SAMPLE PAPER - 3
Max Marks: 80
CLASS:10 Science (Code − 086) Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
• This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
• All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions.
A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
• Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
• Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
• Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks. each. Answer to
these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
• Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each
with subparts.
Section - A Marks
1 Which part of the leaf will have starch when exposed to sunlight? 1
A. B only
B. C only
C. D only
D. Band C
For Visually impaired students:
During a practical experiment, a student covers a part of a green leaf with black paper and
exposes the leaf to sunlight for a few hours. After testing the leaf for starch, which part will
not show the starch presence?
A. The covered part of the leaf
B. The uncovered green part of the leaf
C. The veins of the leaf
D. The entire leaf
2 In a nerve cell, the site where the electrical impulse is converted into a chemical signal is 1
known as:
A. Synapses
B. Dendrites
C. Axon
D. Cell body
3 In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the 1
environment is in the form of:
A. chemical energy
B. heat energy
C. light energy
D. mechanical energy
4 Consider the following three images namely X, Y and Z. Which image would develop into a 1
fruit?
A. A and B only
B. A only
C. B only
D. B and C
For Visually Impaired Students:
Three reproductive parts of a flowering plant are described as follows:
X – The flower part that contains the ovules.
Y – The male reproductive part that produces pollen.
Z – The brightly colored part that attracts insects.
Which of these parts will develop into a fruit?
A. X
B. Y
C. Z
D. Y and Z
5 Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc? 1
(A) Receptors Muscles → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Spinal cord
(B) Receptors → Motor neuron → Spinal cord Sensory neuron → Muscle
(C) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
(D) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
6 A health officer observes that many children in a hilly village show symptoms such as 1
tiredness, slow growth, and swelling of the neck. Medical tests reveal low levels of
thyroxine in their blood. The officer advises the community to modify their diet to solve the
problem. Which of the following actions would best address the cause of their low thyroxine
levels?
A. Increasing calcium intake to strengthen bones
B. Using iodized salt to compensate for iodine-poor soil and water
C. Reducing iron-rich foods to prevent thyroid blockage
D. Drinking more water to improve thyroid function
7 1
Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of the lymphatic system in the
transport of substances in the human body?
A) Lymph transports oxygen and carbon dioxide directly between tissues and blood.
B) Lymph returns excess tissue fluid, proteins, and lipids absorbed from the intestine back
to the bloodstream, helping maintain fluid balance.
C) Lymph carries hormones from endocrine glands to target organs.
D) Lymph directly transports glucose from the digestive tract to all body cells.
Question No. 8 and 9 consist of two statements –
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the
appropriate option given below:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
8 Assertion (A): Reuse is better than recycling. 1
Reason (R): Recycling of products leads to the consumption of additional resources and
energy.
9 Assertion (A): Plants require less energy than animals for carrying out life processes. 1
Reason (R): Plants do not move from place to place and carry out most internal processes
through passive mechanisms like diffusion and osmosis.
10 a) Construct a food chain of four trophic levels operating in a grassland. If the energy 2
available to the organisms of 4th trophic level are 75 joules, how much energy was available
with the organisms of the 2nd trophic level for transfer to the next trophic level? Justify your
answer.
b) Why is the flow of energy unidirectional in a food chain?
OR
The chart below shows the concentration of DDT in organisms at different trophic levels
within a simple food chain
Algae → zooplankton → mackerel →sea gull
0.4ppm 0.5ppm 5 ppm 25 ppm
a) Explain why the concentration of DDT increases drastically from the algae to the sea gull.
b) How is Ozone formed?
11 Genes control the expression of characters in organisms. Explain this statement with 2
reference to tallness in plants.
OR
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b). A black rabbit crossed with a white
rabbit (bb). After the cross, the offspring produced are:75% black-fur rabbits and 25%
white-fur rabbits
1. Determine the genotypes of the black parent.
2. Draw and explain Punnett square to support the conclusion where the offspring was 75 %
black and 25% white
12 Coiling of a pea plant tendril and the closing of leaves in a touch-me-not plant both appear 2
as responses to stimuli. How do these two responses differ in terms of their causes and the
mechanisms involved?
13 A scientist conducted two separate experiments on two different hydra species X and Y, 3
both living in nutrient rich pond water under favorable conditions,
a. Identify the process observed in Expt. 1- X and Expt.2-Y.
b. Which of the 2 processes is primarily considered a mode of reproduction to increase the
population. Justify.
14 Pure breeds of tall yellow seeded plants are crossed with pure breed of dwarf green seeded 3
plants. It is found that plants which look like one of the parents do not appear in the F1
generation but remerge in the F2 generation.
a) With the help of a cross analyze the data given and state reasons for the same.
b) What is the conclusion drawn from this experiment?
15 Read the following text carefully and answer the following questions: 4
A Pure-bred pea plant with smooth seeds (dominant characteristic) were crossed with pure-
bred pea plants with wrinkled seeds (recessive characteristic). The F₁ generation obtained
was self-pollinated to give rise to the F₂ generation. Answer the following questions:
(a) What is the expected observation in the F₁ generation of plants?
