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CCNA – New Questions Part 8

June 4th, 2021 Go to comments

Premium Members: You can practice these questions first via these links:
+ Question 1 to 17
+ Question 18 to 25
+ Question 26 to 50
+ Question 51 to 75
+ Question 76 to 82

or practice all 82 questions of this part 8 at All CCNA Questions – Part 8

Question 1

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API is used?

A. between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B. between the SDN controller and switches and routers on the network
C. between the SDN controller and services and applications on the network
D. between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Answer: B

Question 2

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B. Both cable types support LP connectors
C. Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors
D. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Answer: A

Explanation

1000BASE-T standard only supports up to 100 meters while 1000BASE-LX is a standard which uses a 1,270–1,355 nm laser for longer wavelength. It
has a distance capability of up to 5 kilometers over a Single-mode fiber -> Answer D is not correct.

1000BASE-LX is an optical fiber Gigabit Ethernet standard so it does not support RJ-45 connectors directly -> Answer C is not correct.

1000BASE-LX only support LC connectors so answer B is not correct.

Question 3

How does WPA3 improve security?

A. It uses SAE for authentication.

B. It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.
C. It uses RC4 for encryption.
D. It uses TKIP for encryption.

Answer: A

Explanation

WPA3 incorporates Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), a secure key establishment protocol between devices. By using a stronger
‘handshaking’ protocol, users should be protected from password guessing attempts. For home networks, that equates to password-based
authentication that’s more resilient, even if users choose unsophisticated passwords.

Question 4

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points
(CAPWAP) protocol?

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A. bridge
B. route
C. autonomous
D. lightweight

Answer: D

Explanation

Cisco Access Points (APs) can operate in one of two modes: autonomous or lightweight
+ Autonomous: self-sufficient and standalone. Used for small wireless networks.
+ Lightweight: A Cisco lightweight AP (LAP) has to join a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) to function. LAP and WLC communicate with each
other via a logical pair of CAPWAP tunnels.

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch2 allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?

A. Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on

B. Change the LACP mode to active
C. Change the LACP mode to desirable
D. Change the protocol to PAgP and use auto mode

Answer: B

Question 6

Where does wireless authentication happen?

A. SSID
B. radio
C. band
D. Layer 2

Answer: D

Question 7

What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch in a three-layer architecture model?

A. access – core – distribution – access

B. access – distribution – distribution – access
C. access – core – access
D. access -distribution – core – distribution – access

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Answer: B

Explanation

The Distribution Layer is located between the access and core layers. The purpose of this layer is to provide boundary definition by implementing
access lists and other filters. Therefore the Distribution Layer defines policy for the network. Distribution Layer include high-end layer 3 switches.
Distribution Layer ensures that packets are properly routed between subnets and VLANs in your enterprise.

Question 8

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two)

A. They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

B. They allow encrypted traffic.
C. They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth
D. They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.
E. They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Answer: D E

Question 9

What is the purpose of an SSID?

A. It provides network security

B. It differentiates traffic entering access points
C. It identities an individual access point on a WLAN
D. It identifies a WLAN

Answer: D

Explanation

The SSID is a unique identifier that wireless networking devices use to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. Multiple access point/bridges on
a network or sub-network can use the same SSID (-> Therefore answer C is not correct). SSIDs are case sensitive and can contain up to 32
alphanumeric characters.

Reference: [Link]

The SSID is a unique token that identifies an 802.11 wireless network. It is used by wireless devices to identify a network and to establish and
maintain wireless connectivity.

Reference: [Link]

Question 10

What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose two)

A. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

B. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN
C. It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN
D. It is at most 32 characters long
E. It provides secured access to a WLAN

Answer: A D

Explanation

The SSID is a unique identifier that wireless networking devices use to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. The SSID can consist of up to 32
alphanumeric, case-sensitive, characters.

We can hide a SSID by choosing “Disabled” in the Basic Wireless Settings/Wireless/SSID Broadcast section.

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Question 11

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

A. expedited forwarding
B. traffic policing
C. round-robin scheduling
D. low-latency queuing

Answer: D

Explanation

Low Latency Queuing (LLQ) adds strict priority to the CBWFQ and allows delay sensitive data (Voice and Video) to be dequeued and sent before
lower priority packets. This practice gives delay sensitive data preferential treatment over other traffic.

Note: The Expedited Forwarding (EF) model is used to provide resources to latency (delay) sensitive real-time, interactive traffic and it is suitable to
use with voice and video traffic but it is not considered a “prioritization method”.

Question 12

An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit
packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the access port of the IP phone. Which configuration must be used?

A. interface fastethernet0/1
switchport priority extend cos 7

B. interface fastethernet0/1
switchport voice vlan untagged

C. interface fastethernet0/1
switchport voice vlan dot1p

D. interface fastethernet0/1
switchport priority extend trust

Answer: D

Explanation

The command “switchport priority extend cos 7” sets the IP phone port to override the priority received from the PC or the attached device (7 is the
highest priority).

The command “switchport priority extend trust” tells the Cisco IP Phone to trust the CoS value of the connected PC without remark all packets sent
form PC to CoS 0, by default.

Question 13

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
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A. access ports
B. Layer 3 main interfaces
C. Layer 3 subinterfaces
D. trunk ports

Answer: A

Question 14

What is a syslog facility?

A. host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B. password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages
C. group of log messages associated with the configured severity level
D. set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

Answer: D

Explanation

System logs are the product of a communications protocol (RFC 5424) for transmitting event messages and alerts across an IP network. Facility is
defined by the syslog protocol, and provides a rough clue of where in a system the message originated.

Reference: [Link]
1/_reference_home/[Link]

Question 15

What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two)

A. It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations
B. It enables an organization to fully customize how it deploys network resources
C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet
D. It is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company
E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

Answer: A C

Explanation

Public clouds are managed by a third-party cloud provider. Public cloud computing resources are shared among multiple customers, unlike private
clouds.

