explanation:
The magnifying power of a simple microscope depends on the focal length of the convex lens
used and the least distance of distinct vision (D = 25cm)
Concept:
A simple microscope is a convex lens used to magnify nearby objects, and its magnifying
power increases as the focal length decreases.
Formula:

Calculation:
not required
Final answer: option 3
Question level: Easy

38) me × m0 = 35
me × 7 = 35
me = 5

39)

The walls acts as two mirror inclined to each other at 90° and so they will form 3 images of the
person. Now these images and person will act as object for the ceiling mirror and ceiling
mirror will form 4 images. Therefore total number of images formed = 3 + 4 = 7

40) The image moves with same speed with respect to mirror, as that of object, but in
opposite directions.

43)

< i = < r = 0°

44) Asking : To find the deviation by single plane mirror.

Concept : Deviation by plane mirror
Formula : δ = 180–20
Solution : Given θ = 30
Calculation :
δ = 180 – 2 × 30
= 180–60
= 120°
 Correct Ans. option (1)

45) Concept :

• Plane Mirror Image Formation:

Formula : • Minimum mirror length = (Object height)/2

Calculation :

Given:

• Height of the man = 6 feet

Using the formula:

• Minimum mirror length = 6 feet / 2 = 3 feet

Final Answer : The required minimum length of the mirror is 3 feet.

Option (2) 3 feet

CHEMISTRY

47)

Explanation

A. The units of the rate constant (k) are indicative of the overall order of a reaction. For a
reaction with an overall order of 'n', the units of k are given by:
B. Units of k = mol¹⁻ⁿ Lⁿ⁻¹ s⁻¹

Concept

(i) k = 5.3 × 10⁻² L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹

Comparing the given units with the general formula: mol¹⁻ⁿ Lⁿ⁻¹ s⁻¹ = L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹

By inspection, we can see that: 1 - n = -1 => n = 2 n - 1 = 1 => n = 2

Therefore, the order of reaction (i) is second order.

(ii) k = 3.8 × 10⁻⁴ s⁻¹

Comparing the given units with the general formula: mol¹⁻ⁿ Lⁿ⁻¹ s⁻¹ = s⁻¹

By inspection, we can see that: 1 - n = 0 => n = 1 n - 1 = 0 => n = 1

Therefore, the order of reaction (ii) is first order.

 Answer option 1, {(i) second order, (ii) first order}.

48)

Explanation

A. Radioactive decay rate is directly proportional to the number of radioactive nuclei present at
that time.

Concept

A. Rate = -dN/dt = kN, where N is the number of nuclei and k is the decay constant. This is the
rate law for a first-order reaction.
B. The rate depends only on the concentration (number of nuclei) of one reactant.

Answer option 2, (First order reaction).

51)

Concept :- rate lane

Solution :-

order of reaction =
Option :- 4

52)

Explanation

A. The rate of a reaction is expressed in terms of the change in concentration of reactants and
products with time. For a balanced chemical equation:
B. aA + bB → cC + dD
C. The rate of reaction is given by:
D. Rate = - (1/a) Δ[A]/Δt = - (1/b) Δ[B]/Δt = (1/c) Δ[C]/Δt = (1/d) Δ[D]/Δt
E. The negative sign indicates the consumption of reactants, and the positive sign indicates the
formation of products. The coefficients (a, b, c, d) are used to normalize the rate with respect
to each species.

Concept

A. Applying the concept to the given reaction:

A. 5Br⁻(aq) + BrO₃⁻(aq) + 6H⁺(aq) → 3Br₂(aq) + 3H₂O(ℓ) 1

B. The rate of reaction can be written as:
C. Rate = - (1/5) Δ[Br⁻]/Δt = - Δ[BrO₃⁻]/Δt = - (1/6) Δ[H⁺]/Δt = (1/3) Δ[Br₂]/Δt

= (1/3) Δ[H₂O]/Δt

B. Finding the relationship between Δ[Br⁻]/Δt and Δ[H⁺]/Δt:

A. From the rate expression, we have:
B. (1/5) Δ[Br⁻]/Δt = - (1/6) Δ[H⁺]/Δt
C. Multiplying both sides by -1, we get:
D. (1/5) Δ[Br⁻]/Δt = (1/6) Δ[H⁺]/Δt
E. To find the expression for Δ[Br⁻]/Δt, multiply both sides by 5:
F. Δ[Br⁻]/Δt = (5/6) Δ[H⁺]/Δt

Answer option 3, {Δ[Br⁻]/Δt = (5/6) Δ[H⁺]/Δt}.

54)

A(g) + B(g) → C(g)

Rate1 = K [A]1/2 [B]2
A → 4A
B → 2B
R2 = K[4A]1/2 [2B]2
R2 = (4)1/2 K[A]1/2 4[B]2
R2 = 2 × 4 K[A]1/2 [B]2
R2 = 8R1

55)

From slow step

r = k[A2] [B]
∵ A2 is intermediate

⇒
[A2] = Keq [A]2
⇒ r = KKeq [A]2 [B]
⇒ order = 2 + 1 = 3

56)

A(g) → B(g) + C(g) + D(g)

Initial Pi 0 0 0
At time t Pi–P P P P
Total pressure at time t
Pt = Pi – P + P + P + P Þ Pi + 2P
Pt = Pi + 2P

=P
st
1 order reaction
62)

65)

66) For the reaction

C12H22O11 + H2O → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
Rate = k[C12H22O11] [H2O] Expected order = 2
Water is in excess hence its concentration may be taken constant.
∴ Rate = k’[C12H22O11]
Hence it is pseudo first order reaction.

67) If a reaction takes place in single step then total number of reactant molecules in balanced
stoichiometric equation gives its molecularity.

