27-07-2025

1803CMD303032250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body goes 20 km north and then 10 km due east. The displacement of body from its starting
point is-

(1) 30 km
(2) 25.2 km
(3) 22.36 km
(4) 10 km

2) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5 distance with v2 speed, then
th

average speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P of
the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the cyclist (in

metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is :-

(1) 0, 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

4)

A person travels along path OAB then average velocity of person in OAB trip
(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

5) A truck travelling towards North with velocity 20 m/s turns East and travels at the same speed.
The change in its velocity is :-

(1) 20 m/s North-East

(2) 20 m/s South-East
(3) 40 m/s North-East

(4)
m/s North-West

6) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as :

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(2) velocity of particle varies linearly with t
(3) velocity of particle is proportional to
(4) initial velocity of the particle is zero

7) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) A man holds four balls 180 m above the ground and drops them at regular intervals of time so that
when the first ball hits ground, the fourth ball is just leaving his hand. At this time, the second and
third balls from the ground are at the positions

(1) 160 m and 100 m respectively

(2) 80 m and 20 m respectively
(3) 20 m and 80 respectively
(4) 100 m and 160 m respectively

9) A balloonist releases a bag from a balloon rising constantly at 40 ms–1 at a time when the balloon
is 100 m above the ground. If g = 10 ms–2, then the bag reaches the ground in :-

(1) 16 s–1
(2) 18 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 20 s

10) A stone dropped from a building of height h and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From the
same building if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same velocity u
and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 seconds respectively, then :-

(1) t = t1 – t2

(2)
t=
(3) t =
t=
(4)

11) A car starting from rest accelerates at the rate f through a distance s, then continues at constant

speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate to come to rest. If the total distance travelled is
15 s, then :-

(1) s = ft

(2)
s= ft2
(3)
s= ft2
(4) none of these

12) A ball is thrown up vertically with speed u. At the same instant another ball B is released from
rest from height h. At time t the speed of A relative to B is :

(1) u
(2) u – gt
(3) u – 2gt

(4)

13)

A man is walking at a speed 3 m/s rain drops are falling vertically with a speed 3 m/s
(i) What is the velocity of rain drop with respect to the man?

(ii) At what angle from vertical, the man should hold his umbrella?
(1) 2.42 m/s, 30° in forward direction
(2) 4.24 m/s, 45° in forward direction
(3) 1.24 m/s, 60° in forward direction
(4) None of these

14) A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of height H with velocity 20 m/s. A man is
standing at the foot of tower starts running at the same instant when ball is thrown. What should be
the velocity of man to catch the ball before striking to the ground. (Consider height of man
negligible):-

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3) 20 m/s
(4) none of these

15) A body dropped from the top of a tower clears 7/16th of the total height of the tower in its last
second of flight. The time taken by the body to reach the ground is :

(1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 5 s
16) A stone is dropped from a balloon rising upward with a velocity of 16m/s. The stone reaches the
ground in 4s. What was the height of balloon when the stone was dropped ? (g = 10m/s2) :-

(1) 8 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 30 m

17) A particle is projected vertically upwards and it reaches the maximum height 'H' in time 'T'. The
height of the particles at any time t will be :-

(1) g(t – T)2

(2)
H– g(t – T)2

(3)
g(t – T)2

(4)
gt2

18) A projectile is projected from ground with intial speed . If acceleration due to gravity
(g) is along the negative y-direction then time of flight of the projectile will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from it, strikes
the ground in 10 sec. Angle at which it strikes the ground with horizontal will be (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A golfer standing on level ground hits a ball with a velocity of u = 50 m/s at an angle α above the
horizontal. If tan α = 3/4, then the time interval for which the ball is at least 25 m above the ground
(i.e. between A and B will be: (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 3 sec
(4) 4 sec

21) Water is flowing in a river from left to right with velocity 4 m/s as shown in figure. The width of
river is 60m. The swimmer ‘A’ can swim with speed 5 m/s with respect to water. If the swimmer
wants to cross the river in minimum time, then this minimum time taken by swimmer to cross the
river is

(1) 20 sec
(2) 15 sec
(3) 12 sec
(4) 16 sec

22) A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration . Its speed after 10s is
___

(1) 10 units
(2) 7 units
(3) units
(4) 8.5 units

23) If the range of a gun which fires a shell with muzzle speed v, is R, then the angle of elevation of
the gun with horizontal is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) At the uppermost point of a projectile its velocity and acceleration are at an angle of :–

(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

25) Rain drops are falling vertically and a man is running on the ground horizontally with speed
equal to the rain with respect to the ground. Rain drops appears to him hitting with velocity 10
km/hr. Find velocity of rain.

(1) 5 km/hr
(2) 10 km/hr
(3)
(4)

26)

The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity of projection u. Its
range on the horizontal plane is

(1)

(2) u2/3g
(3) 3u2/2g
(4) 3u2/g

27)

The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is , where a and b are constants and x
and y are respectively horizontal and vertical distance of the projectile from the point of projection.
The maximum height attained by the particle and the angle of projection from the horizontal are:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

Range of a projectile is R, when the angle of projection is 30º. Then, the value of the other angle of
projection for the same range, is [Both have same speed]:

(1) 45º
(2) 60º
(3) 50º
(4) 40º

29)

A bullet is fired from a cannon with velocity 500 m/s. If the angle of projection is 15º and g = 10
m/s2. Then the range is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30)

What will be the ratio of the distance moved by a freely falling body from rest in 4th and 5th seconds
of journey?

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 7 : 9
(3) 16 : 25
(4) 1 : 1

31)

The position coordinates of a projectile projected from ground on a certain planet (with no
atmosphere) are given by y = (4t – 2t2)m and x = (3t) metre, where t is in second and point of
projection is taken as origin. The angle of projection of projectile with vertical is

(1) 30°
(2) 37°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

32)

For a given speed of projection, maximum range of a projectile is R. What will be the maximum
height attained by projectile when it is projected with double speed by making 60° with vertical?

(1)

(2)

(3) R

(4)
33) A ball is thrown from the ground to clear a wall 3 m height at a distance of 6 m and falls 18 m
away from the wall, the angle of projection of ball is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A projectile is thrown at an angle θ with horizontal with initial vel. u, after what time resultant
velocity of projectile is perpendicular to initial vel. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A projectile is fired at an angle of 45º with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
highest point as seen from the point of projection is

(1) 60º

(2)

(3)

(4) 45º

36) Two blocks are connected by a string and pulley as shown. Assuming that the string and pulley

are massless, the magnitude of the acceleration of each block is

(1) 0.05 m/s2

(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 0.01 m/s2
(4) 0.54 m/s2
37) A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force
P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block is –

(1)

(2) P

(3)

(4)

38) In the system shown in the adjoining figure, the acceleration of 1 kg mass is :-

(1)
downwards

(2)
upwards

(3)
downwards

(4)
upwards

39) Calculate the tensions T1, T2 and T3 in the three threads shown in the following figure. (All

threads are mass less) (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30 N, 40 N, 50 N
(2) 50 N, 30 N, 40 N
(3) 35 N, 45 N, 40 N
(4) 30 N, 50 N, 40 N

40) A mass of 60 kg is on the floor of a lift moving down. The lift moves at first with an acceleration
of 3 m/sec2, then with constant velocity and finally with retardation 3m/sec2. The reaction exerted by
the lift on the body in each part of the motion are respectively :-
(1) 408 N, 580 N, 768 N
(2) 408 N, 768 N, 588 N
(3) 408 N, 588 N, 768 N
(4) 768 N, 408 N, 588 N

41) Two persons A and B are sitting in two cars 1 and 2 such that the velocity of the cars is given by

and respectively. The fictitious (pseudo) force on B as observed by

A at t = 1 sec will be :- (mA = 70 kg, mB = 50kg)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) In the situation shown in figure all the string are light and inextensible and pullies are light.
There is no friction at any surface. A horizontal force of magnitude F is applied to right most free
end of string in both casses of fig. 1 and 2 as shown. At the instant shown, the tension in all strings
are non zero. Let the magnitude of acceleration of large blocks (of mass M) in fig. 1 and fig. 2 are a1

and a2 respectively. Then :

(1) a1 = a2 ≠ 0
(2) a1 > a2
(3) a1 = a2 = 0
(4) a1 < a2
43) If released from rest, what is acceleration of mass 3 kg in the figure shown?