Question 16

Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?

A. broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites
B. multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location
C. spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites
D. unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

Answer: D

Explanation

Pure IPSec configuration (no GRE tunnel) does not support multicast or broadcast traffic. Spanning-tree updates use multicast too. -> Answer A,
answer B and answer C are not correct.

Question 17

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

A. DTP
B. STP
C. VTP
D. 802.10

Answer: B

Explanation

STP can prevent DHCP clients from getting an IP address because the port doesn’t start forwarding traffic until STP goes into the forwarding state.
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=========================== New Questions (added on 31st-Jul-2021) ===========================

Question 18

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

A. uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client
B. devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information
C. encrypts data before sending between data resources
D. offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

Answer: A

Explanation

There are actually two ports associated with FTP: TCP 20 and 21. FTP creates a virtual connection over TCP port 21 for control information, and then
it creates a separate TCP connection on port 20 for data transfers.

Reference: Cisco Secure Internet Security Solutions Book

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing.
Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located
on both LANs in each site?

A.
R1
ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]
R2
ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]

B.
R1
ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]
R2
ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]

C.
R1
ip route [Link] [Link] GigabitEthernet0/0
R2
ip route [Link] [Link] GigabitEthernet0/0

D.
R1
ip route [Link] [Link] GigabitEthernet0/1
R2
ip route [Link] [Link] GigabitEthernet0/1

Answer: B

Explanation

On R1, by using the default route (“ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]”), we tell R1 to send all unknown destination packets to R2 so all packets
with destination to [Link]/24 will be forwarded to R2. The same thing is configured on R2 so this configuration works well in this question.

We cannot type the command “ip route [Link] [Link] …” which causes an “inconsistent mask and address” error as shown in the figure
below (while the command “ip route [Link] [Link] …” is accepted):

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Question 20

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

A. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B. small and needs to reduce networking costs currently
C. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails
D. small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Answer: B

Explanation

The three-tier hierarchical design maximizes performance, network availability, and the ability to scale the network design. Most small enterprise
campus’ do not grow significantly larger over time, and most small enterprise campus are small enough to be well served by a two-tier hierarchical
design, where the core and distribution layers are collapsed into one layer. The primary motivation for the collapsed core design is reducing network
cost, while maintaining most of the benefits of the three-tier hierarchical model.

Reference: [Link]

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

Option A Option B

R17# R17#
! !
no ip domain lookup no ip domain lookup
ip cef ip cef
ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 unicast-routing
! !
interface FastEthernet0/0 interface FastEthernet0/0
no ip address no ip address
duplex auto duplex auto
speed auto speed auto
ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2::201/64 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2::201/64
! !
interface FastEthernet1/0 interface FastEthernet1/0
no ip address no ip address
duplex auto duplex auto
speed auto speed auto
ipv6 address 2001:DB8:3::201/64 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:3::201/64
! !
no cdp log mismatch duplex no cdp log mismatch duplex
ipv6 route 2001:DB8:4::/64 2001:DB8:3::301 ipv6 route 2001:DB8:4::/64 2001:DB8:2::201

Option C Option D

R17# R17#
! !
no ip domain lookup no ip domain lookup
ip cef ip cef
! ipv6 cef
interface FastEthernet0/0 !
no ip address interface FastEthernet0/0
duplex auto no ip address
speed auto duplex auto
ipv6 address 2001:DB8:3::201/64 speed auto
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! ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2::201/64
interface FastEthernet1/0 !
no ip address interface FastEthernet1/0
duplex auto no ip address
speed auto duplex auto
ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2::201/64 speed auto
! ipv6 address 2001:DB8:3::201/64
no cdp log mismatch duplex !
ipv6 route 2001:DB8:4::/64 2001:DB8:5::101 no cdp log mismatch duplex
ipv6 route 2001:DB8:4::/64 2001:DB8:4::302

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: A

Explanation

First of all we have to enable IPv6 routing on a Cisco router using the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command. This command globally
enables IPv6 and must be the first command executed on the router -> Only option A and B are correct.

The difference between option A and B is the ipv6 route … command. To send packets from R17 to R18, we have to specify the next-hop-ipv6-
address in this command. In this case the next-hop-ipv6-address is the IPv6 on R18 (which is 2001:DB8:4::/64 2001:DB8:3::301), not R17 so only
answer A is correct.

Question 22

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Answer:

+ allows for packet captures of wireless traffic: sniffer mode

+ allows the access point to communicate with the WLC over a WAN link: Flexconnect mode
+ receive only mode which acts as a dedicated sensor for RFID and IDS: monitor mode
+ preferred for connecting access points in a mesh environment: bridge mode
+ transmits normally on one channel and monitors other channels for noise and interference: local mode
+ monitor for rogue APs, does not handle data at all: rogue detector mode

Explanation

You can have the WLCs across the WAN from the APs. LWAPP/CAPWAP works over a WAN when the LAPs are configured in Remote Edge AP
(REAP) or Hybrid Remote Edge AP(H-REAP) mode. Either of these modes allows the control of an AP by a remote controller that is connected via a
WAN link. Traffic is bridged onto the LAN link locally, which avoids the need to unnecessarily send local traffic over the WAN link.

Reference: [Link]

Note: FlexConnect, formerly known as Hybrid Remote Edge AP (H-REAP).

When you configure the Bridge mode, the AP by default reboots as a Mesh AP (MAP) and tries to register to the WLC via the radio backhaul or the
wired backhaul.

Reference: CCIE Wireless v3 Study Guide

Local mode (default mode): measures noise floor and interference, and scans for intrusion detection (IDS) events every 180 seconds on unused
channels

Sniffer mode: run as a sniffer and captures and forwards all the packets on a particular channel to a remote machine where you can use protocol
analysis tool (Wireshark, Airopeek, etc) to review the packets and diagnose issues.