(b) What is the expected observation in the F₂ generation of plants?
(c) If a genotype consists of different types of alleles, what is it called?
(d) Which of the following will be the genotypic ratio of the given F₂ generation?
A. 1 SS: 2 Ss: 1 ss
B. 3 SS : 1 ss
C. 2 SS : 1 Ss : 1 ss
D. 1 SS : 1 Ss : 2 ss
16 In the given diagram, identify A, B C and write its function 5
Explain the role of pancreas in the process of digestion of food.
OR
a) With the help of an experiment, it prove that Carbon dioxide is released during
respiration.
b) While riding a bicycle, your brain sends signals to your legs to start pedaling and receives
messages from your eyes about the road ahead. Which part of the nervous system is
responsible for carrying these signals between the brain and the rest of the body?
Section - B
1
17 Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 ml of water were taken. A small
amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B and C
respectively. It was observed that there was an increase in the temperature of the solution
contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the temperature of the solution
falls. Which one of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
(ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred.
(iii) In beaker C exothermic process has occurred.
(iv) In beaker C endothermic process has occurred.
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iv), (ii) and (iii)
1
18 When S02 gas is passed through a saturated solution of H2S, which of the following reactions
occurs?
(a) SO2 + 2H2S → 2H2O + 3S
(b) SO2 + 2H2S → H2O + 3S
(c)SO2 + H2S → H2O + S
(d) SO2 + H2O → SO3 + H2
1
19 In the balanced equation, Cu + xHNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O the values of x and y
are
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 8 and 6
(c) 4 and 2 (d) 7 and 1
Soda-acid fire extinguishers work by producing carbon dioxide gas, which cuts off the 1
20 oxygen supply to a fire. The gas is produced by the reaction of sulphuric acid with:
(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
1
21 An aqueous solution turns the red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the
following solutions would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder
(b) Lime
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution
(d) Hydrochloric acid
1
22 Zinc granules on treating with an acid X, form the zinc sulphate (ZnSO4) salt along with the
evolution of a gas Y which burns with a pop sound when brought near to a burning candle.
Identify the acid X and gas evolved Y.
(a) X- Sulphuric acid and Y- Oxygen gas
(b) X- Hydrochloric acid and Y- Oxygen gas
(c) X- Sulphuric acid and Y- Hydrogen gas
(d) X- Hydrochloric acid and Y- Hydrogen gas
1
23 In thermite welding a mixture of …… and …… is ignited with a burning magnesium ribbon
which produces molten iron metal as a large amount of heat is evolved.
(a) iron (III) oxide and aluminium powder
(b) iron (II) oxide and aluminium powder
(c) iron (III) chloride and aluminium powder
(d) iron (III) sulphate and aluminium powder
The following question consists of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1
24 Assertion (A): Propane burns with a clean, non-sooty flame.
Reason (B): Propane is a saturated hydrocarbon, and the percentage of carbon is low,
allowing for complete combustion.
2
25 The following activity is set-up in the science lab by the teacher.
He took a thick block of impure copper as anode and a thin strip of pure copper as cathode
in an acidified copper sulphate solution and connected the circuit for electrolysis. After some
time, he observed that the cathode became thicker, and a layer of impurities was seen at the
bottom of the tank.
If the teacher replaces impure copper with a pure copper block as the anode, will the
students’ observation change? Justify your answer.
26 Attempt either option A or B
A. Give reasons- 3
(i) Platinum, gold & silver are used to make jewellery.
(ii) Aluminium is a highly interactive metal, yet it is utilised to make utensils for cooking.
(iii) Carbonate & sulphide ores are generally converted into oxides during the process of
extraction.
OR
B. Metal oxides are formed when metals react with oxygen. Their
chemical nature can vary.
(i) Give an example of a metal oxide that is basic.
(ii)Give an example of a metal oxide that shows amphoteric
behavior.
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to show the reaction of an
amphoteric oxide with a strong acid.
3
27 What is meant by skeletal type chemical equation? What does it represent? Using the
equation for electrolytic decomposition of water, differentiate between a skeletal chemical
equation and a balanced chemical equation.
A chemistry teacher was discussing how atoms form ionic bonds. She explained that metals 4
28 tend to lose electrons, whereas non-metals tend to gain electrons, resulting in the formation
of positively and negatively charged ions. To illustrate this concept, she demonstrated the
formation of sodium chloride (NaCl). In this process, a sodium atom donates one electron to
a chlorine atom, leading to the creation of oppositely charged ions that attract each other to
form an ionic compound.
(a) Identify which element is the electron donor and which is the
electron acceptor in NaCl formation.
(b) Draw the electron dot structure for NaCl and explain why it is
called an ionic bond.
(c) Why do ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points?
OR
Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity in a molten or aqueous state?