(1) 2 ms–2
(2) 4 ms–2
(3) 3 ms–2
(4) 1 ms–2

44) Tension in the chain of mass M at distance y from the bottom of the chain (as shown) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Mg
(4) Zero

45) A ball of mass m, moving with velocity m/s recieves an impulse N-s due to an
impact. What is the velocity of the ball just after impact:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a photoelectron of zero velocity from the surface of
the metal, the wavelength of incident light should be

(1) 2700 Å
(2) 1700 Å
(3) 5900 Å
(4) 3100 Å

2) In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the second Bohr orbit is :-
[Given that Bohr radius, a0 = 52.9 pm]

(1) 211.6 pm
(2) 211.6 π pm
(3) 52.9 π pm
(4) 105.8 pm

3) Consider Bohr model for single electron system and match correctly:-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Radius of nth orbit (P) ∝ n–2

Angular momentum
(B) of the electron in the (Q) ∝ n–1
nth orbit

Potential energy of
(C) (R) ∝n
electron in nth orbit

Velocity of electron
(D) (S) ∝ n2
in nth orbit
(1) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
(3) A → S, B → R, C → P, D → Q
(4) A → Q, B → R, C → S, D → P

4) A tennis ball has mass 5 g and a speed of 50 m/s. If the speed can be measured within accuracy of
5%. Calculate the uncertainity in the position

(1) 2.225 × 10–31 m

(2) 11.2 × 10–5 m
(3) 4.216 × 10–33 m
(4) 6.225 × 10–36 m

5) Select the correct curve :-

K.E. ⇒ kinetic energy of electron in Bohr orbit
P.E. ⇒ Potential energy of electron in Bohr orbit
r ⇒ Radius of Bohr orbit
n ⇒ Orbit number
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these are correct

6) The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms–1 respectively.

The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties in their
positions?

(1) 2
(2) 0.25
(3) 4
(4) 1

7) If λ0 and λ be the threshold wavelength and the wavelength of incident light, the velocity of photo-
electrons ejected from the metal surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Four electrons in an atom have the sets of quantum numbers as gives below. Which electron is at
the highest energy level ?

(1) n = 4 , ℓ = 0 , mℓ = 0 , ms = + 1/2
(2) n = 3 , ℓ = 0 , mℓ = 0 , ms = – 1/2
(3) n = 3 , ℓ = 2 , mℓ = 0 , ms = + 1/2
(4) n = 4 , ℓ = 1 , mℓ = –1 , ms = – 1/2

9) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
(Quantum numbers) (Sub-shell)

(A) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (P) 2p

(B) n = 4, ℓ = 2 (Q) 5f

(C) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (R) 4d

(D) n = 5, ℓ = 3 (S) 3s
(1) A→S, B→R, C→P, D→Q
(2) A→S, B→R, C→Q, D→P
(3) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q
(4) A→S, B→P, C→R, D→Q

10) If kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 4 times then the wavelength of a particle becomes.

(1) Double
(2) 4 times
(3) Half
(4) Remain Same

11) Find the ratio of energy of electron in 3rd and 5th excited state of hydrogen atom.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If the shortest wavelength of spectral line of H-atom in Lyman series is x, then match the
following for Li2+.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Shortest wavelength in Lyman series (P)

(B) Longest wavelength in Lyman series (Q)

(C) Shortest wavelength in Balmer series (R)

(D) Longest wavelength in Balmer series (S)

(1) (A)-R, (B)-S, (C)-Q, (D)-P
(2) (A)-Q, (B)-P, (C)-R, (D)-S
(3) (A)-R, (B)-P, (C)-Q, (D)-S
(4) (A)-S, (B)-R, (C)-P, (D)-Q

13) Give the correct order of initial T (true) or F (false) for following statements.
(i) If an ion has 2 electron in K shell, 8 electron in L shell and 6 electron in M shell, then number of s
electrons present in that element is 6.
(ii) The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by 2n2
(iii) If an electron has magnetic quantum number –1, then it cannot be present in s-orbital.
(iv) Only one Radial node is present in 3p orbital.

(1) TTFF
(2) FFTF
(3) TFTT
(4) FFFT

14) If uncertainty in the position of an electron is 4 times the uncertainty in momentum, the
uncertainty in the velocity of electron will be ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The radius ratio of 2nd excited state of H & 1st excited state of Li+2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass ) moving with a velocity 300
ms–1 accurate upon 0.001% will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) If radius of second orbit of He+ is 'x' then radius of third excited state of Be+3 ion.

(1) x/2
(2) 2x
(3) 9x/8
(4) 8x/9

18) In He+, de-Broglie wavelength of electron present in 2nd Bohr orbit will be –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following statements is/are correct –

(1) Value of m for Pz orbital is zero

(2)
Orbital angular momentum of electron in d-orbital is equal to .
(3) In 4f orbital, number of angular nodes and total nodes are equal.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

20) Assertion :- In H–atom, the energy of 3d–level is smaller than 4s–level.

Reason :- An orbital with lower value of (n + ℓ) has energy smaller than the orbital with larger
value of (n + ℓ).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Hydrogen atoms are excited to n = 4 state. In the spectrum of emitted radiation, number of lines
in the ultravoilet and visible regions are respectively :-

(1) 3, 1
(2) 1, 3
(3) 2, 3
(4) 3, 2
22) The value of (n2 + n1) and for He⊕ ion in atomic spectrum are 4 and 8 respectively. The
wavelength of emitted photon on transition of electron from n2 to n1 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) If the ionization energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1, then calculate the energy of first
stationary state of Li2+.

(1) – 1.1 × 10–17 J/atom

(2) – 1.1 × 10–18 J/atom
(3) – 4.41 × 10–17 J/atom
(4) – 4.41 × 10–18 J/atom

24) In which of the following is the radius of the first orbit minimum?

(1) A Hydrogen atom

(2) A tritium atom
(3) Triply ionized beryllium
(4) Double ionized helium

25) The ionisation energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 ev. The energy of the ground level in doubly
ionised lithium is

(1) - 28.7 eV
(2) - 54.4 eV
(3) –122.4 eV
(4) - 13.6 eV

26) How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N (only structural):-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27)
Which type of isomerism is observed between I and II :-

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Position isomerism
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) Metamerism

28) How many structural isomers exist for C7H8O where each isomer contain a phenyl ring ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

29) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1)
& Position isomerism

(2)

& Metamerism
(3) CH3–C≡N & CH3NC functional group isomerism
(4) Both 1 & 2

30) Which of following is not a pair of chain isomer.

(1) n-butyl alcohol & Isobutyl alcohol

(2) Isobutyl alcohol & [Link] alcohol
(3) [Link] alcohol & [Link] alcohol
(4) n-butyl alcohol & sec-butyl alcohol

31) Number of isomers of C3H6Br2

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

32) How many cyclic structural isomer form by C5H10?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

33) Correct pair of isomer is :-

(1)
Position isomers
(2) Metamers
(3) CH3–CH2COOCH3 & CH3CH2COOH Functional isomers

(4)
Chain isomers

34) CH3–NH–C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of isomerism :

(1) Position
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
(4) None

35) Total number of structural monochloro derivative possible for the following compound

(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) 6

36) Identify true/false

(1) TFTF
(2) FTTF
(3) TTFT
(4) TFFT

37) Number of structure isomer of C6H14 is:

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

38) Assertion : Total no. of structural Isomers of C4H10O is 7

Reason : It has 4 Alcohol structural Isomer and 3 as a Ether.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is False but the Reason is True
(4) If Both Assertion & Reason are false.

39) How many alkenes (only structural isomers) are possible with molecular formula C4H8?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

40) Statement-I : Alkanes containing more than three carbon atoms exhibit chain isomerism.
Statement-II : Alkanes containing less than six carbon atoms exhibit position isomerism.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.

41)

(1) Functional isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Chain isomer
(4) None

42) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Position
(a) (i)
isomers
 Chain
(b) (ii)
isomers

(c) (iii) Homologues

Functional
(d) (iv)
isomers

(1) (a)→(iv); (b)→(iii); (c)→(ii); (d)→(i)

(2) (a)→(iv); (b)→(i); (c)→(iii); (d)→(ii)
(3) (a)→(iii); (b)→(ii); (c)→(i); (d)→(iv)
(4) (a)→(iii); (b)→(i); (c)→(ii); (d)→(iv)

43)

(1) Position isomer

(2) Functional group isomer
(3) Ring chain isomer
(4) None

44) Which are metamer ?