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Monitor mode: does not transmit or serve clients at all. It acts like a dedicated sensor for location-based services (LBS), rogue AP detection, and
Checks Intrusion Detection System (IDS). In this mode, AP will not broadcast an SSID so clients are unable to connect to it.

Rogue detector mode: monitor for rogue APs. It does not handle data at all.

Question 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

A. between zones 1 and 2

B. between zones 2 and 5
C. between zones 3 and 4
D. between zones 3 and 6

Answer: C

Explanation

The 2.4 GHz band is subdivided into multiple channels each allotted 22 MHz bandwidth and separated from the next channel by 5 MHz.
-> A best practice for 802.11b/g/n WLANs requiring multiple APs is to use non-overlapping channels such as 1, 6, and 11.

If you use channels that overlap, RF interference can occur.

Reference: [Link]

If other Wi-Fi sources such as neighboring wireless access points are using the same wireless channel, this may cause intermittent connectivity issues.

Reference: [Link]
l=en_US&fs=RelatedArticle

In this question, both Zone 3 & Zone 4 use Channel 11 so interference can occur.

=========================== New Questions (added on 19th-Sep-2021) ===========================

Question 24

Which device permits or denies network traffic based on a set of rules?

A. access point
B. switch

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C. wireless controller
D. firewall

Answer: D

Question 25

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Answer:

Cisco DNA Center Device Management:

+ uses machine learning to identify and resolve issues
+ uses an inventory function to store device details in the database
+ collects statistics and telemetry data from multiple network devices and provides a single view of network health and issues

Traditional Device Management:

+ requires manual troubleshooting
+ requires configuration on a device-by-device basis
+ networking functions are implemented primarily on dedicated devices

Explanation

Unlike SDN, traditional networking has two main characteristics. First, traditional networking functions are mainly implemented in dedicated devices.
In this case, “dedicated devices” refer to one or more switches (e.g. 10gb switch), routers, and application delivery controllers. Second, most of the
functionality in traditional networking devices is implemented in dedicated hardware. ASIC (Application Specific Integrated Circuit) is commonly
used for this purpose. However, this traditional hardware-centric networking is accompanied by many limitations.

Reference: [Link]

The Inventory function retrieves and saves details, such as host IP addresses, MAC addresses, and network attachment points about devices in its
database.
The Inventory feature can also work with the Device Controllability feature to configure the required network settings on devices, if these settings are
not already present on the device.

After the initial discovery, Cisco DNA Center maintains the inventory by polling the devices at regular intervals.

Reference: [Link]
2/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_2_1_2/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_2_1_1_chapter_011.html

=========================== New Questions (added on 5th-Feb-2022) ===========================

Question 26

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

A. move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B. transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively
C. forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses
D. flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

Answer: A

Question 27

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An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to
compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B
C. ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B
D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Answer: A

Question 28

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A. on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization
C. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Answer: D

Question 29

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A. action
B. management
C. control
D. data

Answer: B

Explanation

There are three main types of 802.11 frames: the Data Frame, the Management Frame and the Control Frame. Association Response belongs to
Management Frame. Association response is sent in response to an association request.

Question 30

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B. configure the first three access points are configured to use channels 1, 6, and 11
C. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing
D. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Answer: B

Explanation

The 2.4 GHz band is subdivided into multiple channels each allotted 22 MHz bandwidth and separated from the next channel by 5 MHz.
-> A best practice for 802.11b/g/n WLANs requiring multiple APs is to use non-overlapping channels such as 1, 6, and 11.

If you use channels that overlap, RF interference can occur.

Reference: [Link]

Question 31

Refer to the exhibit.

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For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface.

These tasks must be completed:

* Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface Gi0/1.
* Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface Gi0/2.
* Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.
* Display the IP address of R6’s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Option A Option B

R5(config)#int Gi0/1 R5(config)#int Gi0/1

R5(config-if)#no cdp enable R5(config-if)#no cdp run
R5(config-if)#exit R5(config-if)#exit
R5(config)#lldp run R5(config)#lldp run
R5(config)#no cdp run R5(config)#cdp enable
R5#sh cdp neighbor detail R5#sh cdp neighbor
R5#sh lldp neighbor R5#sh lldp neighbor

Option C Option D

R5(config)#int Gi0/1 R5(config)#int Gi0/1

R5(config-if)#no cdp enable R5(config-if)#no cdp enable
R5(config-if)#exit R5(config-if)#exit
R5(config)#no lldp run R5(config)#no lldp run
R5(config)#cdp run R5(config)#cdp run
R5#sh cdp neighbor detail R5#sh cdp neighbor
R5#sh lldp neighbor R5#sh lldp neighbor

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C

Explanation

Although CDP is a Layer 2 protocol but we can check the neighbor IP address with the “show cdp neighbor detail” command.

One of the task in this question is “display the IP address of R6’s interface Gi0/2” so we must use “show cdp neighbor detail” command -> Only
Option A and Option C are correct.

If we want to disable LLDP on an interface we can use two commands under interface mode:
no lldp transmit: Disallows sending LLDP packets on the interface.
no lldp receive: Disallows receiving LLDP packets on the interface.

But these two commands are not used in this question so we have to disable LLDP globally (with command “no lldp run”) so that only CDP is enabled
on R5 interface Gi0/2 -> Only Option C is correct.

Question 32

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

A. northbound API
B. southbound API
C. SOAP API
D. REST API

Answer: B

Question 33

What is a DNS lookup operation?

A. serves requests over destination port 53

B. DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

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C. DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down
D. responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Answer: A

Explanation

An example of DNS is described below:

When you attempt to go to a domain name such as [Link], your browser will instruct your computer to do a DNS lookup on that domain name. This
DNS lookup will query a DNS resolver (for example Google at [Link]). Once the resolver responds, the computer will usually choose the first IP in
the response and use that for the connection.

