14-11-2025

6001CMD30302225GRIP003 MD

PHYSICS

1) A force Newton produces acceleration of 1m/sec2 in a body. The mass of the body
is (in kg) :-

(1)

(2) 13 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) None of these

2) If impulse I varies with time t as I = 20t2 – 40t The change in momentum is minimum at :-

(1) t = 2s
(2) t = 1s

(3)
t= s

(4)
t= s

3) For a rocket propulsion velocity of exhaust gases relative to rocket is 2 km per second if mass of
the rocket system is 1000 kg, then the rate of fuel consumption for a rocket to rise up with an
acceleration 4.9 metre per second square will be:

(1) 12.25 kg/s

(2) 17.5 kg/s
(3) 7.35 kg/s
(4) 5.2 kg/s

4)

Find tension in string if θ = 30° and the mass hanged in middle of the string is equal to 22kg :

(1) 110 N
(2) 220 N
(3) Infinite
(4) Between 110 N & 220 N
5) Mr. A, B and C are trying to put a heavy piston into a cylinder at a mechanical workshop in
railway yard. If they apply forces F1, F2 and F3 respectively on ropes, then for which set of forces at

that instant, they will be able to perform the said job?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Consider the system shown in figure. The pulley and the string are light and all the surfaces are
frictionless. The tension in the string is

(take g = 10 m/s2) :-
(1) 0 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 5 N

7) A man of mass 50 kg stands on a frame of mass 30 kg he pulls on a light rope which passes over a
pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the frame. For the system to be in equilibrium what

force man must exert on the rope

(1) 40 g
(2) 80 g
(3) 30 g
(4) 50 g

8) In the figure shown blocks are initially at rest on the floor. Mark the correct statement :

(1) When applied force on pulley is 200 N the normal reaction on block A is zero.
(2) When applied force is 400 N acceleration of B is 10 m/s2
(3) When applied force is 240 N acceleration of pulley is 2 m/s2
(4) For a force F = 100 N, normal reaction on B is zero.

9) For the system shown in figure, if force exerted by 4 kg block on 3 kg block is 10 N then what is

the force exerted by 2 kg block on 4 kg block ?

(1) 10 N
(2) 18 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 20 N

10) Two monkeys of masses 10 kg and 8 kg are moving along a vertical light rope, the former
climbing up with an acceleration of 2 m/s2, while the latter coming down with a uniform velocity of 2
m/s. Find tension in the rope at the fixed support.

(1) 180 N
(2) 200 N
(3) 80 N
(4) 216 N

11) The acceleration of system of two bodies over the wedge as shown in the figure is :-

(1) 1 ms–2
(2) 2 ms–2
(3) 0.5 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2

12) In the set up shown, find acceleration of the block C. Given aA = 2 m/s2 and aB w.r.t. pulley P1 is 1

m/s2 downwards.

3 m/s2
(1)
 2
(2) 3 m/s
2
(3) 5 m/s
2
(4) 5 m/s

13) A ball is suspended on a thread from the ceiling of a car. The brakes are applied and the speed of
car changes from 5 m/sec to 5/3 m/sec during the time interval of 3 seconds. The angle that the
thread will deviate from vertical.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A pulley is attached to the ceiling of a lift moving upwards. Two particles are attached to the two
ends of a string passing over the pulley. The masses of the particles are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
acceleration of the particle is g/2 with respect to lift, then the acceleration of the lift will be:

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about reference frames.

(1) In a non-inertial reference frame, an isolated particle does not retain a constant velocity
A reference frame travelling with acceleration relative to an inertial reference is a non-inertial
(2)
reference frame
In an inertial reference frame, velocity vector of a particle fixed to inertial reference frame
(3)
changes neither in direction nor in magnitude, with time
(4) If a block is stationary in an elevator then reference frame fixed to elevator must be inertial

16) For the arrangement in figure, the tension in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is:-
(1) 6
(2) 6.4 N
(3) 0.4 N
(4) Zero

17) Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are connected with a string passing over a pulley as shown in
figure. The block M1 lies on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the block M1 and
the horizontal surface is µ. The system accelerates. What additional mass m should be placed on the

block M1 so that the system does not accelerate ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (M2 – M1)µ

18) A block is placed over the plank which can rotate about a horizontal edge passing through A.
Select the correct graph between the friction force and the angle made by plank with the horizontal.

Coefficient of friction is .

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19)

The maximum value of force ‘F’ so that block does not slide up.

(1) 35 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 84 N
(4) 95 N

20) A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 3 kg as shown in the figure. The coefficient of

friction between the surface and the block is μ = . The frictional force acting on the block is :

(1) 15 N downwards
(2) 25 N upwards
(3) 20 N downwards
(4) 30 N upwards

21) Acceleration of the lower block is :-

(1) 2.5 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) zero

22) The friction force acting between 10kg block and ground is [Take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 60 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 30 N

23) A block of mass m is initially at rest on horizontal floor having static friction coefficient µS and
kinetic friction coefficient is µK. If F is the minimum force required to move the block then :-

(1) Value of F does not depends on µS

(2) Value of F does not depends on m
(3) Value of F does not depends on µK

(4)
F is slightly less than

24) A 10 kg block is on an inclined plane of angle 30° with a coefficient of friction µ = 0.3. What is
the force required to move the block up the incline with an acceleration of 2m/s2 ? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 90 N
(2) 97 N
(3) 85 N
(4) 94.46 N

25)

A rough vertical board has an acceleration ‘a’ so that a 2 kg block pressing against it does not fall.
The coefficient of friction between the block and the board should be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Coefficient of friction of given parabolic surface is µ. Maximum height upto which a block can be

placed without slipping is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A wooden block of mass 8 kg slides down on an incline plane of inclination 30° to the horizontal
with constant acceleration of 0.4 m/s2. The force of friction between the block and inclined plane is
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 12.2 N
(2) 24.4 N
(3) 36.8 N
(4) 45.4 N

28) A 2 kg block (A) is placed on 8 kg block (B) which rests on a table. Coefficient of friction
between (A) and (B) is 0.2 and between (B) and table is 0.5. A 25 N horizontal force is applied on the
block (B), then the friction force between the blocks (A) and (B) is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 3.9 N
(3) 5 N
(4) 49 N

29) The time when relative motion between the blocks will stop is

(1) 1 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 3 s
(4) 4 s

30) Acceleration of block A varies with time as shown in figure. The value of coefficient of kinetic
friction between block A and B is :- (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.4
(4) None of these

31) For a body of mass 1 kg, U-x graph is shown in figure. If the body is released from rest at x =
2m, then its speed when it crosses x = 5m is:-

(1) ms–1
(2) 1 ms–1
(3) 2 ms–1
(4) 3 ms–1

32) The force F on a particle of mass m moving in a straight line varies with its velocity v as F =
where k is a constant. The work done by the force in time t is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) kt

33) A position dependent force acts on a small abject of mass 2 kg to displace it

from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joule is

(1) 70 J
(2) 270 J
(3) 35 J
(4) 135 J

34) If the momentum of a body is increased by 100%, then the percentage increase in the kinetic
energy is