(1) CH3—O—CH2—CH3, CH3—CH2—CH2—O—H

(2)

(3) CH3—S—CH2—CH3, CH3—CH2—S—CH2—CH3

(4)

45)

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Functional group isomer
(3) Position isomer
(4) Identical
 BIOLOGY

1) In photosynthesis oxygen gas releases from :-

(1) Carbon-dioxide
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) Water
(4) Quantum

2) In PS-I the reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at _______, while in PS-II the reaction
centre Chl a has absorption maxima at .........

(1) P680,–P700
(2) P700,–P680
(3) P800,–P600
(4) P700,–P900

3) Paper chromatography technique is used for –

(1) Measurement of light quality

(2) Separation of leaf pigments
(3) Measurement of rate of photosynthesis
(4) Measurement of absorption of light

4) Action spectrum of photosynthesis resembles roughly the

(1) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a

(2) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
(3) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll c
(4) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a and b

5) The following figure shows the :

(1) Action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a

(2) Action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Absorption spectrum of carotenoids superimposed on action spectrum of photosynthesis

6) Photochemical phase is : –
(1) Light Reactions
(2) Dark Reactions
(3) PCO
(4) PCR

7) Which one of following is produced during light reaction of photosynthesis ?

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH2
(3) Both ATP & NADPH2
(4) Carbohydrate

8) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves activity of

(1) PS-I
(2) PS-II
(3) PS-III
(4) Both (1) & (2)

9) Which of the following statement is not true regarding light reaction of photosynthesis ?

(1) Chlorophyll 'a' with peak absorption at 680 nm is found in PS-II

(2) ATP is common product between cyclic and Non-cyclic process
(3) Both ATP and NADPH2 are formed during cyclic process
(4) PS-II is associated with photolysis of water

10) Which of the following enzyme forms ATP during light reaction ?

(1) NADP reductase

(2) ATP synthase
(3) PEPcase
(4) RuBisco

11) Observe the diagram given below and identify A, B, C and D :-

A B C D
(1) PS-I –
e acceptor NADP+H+ PS-II
(2) PS-II e– acceptor NADP+ PS-I
(3) PS-I e– acceptor FADH2 PS-II
 (4) PS-II e– acceptor NADPH+H+ PS-I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) RuBisCO enzyme catalyses the reaction between :-

(1) OAA and acetyl CoA

(2) CO2 and RuBP
(3) RuBP and PGA
(4) PGA and DHAP

13) During breakdown of proton gradient, protons cross the thylakoid membrane by :-

(1) the use of energy

(2) osmosis
(3) simple diffusion
(4) facilitated diffusion

14) Which of the following is a hydrogen carrier in thylakoid membrane ?

(1) Ferredoxin
(2) Fe-S protein
(3) Plastocyanin
(4) Plastoquinone

15) Stroma lamellae are characterised by all except:-

(1) Presence of PS-I

(2) Site of cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Perform photosynthesis at wavelength > 680 nm
(4) Presence of NADP reductase

16) Transfer of e– from PQ to P.S.I. is–

(1) Uphill process

(2) Downhill process
(3) Ist uphill than downhill
(4) Ist downhill than uphill

17) Statement-I : The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to lipid.
Statement-II : The single chlorophyll a molecule forms the reaction center.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

18) Photosystem (PS) consists of

(1) only antenna molecule

(2) only reaction centre
(3) both antenna molecule and reactions centre
(4) only LHC

19) Production of NADPH in a chloroplast takes place during

(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation

(2) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Substrate level photophosphorylation

20) Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called as photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) ?

(1) 100 - 390

(2) 390 - 430
(3) 400 - 700
(4) 760 - 10,000

21) Flow of electrons in non-cyclic photophorylation is :

(1) From PS I to PS II
(2) Bidirectional
(3) Unidirectional
(4) Both (ii) and (iii)

22) Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in chloroplast is based on :

(1) Membrane potential

(2) Proton gradient
(3) Accumulate of Na+
(4) Accumulation of K+

23) How many Calvin cycles would generate one molecule of glucose/hexose ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Six
(4) Twelve

24) Which of the following protein is most abundant on the earth ?

(1) Catalase
(2) RuBisCO
(3) Amylase
(4) Pepsin

25) In Calvin cycle which step involve utilisation of 2 molecules of ATP for phosphorylation and two
of NADPH2 per CO2 molecule fixed?

(1) Regeneration
(2) Carboxylation
(3) Reduction
(4) All of above

26) The dark reactions of the photosynthesis :

(1) occur in darkness

(2) are not dark dependent
(3) are not directly light driven
(4) occur in membrane system of chloroplast

27) A molecule of glucose is formed in calvin cycle from :-

(1) 6CO2 + 12 ATP

(2) 6CO2 + 18 ATP + 30 NADPH
(3) 6CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH
(4) 6CO2 + 30 ATP + 12 NADPH

28) The most crucial step of the calvin cycle is :-

(1) carboxylation
(2) reduction
(3) phosphorilation
(4) regeneration

29) The first product of CO2 fixation in Hatch and Slack (C4) cycle in plants is formation of :-

(1) oxaloacetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) in bundle sheath cells

(2) phosphoglyceric acid in mesophyll cells
(3) bundle sheath cells
(4) oxaloacetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) in the mesophyll cells

30) In case of C3 pathway, the first step is :-

(1) CO2 combines with RUBP

(2) CO2 combines with PGA
(3) CO2 combines with PEP
(4) CO2 combines with PGAL

31) The current level of CO2 is limiting to :-

(1) C3 plants
(2) C4 plants
(3) Both C3 & C4 plants
(4) Neither C3 nor C4 plants

32) In the leaves of sugarcane the cells which contain RuBisCO, having how many of the following
characteristics?
(i) Rich in PEP carboxylase enzyme
(ii) larger chloroplasts
(iii) Thick walls which are impervious to gaseous exchange
(iv) Large intercellular spaces to increase the availability of CO2
(v) Production of only ATP & NADPH during light reaction
Options :-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

33) Kranz anatomy is special character of

(1) Hydrophytes
(2) C3 plants
(3) C4 plants
(4) CAM plants

34) In Z scheme of light reactions of photosynthesis, the electrons are finally received by

(1) ADP
(2) NADP+
(3) NAD+
(4) PS II

35) For the synthesis of one molecule of sucrose, how may ATP molecules are required in reduction
step of Calvin cycle?

(1) 24 ATP
(2) 18 ATP
(3) 2 ATP
(4) 12 ATP
36) What is first stable product of dark reaction of Hatch-Slack plants is:

(1) Phosphoglyceric acid

(2) Ribulose- 1,5-bisphosphate
(3) Oxaloacetate
(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate

37) Given below is the reaction of photolysis of water :

Which of the following is correct for the above reaction ?

(1) Water splitting complex is associated with the P700.

(2) Z-scheme is not associated with the above reaction.
(3) This reaction occurs in the thylakoid membrane towards lumen side.
(4) This reaction occurs in the thylakoid membrane towards stroma side.

38) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belongs to external factor of plants which affect photosynthesis?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

39) What is the absorption maxima of P700 ?

(1) 700 Å
(2) 683 nm
(3) 700 cm
(4) 700 nm

40) Given figure represents C4 pathway. Select the suitable option for A, B and C.
 A B C

(1) Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration

(2) Fixation Transamination Regeneration

(3) Carboxylation Decarboxylation reduction

(4) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Which of the following is least effective in photosynthesis :-

(1) Sunlight
(2) Red light
(3) Blue light
(4) Green light

42) At low light intensities, the relation between the incident light and CO2 fixation rates, is :-

(1) Sigmoid
(2) Linear
(3) Parabola
(4) Hyperbola
43) Light saturation point is denoted by which alphabet ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

44) At low light conditions, which of the following plants respond to high CO2 conditions ?

(1) C3 plants
(2) C4 plants
(3) Both C3 and C4 plants
(4) Neither C3 nor C4 plants

45) The fact that C3 plants respond to higher CO2 concentration by showing increased rates of
photosynthesis leading to higher productivity has been used for some green house crops like

(1) Tomato
(2) Potato
(3) Bell pepper
(4) Both 1 and 3

46) Total volume of air accomodate in the lungs at the end of forced inspiration :-

(1) TV + IRV
(2) TV + IRV + ERV
(3) TV + ERV
(4) TV + IRV + ERV + RV

47) Which of the following statement is not correct:-

(1) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is a process of oxidation.

Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to tissue under normal
(2)
physiological condition.
Dissociation curve is curve between percentage saturation of Hb with oxygen and partial
(3)
pressure of oxygen.
(4) The binding of CO2 with haemoglobin is related to the partial pressure of CO2

48) In Lungs there is definite exchange of ions between RBC and Plasma. Removal of CO2 from blood
involves –
(1) efflux of ions from RBC
(2) influx of ions into RBC.
(3) influx of ions into Plasma.
(4) efflux of ions from RBC.