29 Attempt either option A or B
A. A compound C (molecular formula, C2H4O2 reacts with Na metal to form a compound R 5
and evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound. Compound C on treatment with an alcohol
A in the presence of an acid forms a sweet-smelling compound S (molecular formula =
C3H6O2). On addition of NaOH to C, it also gives R and water. S on treatment with NaOH
solution gives back R and A.
Identify C, R, A, S and write down the reactions involved.
OR
B. A hydrocarbon ‘X’ with molecular formula C2H4 shows the following properties:
● It decolorizes bromine water.
● On combustion, it forms CO2 and H2O.
Answer the following questions:
(i) Identify the type of hydrocarbon (alkane/alkene/alkyne) and justify your answer.
(ii) Write the IUPAC name and draw the electron dot structure of this compound.
(iii) Name the compound obtained when this hydrocarbon reacts with hydrogen in the
presence of a catalyst.
(iv) Write the chemical equation for the combustion of this hydrocarbon.
(v) Name the alcohol that gives this hydrocarbon on dehydration with concentrated H2SO4.
Section - C
30 A student makes the following statements about the power of a lens: 1
I. The power of a lens is a measure of its degree of convergence or
divergence.
II. A lens with a short focal length has a low power.
III. The S.I. unit of power of a lens is the diopter (D).
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
a) I and II b) I and III
c) I, II and III d) II and III
31 A rainbow is formed due to multiple optical processes occurring inside water droplets. 1
Which of the following shows the correct sequential order of phenomena involved in
the formation of a primary rainbow?
a) Refraction, Internal reflection, Dispersion
b) Dispersion, Refraction, Internal reflection
c) Refraction, Dispersion, Internal reflection
d) Dispersion, Internal reflection, Refraction
32 Assertion (A) : A converging lens is used as a magnifying glass. 1
Reason (R) : When an object is placed between the focal length and the optical center of
a converging lens, it forms a virtual, erect, and magnified image.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
33 An object 5 cm long is placed 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 2
cm.
a) Calculate the focal length of the mirror and
b) the image distance.
34 Attempt either option A or B.
A. The current flowing through a resistor connected in an electrical circuit and the 2
potential difference developed across its ends are shown in the given ammeter and
voltmeter.
a) Determine the least count of the voltmeter and ammeter.
b) What is the voltage and the current across the given resistor?
(OR)
B. Three 2 Ω resistors, A, B, and C, are connected as shown in the figure. Each of
them dissipates energy and can withstand a maximum power of 18 W without
melting.
Determine the maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.
For visually impaired students:
A. We have four resistors A, B, C and D of resistance 3 Ω, 6 Ω ,9 Ω and 12 Ω
respectively. Find out the lowest resistance which can be obtained by combining these
four resistors.
35 While sitting in the last row, a student has difficulty in reading the blackboard clearly. 3
a) State the defect of vision the student is suffering from.
b) Mention two causes of this defect.
c) Draw and label the diagram that shows the defect of vision in the above case
before correction.
For Visually Impaired students:
c) Explain the corrective measure for the given defect.
36 A torch bulb is rated 5.0 V and 500 mA. Calculate 3
a) its power
b) resistance and
c) energy consumed when it is lighted for four hours.
37 a) State Right-hand Thumb rule. 3
b) A long horizontal power line is carrying a current of 100 A in the east-west
direction. What is the direction of the magnetic field at a point 1.0 m below it?
c) What type of curve do we obtain between the magnetic field and the distance
along the axis of a current-carrying circular coil?
38 A concave mirror forms an image of an object thrice its size on a screen. Magnification of 4
a mirror gives information about the size of the image relative to the object. It is defined
as the ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object. It is represented by m.
m = Size of object / Size of image
The sign of magnification by the mirror gives information about the nature of the image
produced by it.
a) Describe the nature of the image that formed.
b) If the object is at X distance from the pole of the mirror, then find the image
distance from the pole.
Attempt either subpart c or d.
c) If the radius of curvature of the mirror is R, then write the relation between
object distance, image distance, and focal length of the mirror.
(OR)
d) Give two uses of a concave mirror.
39 Attempt either option A or B. 5
A. (i) List two disadvantages of using a series circuit in homes.
(ii) Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the circuit given below:
iii) Why do we need a 5 A fuse for an electric iron that consumes
1 kW power at 220 V?
(OR)
B. Find out the following in the electric circuit given in the figure:
(i) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the
combination.
(ii) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor.
(iii) Potential difference across 4 Ω resistance.
(iv) Power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor.
(v) Difference in ammeter readings, if any.
For Visually impaired students:
A. Why must the fuse be placed in series with the main supply line, while all household
appliances are connected in parallel with one another?
B. Two resistors, one with resistance 4 ohms and the other with resistance 8 ohms, are
connected in parallel across a 12-volt battery. The circuit is switched on and runs for 10
minutes.
(i) Calculate the total heat energy produced by both resistors during this time.
(ii) Each resistor has a maximum power rating of 50 watts. Is it safe to use these resistors
in the circuit? Explain your answer.
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