13-07-2025

1803CMD303032250002 MD

PHYSICS

1)

‘y-x’ graph of the particle moving in plane is given below. If the graph shows the motion of a particle
for 2 sec. The ratio of average velocity and average speed is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A coin dropped from some height inside a lift takes time t1 to reach the floor if the lift is stationary
and time t2 if lift is accelerating with constant acceleration. Then :-

(1) t1 > t2
(2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 = t2
(4) Information insufficient

3)

Two object starts from rest and their acceleration is shown in figure. The time when their relative

velocity is again zero is :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 1 sec
(4) 6 sec

4) The velocity-time plot for a particle moving on a straight line is shown in the figure.
(1) Acceleration of particle for 0 to10s is positive and for 10 to 30s is negative.
(2) The particle has never turned around.
(3) The particle has zero displacement in given time interval.
The average speed in the interval 0 to 10 s is the same as the average speed in interval 10s to
(4)
20 s.

5) Co-ordinate of moving particle at any time t are given by x = 2t2, y = . Its speed at t = 1 sec is
:-

(1) 3m/s
(2) 4m/s
(3) 5m/s
(4) m/s

6) A cyclist complets one round of a square track of side 2 m in 40 s. What will be the displacement
at the end of 3 minutes ?

(1) 52 m
(2) 0
(3) 16 m
(4)

7) For motion of an object along the x-axis the velocity v depends on the displacement x as v = 3x2 –
2x, then what is the acceleration at x = 2m.

(1) 48 ms–2
(2) 80 ms–2
(3) 18 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2

8) At t = 0 a particle leaves the origin with a velocity of 6 m/s in the positive y direction. Its
acceleration is given by = m/s2. The x and y coordinates of the particle at the instant the
particle reaches maximum y coordinate are
(1) 2m, 3m
(2) 4m, 6m
(3) 1m, 3m
(4) 2m, 6m

9) The x and y co-ordinates of a particle at any time t are given by;

x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t
where x and y are in m and t is s.
The acceleration of the particle at 5 s is :

(1) zero
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 40 m/s2

10) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10 m/s from the top of a tower 200 m high
and another is thrown vertically downwards with the same speed simultaneously. The time
2
difference between them in reaching the ground (in s) is : (g = 10 m/s )

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 1

11) A particle moves along a straight line and its velocity depends on time as v = 4t – t2. Then for
first 5s :-
(A) Average velocity is 25/3 m/s
(B) Average acceleration is 10 m/s2
(C) Average velocity is 5/3 m/s
(D) Acceleration is 4 m/s2 at t = 0
Choose the correct statements :-

(1) A, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) C, D
(4) D only

12) A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u. It passes three points A, B and C in its upward

journey with velocities , and respectively. The ratio of the separations between points A and B

and between B and C, i.e., is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2

(3)
(4)

13) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of
the particle at time t is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The motion of a body is given by the equation where v is the speed in m s–1 and t is
time in s. The body is at rest at t = 0. The speed varies with time as :-

(1) v = (1 – e–3t)
(2) v = 2(l –e–3t)
(3) v = (1 + e–2t)
(4) v = 2(1 + e–2t)

15) For 1/m of the distance between two stations a train is uniformly accelerated and for 1/n of the
distance it is uniformly retarded. It starts from rest at one station and comes to rest at the other. The
ratio of the greatest velocity to the average velocity will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) One particle is dropped while another particle is thrown downward with an initial velocity of 2
m/s simultaneously from same position. Both of these particles are at a separation of 18 m after time
:

(1) 4.5 s
(2) 9 s
(3) 9.8 s
(4) 18 s

17) A ball is thrown in vertically upward direction its height varies with time t as shown in figure. If
the acceleration due to gravity is 12 m/s2 then the height Δh is :–
(1) 12m
(2) 24m
(3) 36m
(4) None of these

18) Two particles A and B are moving in XY-plane. Their positions vary with time t according
to relation :
xA (t) = 3t, xB (t) = 6
yA (t) = t, yB (t) = 2 + 3t2
Distance between two particles at t = 1 is :

(1) 5 unit
(2) 3 unit
(3) 4 unit
(4) unit

19) The position of a particle moving along a straight line is given by x(t) = (1–e–At) where A and B

are constants. The dimensions of is same as

(1) linear momentum

(2) moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity
(4) acceleration

20) The frequency of vibration of a string is given by:

Here p is the number of segments in which the string is divided, F is the tension in the string and l is
its length. The dimensional formula for m is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) In a particular system the units of length mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equal to
(1) 0.1 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 100 N

22) The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation , where v0 is a

constant and α > 0. The dimensions of v0 and α are respectively

(1) and
(2) and
(3) and
(4) and T

23) Given that T stands for time period and stands for the length of simple pendulum. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity, then which of the following statements about the relation T2 = ( /g) is
correct ?