49) The respiratory membranes facilitates the exchange of respiratory gases through diffusion.
Oxygen enters the deoxygenated blood through diffusion because :-

Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 40 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg

(1)
respectively
Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 100 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg
(2)
respectively
Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 46 mm Hg and 40mm Hg
(3)
respectively
Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries it 40 mm Hg and 46 mm Hg
(4)
respectively

50) Total volume of air a person can expire after normal inspiration is :-

(1) Vital capacity

(2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Inspiratory capacity
(4) Expiratory capacity

51) Which of the following disorders represents decrease in respiratory surface due to damaged
alveolar walls?

(1) Bronchitis
(2) Asthma
(3) Emphysema
(4) Hypocapnia

52)

Which one is common character for amphibia and mammals :

(1) Number of cranial nerve

(2) Type of fertilisation
(3) Type of skull
(4) Warm blooded

53) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm ?

(1) Macropus
(2) Chelone
(3) Camelus
(4) Psittacula

54)

Find out the correct match from the following :-

(i) Larynx – sound box
(ii) Trachea – complete cartilaginous rings
(iii) Epiglottis – elastic cartilaginous flap
(iv) Alveoli – very thin, irregular walled, vascularised bag like structures

(v) Pleural fluid – reduces friction on the lung surface

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) (i), (iii), (v)
(4) (i) and (v)

55) Read the following statements carefully from A to D.

(A)Mouth is located ventrally
(B) Notocord persistent through out life
(C) Skin containing minute placoid scales
(D)Air bladder present which regulate buoyancy
For cartilagenous fishes how many statements are incorrect ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

56) Which of the following factors can affect the rate of diffusion of gases?

(1) Thickness of the membrances involved in diffusion

(2) Solubility of the gases
(3) Pressure of the gases
(4) All of these

57) How many of the following statements are correct?

(A) Vital capacity = TV + ERV + IRV
(B) The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli comprise the lungs.
(C) Change in volume of pulmonary cavity will be seen in thoracic cavity.
(D) Respiratory organ in spider is book lung.
Choose from the given options :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

58) Select the Incorrect statements with respect to Cyclostomes :

(a) They lack scales and paired fins.
(b) They have circular mouth with Jaws.
(c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.
(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

59) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I (SITE) Column-II (pO2)

(a) Systemic artery (i) 104 mm Hg
(b) Tissues (ii) 95 mm Hg
(c) Alveoli (iii) 159 mm Hg
(d) Atmospheric air (iv) 40 mm Hg
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i

60) Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata ?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

(1) (b) and (c)

(2) (d) and (c)
(3) (c) and (a)
(4) (a) and (b)

61)

Match the following and mark the correct options

Animal Respiratory Organ

A. Earthworm i. Moist cuticle

B. Arthropods ii. Gills

C. Fishes iii. Lungs

D. Birds/Reptiles iv. Trachea

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-i.v, D-iii

62) Which of the following option gives correct information about the coverings of thoracic cage on
various surfaces :-

Anterior surface Posterior surface Dorsal surface

1 Sternum and Ribs Ribs Diaphragm
2 Sternum and Ribs Diaphragm Clavicle bones and neck
3 Sternum and Ribs Vertebral column Clavicle bones and neck
4 Clavicle bones and neck Diaphragm Vertebral column
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Which of the following statement is true :

(1) 20-25 percent CO2 is transported by RBCs.

(2) 97 percent O2 is transported by RBCs.
(3) 70 percent CO2 is carried as bicarbonate.
(4) All of these are true.

64) Identify the region of human brain which has pneumotaxic centre that alters respiratory rate by
reducing the duration of inspiration.

(1) Medulla
(2) Pons
(3) Thalamus
(4) Cerebrum

65) Which of the following centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.

(1) Dorsal respiratory centre

(2) Ventral respiratory centre
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Chemosensitive centre

66) In the regulation of respiration, a chemo-sensitive area adjacent to the rhythm centre in the
medulla region of the brain, is highly sensitive to :

(1) CO2
(2) O2
(3) N2
(4)
67) Assertion :- Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound production.
Reason :- Epiglottis flap covers the glottis during swallowing and prevents the entry of food into the
larynx.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

68) In which one of the following the genus name, its two character and its class are correctly
matched :-

Genus Two character Class

(a) External ears or pinnae are absent

(1) Felis Mammalia
(b) Homeothermic

(a) Pleurodont teeth

(2) Struthio Aves
(b) Endoskeleton fully ossified

(a) epidermal scales

(3) Bangarus Reptilia
(b) Poisonous snake

Ichthy (a) 2 pair of limbs present

(4) Amphibia
ophis (b) Poikilothermic animal
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering
from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to :

(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity.

(2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls.
(4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.

70) A person breathes in some volume of air by forced inspiration after having a forced expiration.
This quantity of air taken in is

(1) Total lung capacity

(2) Tidal volume
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Inspiratory capacity

71) Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other partaining to feature stated
against them?
(1) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus = viviparity
(2) Garden lizard & Crocodile = 4 chamber heart
(3) Ascaris & Ancylostoma = Metameric segmentation
(4) Sea horse & Flying fish = Poikilothermal

72) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) All the time of inspiration, contraction in diaphragm and external intercostal muscles take place.
(b) Normal breathing is also called as abdominal breathing.
(c) Expiration during sneezing, coughing, yoga is normal expiration during which IICM and
abdominal muscles relax.
(d) Inspiration can occur if the pressure within lungs (intra pulmonary pressure) is more then the
atmospheric pressure.

(1) Statements (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) Statements (a) only
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c)
(4) Statements (a) and (b)

73)
Identify a, b, c ?

Nerve Post anal

(1) (a) (b) (c) Gill slits
cord tail
Post anal
(2) (a) Notochord (b) (c) Gill slits
tail
Post anal
(3) (a) Gill slit (b) (c) Notocord
tail
Post anal
(4) (a) Gill slit (b) (c) Nerve cord
tail
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74)

How many animals in the given list have gills for respiration ?

Earthworm, Frog, Fish, Insects, Reptiles, Aquatic arthropods, Flatworm, Molluscs, Birds
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five

75) Which amphibian is limbless ?

(1) Toad
(2) Frog
(3) Salamander
(4) Ichthyophis

76)

In which the following factors can interfere in binding of O2 with haemoglobin.

A-
B-H+ ion concentration
C-Temperature

(1) Only A
(2) B, C
(3) A and C
(4) A, B, C

77)

Select the sequence of steps in Respiration.

(A) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.
(B) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
(C) Transport of gases by the blood.
(D) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
out.
(E) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions are resultant release of CO2 .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)

(2) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)
(4) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)

78) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column
Column I Column II
III

Tidal volume
(i) (EC – ERV) 500 ml
(TV)

Expiratory
(ii) reserve volume (VC – IRV – TV) 3000 ml
(ERV)
 Vital capacity
(iii) IRV + ERV + RV 4500 ml
(VC)

Residual
(iv) FRC – ERV 1200 ml
volume (RV)
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

79) What happens in chloride shift ?

– –
(1) HCO3 ions move out from the RBC and Cl ions enters into RBC
– –
(2) Cl ions move out from the RBC and HCO3 ions enters into RBC
(3) H+ ions move out from the plasma and Cl– ions enters into RBC
– –
(4) HCO3 ions move out from the plasma and Cl ions enters into plasma

80) Find out incorrect match from column I, II and III :-

[Link] Column-I Column-II Column-III

Scales
1 Petromyzon
absent

Air bladder
absent but
2 Pristis
operculum is
present

Air bladder
and
3 Hippocampus operculum
both are
present

Skin is
scaleless,
and
4 Rana
tympanum
represents
the ear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Which one of the following features are not true for chordates ?
(a) Heart is dorsal.
(b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
(c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and single.
(d) Post-anal tail is present.
(e) Notochord is present.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (d) and (c) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (e) only

82) Total lung capacity is :-

(1) total volume of air accommodated in lungs at the end of forced inspiration
(2) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
(3) vital capacity + residual volume
(4) All of the above

83) Match the following columns and select the correct option :

Column - I Column - II

(a) Aptenodytes (i) Flying fox

(b) Pteropus (ii) Angel fish

(c) Pterophyllum (iii) Lamprey

(d) Petromyzon (iv) Penguin

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

84) In the given diagram which will be the partial pressure of O2 at A, B

and C
(1) 104 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg
(2) 95 mm Hg, 104 mm Hg, 40mm Hg
(3) 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg, 104 mm Hg
(4) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg

85) In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard ?