(1) 150 %
(2) 200%
(3) 225%
(4) 300%

35) Given that the displacement of the body in metre is a function of time as follows : x = 2t4 + 5.
The mass of the body is 2 kg. What is the increase in its kinetic energy one second after the start of
motion

(1) 8 J
(2) 16 J
(3) 32 J
(4) 64 J

36) The graph of force (F) versus displacement (x) for a body of mass 2 kg is shown in figure. If the
body has a velocity of 20 m/s at x = 0, then the kinetic energy of body at x = 10 m is
(1) 436 J
(2) 460 J
(3) 484 J
(4) 282 J

37) A particle is released from a height h. At a certain height, its kinetic energy is two times its
potential energy. Height and speed of the particle at that instant are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The potential energy of a particle under a conservative force is given by U(x) = (3x2–6x + 2)J. the
equilibrium position of the particle is at :

(1) X = 1 m
(2) X = 2 m
(3) X = 1.5m
(4) X = 3 m

39) A particle in a certain conservative force field has potential energy given by U = 2 . The force
exerted on it at position (1, 0, –1) is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) The masses M1 and M2 (M2 > M1) are released from rest, using work–energy theorem find out
velocity of the blocks when they move a distance ‘x’.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A block of mass 10kg is attached to a vertical spring of spring constant K = 100 N m-1 is in
equilibrium. Now an external force is applied on the block so that the spring is stretched by an

additional 2m. The work done by the external force is: (g = 10ms-2)

(1) 200 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 450 J
(4) 600 J

42) A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a
weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be :-

(1) 0.12 m
(2) 1.5 m
(3) 0.5 m
(4) 0.15 m

43) A block weighing 10 N travels down a smooth curved track AB joined to a rough horizontal
surface. The rough surface has a friction coefficient of 0.20 with the block. If the block starts
slipping on the track from a point 1.0 m above the horizontal surface, the distance it will move on

the rough surface is.

(1) 5.0m
(2) 10.20m
(3) 15.0m
(4) 20.0m

44) From a waterfall, water is falling down at the rate of 100 kg/s on the blades of turbine. If the
height of the fall is 100 m, then the power delivered to the turbine is approximately equal to :

(1) 100 kW
(2) 10 kW
(3) 1 kW
(4) 1000 kW

45) A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to
the car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to :

2
(1) t P0
(2) t1/2
(3) t–1/2

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The maximum number of moles present in equal masses of S2, S4 and S8 is in:

(1) S2
(2) S4
(3) S8
(4) equal in all

2) Which of the following atom that possesses minimum number of neutrons?

(1) 13C
(2) 15N
(3) 16O
(4) 14C

3) On bombarding a beam of α-particles on the atom of the gold sheet, a few particles get deflected
whereas most of them go straight and remains undeflected. This is due to

(1) The nucleus occupy much smaller volume as compared to the volume of atom
(2) The force of repulsion on fast moving α-particles is very small
(3) The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any effect on α-particles
(4) The force of attraction on α-particles by the oppositely charged electron is not sufficient.

4) The energy of one mole photons of radiation having frequency 5.01 × 1014 Hz is :

(1) 160 kJ mol–1

(2) 180 kJ mol–1
(3) 200 kJ mol–1
(4) 220 kJ mol–1

5) Frequency of photons emitted in Paschen series is given by v = 3.29 × 1015 (Hz) . Value
of n for photon having wavelength 1285 nm will be :

(1) n = 3
(2) n = 4
(3) n = 5
(4) n = 6

6) The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The value of wave function, Ψ depends upon the coordinates of the electron in the
atom.
Statement II : The probability of finding an electron at a point within an atom is proportional to the
orbital wave function.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

8) The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1; hence the energy of fourth
Bohr orbit would be:

(1) – 41 kJ mol–1
(2) – 82 kJ mol–1
(3) –164 kJ mol–1
(4) –1312 kJ mol–1

9) Given that the abundance of isotopes 54Fe, 56Fe and 57Fe are 5%, 90% and 5%, respectively, the
atomic mass of Fe is :

(1) 55.85
(2) 55.95
(3) 55.75
(4) 56.05

10) An excited state of H atom emits a photon of wavelength λ and returns in the ground state, the
principal quantum number of excited state is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength λ and re-emits the same energy into two photons of
wavelengths λ1 and λ2 respectively. The wavelength λ is related with λ1 and λ2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

The wave number of first line of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 7600 cm–1. The wave number of
first line of Balmer series for Li2+ ion is

(1) 15200 cm–1

(2) 68,400 cm–1
(3) 76,000 cm–1
(4) 136800 cm–1

13) Consider the following statements :

(i) Spectral lines of He+ ion belonging to Balmer series are not in visible range.
(ii) In the Paschen series of H-atom maximum lines are in the UV region.
(iii) 2nd line of Lyman series of He+ ion has energy 48.4 eV approx.
The above statements (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively are (T = True, F = False)

(1) T F F
(2) F T T
(3) T F T
(4) T T T

14) What is the shortest wavelength line in the paschen series of Li2+ ion ? Where R is Rydberg
constant.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : In the photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as
the beam of light of frequency greater than threshold frequency strikes the surface.
Reason R : When the photon of any energy strikes an electron in the atom, transfer of energy from
the photon to the electron takes place.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

16) Which of the following is the correct plot for the probability density ψ2(r) as a function of
distance ‘r’ of the electron form the nucleus for 2s orbital?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Graph of incident frequency (v) with stopping potential (vs) in photoelectric effect is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) The correct relation according to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is/are :-

Δx . Δp ≥
(1)

ΔE × Δt ≥
(2)

Δx × Δv ≥
(3)

(4) All of the above

19) If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal than uncertainty in momentum is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainity
with which the position of the electron can be located is ( h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2s–1, mass of electron,
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)

(1) 5.10 × 10–3 m

(2) 1.92 × 10–3 m
(3) 3.84 × 10–3 m
(4) 1.52 × 10–4 m

21) When an electron moving with a speed of 600 ms–1 with an uncertanity of 0.005% then calculate
the uncertainity in position of electron :

(1) 1.4 × 10–3m

(2) 1.9 × 10–3 m
(3) 2.9 × 10–3m
(4) 3.9 × 10–3m

22) Match the columns.

 Column - I Column - II

(A) (p) Energy can be emitted or absorbed in packets

Significant only for motion of microscopic

(B) De Broglie (q)
objects.

The probability of finding an electron at a point

(C) Heisenberg (r)
within an atom

(D) Planck's (s) Every object in motion has a wave character.

(1) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(2) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(3) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)
(4) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q)

23) Electromagnetic radiations of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise sodium atom.
Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium in kJ mol–l.