(1) It is correct both dimensionally as well as numerically

(2) It is neither dimensionally correct nor numerically
(3) It is dimensionally correct but not numerically
(4) It is numerically correct but not dimentsionally

24) Measurement of two quantities along with the error of respective measuring instrument is:
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
The value of AB will be

(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m

(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

25) The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and planck's constant (h) are taken as the
fundamental units in a system. The dimension of time in this new system should be :-

(1) G1/2h1/2c–5/2
(2) G–1/2h1/2c1/2
(3) G1/2h1/2c–3/2
(4) G1/2h1/2c1/2

26) The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an experiment. The diameter of the ball is
measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular
scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that on the circular scale is 20 divisions. Then
diameter of ball is :

(1) 2.60 mm
(2) 2.50 mm
(3) 2.70 mm
(4) 2.80 mm

27)

The values of kinetic energy (K) and potential energy (U) are measured as follows
K = (100.0 ± 2.0) J and U = (200.0 ± 1.0) J
then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :

(1) 2.5%
(2) 0.5%
(3) 1.0%
(4) 1.5%

28) Write down the number of significant figure in 0.04320 N/m2.

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

29) Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 1% and 2%
respectively. The error in measurement of moment of inertia (I) about its diameter is :-

(1) 9%
(2) 6%
(3) 5%
(4) 4%

30) Convert density = 0.5 gm/cc into MKS system:

(1) 5 × 106
(2) 5 × 109
(3) 5 × 103
(4) 5 × 102

CHEMISTRY

1) 100 mL of PH3 when completely decomposed produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change in
volume of the gas is -
4PH3(g) → P4(s) + 6H2(g)

(1) 50 mL increase
(2) 500 mL decrease
(3) 900 mL decrease
(4) Does not change

2) Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating manganese dioxide (MnO2) with aqueous
hydrochloric acid according to the reaction
4HCl(aq)+MnO2(s) → 2H2O(ℓ) + MnCl2(aq) + Cl2(g)
How many gram of HCl react with 5.0 g of manganese dioxide ? (At. wt. of Mn = 55)

(1) 2.12 g
(2) 44.24 g
(3) 8.4 g
(4) 3.65 g

3) Volume at N.T.P. of 0.22 g of CO2 is same as that of

(1) 0.01 g of hydrogen

(2) 0.085 g of NH3
(3) 320 mg of gaseous SO2
(4) All the above

4) In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3, what will be the number of moles of product formed,
starting from 1 mol of A, 0.6 mol of B and 0.72 mol of C :-

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.24
(4) 2.32

5) A gaseous alkane was burnt with oxygen. The volume of O2 for complete combustion and that of
CO2 formed are in the ratio of 7 : 4. The molecular formula of alkane is :-

(1) CH4
(2) C2H6
(3) C3H8
(4) C4H10

6) 3 L of mixture of propane (C3H8) & butane (C4H10) on complete combustion gives10 L CO2. Find the
composition of mixture.

(1) C3H8, 2L and C4H10, 1L

(2) C3H8, 3L and C4H10, 0L
(3) C3H8, 1.5L and C4H10, 1.5L
(4) C3H8, 0L and C4H10, 3L

7) What weight of 95% CaCO3 will be required to produce 11.2 litre CO2 :-
(1) 50 g
(2) 100 g
(3) 52.6 g
(4) 25 g

8) How many grams of 10% pure sulphur will produce 5.6 L SO2 at NTP ?

(1) 8g
(2) 80 g
(3) 0.8 g
(4) 800 g

9) 50 g CaCO3 will react with how many gram of 50% HCl by weight according to the reaction
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

(1) 36.5 g
(2) 73 g
(3) 18.75 g
(4) 182.5 g

10) A metal M forms a metal carbonate M2CO3. If the mass % of oxygen in metal carbonate is 48%
then the atomic weight of the metal is :-

(1) 40
(2) 20
(3) 60
(4) 80

11) A metal oxide has 40% oxygen. The equivalent weight of the metal is :

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 48

12) The volume of 0.25 M H3PO3 required to neutralise 25 ml of 0.03 M Ca(OH)2 is :-

(1) 1.32 mL
(2) 3 mL
(3) 26.4 mL
(4) 2 mL

13) The equivalent weight of divalent metal is w. The molecular weight of its chloride is :-

(1) w + 35.5
(2) w + 71
(3) 2w + 71
(4) 2w + 35.5

14) 0.45g of an acid (Mw = 90) is completely neutralized by 100 mL, 0.1 N Base. Determine basicity
of acid?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 20
(4) 3

15) Which one is homocyclic compound :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