(1) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

(2) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
(3) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
(4) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon

86) Which of the following animals has three chambered heart ?

(1) Scoliodon
(2) Hippocampus
(3) Chelone
(4) Pteropus

87) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, C and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

88) The conditions which are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin :

(1) PO2 , PCO2 , H+ conc.↓, Temperature↓

(2) PO2↓, PCO2↓, H+ conc. , Temperature

(3) PO2 , PCO2↓, H+ conc.↓, Temperature↓

(4) PO , PCO2 , H+ conc. , Temperature

2

89) Statement-I : Members of cyclostomata are the chordate and are ectoparasite on fishes.
Statement-II : Gnathostomata has two superclasses, Chondrichthyes & Tetrapoda.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II incorrect.

(2) Statement-I correct & Statement-II incorrect.
(3) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(4) Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II correct.
90) Assertion :- In the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin takes place.
Reason :- In the alveoli is low and is high.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 4 3 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 3 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 3 3 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 4 4 4 4 1 1 2 4 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 3 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 4 2 3 1 1 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 4 1 4 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

B. Given Data:

A. Distance traveled north: 20 km

B. Distance traveled east: 10 km

C. Concept:

A. Displacement: The shortest distance between the initial and final positions of an object.
It's a vector quantity.

B. Pythagorean Theorem: In a right-angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal

to the sum of the squares of the other two sides (c² = a² + b²).

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Visualize: The motion forms a right-angled triangle.

A. Northward distance: 20 km (one leg)

B. Eastward distance: 10 km (other leg)

C. Displacement: Hypotenuse of the triangle

B. Apply Pythagorean Theorem:

A. Displacement = √(Northward distance² + Eastward distance²)

B. Displacement = √(20² + 10²)

 C. Displacement = √(400 + 100)

D. Displacement = √500

E. Displacement ≈ 22.36 km

E. Final Answer:

The displacement of the body from its starting point is approximately 22.36 km. option 3

2)

3)

because initial & final positions are same so the displacement is zero.

vavg =

4)
Displacement = OB =

5)
m/s S - E

6)

given

square x =

v = 2t + 6
Hence velocity varies linearly with t and initial velocity is 6 m/s

7)

From given v – x graph

Equation is v =
⇒ v = –3x + 30

as a =
⇒ a = (–3x + 30) (–3)
⇒ a = 9x – 90

8)
x + 3x + 5x = 180
x = 20 m

9)

100 = – 40 t + × 10 × t2
⇒ t2 – 8t – 20 = 0
⇒ t = –2, 10
Since 't' cannot be negative, t = 10 s is answer.

10)

h= …(1)

11)

Let the car takes time t1 to reach from O to A (a distance s) with acceleration f and t2 to come
to rest from B to C with deceleration .
velocity at A = velocity at B

ft1 = t2
or t2 = 2t1

Now, s1 = = = s (given)
s2 = (ft1)t ( υ = 0 + ft1)

s3 = (ft1)t2 –

= ft1 2t1 – (2t1)2

×

= =
But s1 + s2 + s3 = 15 s

∴ = 15 s

= 15 s
3s+ = 15 s

= 12 s = or t1 =

∴ s=
Thus, none of the option is correct.

12)

Both objects have same acceleration so their relative acceleration is zero hence relative
velocity will remain constant as u.

13)

14)

ux should be same.

15)

...(1)
 ...(2)
Eqn. (1)/(2)

⇒ t = 4 sec

16)

S = 16(4) +

17)

S = ut + at2 (from the tower)

S = 0 + g (t – T)2
Hence from ground

S = H – 1/2 g (t – T)2

18)

19) vx = 500 m/s

vy = 0 + 10 × 10 = 100 m/s

20) uy = u sin α = 50 × = 30 m/s

sy = 25, =–g

Now by using sy = uyt +

25 = 30t – 5t2
5t2 – 30t + 25 = 0
t2 – 6t + 5 = 0
t = 1, 5 therefore Δt = 4 sec.

21)
22)

23)

24) ∴ ∠a=90

25)

26)
27)

28)

Range is same for θ and 90-θ

29)

30)

31)

Angle with vertical

tan θ =
⇒ θ = 37°
32)

Rmax = R = [θ = 45°]

H=

33)

tanθ =

34)

u2cos2θ + u2sin2θ – usinθgt = 0

t=
35)

2
36) = 1 m/sec

37)
Force exerted by the rope on the block = Ma

38) Suppose a be the downward acceleration of the 4 kg mass, therefore, 2a is the upward
acceleration of the 1 kg mass. Hence, equations of motion are :
1 × 2a = T – 1g .......(i)
4a = 4g – 2T .......(ii)
Adding, after multiplying the equation (i) by 2,

8a = 2g or a = = or 2a =

Thus, the acceleration of the mass 1 kg is upward.

39) T3 = 4g = 40 N
T2 cos 37 = T3 = 40

T2 = 40 ⇒ T2 = 50 N
T2 sin 37 = T1

50 = T1 = 30 N

40) case (i) N = m(g–a) = 60 [9.8–3]

=
case (ii) N = mg = 60 × 5/8 = 588
case (iii) N ;= m(g – a) = 60 (9.8 + 3)

= N

5
41) = 6ti – 8t j
at t = 1 sec ; = 6i – 8j

= – 50 [6i – 8j] = 50 [8j – 6i] = 100 [4j – 3i]

42)
 43) 30 – T = 3a – for 3 kg block
T – 20 = 2a – for 2 kg block
on solving, a = 2 ms–2

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) 4 × 1.6 × 10–19 =

λ = 3100 Å (Approximately)

47) nλ = 2πr

nλ = 2π × × 52.9 pm
λ = 2π × 52.9 × 2 pm
= 211.6 π pm

48) rn = 0.52 9 n2/z Å

Vn = 2.18 × 106 z/n m/s

angular momentum mvr =

PE = –13.6 × 2 × eV/ atom

49) The uncertainity in speed

50 × = 2.5 m/s

using the equation

Δx = 4.216 × 10–33 m
50)

PE = –2 × 13.6 × eV/atom

KE = + 13.6 eV/atom

r = 0.529 Å

51) Δx1 . ΔV1 =

Δx2 . ΔV2 =

52) According to Einstein's equation of photoelectric effect

hv = hv0 +KE

53) (n + ℓ) rule
which has higher value of (n + ℓ), has greater energy.

54)

Subshell Value of ℓ
s → 0
p → 1
d → 2
f → 3

55)
56)

57)

A→R,D→P,B→S,C→Q

58) Any ion K → 2

L→8
M→6
has configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4
Number of se¯ → 6
Number of e¯ in a subshell = 2(2ℓ + 1)
for m = –1, subshell not exist
Number of radial node = n – ℓ – 1
=3–1–1=1

59) ΔX = 4ΔP

ΔX × ΔP =

4(ΔP)2 =

ΔP =

Δv =

60)

61)

62) ⇒

⇒ r = 2x

63) 2πr = nλ
2π × = 2λ

⇒λ=

⇒λ=

64) Orbital angular momentum

=
In 4f, no. of angular nodes = 3
total no. of nodes = 4 – 1 = 3

65) For Hydrogen atom energy depends on principal quantum no. ‘n’.

66)

67) n2 + n1 = 4 .....(i) and

2 2
n2 – n1 = 8 ....(ii)
therefore n2 = 4 – n1
and from equation (ii) (4 – n1)2 – n12 = 8
16 – 8n1 + n12 – n12 = 8
or n1 = 1
and n2 = 4 – 1 = 3

λ=

∴λ=

68) [Link]+ = –E1(H) × Z2

⇒19.6 × 10–18 J = –E1(H) × Z2

⇒ E1(H) =
= –4.9 × 10–18 J
∵ E ∝ –Z2
∴

⇒ =
–18
⇒ ? = –44.1 × 10 J

69)
Greater the atomic number, lesser will be the radius.

70)

71)

C4H11N → DBE → 4 + 1 =0
(I) H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH2

72) FG = different
∴ FI

73)

74) CH3–C≡N & CH3–N ≡ C are functional isomers

75)
Same M.F. but parent chain

76) 1

77)

78) 1 – Chain
2 – Identical
3 – Not isomer
4 – Chain (correct)

79)
0 0
2 & 3 amines are functional isomers

80)

81)
are functional group isomers.

82)
5 structural isomers of C6H14

83)

84)

CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 CH3–CH=CH–CH3
Only 3 structural isomer are possible by C4H8.