(1) 494.5 J mol–1

(2) 494.5 kJ mol–1
(3) 494.5 cal mol–1
(4) 600.5 kJ mol–1

24) Calculate the uncertainty in velocity of a cricket ball of mass 150 g if the uncertainty in its

position is 1 Å.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) In Cr atom, the number of electrons having n + m = 3 are :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

26) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+
27) Maximum I.P. will be for which element :-

(1) Na
(2) K
(3) N
(4) O

28) Which process is endothermic in nature?

O(g) →
(1)

(2) S(g) →

(3) Be(g) →
F(g) →
(4)

29) The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as :-

(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb

(2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+
(4) Pb4+ > Pb > Pb2+

30) Which of the following is general configuration of carbon family:-

(1) ns2
(2) ns2np1
(3) ns2np2
(4) ns2np3

31) 1st Ionisation energy values of Al, Si and S are 496, 530 and 640 kJ/mol respectively then what
will be 1st IE value for phosphorus ?

(1) More than 640 kJ/mol

(2) Between [496-530] kJ/mol
(3) between [530-640] kJ/mol
(4) Can't be predicted

32) Which of the following is not affected by stable configuration :-

(1) Ionisation energy

(2) Electron affinity
(3) Electronegativity
(4) All
33) Successive ionisation energies (I.E) for an element A are as if
I.E1 and I.E3 are 27 kJ/mol and 51 kJ/mol respectively, then the value of I.E2 is

(1) 63
(2) 21
(3) 59
(4) 33

34) An element which is recently discovered is placed in 7th period and 10th group. IUPAC name of
the element will be :-

(1) Unnilseptium
(2) Ununnilium
(3) Ununbium
(4) Ununoctium

35) Which of the following graph is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (1) & (2) both are correct

36) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

7 1 2
(1) 64Gd = [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
(2) 3d transition series from atomic no. 21 (Sc) to atomic no. 30 (Zn)
(3) s & p-block elements are called main group elements (representative elements)
(4) Group 16 element 35Br is a part of halogen family

37) Which among the given compounds is strongly absorbed by K2O :-

(1) CaO
(2) CO2
(3) BeO
(4) Na2O

38) Which of the following diagrams is correctly related to electron affinity of halogens :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The correct order of acidity is :-

(1) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO

(2) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3

40) Which group of elements follow triad rule?

(1) H, F, Cl
(2) Li, Na, K
(3) Cl, Br, I
(4) All

41) Which of the following is amphoteric?

(1) SO3
(2) NaOH
(3) CO2
(4) Al(OH)3

42) Assertion : The ionic size of O2– is bigger than that of F– ion.
Reason : O2– and F– are isoelectronic ions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

43) According to Slater rule, Effective nuclear charge in group generally:–

(1) Increases down the group

(2) Decreases down the group
(3) Remains constant
(4) First increases then decreases

44) Which of the following electronic configuration belongs to inert gas elements:-

(1) ns2 (n – 1)d10

(2) ns2 (n – 1)s2p6
(3) ns2 np6
(4) None

45) The element with atomic number Z=118 will be :–

(1) Noble gas

(2) Transition metal
(3) Alkali metal
(4) Alkaline earth metal

BOTANY

1) Which metabolic pathway is a common pathway to both anaerobic and aerobic metabolism ?

(1) TCA cycle

(2) ETS
(3) EMP pathway
(4) Krebs cycle

2) The energy released by oxidation of respiratory substrates :

(A) Comes out in a single step to increase the possibility of maximum ATP production
(B) Is not used directly
(C) Is used directly in the energy requiring processes of the organisms
(D) Is trapped as chemical energy as the energy currency of the cell

(1) C and D are incorrect

(2) B and D are correct
(3) A and B are correct
(4) A and D are incorrect

3) Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(a) Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol and carbon di-oxide by yeast.
(b) Fermentation takes place in aerobic bacteria.
(c) Fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration.

(1) a & c
(2) b & c
(3) a & b
(4) Only a

4) What are the products of glycolysis ?

(1) CO2 and H2O

(2) ATP, NADH + H+, pyruvate
(3) ATP, FADH2, pyruvate
+
(4) ATP, NADH + H , H2O, CO2

5) How many of the following are compounds of glycolysis ?

DHAP, OAA, Malate, PEP, α-Ketoglutarate, Fructose-1,6-Bis-P, Succinyl

CoA, 3-PGA, Citrate
(1) Two
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Five

6) Which of the following organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise glucose to
pyruvic acid ?

(1) Aerobic organisms

(2) Anaerobic organisms
(3) Most of the anaerobic and some aerobic organisms.
(4) All the living organisms

7) Fill in the blanks :-

1. All living organisms need__a__ for carrying out daily life activities, be it absorption, transport,
movement, reproduction or even breathing.
2. All the energy required for life processes is obtained by __b__ of some macromolecules that we
call food.
3. Animals are heterotrophic, i.e they obtain food from plant directly (__c__) or indirectly (__d__).
4. __e__ like fungi are dependent on dead and decaying matter.

a–food, b–oxidation, c–carnivores,

(1)
d–herbivores, e–parasites.
 a–energy, b–reduction, c–herbivores,
(2)
d–carnivores, e saprophytes
a–energy, b–oxidation, c–herbivores,
(3)
d–carnivores, e–saprophytes
a–oxygen, b–reduction, c–carnivores,
(4)
d–herbivores, e–saprophytes

8) There are three major ways in which different cells handle pyruvic acid produced by glycolysis
(lactic acid fermentation, Alcoholic fermentation and link reaction). How many pathways out of these
are independent and dependent on oxygen respectively?

(1) 1,2
(2) 2,1
(3) 3,0
(4) 0,3

9) Select the wrong pair :-

(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex - link reaction

(2) F0 – F1 ATPase – ATP synthesis
(3) Phospho-fructo-kinase - mitochondrial matrix
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase- Inner mitochondrial membrane

10) Identify A and B in given reaction :

Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ A + B + NADH

A B

(1) PEP CO2

(2) Acetyl CoA CO2

(3) CO2 H2O

(4) Acetyl CoA O2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Where is the respiratory electron transport system (ETS) located in plants?