16) How many σ and π bonds are present in the given compound :-

(1) 14σ, 8π
(2) 18σ, 4π
(3) 19σ, 4π
(4) 14σ, 4π

17)
Total number of substituent present in the above given compound.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 2

18) How many type of functional groups are present in following compound ?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Following which one is correct priority order of functional group for IUPAC ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) What will be the prefix in the following compound

(1) Methylcarboxyl
(2) Carboxymethyl
(3) Carboxyethyl
(4) Ethylcarboxy

21) Which is not correctly named according to IUPAC nomenclature :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) In which case IUPAC numbering is incorrect ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 4–Aminocyclohex– 5–ene– 1, 3–diol

(2) 4, 6–Dihydroxycyclohex– 2–enamine
(3) 6–Aminocyclohex– 4–ene– 1, 3–diol
(4) 2, 4–Dihydroxycyclohex– 2–enamine

24) Select correct principle carbon chain :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25) The correct IUPAC name of tertiary Butyl amine is :-

(1) Propanamine
(2) 2-methyl propan-2-amine
(3) 2,2-Dimethyl ethanamine
(4) Tertiary Butanamine

26)

General formula CnH2nO2 may represent :

(1) Carboxylic acid

(2) Ester
(3) Aldehyde
(4) Both 1 and 2

27) IUPAC Name of :-

(1) 5-Cyano cyclohex-3-ene carbaldehyde

(2) 5-Formyl cyclohex-2-enecarbonitrile
(3) 3-Cyanocyclohex-4-enecarbaldehyde
(4) 3-Formyl cyclohex-5-enecarbonitrile

28) What is I.U.P.A.C name of following compound ?

(1) Hepta – 1, 4 – dien-6-yne

(2) Hepta –1, 3– diene – 6 – yne
(3) Hepta – 3, 5 – dien – 1 – yne
(4) Hepta – 3, 6 – dien – 1 – yne

29) Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:-

(1) 2-Amino-3-Formyl butane-1, 4-dioic acid
(2) 2-formyl-3-amino butane-1, 4-dioic acid
(3) 3-Amino-2-Formyl butane-1, 4-dioic acid
(4) 2-Amino-3-carboxy-4-oxo butanoic acid

30) Which of the following is not a correct match

(1)

⇒ Neopentyl

(2)

⇒ Neobutyl
(3) ⇒ Propargyl
(4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – ⇒ Allyl

BOTANY

1) Two sister chromatids are attached with

(1) chromocenter
(2) spindle fibre
(3) centromere
(4) chromatid

2) A cell entering M-phase of the cell cycle is

(1) Always diploid, either with duplicated or unduplicated chromosomes

(2) Always haploid, always with duplicated chromosomes
(3) Either haploid or diploid, always with dyad DNA
(4) Either haploid or diploid, either with duplicated or unduplicated chromosomes.

3) 'M' phase starts with the nuclear division corresponding to the separation of daughter
chromosomes and usually ends with :-

(1) Division of cytoplasm

(2) G2 phase
(3) Telophase
(4) Karyokinesis.

4) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is :

(1) G1-phase
(2) S-phase
(3) G2- phase
(4) M-phase

5) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Division of nucleus (i) Interphase

(b) Division of cytoplasm (ii) Cytokinesis

(c) DNA replication (iii) Syncytium

Karyokinesis not followed by

(d) (iv) Karyokinesis
cytokinesis
(1) A-(i),B-(iv),C-(i),D-(iii)
(2) A-(iv),B-(ii),C-(i),D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv),B-(ii),C-(iii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii),B-(ii),C-(iv), D-(i)

6) In prophase of mitosis a condensed chromosome consists of

(1) 1 Centromeres
(2) 2 Chromatids
(3) 1 Centrosome
(4) More than one options correct

7) A plant cell has 12 chromosomes at the end of mitosis. How many chromosomes would it have in
the prophase of its next cell cycle?

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 24
(4) 48

8) Identify the following diagram-

(1) Transition to Metaphase (mitosis)

(2) Transition to Anaphase-II (meiosis)
(3) Transition to Metaphase-I (meiosis)
(4) Transition to Anaphase (mitosis)
9) Label the structure indicated by (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)-

(i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centrosome,
(1)
(iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromosome
(i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centrosome,
(2)
(iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromatid
(i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centromere,
(3)
(iii)-Centriole, (iv)-Chromosome
(i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centromere,
(4)
(iii) Centrosome, (iv)-Chromatid

10) During anaphasic movements of chromosomes, _____ of each chromosome is/are towards the
pole and _____ of the chromosome trail(s) behind.

(1) centromere, arms

(2) arms, centromere
(3) chromatids, centromere
(4) none of these

11) Identify the given figure with their respective event :-

(1) Prophase ⇒ condensation of chromatin start

(2) Telophase ⇒ Centromere split and chromatids separate
(3) Metaphase ⇒ Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
(4) Telophase ⇒ Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.