The most frequently used port for DNS is UDP 53 but as time progresses, DNS will reply on TCP Port 53 more heavily.

Question 34

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts. A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this
message:”% Connection refused by remote host”.

Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0 4.
C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.
D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

Answer: A

Question 35

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

Answer:

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TCP:
+ SMTP
+ HTTP
+ Telnet

UDP:
+ DNS
+ SNMP
+ RTP

================================== New Questions (added on 13th-Feb-2022) ==================================

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1
to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server
B. Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server
C. Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client
D. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client

Answer: A

Explanation

We see from the output of the “show ip dhcp snooping statistics detail” command the packets “received on untrusted ports = 32” so maybe the
interface connected to DHCP Server is configured untrusted port. Therefore we have to configure the “ip dhcp snooping trust” command on this
interface.

Question 37

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two)

A. RSA token
B. clear-text password that authenticates connections
C. one of more CRLs
D. preshared key that authenticates connections
E. CA that grants certificates

Answer: C E

Explanation

PKI (or Public Key Infrastructure) is the framework of encryption and cybersecurity that protects communications between the server (your website)
and the client (the users). Think about all the information, people, and services that your team communicates and works with. PKI is essential in
building a trusted and secure business environment by being able to verify and exchange data between various servers and users.

The components of a PKI include:

+ public key
+ private key
+ Certificate Authority (CA)
+ Certificate Store
+ Certificate Revocation List (CRL)
+ Hardware Security Module

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Certificate Authority (CA)
The CA generally handles all aspects of the certificate management for a PKI, including the phases of certificate lifecycle management.
A CA issues certificates to be used to confirm that the subject imprinted on the certificate is the owner of the public key. In a PKI system, the client
generates a public-private key pair. The public key and information to be imprinted on the certificate are sent to the CA. The CA then creates a digital
certificate consisting of the user’s public key and certificate attributes. The certificate is signed by the CA with its private key.

Certificate Revocation List (CRL)

A CRL is a list of certificates that have been revoked by the CA that issued them before they were set to expire. This is a helpful security feature if a
device is stolen that contains a certificate. A RADIUS server only rejects a connection request from a device if the device’s certificate serial number is
contained in the CRL. The Certificate Authority is the one that maintains this list, and the RADIUS server periodically downloads this list by sending
a query to the CA. There are two types of CRLs: A Delta CRL and a Base CRL.

Reference: [Link]

Question 38

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the
configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?

A. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

B. ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
C. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64
D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

Answer: D

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A. ip route [Link] [Link] [Link] 10

B. ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]
C. ip route [Link] [Link] [Link] 10
D. ip default-gateway [Link]

Answer: C

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit.

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Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A
network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so
that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A. ip route [Link] [Link] g0/1 6

B. ip route [Link] [Link] g0/1 1
C. ip route [Link] [Link] [Link] 10
D. ip route [Link] [Link] [Link] 1

Answer: A

Explanation

R1 uses R3 as the primary route to the Internet so it may use either of these commands:

R1(config)#ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]

OR
R1(config)#ip route [Link] [Link] g0/2

The administrative distance (AD) of the first command is 1 while that of the second command is 0. Therefore we have to choose a higher AD for our
backup route. And the exit interface of the backup route is g0/1 or the next-hop is [Link].

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be
blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A. R1(config)#ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]

B. R1(config)#ip route [Link] [Link] gi0/0
C. R1(config)#ip route [Link] [Link] [Link]
D. R1(config)#ip route [Link] [Link] gi0/1

Answer: B

Explanation

By only configuring static route to the host New Server, we also don’t allow PC1 & PC2 ping to R2 Gi0/0 (default gateway of New Server).

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

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A. As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2, trust all traffic markings
B. Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2
C. As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer
D. Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer

Answer: B

Explanation

“Classify, mark, and police as close to the traffic-sources as possible.” -> Answer C is not correct.

Reference: [Link]

As a rule, it is not recommended to trust markings set by end users leveraging PCs or other endpoint devices. End users can intentionally or
unintentionally abuse QoS policies that trust markings of end devices. If users and unclassified applications take advantage of the configured QoS
policy as a result of trusting end devices, this can result in easily starving priority queues with nonpriority traffic, ruining quality of service for real-
time applications.

Reference: [Link]

-> Answer A and answer D are not correct.

Question 43

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

Answer:

BPDUs received are forwarded to the system module

The port in the forwarding state responds to network management messages
Switched frames received from other ports are advanced
Frames received from the attached segment are processed

Explanation

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Forwarding State
A LAN port in the forwarding state forwards frames. The LAN port enters the forwarding state from the learning state. A LAN port in the forwarding
state performs as follows:
Forwards frames received from the attached segment.
Forwards frames switched from another port for forwarding.
Incorporates the end station location information into its address database.
Receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module.
Processes BPDUs received from the system module.
Receives and responds to network management messages.

Reference:
[Link]

The statement “BPDUs received from the system module are processed and transmitted” is not correct as Rapid PVST+ does not “transmit”, only
PVST does.

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit.

interface FastEthernet0/10
description WAN_INTERFACE
ip address [Link] [Link]
ip access-group 100 in
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
description LAN INTERFACE
ip address [Link] [Link]
duplex auto
speed auto
!
ip forward-protocol nd
!
access-list 100 permit eigrp any any
access-list 100 permit icmp any any
access-list 100 permit tcp [Link] [Link] host [Link] eq 22
access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 80
access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 443
access-list 100 deny ip any any log

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?

A. interface FastEthernet0/1
ip helper-address [Link]
!
access-list 100 permit tcp host [Link] eq 67 host [Link]

B. interface FastEthernet0/0
ip helper-address [Link]
!
access-list 100 permit host [Link] host [Link] eq bootps

C. interface FastEthernet0/0
ip helper-address [Link]
!
access-list 100 permit udp host [Link] eq bootps host [Link]

D. interface FastEthernet0/1
ip helper-address [Link]
!
access-list 100 permit udp host [Link] eq bootps host [Link]

Answer: D

Explanation

The “ip helper-address” must be applied under the interface that receives the DHCP messages from the DHCP Client (LAN interface)

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All DHCP packets are UDP so the ACL must allow UDP, not TCP so the ACL must be “access-list 100 permit udp …”.