(1) Mitochondrial matrix

(2) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(3) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(4) Intermembrane space

12) Glycolysis occurs in ______; the TCA cycle occurs in_____; and ETC occurs in_____.
(1) Mitochondrial matrix, cytosol; mitochondrial inner membrane
(2) Cytosol; mitochondria matrix; mitochondrial inner membrane
(3) Mitochondrial outer membrane; cytosol; mitochondrial inner membrane
(4) Cytosol; outer chamber of mitochondria; inner chamber of mitochondria

13) Select correct statements :-

(1) Plants have no specialized organs for gaseous exchange
(2) Plants have stomata & lenticels for gaseous exchange
(3) Plants represent great demands for gas exchange
(4) Each plant part take care of it's own gas exchange needs

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

14) Correct sequence of electron acceptors in ETS is :-

(1) Cytochrome a, a3, b, c

(2) Cytochrome b, c, a3, a
(3) Cytochrome b, c, a, a3
(4) Cytochrome c, b, a, a3

15) Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA occurs when

(1) Succinic acid changes to fumaric acid

(2) Fumaric acid changes to malic acid
(3) Succinyl CoA changes to succinic acid
(4) Oxalosuccinic acid changes to α- ketoglutaric acid

16) Which one complex is responsible for oxidation of NADH2 in ETS of mitochondria :-

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

17) Phosphoglyceraldehyde is changed to

Diphosphoglyceric acid through

(1) Carboxylation and hydration

(2) Phosphorylation and oxidation
(3) Decarboxylation and hydrogenation
(4) Dephosphorylation and dehydrogenation

18)
Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic respiration requires :-

(1) Calcium
(2) Iron
(3) Cobalt
(4) Magnesium

19) Which of the following respiratory reactions occur in the cytoplasm of an eukaryotic cell?
(A) PGAL → 1,3di PGA
(B) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(C) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA
(D) PEP → Pyruvate
(E) Fructose 1,6 diphosphate → DHAP+ 3 PGAL

(1) A and E only

(2) A, D and E only
(3) A, B, C and E only
(4) A and E only

20) Match the number of carbon atoms given in List-I with that of the compounds given in List-II and
select the correct option:

List-I List-II

A 4C compund I Acetyl CoA

B 2C compound II Pyruvate

C 5C compound III Citric acid

D 3C compound IV α - Ketoglutaric acid

V Malic acid
(1) A-II, B-V, C-III, D-I
(2) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-V, B-III, C-I, D-II

21) If 4 molecules of glucose are completely oxidized during aerobic respiration then how many ATP
may generate by substrate level phosphorylations

(1) 18
(2) 20
(3) 8
(4) 16

22) If 3 PGA is the respiratory substrate then how many ATP are produced in cytoplasm, in matrix
and on inner membrane of mitochondria respectively

(1) 2, 1, 17
(2) 1, 1, 14
(3) 1, 1, 11
(4) 2, 2, 11

23) All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is
located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This
enzyme is:

(1) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

(2) Malate dehydrogenase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Lactate dehydrogenase

24) How many ATP will produced by the complete oxidation of 1 molecule of phosphogylceraldehyde
(PGAL) ?

(1) 15 ATP
(2) 30 ATP
(3) 18 ATP
(4) 20 ATP

25) How many oxygen atom are required for the complete oxidation of two molecule of acetyl Co-A ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 12

26) Refer to the given figure and select the correct option for A, B, C and D.

A B C D
 Acetyl
1 Fats Proteins 3-PGAL
CoA

2 Fats Proteins 3-PGAL CO2

3 Proteins Fast Acetyl CoA PEP

Acetyl
4 Proteins Fast PEP
CoA
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Participation of several co-enzyme (including NAD+, Co-enzyme A), Mg2+, Lipoic acid & TPP are
required for

(1) Oxidative decarboxylation

(2) Pyruvic acid formation
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Respiratory chain

28) Which of the following is incorrect statement :

(1) The final product of glycolysis, pyruvate is transported from mitochondria to cytoplasm.
The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving
(2)
three molecular of CO2.
The passing on of the electron removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with
(3)
simultaneous synthesis of ATP.
(4) Complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in matrix of mitochondria.

29) Assertion (A) : The conversion of 1, 3-biphos-phoglycerate (BPGA) to 3- phosphoglyceric acid

(PGA) is an energy yielding step.
Reason (R) : The energy released by conversion of BPGA to PGA is trapped by the formation of ATP.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true but R is false
(4) If A is false but R is true

30) The last or terminal cytochrome in respiratory chain is-

(1) Cyt b
(2) Cyt a3
(3) Cyt a
(4) Cyt c

31) Statement I : Complex II is neither Hydrogen carrier nor electron carrier.

Statement II : In electron transport system only transport of electron took place via Protein
complex embedded in inner membrane of mitochondria .

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect

32) Which type of phosphorylation occurs in

mitochondria ?

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Substrate level phosphorylation
(3) Photophosphorylation
(4) Both (a) and (b)

33) In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released ?

(1) Aerobic respiration in plants

(2) Aerobic respiration in animals
(3) Alcoholic fermentation
(4) Lactate fermentation

34)

At how many places in Krebs cycle NADH + H+ is formed?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Krebs cycle?

(1) It is also known as Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

(2) It occurs in mitochondria
The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid (OAA) and
(3)
water to yield citric acid
(4) It does not involve any decarboxylation step.

36) Select the wrong match with respect to respiratory quotient (R.Q.) :

(1) Proteins = 0.9

(2) Carbohydrate = 1
(3) Tripalmitin = 4
(4) Organic acid = More than one
37) Which of the following complexes of the electron transport system of respiration, catalyse the
production of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate ?

(1) Complex V
(2) Complex II
(3) Complex IV
(4) Complex III

38) What is the net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule?

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 38
(4) 18

39) Which of the following are involved in the first step of the Krebs cycle?

(1) OAA, pyruvic acid, water

(2) Acetyl CoA, water, isocitric acid
(3) Malic acid, OAA, citric acid
(4) Acetyl CoA, OAA, water

40) Assertion : Respiration is an amphibolic pathway.

Reason : Respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are fasle.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

41) The reducing agent NADH + H+ is oxidised during

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
(3) Lactic acid and alcohol fermentation
(4) Citric acid cycle

42)

The correct relationship of values of Respiratory quotient is :-

(1) Glucose > Fats > Organic acid

(2) Glucose < Fats < Organic acid
(3) Fats > Glucose > Organic acid
(4) Fats < Organic acid > Glucose

43)
How many steps in glycolysis ATP is
consumed/utilized ?

(1) 2 steps
(2) 3 steps
(3) 4 steps
(4) 5 steps

44)

How many times decarboxylations are occurs in TCA cycle?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Zero

45) Which one is common for metabolism of glucose, proteins and fats in respiration-

(1) Succinyl Co-A

(2) α-KGA
(3) Acetyl Co-A
(4) Pyruvic acid

ZOOLOGY

1) Which of these describes the skin of frog?

(1) Thick, leathery

(2) Smooth, slippery
(3) Hard, dry
(4) Thin, membranous

2) The differentiating factor of the venous system of frog and rabbit is in the presence of this

(1) hepatic vein

(2) three vena cavae
(3) renal portal system
(4) hepatic portal system

3) Bidder’s cannal in frog is found in

(1) Kidney
(2) Testes
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Cloaca
4) Summer sleep of frog is called:-

(1) Hibernation
(2) Aestivation
(3) Both
(4) Diapodesis

5) Vocal sacs are found in:-

(1) Male frog

(2) Female frog
(3) Both
(4) Early tadpole

6) In a frog, heart is enclosed within a two-layered sac called

(1) Mesorchium
(2) Pericardium
(3) Pleura
(4) Conus arteriosus

7) How many ova are laid by mature female frog at a time ?