12) (I) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete. elements.
(II) Nuclear envelop assembles around the chromosome clusters
(III) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.
Identify the phase of mitosis :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

13) Cytokinesis in plant cells occur by ______ method in ______ direction.

From the following options choose the correct terms for above blanks respectively :-

(1) furrowing, centrifugal

(2) cell plate, centrifugal
(3) furrowing, centripetal
(4) Cell plate, centripetal

14) Assertion (A) : Cytokinesis in plant cell occur by cell plate formation method.
Reason (R) : Cytokinesis in animal cells occur by the formation of cell furrow.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Consider the given two statements:

I. During G1 phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its
DNA.
II. During G2 phase, proteins are synthesized in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues.
Of the two statements:

(1) Both I and II are correct.

(2) Both I and II are incorrect.
(3) Only I is correct.
(4) Only Il is correct.

16) Read the following statements :-

(I) Chromosomes move to pole
(II) Chromosomes lose their identity as discrete elements
(III) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
Choose the correct option for I, II and III

I II III

(1) Anaphase Telophase Metaphase

(2) Anaphase Telophase Prophase

(3) Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

(4) Metaphase Telophase Prophase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) During meiotic division :

(1) Two sequential cycle of nuclear and cytoplasmic division occur

(2) Two turns of DNA replication occur
(3) Four diploid cells are formed at end of Meiosis-II
(4) Separation of homologous chromosomes occur at Anaphase-II

18) Which of the following event is not observed during meiosis–I ?

(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(2) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(3) Crossing over
(4) Division in centromere

19) If a cell has 10 Pg DNA in G1-stage of interphase, what will be the amount of DNA in each
daughter cell after meiosis-I :-

(1) 10 Pg
(2) 20 Pg
(3) 40 Pg
(4) 5 Pg

20) Diagrams given below showing the phases of cell division. Choose the correct option regarding

their identification:-

(1) A = Anaphase-II, B = Metaphase-I

(2) A = Anaphase-I, B = Metaphase-II
(3) A = Anaphase-I, B = Metaphase-I
(4) A = Anaphase-II, B = Metaphase-II

21) If the number of bivalents are 23 in metaphase I, what shall be number of chromosomes in
telophase I and anaphase II.

(1) 23, 23
(2) 23, 46
(3) 46, 23
(4) 46, 46

22) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

(a) Recombination
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasmata clearly visible
(d) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(1) (a), (b), (d), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (b), (a), (c), (d)

23) If DNA content of a germinal cell is 2C in G1 stage. What will be the DNA contents in G2, after
meiosis-I and after meiosis-II respectively

(1) 2C, 2C, 2C

(2) 4C, 2C, 2C
(3) 2C, C, C
(4) 4C, 2C, C

24) Bivalent are formed in _____(A)____ but clearly visualized in ____(B)_____ What are A and B
respectively ?

(1) Zygotene and Laptotene

(2) Laptotene and Zygotene
(3) Zygotene and Pachytene
(4) Pachytene and Diplotene

25) In the meiotic cell division, daughter cells are produced by two successive divisions in which :-

(1) First division is equational and second is reductional

(2) First division is reductional and second is equational
(3) Both divisions are reductional
(4) Both divisions are equational

26) Which of the following event related to diakinesis?

(1) Crossing over

(2) Bouquet stage
(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(4) Terminalization of chiasmata

27) A bivalent consists of

(1) two chromatids and one centromere
(2) two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) four chromatids and four centromeres.

28) In meiosis I, the centromere undergoes :-

(1) Division between anaphase and interphase

(2) Division between prophase and metaphase
(3) Division but the daughter chromosomes do not separate.
(4) No division

29) Read the following statements :

(A) The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibre called chromatin.
(B) The content of nucleolus is continous with the rest of the nucleoplasm.
(C) G1 phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
(D) During the S-phase, DNA replication occurs in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the
cytoplasm.

(1) A, C & D correct but D incorrect.

(2) A & B incorrect but C & D correct.
(3) A & D correct but B & C incorrect.
(4) A, B, C & D all are correct.

30) The undifferentiated cell of an animal has 64 chromatids in metaphase-I. How many
chromosomes will be present in the gametes of that animal:

(1) 64
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 16

ZOOLOGY

1) Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of the sub-phylum-Vertebrata?