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information
between routers?

Option A Option B

R14# R14#
interface FastEthernet0/0 interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address [Link] [Link] ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf network broadcast ip ospf network broadcast
ip ospf priority 0 ip ospf priority 255
ip mtu 1400 ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10 router ospf 10

router-id [Link] router-id [Link]
network [Link] [Link] area 0 network [Link] [Link] area 0
network [Link] [Link] area 0 network [Link] [Link] area 0

R86# R86#
interface Loopback0 interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address [Link] [Link] ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf network broadcast
interface FastEthernet0/0 ip mtu 1500
ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf network broadcast router ospf 10
ip mtu 1500 router-id [Link]
network [Link] [Link] area 0
router ospf 10 network [Link] [Link] area 0
router-id [Link]
network [Link] [Link] area 0
network [Link] [Link] area 0

Option C Option D

R14# R14#
interface Loopback0 interface FastEthernet0/0
ip ospf 10 area 0 ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf network broadcast
interface FastEthernet0/0 ip ospf priority 255
ip address [Link] [Link] ip mtu 1500
ip ospf network broadcast
ip ospf 10 area 0 router ospf 10
ip mtu 1500 router-id [Link]
network [Link] [Link] area 0
router ospf 10 network [Link] [Link] area 0
ip ospf priority 255
router-id [Link] R86#
interface FastEthernet0/0
R86# ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf network broadcast
interface Loopback0 ip mtu 1400
ip ospf 10 area 0
router ospf 10
interface FastEthernet0/0 router-id [Link]
ip address [Link] [Link] network [Link] [Link] area 0
ip ospf network broadcast network [Link] [Link] area 0
ip ospf 10 area 0
ip mtu 1500

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router ospf 10
router-id [Link]

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

Explanation

In Option A and Option D, the MTUs of two Fa0/0 interfaces are mismatched so they cannot form OSPF adjacency -> Option A and Option D are not
correct.

DR and BDR serve as the central point for exchanging OSPF routing information so we must configure Fa0/0 interfaces in broadcast mode. In Option
B, R14 Fa0/0 interface is configured with OSPF priority 255 so surely it would become DR -> This is the best answer.

Note: An OSPF priority of 0 does not prevent the router from establishing OSPF adjacencies.

Question 46

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A. WPA
B. WPA3
C. WPA2
D. WEP

Answer: B

Explanation

WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the newest wireless security protocol designed to encrypt data using a frequent and automatic encryption type
called Perfect Forward Secrecy. It’s more secure than its predecessor, WPA2, but it hasn’t been widely adopted yet. Not all hardware supports WPA3
automatically, and using this protocol often requires costly upgrades.

Reference: [Link]

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule issue. Which subnet and mask identify what is
configured on the en0 interface?

A. [Link]/16
B. [Link]/18
C. [Link]/19
D. [Link]/24

Answer: C

Explanation

netmask 0xffffe000 means [Link] or /19 (convert from hex to decimal) -> Answer C is correct. We also notice the broadcast address is
[Link].

Question 48

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block [Link]/19 to meet these requirements:
* The first subnet must support 24 hosts.
* The second subnet must support 472 hosts
* Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
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Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the
router interfaces? (Choose two)

A. interface vlan 4722

ip address [Link] [Link]
B. interface vlan 3002
ip address [Link] [Link]
C. interface vlan 1148
ip address [Link] [Link]
D. interface vlan 1234
ip address [Link] [Link]
E. interface vlan 155
ip address [Link] [Link]

Answer: C E

Explanation

In order to support 24 (<25) hosts we need 5 bits 0 in the subnet mask so the last octet of the subnet mask must be 1110 0000 -> [Link]. In
the answer above there are two IP address with subnet mask [Link]. They are:
+ [Link] [Link]: This IP address belongs to subnet [Link]/27 but [Link] is not the first available address in this subnet
(the first available address in this subnet is [Link])
+ [Link] [Link]: This IP address belongs to subnet [Link]/27 and [Link] is the first available address in this subnet ->
Answer E is correct.

In order to support 472 (<512 = 29) hosts we need 9 bits 0 in the subnet mask -> [Link]. In the answer above there are two IP address with
subnet mask [Link]. They are:
+ [Link] [Link]: This IP address belongs to subnet [Link]/23 and it is the first available IP address in this subnet
+ [Link] [Link]: This IP address belongs to subnet [Link]/23. It is not the first available IP address in this subnet (the first available
IP address is [Link]).

-> Answer C is correct.

Question 49

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is
configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

A. switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk pruning vlan add 5
B. switchport mode dynamic desirable
switchport trunk allowed vlan add 5
C. switchport mode dynamic auto
switchport private-vlan association host 5
D. switchport mode dynamic auto
switchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

Answer: B

Question 50

Refer to the exhibit.

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Traffic sourced from the loopback0 interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at [Link]. What is the next hop to the destination address?

A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. [Link]
D. [Link]

Answer: A

Explanation

[Link]/28 is always preferred over [Link]/24 because of longest prefix match. [Link] belongs to [Link]/28 subnet so the next hop is
[Link] (learned via EIGRP).

Note: Although our destination IP is [Link].15 which is the broadcast address of subnet [Link]/28 in the routing table and we may think that the
local router would not use this route but in fact the router still uses this route.

You can find a good discussion at: [Link]

“The broadcast is really a concept that is relevant only to a router directly connected to the network whose broadcast address you are referring to.
Other routers do not care at all. As long as the destination IP address of a packet AND the netmask produces the network address in the respective row
of the routing table, the packet is destined for that network so let’s forward it there.”