(1) 2000–5000
(2) 2500–5000
(3) 2500–3000
(4) 100–500

8) Right auricle of frog contains ___(A)___ blood and it receives the blood from ___(B)___. Identify A
and B :

(1) A – Oxygenated, B – Sinus venosus

(2) A – Deoxygenated, B – Conus arteriosus
(3) A – Oxygenated, B – Truncus arteriosus
(4) A – Deoxygenated, B – Sinus venosus

9)

Find out correct option for the respiration in Rana tigrina in different modes :-

During Hibernation
In Water On Land
and Aestivation

(1) Pulmonary Skin Lungs

Buccopharyngeal
(2) Cutaneous Pulmonary
cavity
 Skin, Buccopharyngeal
(3) Skin Cutaneous
Cavity, Lungs

Buccopharyngeal
(4) Cutaneous Pulmonary
Cavity and lungs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Select the incorrect statement for frog :-

(1) Frog has the ability to change its body colour

(2) Internal fertilization takes place in frog
(3) Sexual dimorphism is present in frog
(4) Frog shows indirect development

11) How many pairs of cranial nerves found in frog?

(1) 9 pair
(2) 31 pair
(3) 10 pair
(4) 33 pair

12) How many digits are found in forelimbs and hindlimbs of frog respectively ?

(1) 5, 5
(2) 5, 4
(3) 4, 4
(4) 4, 5

13)

Column I Column II
(Structure) (Characteristic)

A. Right atrium i. Receives deoxygenated blood from body

Distributes blood to different parts of

B. Left atrium ii.
body

C. Ventricle iii. Receives oxygenated blood from lungs

Receives blood from both atria, mixes

D. Truncus arteriosus iv.
partially
(1) A - ii; B - i; C - iv; D - iii
(2) A - i; B - ii; C - iii; D - iv
(3) A - i; B - iii; C - iv; D - ii
(4) A - ii; B - iv; C - iii; D - i
14) Body of frog is divided into-

(1) 2 parts, head and tail

(2) 2 parts, tail and trunk
(3) 2 parts, head and trunk
(4) 3 parts, head, trunk and tail

15) Which of the following is incorrect about frog?

(1) They have constant body temperature

(2) They never drink water
(3) The Color of dorsal side of body is generally olive grade
(4) A pair of nostrils is found above the mouth

16) Identify A, B and C respectively-

(1) Trunk, Tympanum, Web

(2) Neck, Brown eye spot, Web
(3) Trunk, Tympanum, Hind limb
(4) Neck, Tympanum, Hind limb

17) In frog, cloaca is an opening of :-

(1) Excretory ducts

(2) Reproductive ducts
(3) Digestive tract
(4) All of these

18) The frog is :-

(1) Ureotelic animal

(2) Ammonotellic animal
(3) Urecotelic animal
(4) Amminotelic animal

19) Male frog can be distinguished from female frog due to the presence of :-

(1) Presence of vocal sacs and copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimb.
(2) A neck and tail is absent.
(3) Five digits in hind limbs
(4) Eyes are bulged and covered by the nictitating membrane.

20) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of male reproductive system of frog.

(1) A–Fat bodies, B–Testis, C–Ureters, D–Vasa efferentia, E–Kidney

(2) A–Nephrons, B–Testis, C–Ureters, D–Villi, E–Kidney
(3) A–Vasa efferentia, B–Testis, C–Adrenal gland, D–Fat bodies, E–Kidney
(4) A–Mesorchium, B–Testis, C–Adrenal gland, D–Fat bodies, E–Kidney

21) Observe the following figure of female reproductive system of frog and identify A to D.

(1) A–Urinary duct, B-Ova, C–Ovary, D–Cloaca, E–Urethra

(2) A–Oviduct, B-Ovary, C–Ova, D–Cloaca, E–Urinary bladder
(3) A–Oviduct, B-Ovary, C–Ova, D–Rectum, E–Adrenal gland
(4) A–Urinogenital duct, B-Ovary, C–Ovum, D–Coelom, E–Urethra

22) Example of unicellular gland is :-

(1) Mucous secreting goblet cell

(2) Oil secreting sebaceous glandular cell
(3) Lysozyme secreting paneth cell
(4) Both (1) & (3)

23) The major constituent of connective tissue is :-

(1) vitamin
(2) lipid
(3) collagen
(4) carbohydrate

24)

White fibrous tissue is

(1) Nervous
(2) Muscular
(3) Ligaments
(4) Tendons.

25)

Tendon, which attach one bone to muscle are made up of :-

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

26) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select option which includes all the correct ones
only:-
a. Bones have a hard and pliable ground substance
b. Bone matrix is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibers.
c. Bone forming cells are Osteoblast.
d. Bones is an example of areolar connective tissue.
Options :-

(1) Statements a and b

(2) Statements b and c
(3) Statements c and d
(4) Statements a and d

27) In all connective tissues cells secrete fibre of structural protein except :

(1) Bone
(2) Blood
(3) Cartilage
(4) All of the above

28)

Find out the correct match for following options:-

(1) Found in DCT

(2)
Found in Small Intestine

(3)
Bowman's capsule

(4)
Found in blood vessel
29) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column I

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a 1
Junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b Gap Junctions 2 to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

Tight
c 3 communicate with
Junctions
each other
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-2, b-1, c-3,
(4) a-1, b-3, c-2

30) Read the following statements and find out how many of these are related to given figure :-

a. Multilayered epithelium
b. Limited role in secretion and absorption
c. Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
d. They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

31) Read the following statements and find out the correct statement :-

(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption
The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the
(3)
epithelium
(4) All of the above

32) The diagrams given below represent :-

 (1) A-Ligament B-Tendon

(2) A-Tendon B-Ligament

(3) A-Bone B-Cartilage

(4) A-Cartilage B-Bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Identify the option that fills the blanks correctly-

Blood vascular system of cockroach is I type. Blood vessels are II and open into spaces. The III is
composed of colourless IV and V-

I II III IV V

(1) Open Very well developed Haemolymph Plasma RBCs

(2) Closed Poorly developed Hamolymph Plasma Platelets

(3) Open Poorly developed Hamolymph Plasma Platelets

(4) Closed Very well developed haemolymph Plasma RBCs

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Cockroach excrete nitrogenous waste through-A, in the form of-B identify A, and B
are respectively :-

(1) Malpighiantubule, ammonia

(2) Antennal gland, uric acid
(3) Green gland, urea
(4) Malpighian tubule, uric acid

35) Which type of structure in cockroach monitoring the enviornment ?

(1) Anal style

(2) Ootheca
(3) Antennae
(4) Anal cerci

36) Identify the correct match for locomotory structure of animals :

(1) Insects – Paired jointed legs

(2) Annelids – Muscular foot
(3) Echinodermata – Parapodia
(4) Cnidarians – Comb plates

37) Cockroach is :-

(1) Uricotelic and diurnal

(2) Ureotelic and nocturnal
(3) Uricotelic and Nocturnal
(4) Ammonotelic and nocturnal

38) Periplaneta belongs to

(1) Annelida
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Mollusca
(4) Arthropoda

39)

Which of the following is not characteristic of cockroach ?