(1) Dorsal tubular nerve cord

(2) Ventral muscular heart
(3) Presence of notochord in the adult
(4) Presence of kidneys

2) One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body:

(1) Presence of mammary gland & hairs

(2) Four chambered heart
(3) Rib cage
(4) Homeothermy

3) Respiratory organs of whale are:

(1) Book lungs

(2) Lungs
(3) Gills
(4) Skin

4) Find out correct statement:

(1) All birds can fly

(2) All snakes are poisonous
(3) All amphibians are Poikilothermic
(4) All mammals are viviparous

5) Birds differ from reptiles in which one of the following character:

(1) Skin has scales

(2) They lay eggs
(3) There are vertebrates
(4) There is regulation of body temperature

6) Mostly birds are:

(1) Uricotelic and oviparous

(2) Uricotelic and viviparous
(3) Ammonotelic and oviparous
(4) Ureotelic and viviparous

7) Hollow air filled bones (pneumatic bones) occur in:

(1) Mammals
(2) Reptiles
(3) Bony fishes
(4) Aves

8) Which of the following characters is not related to Aves?

(1) Homiothermy and presence of oil glands at basal part of the tail
(2) Alimentary canal terminate into anus
(3) Alimentary canal with two additional chamber crop and gizzard
(4) Exoskeleton of feathers

9) In which of the following tympanum is absent:

(1) Birds
(2) Frog
(3) Lizard
(4) Lamprey

10) Which of the following option is only for Reptiles ?

(1) Temperature constant and external fertilization.

(2) Sexes separate and direct development
(3) 3 chambered venous heart
(4) Skin covered with epidermal scales

11) Oviparous animal is:

(1) Shark
(2) Saw fish
(3) Monkey
(4) Angel fish

12) Air bladder is present in:

(1) Dog fish

(2) Flying fish
(3) Hag fish
(4) Saw fish

13) Which statement is incorrect for animals belonging to class of Chondrichthyes?

(1) Presence of placoid scales

(2) Absence of air bladder
(3) Presence of cartilaginous endoskeleton
(4) Notochord is persistent only at larval stage, after that it disappears.

14) Circular and suctorial mouth is present in:

(1) Labeo
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Scoliodon
(4) All the above

15) Notochord is found only in the tail of Larva in:

(1) All chordata

(2) Hemichordata
(3) Urochordata
(4) Cephalochrodata
16) Which one of the following is a chordate but not a vertebrate?

(1) Shark
(2) Hag fish
(3) Amphioxus
(4) Star fish

17) Amoung vertebrates,....A....use gills whereas reptiles, birds and mammals respire through the
...B... Amphibians like frogs can respire through ....C..also. Mammals have a well adapted respiratory
system. Select appropriate choice for the blanks A, B and C to complete the given statement:

(1) A - fishes, B-lungs, C-gills

(2) A- fishes, B-lungs, C-dry skin
(3) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-moist skin
(4) A-mammals, B-gills, C-moist skin

18) Assertion (A) : Mammals are found in variety of habitats – polar ice caps, deserts,
mountains, forests, grasslands and dark caves.
Reason (R) : Mammals have two pair of limbs adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing,
swimming or flying.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

19) Which one of the following feature is found in mammals without any exception ?

(1) Different types of teeth present in jaw

(2) They have two pairs of limbs
(3) Skin is unique in possessing hairs
(4) Presence of milk producing gland

20) Mark the character shared by birds and humans?

(1) Breathing through vascular lungs

(2) Fully ossified endoskeleton
(3) Internal fertilization
(4) All of these

21) Which of the following reptiles shed their scales as skin cast, except?

(1) Chelone
(2) Bangarus
(3) Crocodilus
(4) Testudo
22) Which of the following is incorrect feature for the above animal :

(1) Skin is dry without glands

(2) It possess beak
(3) Digestive tract has additional chambers, the crop and gizard
(4) It is flightless bird

23) Which one is a true fish?

(1) Whale
(2) Cuttlefish
(3) Silverfish
(4) Flying fish

24) The term 'Reptilia' originated from word repere or reptum taken from

(1) Greek
(2) Latin
(3) Hebrew
(4) Arabic

25) Hind limbs of birds are modified for :-

(A) Walking
(B) Swimming
(C) Clasping
(D) Flying
Which are correct modification ?

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only C & D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All of the above

26) Find the incorrect match–

(1) Carcharodon – Great white shark
(2) Clarias – Magur
(3) Betta – Fighting fish
(4) Hippocampus – River horse

27) Which one of the following characteristics is shared by birds and reptile?

(1) Presence of additional chambers, the crop and gizzard

(2) Different type of teeth present in jaws
(3) Oviparity
(4) Ability to maintain a constant body temperature

28) Presence of feathers, beak, pneumatic bones, crop, gizzard, homeothermal Oviparity, external
fertilization
How many characters are related to Aves?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 6

29) Which one of the following is correctly match?