85) For chain isomerism in alkane minimum 4 carbon atoms are required and in position
isomerism minimum 6 carbon atoms is required

86)

Different molecular formula.

So, these are not isomer of each other.

87)
 Concept based.

88)
F.G. → Phenol F.G. → alcohol
⇒ Phenols & alcohols are different functional group.

89)

90) Both have same name.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 208

92)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 138

93) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 210

94)
NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 137

95) NCERT- Page # - 210

96) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 211

97)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 138

98)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 138

99)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 138

100) NCERT Pg # 214

101)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 138

102)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 142

103)

NCERT Eng. Page # 215 (1st para)

104) NCERT Pg. # 214

105)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 139

106)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 139

107) NCERT - Pg. # 211

108)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 138

109) NCERT Page. No - 212, 13.6

110) NCERT Page No. 210, 13.4

111) NCERT Page No. 213, 13.6.2

112) NCERT Page No. 213, 13.6.3

113)

Here it is asked about, Number of calvin cycle required to generate one molecule of
glucose/hexose.
Explanation:
For ease of understanding, the Calvin cycle can be described by three stages: carboxylation,
reduction and regeneration.
- For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are
required.
- 6 turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of one glucose as 6 CO2 are required for
the synthesis of one hexose.
- 12 NADPH + H+ & 18 ATP are required as an assimilatory power to produce one Glucose in
dark reaction in C3 cycle.
The correct option is 3. Six

114)

SOLUTION—

The most abundant protein on Earth is RuBisCO.

Here's why:

A. RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase): This enzyme is crucial for

carbon fixation in photosynthesis.1 It's found in all plants, algae, and cyanobacteria,
which are the primary producers on Earth. Due to the sheer volume of these organisms,
RuBisCO is incredibly abundant.

B. The other options are also important proteins, but they are not as widespread or
abundant as RuBisCO:
 A. Catalase: An enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide.

B. Amylase: An enzyme that breaks down starch.

Pepsin: An enzyme that breaks down proteins in the stomach.

115) The correct answer option (3) : Reduction

Explanation :
In the Calvin cycle, the Reduction phase is where each molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-
PGA) product from CO2 fixation is first phosphorylated and then reduced.
Equation 3-PGA + ATP → 1,3-BPG + ADP
Since 2 molecules of 3-PGA are produced per CO2 fixed 2 ATP molecules are used per CO2. The
1,3-BPG is then reduced by NADPH to form glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P).
Equation 1,3-BPG + NADPH + H + → G3P + NADP ++ Pi
with 2 molecules of 1,3-BPG per CO2 fixed 2 NADPH molecules are used per CO2.

116)

The question asks about the dark reactions of photosynthesis. Specifically, it asks for the
statement that correctly describes these reactions
1. Dark reactions occur in darkness:

A. Incorrect: While these reactions are called 11 dark reactions, 11 they do not occur only in
darkness. The term 11 dark" refers to the fact that these reactions do no directly require light.
However, they can occur both in light and in darkness, a long as ATP and NADPH (produced
by the light-dependent reactions) are available.
B. So, this statement is incorrect.

2. Dark reactions are not light dependent:

A. incorrect: Dark reactions are indeed not direct light-dependent. They do not require light
directly but rely on the ATP and NADPH produced in the light reactions to drive the fixation of
carbon dioxide into organic molecules (such glucose).
B. So, this statement is incorrect.

3. Dark reactions are not directly light driven:

A. Correct: This is another way of stating that dark reactions do not depend on light for energy
directly. While light is indirectly involved through ATP and NADPH produced in the light
reactions, the dark reactions themselves do not need light to occur.
B. So, this statement is correct.

4- Dark reactions occur in the membrane system of the chloroplast:

A. Incorrect: The dark reactions occur in the stroma of the chloroplast, not in th membrane
system (which is where the light reactions take place). The stroma the fluid-filled area
surrounding the thylakoid membranes, where the Calvin cycle takes place.
B. So, this statement is incorrect.

Conclusion:
The correct answers are:
A. Option 2: Dark reactions are not light dependent.

117)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 145

118) NCERT XI Pg # 216, last para II line

119) Module-3, Page # 191

120)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 144

121)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 150

122)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 139

123)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 148

124) NCERT pg no - 212

125)

To determine how many ATP molecules are required in the reduction step of the Calvin cycle
for the synthesis of one molecule of sucrose, we can follow these steps:
Step 1: Understand the Calvin Cycle
The Calvin cycle consists of three main phases: carbon fixation, reduction, and regeneration.
The reduction phase is where 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) is converted into glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate (G3P), which is a precursor for glucose and sucrose.
Step 2: Identify the Carbon Content of Sucrose
Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. Each of
these monosaccharides contains six carbon atoms, leading to a total of 12 carbon atoms in one
molecule of sucrose.
Step 3: Determine ATP Requirement per Carbon Atom
In the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle, each molecule of 3-PGA (which is a 3-carbon
compound) is converted into G3P. This process requires ATP. For every carbon atom that is
fixed, 2 ATP molecules are consumed.
Step 4: Calculate Total ATP for Sucrose
Since sucrose contains 12 carbon atoms, we can calculate the total ATP requirement:
- For, 12 carbon atoms: Total ATP = 12 carbon atoms × 2 ATP per carbon = 24 ATP
Correct answer: 1. 24 ATP

126)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 148

127)

NCERT Page no. 212

128)

NCERT Pg. # 222, 223

129)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 137

130)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 148

131)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 137

132)

NCERT-XI, Eng. Pg # 222

NCERT-XI, िहदी पे ज # 223

133)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 149

134)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 150

135)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 150

136)
 SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION: -

The total volume of air the lungs can accommodate at the end of forced inspiration is called
Total Lung Capacity (TLC).
It includes:

● Tidal Volume (TV): The volume of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing.

● Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): The additional air that can be inhaled after a
normal inspiration.

● Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV): The additional air that can be exhaled after a
normal expiration.

● Residual Volume (RV): The air remaining in the lungs even after maximum exhalation.

Thus,
TLC = TV + IRV + ERV + RV

137) Explain question: Incorrect statement.

Concept: This question is based on oxylib dissociation curve.

Solution: The formation of oxylib is a process of oxygenation (not oxidation).

Final Answer: Option 1 is correct.

138) Correct Answer: 1. Efflux of CI- ions from RBC

Explanation: The removal of CO2 from blood involves a process known as the chloride shift or
Hamburger phenomenon. When CO2 enters the red blood cells (RBC), it is converted into
carbonic acid (H2CO3) by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which then dissociates into
bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) and hydrogen ions (H+) To maintain electrical neutrality, HC03-
ions move out of the RBC into the plasma, and CI- ions move into the RBC to replace the lost
negative charge. This exchange is crucial in the process of transporting CO2 from tissues to
the lungs, where it can be exhaled.
In this case, Option 1 (efflux of Cl- ions from RBC) suggests that chloride ions move out of the
RBC in response to the movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma. This option correctly
represents the chloride shift that helps facilitate the transport of CO2 from the tissues to the
lungs.
Here's why the other options are not correct:

A. Option 2 (Influx of CI- ions into RBC): This is actually part of the process that balances the
charge when bicarbonate ions leave the RBC, so it is more accurate than Option 1 for the
chloride shift mechanism.
B. Option 3 (Influx of HCO3- ions into Plasma): This describes the movement of bicarbonate
ions from the RBC to the plasma, but it does not focus on the chloride ion exchange, which is
essential for maintaining charge balance.
C. Option 4 (Efflux of HCO3- ions from RBC): While bicarbonate ions do move out of the RBC,
the chloride shift focuses on the movement of CI- ions into the RBC to maintain charge
balance, not just the efflux of bicarbonate.
 139)

The correct answer is:

2. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 100 mm Hg and 40 mm
Hg respectively.
Explanation:
The exchange of respiratory gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) across the respiratory
membrane occurs through diffusion, which is driven by differences in the partial pressures
of the gases. Oxygen moves from areas of higher partial pressure to areas of lower partial
pressure.
• In the alveoli, the partial pressure of oxygen is about 100 mm Hg.
• In the deoxygenated blood in the capillaries, the partial pressure of oxygen is about 40
mm Hg.
Since the partial pressure of oxygen is higher in the alveolar air than in the capillary blood,
oxygen diffuses from the alveoli (where the partial pressure is 100 mm Hg) into the blood
(where the partial pressure is 40 mm Hg).

140) Solution:
Expiratory capacity is the total volume of air that a person can exhale after a normal
inspiration. It includes the tidal volume (the amount of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal
breath) and the expiratory reserve volume (the additional amount of air that can be forcibly
exhaled after a normal exhalation).