(1) Jointed appandages

(2) Nonsegmented body
(3) Periodic moulting
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton

40)

The body of the cockroach is segmented and divisible into

(1) head and tail

(2) head and thorax
(3) head and abdomen
(4) head, thorax and abdomen

41) Exoskeleton of cockroach is made up of :-

(1) Keratin
(2) Chitin
(3) Lecithin
(4) Melanin

42)

Nocturnal, omniovorus, resident of human homes, serious pest, vector of several diseases, live in
damp place, chitinous exoskeleton, piercing and sucking mouth parts.
How many of above characters are applicable to Periplaneta americana :-

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 3

43) Inner surface of fallopian tubes is lined by :-

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Pseudostratified
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Transitonal epithelium

44)

A student was given a sample of tissue. He observes and concludes the following characters.
I. The cells are composed of single layer of tall and slender cells.
II. Their nuclei are located at the base.
III. It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine.
IV. They help in secretion and absorption.
Based on the above features identify the epithelium.

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium

45) Choose the correct statement.

(1) The products of exocrine glands are secreted directly into the fluid bathing the gland.
(2) Exocrine glands secrete pepsin, gastrin, insulin and glucagon.
The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals is epithelial
(3)
tissue.
(4) Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 4 4 2 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 1 1 1 4 4 4 4 1 2 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 1 4 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 2 4 2 3 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 3 3 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 4 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 4 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 4 1 1 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 1 4 1 1 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 3 2 1 4 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain Question : A force of F Newton produces an acceleration of 1m/s2 in a body. We

need to determine the mass of the body.

Concept : This problem is based on Newton's Second Law of Motion.

Formula :
F = ma

Solution :

Given: a = 1m/s2 F = = = 13 N so,

Final Answer : Option (2)

2) I = 20t2 – 40t

t=1

3) Fth – mg = ma

Urel

4)
2Tsinθ = Mg
2Tsin30° = 22 × 10
T = 220 N
 5)
For horizontal equilibrium
F2 sin60° = F3 + F2 cos60°

6)

If a is acceleration of m2, then from figure.

m2g – T = m2a ...(i)

and T = m1a = 1a ...(ii)
From (i), m2g – T = m2a
1g – m1a = m2a
1g = (m1 + m2)a = (1 + 1) a

a= 5m/s2

∴ T = m1a = 1 × 5 = 5N

7)

For system of man + frame to be in

Equilibrium :

2T = 80g
T = 40g
8) F = 400 ⇒

Fnet = 200 – 100 = 10 × 9

a = 10 m/sec

9)

N – 2 = (3 + 1)a

10 – 2 =
Solving we get F = 22N, a = 2 m/s2
For 2 kg block

F – N1 = 2a
22 – N1 = 2(2)
N1 = 18 N

10) Tension = T – mg = ma
T = m(g + a)
T = 10(10 + 2)
T = 10 × 12 = 120
Upper support
120 + 80 = 200
(80) weight of latter monkey

11) Question Explanation:

Two masses M are connected by a light string over a frictionless pulley placed on an inclined
plane with angles 37° and 53°. We need to determine the system's acceleration.

Concept Based:
Newton's Second Law - Motion on an Inclined Plane
Formula Used:
Net force acting on the system:

Applying Newton's Second Law :

Fnet = (M + M)a

Solving for acceleration a :

Calculation :
Given g = 10m/s2, sin53° = 0.8, sin37° = 0.6

Final Answer : 1m/s2

12)

⇒ (upwards)

⇒ upwards

13)

v = u – at

⇒ 3a = 5 – 5/3

a=

tanθ =

14)

a0 = g/2

15) Since the elevator may have an acceleration even though the block may remain stationary
w.r.t. the elevator.
16)
Fe = μ Mg cos37°

= 0.8 × 1 × 10 ×
Fe = 6.4 N
Mg sin37° < Fe
Thus T = 0

17) For the equilibrium of block of mass M1 :

Frictional force, ƒ = tension in the string, T
where T = ƒ = µ(m + M1)g .....(i)
For the equilibrium of block of mass M2 :
T = M2g .....(ii)

From (i) and (ii) µ(m + M1)g = M2g m=

18) For θ < Angle of repose fr = mgsinθ curve will be sine curve and for θ > angle of repose fr
= μmgcosθ curve will be cosine.

19)

F = mg Sin 37° + μ Mg Cos 37°

20) Question Explanation: Calculating the frictional force on a block pushed against a wall
at an angle.

Concept: Static Friction

Formula Used: ffriction​≤μs​N

∑Fy ​= 0

∑Fx​=0

Solution:
Fext = 50 – 30 = 20 N
ƒlimit = μN =
= 50 N
∵ ƒlimit > Fext
Hence ƒ = 20N , downwards.

Final Answer: Option (3)

21)

freq = 10 × ac = N (for lower block)

fmax = μ(5) (10) = 25 N
freq > fmax
so there will be slipping.

22) Concept : Two-block system

Formula : Friction force → f = μN

Step 1 :
Visual Aid :
F.B.D. of 20 kg Diagram (1)

F.B.D. of 10 kg Diagram (2)

Calculation :
From diagram (1)
N1 = 20g = 200
f2i = μ1 × N1 = 0.1 × 200 = 20N
Driving force on 20 kg is 5N which is lesser than 20N = 0. 20 kg mass must move w.r.t. to 10
kg.
Step 2 :
Visual Aid :

Calculation :
For 10 kg block driving force is 5N, limiting friction force b/w 10 kg and lower surface is fL =
μ2N = 0.2 × 30 × 10 = 6N, so force between lower surface and 10 kg block is 5N.
Final Answer : (2) 5 N

23)

Minimum force required =

24)

The forces acting on the block include :

• Gravitational force along the incline :
mg sinq = 10 × 9.8 × sin30 = 49 N
• Friction force :
ffriction = µmg cosθ = 0.3 × 10 × 9.8 × cos30 ≈ 25.46
The total force required to move the block is:
Ftotal = ma + mg sinθ + ffriction
Ftotal = 10 × 2 + 49 + 25.46 = 20 + 49 + 25.46 Ftotal = 94.46 N

25)

For the limiting condition upward friction force between board and block will balance the
weight of the block.
26) tan θ = µ ⇒ = µ ⇒ 4x = µ ⇒ x = y = 2x2 =

27)

28)
8 kg block does not move
∴ f(between A and B) = 0

29)
F = μ(1g) = 0.4 (10) = 4N

a1 = = backwards

forwards
Urel = 8 – 2 = 6 m/s, arel = 4 + 2 = 6 (backwards)
Vrel = 0
Vrel = Vrel + arel t
O=6–6t
t = 1 sec.
30) after 10 sec , for block A
fK = ma
µkmg = ma

a = µkg ⇒ µk = = 0.5

31) From graph ΔU = 4J from x1 = 2 to x2 = 5

Now ΔK = 4 J

⇒ × 1 × V2 – 0 = 4

⇒ v2 = 4 ⇒

32) F = ⇒ Fv = k

= k ⇒ Fdx = kdt

w=

33)

34)

35)

As x = 2t4 + 5
v = 8t3
At t = 0 vi = 0 m/s
t = 1 vf = 8 m/s

So

36)
By work energy theorem
Total work = ΔKE
Area under (F-x) graph = KEf – KEi

–24 + 60 = KEf – 400

KEf = 436 J

37) Total mechanical energy = mgh. As

∴ K.E.= mgh and P.E. = mgh

∴ Height from the ground at this instant

, and speed of particle at this instant.