(1) Chondrichthyes Mostly internal fertilization and direct development

(2) Hemichordata External fertilization, direct development
(3) Aschelminthes External fertilization, direct development
(4) Amphibia External fertilization, only direct development
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Read the following statement :-

(a) Teeth are backwardly directed
(b) Their jaws are very powerful
(c) These animals are predaceous
(d) They have to swim constantly to avoid sinking
These statements belongs to :-

(1) Carcharodon (cartilagenous fish)

(2) Pterophyllum (bony fish)
(3) Lamprey (Cyclostomata)
(4) Both 1 and 2
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 4 3 2 1 3 2 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 4 2 2
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 1 2

BOTANY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 3 1 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 2 1 4 1 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 4 3 2 4 3 4 4 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 2 3 4 1 4 2 4 4 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Let time of journey is t

average velocity = m/sec

average speed = m/sec

ratio of average velocity to average speed is = =

2)

Direction of acceleration of lift is not given

3) ⇒

0
⇒ 10t =
⇒ t0 = 4 sec

4)

distance travelled in t = 0 to t = 10 sec

=
distance travelled t = 10 to t = 20 sec

=
Avg. speed is same in t = 0 to t = 10.
& t = 10 to t = 20 sec

5)

vx = 4t
vy = 5t at t = 1 speed =

6)

Time taken to complete 1 round = 40 sec.

in 3 min (180 sec) i.e., will complete 4.5 turn.
displacement = meter.
7)

v = 3x2 – 2x

a (x = 2) = 80 m/s2

8)

ay = –3 m/s2 & ax = 2 m/s2

It has maximum y-coordinate, when
vy = 0 = 6 – 3(t)
∴ t = 2 sec

at that instant, y = × 3 × 22 = 6 m

&x= × 2 × 22 = 4 m

9)

At t = 5s,

10) Time difference

11)

at t = 0
a = 4 m/s2

12)

2gs1 = ; 2gs2 =
∴

13)

14)

at t = 0, C = 0

t=

–3t =ℓn

–3t
e =
v = 2(1 – e–3t)

15) Let total distance be x and greatest speed be n during acceleration,

....(1)

during retardation,
....(2)

during constant velocity,

....(3)

∴ avg. speed =
....(4)

from eq. (1), (2), (3) and (4)

16) Let ur, ar and sr be the relative velocity, acceleration and displacement of the second
particle with respect to first.
Then, ur = u2 – u1 = 2 – 0 = 2 m/s
ar = a2 – a1 = 9.8 – 9.8 = 0 m/s2
and sr = s2 – s1 = 18 m

Using s = ut +

18 = 2t + × 0 × t2
t=9s

17)

h1 =

h2 =

Δh = h2 – h4 =

18) At t = 1, xA = 3, xB = 6, yA = 1 and yB = 5

so distance =

unit

19)

[At] = [M°L°T°]
⇒ [A] = T–1

= [L]
⇒ [B] = T–1L–1

= [LT–2]

20) [v] = [T–1]

[ℓ] = [L1]
[F] = [M1L1T–2]
[m] = [M1L–1]

21) n2u2 = n1u1

n2(newton) = 1 (unit of force)

⇒ 1 unit of force in particular system = 0.1 N

0 0 0
22) Dimension of αt = [M L T ] ∴[a] = [T–1]

Again = [L] so [υ0] = [LT–1]

23) The correct relation for time period of simple pendulum is T = 2π (1/p)1/[Link], the given
relation is numerically incorrect as the factor of 2π is missing. But it is dimensionally correct.

24) Error in AB

= ± 0.075 = ± 0.08
Therefore AB = (0.25 ± 0.08) m

25)

t ∝ Gahbcc
T ∝ [M–1L3T–2]a[ML2T–1]b[LT–1]c
0 0
M L T1 ∝ M–a+bL3a+2b+cT–2a–b–c
–a + b = 0, 3a + 2b + c = 0, –2a – b – c = 1

a=
t ∝ G1/2 h1/2c–5/2

26) LC = 0.01 mm
Diameter d = 2.5 + (0.01) × 20 = 2.70 mm

27) E = K + U = 100 + 200 = 300.0 J

ΔE = ΔK + ΔU = 2.0 + 1.0 = 3.0 J
 28) By rule – 4 & 5

29) I =
I = MR2

= 2% + 2(1%)
= 4%

30) Density = 0.5 gm/cc

= 0.5 gm/cm3
= 0.5 (10–3kg)/(10–2m)3

=
= 5 × 102 kg/m3
∴ option (4) is correct

CHEMISTRY

31) PH3 → P(s) + H2(g)

100 mL → 0 0

(100 – 100) → = 150 mL

Vi = 100 mL
Vf = 150 mL
(Vf – Vi) = 50 mL increase

32) MnO2(s) + 4HCl(aq) →

MnCl2(aq) + 2H2O(ℓ) + Cl2(g)
1 mol MnO2 requires = 4 mol HCl
87 g MnO2 requires = 4 × 36.5 g HCl