68) L mol–1 s–1

69) All are correct

70)

2A(g) → B(g) + 5C(g)

Rate =
Zero order reaction → mm min–1
Rate = K

Rate = ⇒ ⇒ 4 mm min–1

– = 4 mm min–1 ⇒ – = 8 mm min–1

71)

From data, it can be seen that, the reaction is first order with respect to A and first order w.r.t.
to B.
so, rate law r=k[A][B].
and the rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the
reactants.

72)

A. Question Explanation: The question provides the rate of formation of SO₃ in a given reaction
and asks us to find the rate of disappearance of O₂.

B. Given Data:

A. Reaction: 2SO₂ + O₂ → 2SO₃

B. Rate of formation of SO₃ = 100 g min⁻¹

C. Concept: Rate of disappearance.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Relate the rates of SO₃ formation and O₂ disappearance:

A. From the balanced equation, 1 mole of O₂ reacts to form 2 moles of SO₃.

B. Therefore, the rate of disappearance of O₂ is half the rate of formation of SO₃.

B. Convert grams to moles (or use the molar mass ratio):

A. Molar mass of O₂ = 32 g/mol

B. Molar mass of SO₃ = 80 g/mol

C. Rate of formation of SO₃ in moles = (100 g/min) / (80 g/mol) = 1.25 mol/min

D. Rate of disappearance of O₂ in moles = (1/2) × 1.25 mol/min = 0.625 mol/min

E. Rate of disappearance of O₂ in grams = 0.625 mol/min × 32 g/mol = 20 g/min

Alternatively, we can use the mass ratio directly:

A. (Molar mass of O₂) / (Molar mass of SO₃) = 32/80 = 2/5

 B. (Rate of disappearance of O₂) / (Rate of formation of SO₃) = 1/2

C. Rate of disappearance of O₂ = (1/2) × (32/80) × Rate of formation SO₃

D. Rate of disappearance of O₂ = (1/2) * (2/5) * 100 g/min = 20 g/min

E. Final Answer: The rate of disappearance of O₂ is 20 g min⁻¹. Therefore, option 3 is correct.

73)

The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve for fraction of molecules vs. kinetic energy
describes how molecular kinetic energy is distributed in a gas. Key points:

A. X-axis: Kinetic energy (E)

B. Y-axis: Fraction of molecules having that kinetic energy
C. Curve Characteristics:
A. The peak represents the most probable kinetic energy.
B. The area under the curve represents the total number of molecules.
C. A small fraction of molecules have very high energy.
D. The shaded region beyond activation energy (Ea) represents molecules that can
undergo a reaction.

77)

78)

79)

80)
82)

83)

84) Slope = –
Ea = – slope × 2.303 R
= –(–5000) × 2.303 × 8.314
= 95700 J mol–1
= 95.700 kJ mol–1

86)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks for the activation energy of the reverse reaction, given the activation energy
of the forward reaction. It implicitly (and incorrectly) assumes that the magnitude of the
activation energy doesn't change when the reaction is reversed.

B. Given Data:

A. Ea (forward reaction) = 20 kcal

C. Concept : Activation Energy

D. Solution:

The question intends to test the (incorrect) concept that Ea,reverse = Ea,forward. It ignores
the role of ΔH.

E. Mathematical Calculation (Flawed):

Based on the incorrect assumption above:

Ea, reverse = Ea, forward - H = 20kcal. - (- 58kcal.) = 58kcal

87)

Explanation
 A. Calculation the order of a reaction.

Given Data

A. Rate = k[A](3/2) [B](-1/2)

Concept

A. The order of a reaction is the sum of the exponents of the concentration terms in the rate
law.

Calculation

A. Order = (3/2) + (-1/2) = 2/2 = 1

Answer option 1, (1).

88) Explanation : Condition under which the given reaction (3A → B + C) would be classified
as a zero order reaction, is to be found.

Concept :
For zero order reaction :

Rate law :
rate = k [A]°
rate = k = constant
rate = constant

In zero order reaction, rate remains independent of concentration of the reactant.

Final answer : The rate of reaction remains same at any concentration of A.

Correct option is (2)

89)

90)

BIOLOGY
113) NCERT pg- 58

114)

NCERT Pg # 180

115) NCERT Pg # 188

116) NCERT Pg # 183

118)

NCERT XII Page # 157

125)

NCERT XII, Page # 187

126)

NCERT-XI, Page # 82
aestivation & hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through skin.

127) NCERT-XI, Page # 83

The frog excretes urea & thus is a ureotelic animal.

128) NCERT-XI, Page # 83,84

X → Male reproductive organ consist of a pair of yellowish ovoid testes.
Y → Vasa efferentia
Z → Adrenal gland

130) Ncert page

132) Ncert page 116.

138)

NCERT Pg. No. 236

139)

Predation
140)

Plant-pollinator interactions

141)

Kill the host instantly

143) NCERT Pg. # 220

145) NCERT Pg.# 235

149)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 238, 232

151) NCERT XII Pg # 231

th

152) NCERT, Pg # 194

153) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 229

159)

160)

NCERT [Link]. 206

161)

NCERT Pg. No. 247

163) Module-7 Pg. # 16, 17

164)

Rate at which organic matter produced in green plants are known as GPP (Gross primary
productivity). Hence 1st option is correct.

166)
 The correct term for the mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is
Standing crop.

A. Standing crop refers to the total biomass (living material) present in a given area at a specific
time.
B. Detritus and Humus refer to non-living organic material, often from dead organisms or plant
matter, that is in the process of decomposition.
C. Standing state is a less commonly used term, and doesn't fit as precisely in this context.

So, the answer is Standing crop.

168) NCERT XII Pg # 243

169)

NCERT XII Eng. Page No.221

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 233

179)

NCERT Pg. No. 231

180) NCERT 12th class – [Link]. 197