Question 51

Refer to the exhibit.

SiteA#show interface TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0

TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is BUILT-IN-EPA-8x10G, address is aabb.cc00.0100 (bia aabb.cc00.0100)
Description: Connection to SiteB
Internet address is [Link]/30
MTU 8146 bytes, BW 10000000 Kbit/sec, DLY 10 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Full Duplex, 10000Mbps, link type is force-up, media type is SFP-SR
5 minute input rate 264797000 bits/sec, 26672 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 122464000 bits/sec, 15724 packets/sec

SiteB#show interface TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0

TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is BUILT-IN-EPA-8x10G, address is 0000.0c00.750c (bia 0000.0c00.750c)
Description: Connection to SiteA
Internet address is [Link]/30
MTU 8146 bytes, BW 10000000 Kbit/sec, DLY 10 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Full Duplex, 10000Mbps, link type is force-up, media type is SFP-LR
5 minute input rate 123245000 bits/sec, 15343 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 265746000 bits/sec, 12453 packets/sec

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications
hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

A. An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.
B. The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.
C. Heavy usage is causing high latency.
D. Physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

Answer: A
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Explanation

SR stands for Short Reach, and LR stands for Long Reach. SR supports 400metres while LR supports 10 kilometers. In this question, SiteA is using
SFP-SR so it is not suitable for 7KM distance.

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A. Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers
B. Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.
C. Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID.
D. Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

Answer: B

Explanation

The router with the highest OSPF priority on a segment will become the DR for that segment

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D.

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A. It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.
B. It experiences a broadcast storm,
C. It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.
D. It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

Answer: C

Explanation

When the switch receives a frame for a MAC destination address not listed in its address table, it floods the frame to all LAN ports of the same VLAN
except the port that received the frame.

In this question, switch has not learned about host D yet so it floods the frame to all LAN ports of the same VLAN except Fa0/1 which it received
frame from host A.

Question 54
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Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and
noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A. SW1(config)#interface fa0/2
SW1(config-if)#no switchport access vlan 2
SW1(config-if)#no switchport trunk allowed vlan 3
SW1 (config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2

B. SW1(config)#interface fa0/1
SW1(config-if)#no switchport access vlan 2
SW1(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 2
SW1(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 3

C. SW1(config-if)#interface fa0/2
SW1(config-if)#no switchport mode trunk
SW1(config-if)#no switchport trunk allowed vlan 3
SW1(config-if)#switchport mode access

D. SW1(config)#interface fa0/1
SW1(config-if)#no switchport access vlan 2
SW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 3
SW1(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2

Answer: C

Question 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A. transport input telnet

B. username cisco password 0 cisco
C. login console
D. ip ssh pubkey-chain
E. crypto key generate rsa

Answer: B E

Explanation

Steps to configure SSH:

1. Configure the router hostname using command “hostname”.
2. Configure the domain name using command “ip domain-name”.
3. Generate public and private keys using command “crypto key generate rsa”.
4. Create a user in the local database using command “username…secret”.
5. Allow only SSH access on VTY lines using command “transport input ssh”.
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Reference: [Link]

Note: We only use the “ip ssh pubkey-chain” to perform RSA-Based Authentication.

Question 56

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two)

A. forwarding
B. blocking
C. disabled
D. learning
E. listening

Answer: D E

Explanation

Enabling the PortFast feature causes a switch or a trunk port to enter the STP forwarding-state immediately or upon a linkup event, thus bypassing the
listening and learning states.

Question 57

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A. The incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified if LAG is enabled.
B. The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.
C. The management interface must be reassigned if LAG is disabled.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Answer: B

Explanation

When you enable LAG or make any changes to the LAG configuration, you must immediately reboot the controller.

Reference: [Link]
4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010100001.html

Question 58

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping WI-FI channels?

A. different security settings

B. different transmission speeds
C. discontinuous frequency ranges
D. unique SSIDs

Answer: C

Explanation

Each channel on the 2.4 GHz spectrum is 20 MHz wide. The channel centers are separated by 5 MHz, and the entire spectrum is only 100 MHz wide.
This means the 11 channels have to squeeze into the 100 MHz available, and in the end, overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11, however, are far enough from
each other on the 2.4GHz band that they have sufficient space between their channel centers and do not overlap.

Question 59

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer2
* It must use the strongest password configurable.

Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

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A. R1(config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021
B. R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password $1$bUu$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ
C. R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021
D. R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 4 $1Sb1Ju$kZbBSlFyh4QxwXyZ

Answer: A

Explanation

Secret type 4 was determined to have a flaw and was removed in later versions of iOS. Type 4 Passwords should never be used!
Secret type 5 uses MD5 which is not secured.

Secret type 9 – Scrypt and PBKDF2 (which can be used with “algorithm-type sha256”, but it is just a small part of a much larger crypto algorithm) are
much slower to compute and take longer to brute force. Currently it is the strongest password configurable in Cisco devices.

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables an EtherChannel to form dynamically between SW1 and SW2 by using an industry-standard protocol, and to support full
IP connectivity between all PCs?