1 g MnO2 requires = g HCl

5 g MnO2 requires = g HCl

= 8.39 g HCl

33) mol of CO2 =

mol of H2 = mol

mol of NH3 = mol

mol of SO2 = mol

34) 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3
1 mol 0.6 mol 0.72 mol

0.25 0.3 0.24

(C) is LR
3 mol of C will give = 1 mol product

1 mol of C will give = mol product

0.72 mol will give = = 0.24 mol

35) CnH2n+2 + → nCO2 + (n+1)H2O

Given :
⇒ 2(3n+1) = 7n
⇒n=2
∴ CnH2n+2 = C2H6

36) Volume of C3H8 = xL & volume of C4H10

= (3 – x) L
C3H8 + 5O2 —→ 3CO2 + 4H2O
1L ———— 3L
xL ———— 3xL

C4H10 + —→ 4CO2 + 5H2O

1L ———— 4L
(3 – x)L ———— 4 × (3 – x)L
Volume of CO2 = 3x + 4(3 – x) = 10
3x – 4x + 12 = 10
x=2

37) 1. Question Explanation

The question asks us to calculate the weight of a 95% pure CaCO3 sample required to produce
11.2 liters of CO2 gas.

2. Given Data
Volume of CO2 produced = 11.2 liters
Purity of CaCO3 sample = 95%
3. Concept
Stoichiometry: The quantitative relationship between reactants and products in a chemical
reaction.
Ideal Gas Law: At Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP), 1 mole of any gas occupies
22.4 liters.
Molar Mass: The mass of one mole of a substance.

4. Mathematical Calculation
• Calculate moles of CO2:
• Moles of CO2 = Volume of CO2 / Molar volume at STP
• Moles of CO2 = 11.2 L / 22.4 L / mol = 0.5 moles

Determine moles of CaCO3 required:

Balanced chemical equation: CaCO3(s) CaO(s) → CO2(g)
1 mole of CaCO3 produces 1 mole of CO2
Moles of CaCO3 = Moles of CO2 = 0.5 moles

Calculate mass of pure CaCO3:

Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40.08 g/mol (Ca) 12.01 g/mol (C) + 3 * 16.00
g/mol (O) 100.09 g/mol
Mass of pure CaCO3 Moles of CaCO3 Molar mass of CaCO3
Mass of pure CaCO3 0.5 moles* 100.09 g/mol = 50.045 g

Calculate mass of 95% pure CaCO3 sample:

Mass of 95% CaCO3 Mass of pure CaCO3/Purity of CaCO3
Mass of 95% CaCO3 = 50.045 g/0.95 = 52.68 g

5. Final Answer
The weight of 95% pure CaCO3 required to produce 11.2 liters of CO2 is approximately 52.68
grams.

6. Question Level
moderate

38) Question
Determine 10% pure S mass in following

given data

Calculation

1mol SO2 → 1mol S

let x be the mass of 10% pure sulphur

 0.10x =8gm ⇒ x = 80gm
Ans. (2)

Conclusion
Hence, option (2) is correct

39)

mole of CaCO3 =
moles of HCl required = 0.5 × 2 = 1 mol
mole of HCl required = 1 × 36.5 = 36.5 g
mass of HCl solution with 50% by mass required = 73 g.

40)

Concepts: Mass percentage.

Solution:

A. Metal Carbonate Formula: M₂CO₃

B. Mass Percentage: (Mass of element / Mass of compound) × 100%
C. Atomic Weights: O = 16, C = 12

Calculations

A. Molar Mass of M₂CO₃:

A. Let the atomic weight of metal M be 'x'.

B. Molar mass of M₂CO₃ = 2x + 12 + (3 × 16) = 2x + 12 + 48 = 2x + 60

B. Mass of Oxygen in M₂CO₃:

A. Mass of oxygen = 3 × 16 = 48

C. Mass Percentage of Oxygen:

A. (Mass of oxygen / Molar mass of M₂CO₃) × 100% = 48%

B. (48 / (2x + 60)) × 100 = 48

 D. Solve for x:

A. 4800 / (2x + 60) = 48

B. 4800 = 48 (2x + 60)

C. 4800 = 96x + 2880

D. 4800 - 2880 = 96x

E. 1920 = 96x

F. x = 1920 / 96

G. x = 20

Answer:

The atomic weight of the metal is 20.

A. 2. 20

41) Meq. of metal = Meq. of oxygen

42)

N1V1 = N2V2 [N = M × n]
(0.25 × 2) × V1 = (0.03 × 2) × 25
V1 = 3mL

43) EMCl2 = EM + ECl =

W + 35.5 =
[Link]. = 2w + 71

44)
VF = 2

45) (A) Question Explanation :

The question asks which one of the following is homocyclic compound.