141) The disorder that represents a decrease in respiratory surface due to damaged
alveolar walls is 3. Emphysema.

A. Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that causes the destruction of the alveoli, the tiny air
sacs in the lungs responsible for gas exchange. As the alveoli are damaged, the surface area
for gas exchange decreases, leading to difficulty in breathing.

142)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 57, 59

143)

A. Macropus: This refers to a kangaroo, which is a mammal. Mammals are endothermic,

meaning they maintain a constant body temperature. So, this is not the answer.
B. Chelone: This refers to a turtle. Turtles are ectothermic, meaning their body temperature
varies with their environment. Therefore, Chelone is the correct answer.
C. Camelus: This refers to a camel, which is a mammal and a homeotherm.
D. Psittacula: This refers to a parrot, which is a bird and a homeotherm.

Therefore, among the given options, Chelone (turtle) is not a homeotherm.

144)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION: -

Larynx – Sound box (i):

 The larynx is also known as the voice box because it contains the vocal cords that produce
sound. ✅
Trachea – Complete cartilaginous rings (ii):

A. This is incorrect because the trachea has C-shaped cartilaginous rings, not complete
rings. These open at the back to allow flexibility and contact with the esophagus. ❌
B. Epiglottis – Elastic cartilaginous flap (iii):
The epiglottis is an elastic cartilage flap that prevents food from entering the windpipe during
swallowing. ✅
C. Alveoli – Very thin, irregular walled, vascularised bag-like structures (iv):
The alveoli are microscopic sacs with thin walls, richly supplied by blood capillaries,
facilitating gas exchange. ✅
D. Pleural fluid – Reduces friction on the lung surface (v):
The pleural fluid is present between the two pleural membranes and reduces friction during
lung movement. ✅

Why not other options?

● Option 1 includes (ii), which is incorrect.

● Options 3 and 4 omit correct matches like (iv).

145) NCERT XI, Page # 56 last para 57 Ist para

146)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 187

147) NCERT-XI, Page # 185, 186, 187

A → Correct , B → Correct , C → Incorrect →Change in volume of thoracic cavity will be seen
in change in pulmonary cavity.
D → Correct

148) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Cyclostomes have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.
Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawning, Within a few
days, they die. Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to the ocean (Anadromous
migration).
Examples :- Petromyzon (Lamprey) and Myxine (Hagfish).

149) NCERT-XI, Page # 187

(a) Systemic artery = 95 mm Hg
(Oxygenated blood)
(b) Tissues = 40 mm Hg
(c) Alveoli = 104 mm Hg
(d) Atmospheric air = 159 mm Hg

150) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
 Phylum chordata has following fundamental features :
1. Notochord :- Elastic, solid rod like structure which is present throughout the life or only
during embryonic development, locked between nerve and digestive tube.
2. Dorsal hollow nerve cord :- It differentiates into brain and spinal cord it is present above the
notchord.
3. Paired pharyngeal gill slits : -
Take part in circulation of water for respiration.
In higher chordates, they occur only in embryonic stage.

151)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION:

Earthworm: Respiration occurs through its moist cuticle, which allows for gas exchange.

A. Arthropods: Respire using tracheal systems, a network of air-filled tubes that deliver oxygen
directly to tissues.
B. Fishes: Use gills to extract oxygen from water.
C. Birds/Reptiles: Respire using lungs, adapted to their specific metabolic needs.

This matches the listed options correctly.

152)

NCERT Page no. 185

153)

A. 20-25 percent CO2 is transported by RBCs: This statement is true. About 20-25% of the
carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood is carried by hemoglobin in red blood cells (RBCs) as
carbaminohemoglobin.
B. 97 percent O2 is transported by RBCs: This is also true. Around 97% of the oxygen (O2) is
carried by hemoglobin in RBCs, forming oxyhemoglobin, while the rest is dissolved in plasma.
C. 70 percent CO2 is carried as bicarbonate: This is true as well. Approximately 70% of CO2 is
transported in the blood as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) after being converted by carbonic
anhydrase in red blood cells.

Therefore, all of the statements are correct, and Option 4 is the correct choice.

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 275

155) Solution:
The pneumotaxic centre is located in the pons of the brainstem. It helps to regulate the rate
and depth of breathing by sending inhibitory signals to the inspiratory neurons in the medulla
oblongata. This helps to prevent over inflation of the lungs and ensures that breathing is
smooth and coordinated.
 156)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION: -

The chemosensitive area located in the medulla oblongata, adjacent to the respiratory rhythm
center, is primarily sensitive to CO₂ levels in the blood. When CO₂ levels rise (leading to an
increase in hydrogen ions, H⁺), the chemoreceptors detect this change and stimulate the
respiratory center to increase the rate and depth of breathing. This helps to expel excess CO₂
and maintain acid-base balance in the body.

● O₂ (Oxygen): The chemoreceptors are less sensitive to O₂ changes, although peripheral

chemoreceptors (in the carotid and aortic bodies) do respond to low O₂ levels.

● N₂ (Nitrogen): Nitrogen does not significantly affect the regulation of respiration, as it

is inert.

● HCO₃ (Bicarbonate): While bicarbonate plays a role in buffering blood pH, it is not the
direct trigger for respiration regulation in the chemosensitive area. The focus is on CO₂ and
its effect on pH (H⁺ concentration).

157)

A. Question: Assertion: Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound production. Reason:
Epiglottis flap covers the glottis during swallowing and prevents the entry of food into the
larynx.
B. Given Data: Assertion and Reason statements about the larynx and epiglottis.
C. Concept: Anatomy and function of the larynx and epiglottis.
D. Explanation:

A. Assertion: The assertion is true. The larynx is indeed a cartilaginous structure, and it houses
the vocal cords, which vibrate to produce sound.
B. Reason: The reason is also true. The epiglottis is a flap-like structure that covers the glottis
(the opening of the larynx) during swallowing. This action prevents food from entering the
trachea and larynx.
C. Relationship: While both statements are true, the reason is not the direct explanation for the
assertion. The larynx produces sound because of the vocal cords, not because of the
epiglottis's role in swallowing. The epiglottis's function is to protect the airway, not to produce
sound.

E. Final Answer: 1. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
Assertion.

158) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 58

159) The correct answer is Option 2: inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

Explanation: Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that occurs when breathing. It's a
common symptom of asthma, a respiratory disorder characterized by inflammation and
narrowing of the airways (bronchi and bronchioles).
 A. Airborne allergens and pollutants can trigger an asthma attack by causing inflammation in
the airways. This inflammation leads to swelling of the airway lining and increased mucus
production, which narrows the airways and makes it difficult to breathe.

160)

To represent Option 3 as the correct answer, let's revise the explanation:

Correct Answer: 3. Vital capacity
Explanation:

A. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air a person can exhale after taking the deepest
possible breath. It includes the inspiratory reserve volume (the maximum amount of air that
can be inhaled after normal inhalation), the tidal volume (the volume of air inhaled or exhaled
during normal breathing), and the expiratory reserve volume (the maximum amount of air
that can be exhaled after a normal exhalation).

The scenario described in the question - breathing in a volume of air by forced inspiration after a
forced expiration - refers to vital capacity, which is the total amount of air that can be exhaled after
a maximal inhalation.
Here's why the other options are incorrect:

A. Option 1 (Total lung capacity): Total lung capacity refers to the total volume of air the
lungs can hold, including vital capacity plus the residual volume (the amount of air
remaining in the lungs after maximal exhalation). It's a broader measure and does not
specifically describe the air taken in after forced inspiration following a forced expiration.
B. Option 2 (Tidal volume): Tidal volume is the amount of air moved in and out of the study
lungs with each normal breath. It does not refer to the volume taken in after forced 08
expiration.
C. Option 4 (Inspiratory capacity): Inspiratory capacity is the amount of air that can be
inhaled after a normal exhalation, not after forced expiration.

Thus, vital capacity is the correct answer because it refers to the maximum amount of air that can
be taken in after a forced expiration.

161)

NCERT XI Pg.# 48

162)

Explain question: Select correct statement.

Concept: This question is based on mechanism of prorating.

Solution: Statement (a): True. During inspiration, both the diaphragm and external
intercostal muscles contract. This contraction expands the thoracic cavity, reducing the
pressure inside the lungs (intra-pulmonary pressure), causing air to flow into the lungs.