Option A Option B

SW1# SW1#
interface Gi0/1 interface Gi0/1
switchport switchport
switchport mode trunk switchport mode trunk
channel-group 1 mode on channel-group 1 mode auto
! !
interface Gi0/2 interface Gi0/2
switchport switchport
switchport mode trunk switchport mode access
channel-group 1 mode auto channel-group 1 mode active

SW2# SW2#
interface Gi0/1 interface gi0/1
switchport switchport
switchport mode trunk switchport mode access
channel-group 1 mode auto channel-group 1 mode desirable
! !
interface Gi0/2 interface Gi0/2
switchport switchport
switchport mode trunk switchport mode access
channel-group 1 mode on channel-group 1 mode desirable
interface port-channel 1
switchport
switchport mode trunk

Option C Option D

SW1# SW1#
interface Gi0/1 interface Gi0/1
switchport switchport
switchport mode trunk switchport mode access
channel-group 1 mode active channel-group 1 mode active
! !
interface Gi0/2 interface Gi0/2
switchport switchport

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switchport mode trunk switchport mode access
channel-group 1 mode active channel-group 1 mode active

SW2# SW2#
interface Gi0/1 interface Gi0/1
switchport switchport
switchport mode trunk switchport mode access
channel-group 1 mode passive channel-group 1 mode desirable
! !
interface Gi0/2 interface Gi0/2
switchport switchport
switchport mode trunk switchport mode access
channel-group 1 mode passive channel-group 1 mode desirable

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C

Explanation

LACP is the IEEE Standard (IEEE 802.3ad) and is the most common dynamic ether-channel protocol, whereas PAgP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

Question 61

Drag and drop the descriptions or AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Answer:

Accounting
+ records user commands
+ logs session statistics

Authentication
+ secures access to routers
+ validates user credentials

Authorization
+ limits the user’s access permissions
+ allows the user to change to enable mode

Question 62

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

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Answer:

TCP
+ used to reliably share files between devices
+ requires the client and the server to establish a connection before sending the packet

UDP
+ transmitted based on data contained in the packet without the need for a data channel
+ appropriate for streaming operations with minimal latency

Question 63

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

A. forwarding packets
B. making routing decisions
C. multicast replication at the hardware level
D. fragmenting and reassembling packets

Answer: B

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10%
growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

Option A Option B

R7# R7#
configure terminal configure terminal
interface Fa1/0 interface Fa1/0
ip address [Link] [Link] ip address [Link] [Link]
no shutdown no shutdown

R8# R8#
configure terminal configure terminal
interface Fa0/0 interface Fa0/0
ip address [Link] [Link] ip address [Link] [Link]
no shutdown no shutdown
R9#
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configure terminal R9#
interface Fa1/1 configure terminal
ip address [Link] [Link] interface Fa1/1
no shutdown ip address [Link] [Link]
no shutdown

Option C
Option D
R7#
configure terminal R7#
interface Fa1/0 configure terminal
ip address [Link] [Link] interface Fa1/0
no shutdown ip address [Link] [Link]
no shutdown
R8# R8#
configure terminal configure terminal
interface Fa0/0 interface Fa0/0
ip address [Link] [Link] ip address [Link] [Link]
no shutdown no shutdown
R9#
R9# configure terminal
configure terminal interface Fa1/1
interface Fa1/1 ip address [Link] [Link]
ip address [Link] [Link] no shutdown
no shutdown

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C

Explanation

R7 Fa1/0: 923 hosts + 10% * 923 = 1015 < 1024 = 210 hosts. The best subnet mask is /22 = [Link]
R8 Fa0/0: 225 hosts + 10% * 225 = 247 < 256 = 28 hosts. The best subnet mask is /24 = [Link]
R9 Fa1/1: 3641 hosts + 10% * 3641 = 4005 < 4096 = 212 hosts. The best subnet mask is /20 = [Link]

-> Option C is correct.

In fact we don’t have to calculate subnet for R9 Fa1/1 because only Option C is suitable for R7 & R8 interfaces.

Question 65

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A. [Link]/16
B. [Link]/24
C. [Link]/24
D. [Link]/24

Answer: C

Explanation
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Prefixes learned via EIGRP is started with letter “D”.

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional
task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

A. Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

B. Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.
C. Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto.
D. Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

Answer: B

Question 67

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is
refreshed every 3 minutes. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 60
Switch2(config)# lldp tlv-select 180
B. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 60
Switch2(config)#lldp holdtime 180
C. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 1
Switch2(config)#lldp tlv-select 3
D. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 1
Switch2(config)#lldp holdtime 3

Answer: B

Explanation

+ lldp holdtime seconds: Specify the amount of time a receiving device should hold the information from your device before discarding it
+ lldp timer rate: Set the sending frequency of LLDP updates in seconds
+ lldp tlv-select command. This will specify the LLDP TLVs to send or receive.

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

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07/05/2024 18:12 CCNA Training » CCNA – New Questions Part 8
R1#show run
!
router ospf 1
auto-cost reference-bandwidth 100000
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
bandwidth 10000000
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
bandwidth 100000000
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
ip ospf cost 100
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/3
ip ospf cost 1000

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that
each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to [Link]/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

A. GigabitEthernet0/0
B. GigabitEthernet0/1
C. GigabitEthernet0/2
D. GigabitEthernet0/3

Answer: B

Explanation

The reference bandwidth in terms of Mbits per second so “auto-cost reference-bandwidth 100000” means 100Gbps or 1011bps. The “bandwidth”
under interface mode is configured in in kilobits. Therefore:

+ Interface G0/0 (bandwidth 1010 bps): Cost = 1011 / 1010 = 10

+ Interface G0/1 (bandwidth 1011 bps): Cost = 1011 / 1011 = 1
+ Interface G0/2″ Cost = 100
+ Interface G0/3″ Cost = 1000

-> R1 will choose the lowest cost path which is interface G0/1

Question 69

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet [Link]/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured.
Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A. interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address [Link] [Link]
ip access-group 10 in
!
ip access-list standard 10
permit udp [Link] [Link] host [Link] eq 22

B. line vty 0 15
access-class 120 in
!
ip access-list extended 120
permit tcp [Link] [Link] any eq 22

C. line vty 0 15
access-group 120 in
!
ip access-list extended 120
permit tcp [Link] [Link] any eq 22

D. interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address [Link] [Link]
ip access-group 110 in
!
ip access-list standard 110
permit tcp [Link] [Link] eq 22 host [Link]

Answer: B

Explanation

When applying access-list to line vty we must use “access-class”, not “access-group”. Subnet [Link]/28 converts to wildcard mask is [Link]
[Link]. And we have to use port 22 as the destination port.