(B) Given data :

Homocyclic compound.

(C) Concept :
A Homocyclic compound is a cyclic (Ring shaped) molecule where all the atoms forming the
ring are save element (carbon).

(D) Answer Explanation:

All three compounds are Homocyclic

46)

Question Explanation :
The question asks how many σ and π bonds are present in the given compound.

Concept :
This question is based on σ and π-bond.

Solution :
Single bond contains one sigma bond.
Double bond contains one sigma and one π bond.
Triple bond contains one sigma and two π-bond

Number of σ bonds = 19
Number of π-bonds = 4
Hence,
Option (3) is correct

47) Concept:
* Out of many functional groups, one is principal functional group and others are substituents.
Soln/Explanation:

*
* Ketone group is principal functional group. and –SH, –Br, –CH3 and –OH are the substituents.
* Substituents are connected with principal carbon chain
* Total no of substituents = 4

48)

–COOH, –OH, , –OCH3(ether)

(tertiary amine)

49)

According IUPAC priority rule.

50)

–CH2COOH is known as carboxymethyl

51) Concept: Suffix for –CN = nitrile.

Soln/Explanation:
Correct IUPAC name.

: 2-Hydroxy-2-methylpropane cyanide
* Principal F-G. = CN
* Suffix of principal functional group (FG) = nitrile
* –OH is substituent and –CH3 is also substituent
* Prefixes for –OH and –CH3 are hydroxy & methyl.
52)
is correct IUPAC numbering.

53) Explanation:
IUPAC naming of cyclic compounds

Concept:
IUPAC name

Solution:

6- Amino cyclo hene -4-exe-⊥ 3-diol

Correct option: (3)

54)
Because more substituted chain is preferred if chain length is same.

55)
Correct IUPAC Name is 2-methyl propan-2-amine.

56)

CnH2nO2 general formula has both acid & ester thats why they are functional isomers.

57)
5-Formyl cyclohex-2-ene carbonitrile
 58)
Hepta-3,6-dien-1-yne.

59)
2-Amino-3-formylbutane-1,4-dioic acid.

60)

BOTANY

61)

Answer is "centromere"

62)

Answer is "Either haploid or diploid, always with dyad DNA"

63)

NCERT Pg # 164

65)

NCERT Pg. # 123, 124, 125

66) NCERT Pg. # 164

68) Ncert.

70)

SOLUTION—

A diploid cell with 46 chromosomes forms 23 bivalents or tetrads during the zygotene stage of
meiosis.
The correct answer is:OPTION(2) 23

71) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 166

72)

SOLUTION —
The phase of mitosis described is Telophase. During telophase:

A. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and lose their identity as discrete
elements.

B. The nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.

C. The nucleolus, Golgi complex, and endoplasmic reticulum reform.

The correct answer is: OPTION(4) Telophase

73) NCERT XI Eng Pg. 166

74)

NCERT XI Page No. 166

75) Pg. No. 121 - XI NCERT

76) Pg. No. 122 - XI NCERT

77) NCERT Pg.#167

78)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 168,169

80) NCERT Pg. # 169,170

82) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

83)

Explanation
 A. G₁ phase: The cell has 2C DNA.

B. G₂ phase: DNA replication occurs in the S phase, doubling the DNA content to 4C.

C. After meiosis-I: Homologous chromosomes separate, but chromatids remain together, so

each daughter cell has 2C DNA.

After meiosis-II: Sister chromatids separate, reducing DNA content to C per haploid cell.

Correct Answer: 4. 4C, 2C, C

84) NCERT XIth Pg.#168, 10.4.1

87)

SOLUTION —
A bivalent, also known as a tetrad, forms during prophase I of meiosis when homologous
chromosomes pair up. Each chromosome has two sister chromatids and one centromere. Thus,
a bivalent contains four chromatids (two from each chromosome) and two centromeres (one
from each chromosome).

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) four chromatids and two centromeres

89) NCERT (XII), Page No. # 138, 163

ZOOLOGY

91)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 46

92)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 50-51

93)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 50-51

94)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 49-51

95)
NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 49

96)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 49

97)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 49

98)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 49

99)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 49-51

100)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 49

101)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 37-51

102)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 47-48

103)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 47-48

104)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 46

105)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 46

106)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 46

 107)

A → Fishes
B → Lungs
C → Moist skin

108)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 50

109)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 51

110)

Character Exception

1) Different types of
Aquatic Mammals
teeth present in jaw

2) Two pairs of limbs Aquatic Mammals

3) Hairs Aquatic Mammals

4) Milk producing
No exception
glands

111)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 49

112)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 50

113)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 47-48

114)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 49

115) NCERT XI (E) Page No. 58

116)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 47-48

117)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 49-50

118)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 50-51

119)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 48

120)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 48