A. Statement (b): True. Normal breathing is often referred to as abdominal breathing because
the diaphragm moves downward during inspiration, causing the abdomen to expand as the
lungs fill with air.
B. Statement (c): False. This is not normal expiration. It is a forced expiration, which involves
 the internal intercostal muscles (IICM) and abdominal muscles contracting to expel air more
forcefully, not relaxing.
C. Statement (d): False. Inspiration occurs when the intra-pulmonary pressure is less than the
atmospheric pressure, not more. This pressure difference allows air to move into the lungs.

Thus, the correct statements are (a) and (b). Therefore, the correct option is 4.

163) Pg. No. 55 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

164)

A. Question: How many animals in the given list have gills for respiration? Earthworm, Frog,
Fish, Insects, Reptiles, Aquatic arthropods, Flatworm, Molluscs, Birds
B. Given Data: List of animals. Options: 1. Six, 2. Four, 3. Three, 4. Five
C. Concept: Respiratory organs in different animal groups.
D. Explanation: Let's examine each group:

A. Earthworm: Uses its skin for cutaneous respiration.

B. Frog: Uses lungs and skin (cutaneous respiration), and gills in the tadpole stage.
C. Fish: Uses gills for respiration.
D. Insects: Breathe through a network of tiny tubes called tracheae.
E. Reptiles: Breathe using lungs.
F. Aquatic arthropods: Many aquatic arthropods (like crustaceans and some insects) use gills.
G. Flatworm: Some flatworms exchange gases directly through their body surface. They don't
have specialized respiratory organs.
H. Molluscs: Some aquatic molluscs (like clams and snails) use gills. Terrestrial molluscs (like
slugs) use a simple lung-like structure.
I. Birds: Breathe using lungs.

Therefore, the animals from the list that use gills are: Fish, Aquatic arthropods, Frog (during
their tadpole stage), and some Molluscs.

E. Final Answer: 2. Four

165) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 57 last para

166) Solution:
All three factors – PCO2, H+ ion concentration and temperature – can interfere with the binding
of oxygen to hemoglobin.
Correct option: (4)

167)

Correct Answer: Option 1. (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)

Explanation :
The correct sequence of respiration steps is:
 A. Pulmonary ventilation – Air enters and exits the lungs (D).
B. Diffusion of gases across the alveolar membrane (A).
C. Transport of gases through the blood (C).
D. Diffusion of gases between blood and tissues (B).
E. Cellular respiration – O2 is used for metabolism, releasing CO2 (E).

168)

The correct answer is:

3. (i) , (ii) and (iii)
Explanation based on Class 11 NCERT:
Let's review the definitions and the values for each respiratory volume:
1. Tidal Volume (TV):

A. This is the volume of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing.

B. According to NCERT, the typical value for tidal volume is 500 ml. The given formula TV =
(EC - ERV) is correct, as it is the amount of air breathed in and out during regular breathing.
C. So, (i) Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 ml is correct.

2. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV):

A. This is the volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal exhalation.
B. The formula ERV = VC - IRV - TV is also correct, where VC is the vital capacity IRV is the
inspiratory reserve volume, and TV is the tidal volume.
C. The typical value for ERV is approximately 3000 ml.
D. So, (ii) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) = 3000 ml is correct.

3. Vital Capacity (VC):

A. This is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation.
B. The formula VC = IRV + TV + ERV is correct, where VC is the sum of inspiratory reserve
volume (IRV), tidal volume (TV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
C. The typical value for VC is around 4500 ml.
D. So, (iii) Vital Capacity (VC) = 4500 ml is correct.

4. Residual Volume (RV):

A. This is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation.
B. The formula RV = FRC - ERV is incorrect. In fact, RV is the volume of air that cannot be
exhaled from the lungs, and it doesn't depend on FRC (functional residual capacity) in this
way.
C. The typical value for RV is about 1200 ml, but the formula given is not accurate according to
NCERT.

169) Explain question: Hamburger shift?

Concept: This question is based on CO2 transport.

Solution: During Hamburger shift (also known chloride shift) HCO3- ions moves out from RBC
and Cl-ions centers into RBC. This process occurs during transport of CO2-.
 Final Answer: Option 1 is correct.

170)

NCERT XI Pg. # 47,48

Fig 4.18, 4.19(b), 4.20(b), 4.21(b)

171)

Explanation:

A. (a) Heart is dorsal: FALSE. In chordates, the heart is typically ventral

B. (b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits: TRUE. At some point in their development, all
chordates have gill slits in the pharynx. In some chordates, like fish, these gill slits remain
functional for respiration.
C. (c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid, and single: FALSE. The central nervous
system in chordates is dorsal , hollow, and usually single.
D. (d) Post-anal tail is present: TRUE. Most chordates have a tail that extends beyond the
anus at some stage of development.
E. (e) Notochord is present: TRUE. A notochord is a flexible rod that provides support to the
body.

Therefore, the features that are NOT true for chordates are (a) and (c).

Final Answer : option (3). (a) and (c) only

172)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 187

173)

Question Explanation :
Match the animal genus with its corresponding organism.

Concept :
This question is based on Chordata.

Solution :
Let's correctly match each item from Column I to Column II:

A. (a) Aptenodytes → (iv) Penguin

Aptenodytes is a genus of penguins.

A. (b) Pteropus → (i) Flying fox

Pteropus is the genus of large fruit bats, commonly called flying foxes.

A. (c) Pterophyllum → (ii) Angel fish

 Pterophyllum refers to freshwater angelfish.

A. (d) Petromyzon → (iii) Lamprey

Petromyzon is a genus of jawless fishes (lampreys).

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

174) NCERT Page No. 273

175)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 59

176)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 58

177) Solution:
A. A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.

A. True. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that is abundant in red blood cells (RBCs) where it
catalyzes the conversion of CO2 and water into carbonic acid, which then dissociates into
bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. This helps in CO2 transport and pH regulation in blood.

B. Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.

A. True. Although most carbonic anhydrase is found in RBCs, small quantities are also present in
the plasma. However, RBCs have much higher concentrations of this enzyme compared to
plasma.

C. Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

A. True. In terms of CO2 transport, about 4 ml of CO2 is delivered by every 100 ml of blood to the
alveoli, mainly in the form of bicarbonate ions after conversion in the RBCs.

D. 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

A. True. About 20-25% of CO2 in the blood is carried bound to hemoglobin in the form of
carbaminohemoglobin.

178)

Solution:
A. Question: The conditions which are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin are:
B. Given Data: Options:
1. PO2↑, PCO2↓, H+ conc.↓, Temperature↓;
2. PO2↓, PCO2↓, H+ conc.↑, Temperature↑;
3. PO2↑, PCO2↓, H+ conc.↓, Temperature↓;
4. PO2↑, PCO2↑, H+ conc.↑, Temperature↑
 C. Concept: Factors affecting oxygen-hemoglobin binding and the oxygen dissociation curve.
D. Explanation: Oxyhemoglobin (hemoglobin bound to oxygen) formation is favored under
conditions of high oxygen partial pressure (PO2), low carbon dioxide partial pressure (PCO2),
low H+ concentration (high pH), and low temperature. These conditions are typically found in
the lungs where oxygen uptake occurs.
High PO2: In the lungs, the partial pressure of oxygen is high, favoring the binding of oxygen to
hemoglobin.

A. Low PCO2 : Low PCO2 means less carbonic acid formation, hence lower H+ concentration
and higher pH.

B. Low H+ concentration (high pH): A less acidic environment promotes oxygen binding
to hemoglobin.

C. Low Temperature : Lower temperatures favor the stability of the oxyhemoglobin bond.

E. Final Answer: 3. PO2↑, PCO2↓, H+ conc.↓, Temperature↓

179) NCERT Pg. # 61

180)

Question: Analyze the given Assertion and Reason regarding CO2 dissociation in the alveoli.

B. Given Data:

A. Assertion: In the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-hemoglobin takes place.

B. Reason: In the alveoli, pCO2 is low and pO2 is high.

C. Concept: Carbon dioxide transport and the factors affecting its release in the lungs.

D. Explanation:

A. Assertion: The assertion is true. In the alveoli, where gas exchange occurs, CO2 is released
from carbamino-hemoglobin. This is essential for CO2 to be exhaled from the body.
B. Reason: The reason is also true. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) in the alveoli is
low, while the partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) is high. This difference in partial pressures
drives the diffusion of CO2 from the blood into the alveoli and O2 from the alveoli into the
blood.
C. Relationship: The reason is the correct explanation for the assertion. The low pCO2 in the
alveoli favors the dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-hemoglobin. The high pO2 simultaneously
promotes the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin. This is a crucial aspect of the gas exchange
process in the lungs.