38)

U = 3X2 – 6X + 2

At

39)

at (1, 0, –1)

40)

(ωg)M2 + (ωg)M2 + wT = Δk

M2gx – M1gx + 0 =
41)

42)

According to question

= 0.15 m

43)

By work energy theorem,

mgh – µmgℓ = 0

44) P = gh = 100 × 10 × 100 = 105 W

= 100 kW

45) Constant power of car P0 = F.V. = ma.v

CHEMISTRY

46)

47) Which of the following atom that possesses minimum number of neutrons 14C

48) The nucleus occupy much smaller volume as compared to the volume of atom

49)

Question Explanation: Calculate energy of 1 mole of photons given frequency of radiation.

Concept: Energy of photon: E = hν
Solution:
E = hν
E = 6.626 × 10–34 × 5.01 × 1014
Thus the energy of 1 mole
E = 33.19 × 10–20 × 6.023 ×1023
=1.999 × 10⁵ J
= 200 × 10³ J
= 200 kJ mol⁻¹ = 200 kJ/mole
Final Answer : option (3)

50)

Question Explanation: We need to find n for the Paschen series photon with λ = 1285 nm.
Concept : This question is based on Hydrogen spectrum, Paschen series Rydberg formula: v =

3.29 × 1015 (Hz) .

Solution :
Also

n2 = 25 ⇒ n = 5
Final answer : Option 3

51) Rb = [Kr]5s1
n=5
l=0
m=0
s = +½ or –½

52) Asking About :- Correct statements

Concept :- • Wave function ( )
Solution :- • Statement I : The value of wave function, depends upon the coordinates of the
electron in the atom.
• True. the wave function ( ) is a mathematical function that describes the probability
amplitude of finding an electron at a given point in space. IT is a function of the elelctron's
coordinates (x,y, z)
• Statement II :- The probability of finding an electron at a point within an atom is
proportional to the orbital wave function .
• False. The probability of finding an electron at a point is proportional to the square of the
wave function (| |2), not the wave function ( ) itself.
Therefore, statement I is true, and statement II is false.

53)

⇒ E4 = – 82 kJ mol–1

54)

Explain Question : We are to calculate the average atomic mass of Fe using the % abundance
and mass of its isotopes: 54Fe, 56Fe, 57Fe.

Concept : This question is based on Weighted average of isotopic masses.

Solution :
Formula:

Atomic mass =

=
= (270 + 5040 + 285) / 100 = 5595 / 100 = 55.95

Final Answer : option (2)

55)

z=1

On solving, we get

56)
E = E1 + E2

57)

First line of Balmer series for Z = 1

n1 = 2, n2 = 1 + 2 = 3

7600 = R ...(i)
First line of Balmer series for Li2+ (Z = 3)
n1 = 2 and n2 = 1 + 2 = 3

...(ii)
Equation (i) divide (ii)

= 68400 cm–1

58) (iii) E = 13.6 × Z2 = 13.6 × 22

59)
For shortest wavelength, ΔE should be maximum.

60) There is a characteristic minimum frequency, or “threshold frequency,” for each metal
below which the photoelectric effect is not seen. The ejected electrons leave with a specific
amount of kinetic energy at a frequency with an increase in light frequency of these
electron kinetic energies also rise.

61) For 2s, number of radial nodes = 2 – 0 – 1 = 1 and value of ψ2 is always positive.

62)

63)

Question explanation:
Identify the correct relation(s) as per Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle among the given
options.

Concept:

This question is based on Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to

measure simultaneously and precisely both quantities of certain pairs like position-momentum
or energy-time.

Solution:

Option 1: - This is the standard form of the uncertainty principle for position
and momentum.

Option 2: - This is the uncertainty relation for energy and time.

Option 3: - Since Δp = m. Δv, dividing the first expression by m gives this

correct form.

All three are mathematically correct and consistent with Heisenberg's principle.

Final answer: Option 4: All of the above

64)

Question Explanation
 We need Δp when uncertainty in position (Δx) = uncertainty in momentum (Δp).

Concept
Heisenberg uncertainty principle: Δx × Δp ≥ h / 4π.

SOLUTION

If Δx = Δp, then (Δp)² ≥ h / 4π.

So, Δp ≥ 1/2 √(h/π).

Final Answer – option 3.

65)

Explaining : me = 9.1×10–31 kg ; V = 600 m/s ; ΔV = 0.005 %

Δx = ? ΔV = = 0.03 m/s

Concept : This question is based on m.ΔV.Δx = ;

9.1 × 10 × 0.03 × Δx 0.527 × 10
–31 –34

Solution : Δx = 0.527 × 10–34 / (9.1 × 10–31 × 0.03) = 1.93×10–3 m

Final Answer : (2)

66) Question Explanation : We are given the uncertainty in velocity (Δv) as 0.005 % of 600
m/s and asked to calculate the uncertainty in position (Δx) of an electron using Heisenberg's
uncertainty principle.

Concept : Heisenberg's uncertainty principle :

Where Δp = m.Δv
So,

Solution :

Answer -3 1.9 × 10–3 m

Final Answer : Option (2)

67)

Explain Question : We need to match each principle/law with its correct statement from the
columns.

Concept : Quantum mechanical principles and their significance.

Solution :
(Α) |Ψ|2 → Probability of finding an electron → (r)
(B) De Broglie → Wave character of moving objects → (s)
(C) Heisenberg → Significant only for microscopic particles (uncertainty principle) → (q)
(D) Planck's → Energy in discrete packets (quanta) - (p)

Correct match: A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

Final Answer : option (3)

68)

69)

70)

Electronic config. of Cr = 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s1 for electrons with n + m = 3 in Cr there are 3

possibilities.
(i) n = 2, m = +1 ⇒ for two 2p electrons
(ii) n = 3, m = 0 ⇒ for two 3s electrons + two 3p electrons + one 3d electron.
(iii) n = 4, m = –1 ⇒ no electron of this type
therefore totally 7 electrons are in Cr with n + m = 3

71) Explain Question: Arrange the given isoelectronic ions in order of increasing size.
Concept: This question is based on Ionic Radii
Solution: All species have 10 electrons. For isoelectronic ions, radius decreases as nuclear
charge (protons) increases. Cations are smaller than anions, so Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–.
 Atomic/Ionic Radius ∝
Final Answer : 2

72) Question Explanation : Identify which of the given elements requires the most energy to
remove an electron.
Concept: Ionization Potential Trends
Solution: Ionization potential increases across a period and decreases down a group.
Nitrogen has an
exceptionally high value due to its stable, half-filled p-orbital, making it the highest among the
options.
Final Answer: Option (3)

73) Beryllium has a very low electron affinity due to stable electronic configuration, and
adding an electron to it requires energy, making this process endothermic (energy is
absorbed).