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Question 70

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A. HTTP
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. HTTPS

Answer: C

Question 71

What is a characteristic or private IPv4 addressing?

A. composed of up to 65,536 available addresses

B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number
C. used without tracking or registration
D. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

Answer: C

Question 72

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming in an enterprise network?

A. a LAN switch
B. a firewall
C. a lightweight access point
D. a wireless LAN controller

Answer: D

Question 73

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is
blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. interface vlan 2000

ipv6 address ff00:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64
B. interlace vlan 2000
ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64
C. interface vlan 2000
ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64
D. interface vlan 2000
ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

Answer: B

Explanation

A unique local address (ULA) is an Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address in the address range fc00::/7 -> The first octet can be FC or FD.
However when you implement this you have to set the L-bit (the right-most bit of the first octet) to 1 which means that the first two digits will be FD -
> The IPv6 address “fd00::1234:2343/64” is correct.

Its purpose in IPv6 is analogous to IPv4 private network addressing. Unique local addresses may be used freely, without centralized registration, inside
a single site or organization or spanning a limited number of sites or organizations. They are routable only within the scope of such private networks,
but not in the global IPv6 Internet.

Note: Answer C is not correct as the IPv6 address only has 7 groups instead of 8.

Question 74

Refer to the exhibit.

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07/05/2024 18:12 CCNA Training » CCNA – New Questions Part 8

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A. Modify the configured number of the second access list

B. Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command
C. Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces
D. Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GtgabitEthernet0/0

Answer: C

Question 75

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A. router ospf 1
network [Link] [Link] area 0
interface e1/1
ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf network broadcast
B. router ospf 1
network [Link] [Link] area 0
interface e1/1
ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf cost 0
C. router ospf 1
network [Link] [Link] area 0
hello interval 15
interface e1/1
ip address [Link] [Link]
D. router ospf 1
network [Link] [Link] area 0
interface e1/1
ip address [Link] [Link]
ip ospf network point-to-point

Answer: D

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

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07/05/2024 18:12 CCNA Training » CCNA – New Questions Part 8

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

A. interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport trunk native vlan 10
switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15
B. interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15
C. interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10
vlan 10
private-vlan isolated
D. interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport mode access
switchport voice vlan 10

Answer: D

Explanation

The voice VLAN feature enables access ports to carry IP voice traffic from an IP phone. You can configure a voice VLAN with the “switchport voice
vlan …” command under interface mode. The full configuration is shown below:

Switch(config)#interface fastethernet0/1
Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 15
Switch(config-if)#switchport voice vlan 10

Question 77

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

* The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1.
* The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2.
* The password for privileged EXEC mode is priv4t3p4ss.
Which command sequence must the engineer configure?

Option A Option B

enable secret priv4t3p4ss enable secret privilege 15 priv4t3p4ss

! !
line con 0 line con 0
password p4ssw0rd1 password p4ssw0rdi
login login
! !
line vty 0 15 line vty 0 15
password s3cr3t2 password s3cr3t2
login login

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07/05/2024 18:12 CCNA Training » CCNA – New Questions Part 8

Option C
Option D
enable secret priv413p4ss
enable secret priv4t3p4ss
!
!
line con 0
line con 0
password login p4ssw0rd1
password p4ssw0rd1
!
!
line vty 0 15
line vty 0 15
password login s3cr3t2
password s3cr3t2
login

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: A

Explanation

There is no “enable secret privilege 15 …” command.

If we enter the “enable secret privilege 15 priv4t3p4ss” command then the text “privilege 15 priv4t3p4ss” will be used as password. In both console
and vty line we should use the “login” command to enable password checking.

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit.

EIGRP [Link]/24[90/1441] via F0/10

EIGRP [Link]/24[90/144] via F0/11
EIGRP [Link]/24[90/1441] via F0/12
OSPF [Link]/24[110/20] via F0/13
OSPF [Link]/24[110/30] via F0/14

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at [Link]. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface
is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of [Link]?

A. F0/10
B. F0/11
C. F0/12
D. F0/13

Answer: B

Question 79

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A. to configure an interface as a DHCP server

B. to configure an interface as a DHCP relay
C. to configure an interface as a DHCP helper
D. to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Answer: D

Explanation

Use the ip address dhcp command to obtain IP address information for the configured interface.

Question 80

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

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07/05/2024 18:12 CCNA Training » CCNA – New Questions Part 8
A. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server
B. connects server and client devices to a network
C. provides wireless services to users in a building
D. forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

Answer: A

Question 81

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Answer:

Traditional Networking
+ New devices are configured using the physical infrastructure
+ This type requires a distributed control plane

Controller-Based Networking
+ This type provisions resources from a centralized location
+ This type allows better control over how networks work and how networks are configured
+ This type enables networks to integrate with applications through APIs.

Question 82

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal
network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A. unique local address

B. link-local address
C. IPv4-compatibie IPv6 address
D. aggregatable global address

Answer: A

Explanation

A unique local address is an IPv6 unicast address that is globally unique and is intended for local communications. It is not expected to be routable on
the global Internet and is routable inside of a limited area, such as a site. It may also be routed between a limited set of sites.

Reference: [Link]

Note: link-local address is not the correct answer. Link-local addresses can be used to reach the neighboring nodes attached to the same link. Routers
will not forward datagram using link-local addresses.
Comments (4) Comments
Comment pages
« Previous 1 2 3 5902

1. qwe
February 10th, 2024

my exam is almost here

Is the answer d in question 64? please

2. qwe
February 10th, 2024

my exam is almost here

Is the answer d in question 64? please @9tut

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07/05/2024 18:12 CCNA Training » CCNA – New Questions Part 8
3. qwe
February 10th, 2024

my exam is monday
Is the answer d in question 64? please @9tut

4. 9tut
February 10th, 2024

@qwe: We reviewed Q64 again but we confirm the correct answer is C, not D.

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« Previous 1 2 3 5902
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