74)

Explain Question : Arrange the lead atom and its positive ions by decreasing size.

Concept : This question is based on Ionic Radius.

Solution : Cations are always smaller than their neutral parent atoms. As positive charge
increases, the nucleus pulls the remaining electrons closer, thus further decreasing the ionic
size. So, the correct order is Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+

Final Answer : option (2)

75)

In carbon family, the valence shell/outermost shell (nth) has total of four electrons
Two electrons in S-subshell and Two electrons in p-subshell.
Therefore their outermost shell configuration will be ns2 np2

76) Explain Question : Predict the first ionization energy of phosphorus from given values.
Concept : This question is based on Half-filled Stability.
Solution : Phosphorus has a stable, half-filled 3p orbital ([Ne] 3s23p3). This extra stability
means its ionization
energy is exceptionally high, even higher than sulfur.
Final Answer : 1

77) NCERT Pg.# 87

78)
 IE3 > IE2 > IE1
IE2 must be in between
IE1 & IE3

79) NCERT, Pg. # 78

80) NCERT XI, Part-I, Chapter - Periodic table Pg # 87-88

81) Explain Question: Find the statement that is factually incorrect among the given choices.
Concept: This question is based on Group and period identification.
Solution: Bromine (Br, atomic number 35) has 7 valence electrons (4s24p5), placing it in
Group 17, the halogen family. The statement incorrectly places it in Group 16.
Final Answer: 4

82) Explain Question: Identify which compound reacts strongly with potassium oxide (K2O).
Concept: This question is based on nature of oxide.
Solution: Potassium oxide (K2O) is a basic oxide. It reacts vigorously with carbon dioxide
(CO2), an acidic oxide, in a classic acid-base neutralization reaction.
Final Answer: 2

83) EA order = Cl > F > Br > I

84) Concept:

A. Oxyacids: Acids containing oxygen.

B. Acidity of Oxyacids: The acidity of oxyacids increases with the increasing oxidation state of
the central atom.
C. Oxidation State: The degree of oxidation (loss of electrons) of an atom in a chemical
compound.

Formula:

A. No specific formula, but understanding the relationship between oxidation state and acidity.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Determine the oxidation sate of chlorine (Cl) in each oxyacid:

A. ​HClO: Cl has an oxidation state of +1.
B. HClO2: Cl has an oxidation state of +3
C. HClO3: Cl has an oxidation state of +5.
D. HClO4: Cl has oxidation state of +7.
B. ​ Arrange the oxyacids with increasing oxidation state:
A. ​HClO (+1) < HClO2 (+3) < HClO3 (+5) < HClO4 (+7)
C. Acidity increases with increasing oxidation state:
A. ​Therefore, the correct order of acidity is:
A. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
 85) At no. difference is same between the sucessive members of each group.

86) Explain Question : Identify the substance that can react with both acid and base.
Concept : This question is based on Amphoteric Oxide.
Solution : Amphoteric substances react with both acids and bases. Aluminum hydroxide,
Al(OH)3, reacts with
acids and strong bases, unlike the other acidic ( SO3 & CO2 ) or basic (NaOH) options.
Final Answer : 4

87) O–2 has larger size than F– due to its lower ENC value.

88) Remains constant

89) ns2 np6

90) Noble gas

BOTANY

92)

94)

NCERT Pg # 229

95) NCERT Pg # 156

96) NCERT (XIth) Pg. (E) # 228, (2nd Last Para)

97) NCERT XI Pg. # 226

98)

New Ncert page 156, 159 and 160.

99)
100)

101)

102)

104) NCERT Pg.# 233

105)

107)

108)

Module 3 Page no 195 [Link] 21

109)

110)

NCERT Page no - 229, 231, 232

111)

NCERT XI Pg # 229, 232

For 4 glucose molecules there will be four glycolysis and eight krebs cycles.
Glycolysis = 2 ATP × 4 = 8 ATP
Krebs cycle = 1 GTP (ATP) × 8 = 8 ATP
4 लूकोज अणु ओं के िलए चार लाइकोिलिसस एवं आठ ेस च।
लाइकोिलिसस = 2 ATP × 4 = 8 ATP
ेस च = 1 GTP (ATP) × 8 = 8 ATP

113) NCERT pg # 161

114)

115)

116)

NCERT Page No. 163

118)

120)

121)

NCERT XI, Page # 160

123)

124)

125) It does not involve any decarboxylation step.

127)

NCERT pg no.160

128)

129)
 130)

131)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 230

132)

133) Explanation:
In glycolysis, 2 ATP molecules are consumed or utilized during the following steps:
1. Step 1: Glucose is converted to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme hexokinase, consuming
1 ATP.
2. Step 2: Fructose-6-phosphate is converted to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate by the enzyme
phosphofructokinase, consuming 1 ATP.
Correct Ans. (1)

134)

135)

ZOOLOGY

136)

137)

138)

139)
140)

141)

142) NCERT Pg. # 120

143) Module Pg.# 159

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 82

149)

Question Explanation: Main divisions of a frog's body.

Concept: Frog Morphology

Solution: The body of a frog is divisible into two main parts : the head and the trunk. It lacks
a distinct neck or tail

Final Answer: Option (2)

150)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement about frogs.

Concept: Frog Characteristics.
Solution: Frogs are poikilothermic (cold-blooded) animals. This means their body temperature
fluctuates and is not constant; it changes with the temperature of the surrounding
environment.
Final Answer: Option (1)

156)

158)

159)
160)

161)

162)

163)

Explain Question : correct match for following options

Concept : This question is based on epithelial tissue

Solution : Simple squamous epithelium is present in Bowman's capsule

Final Answer : option (3)

164) Question Explanation :

The question is asking to correctly match types of cell junctions (Column I) with their
respective functions (Column II)

Concept :
This question is based on Types of cell junctions and their functions.

Solution :
a. Adhering junctions – These help to bind adjacent cells together → Match with 2
b. Gap Junction – These allow exchange of ions and communication between adjacent cells. →
Match with 3.
c. Tight Junction – These prevent leakage of substances between cells. → Match with 1

Final Answer :
Option (2)

165)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

166)

The correct answer is 4. All of the above.

 Here's why:

1. The squamous epithelium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary: This is
correct.

2. The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption: This is also
correct.

3. The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the
epithelium: This is correct as well.

167)

Explain Question: The Diagram given below represent?

Concept: This question is based on Specialised C.T.

Solution:

A – Cartilage

B – Bone
Final Answer: (4)

168) NCERT pg. # 113

169) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113, 114

170)

171)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

172)

173)

175)
176) NCERT (E) Pg.#111

177)

NCERT 11th Page # 111, 112

180)