22-11-2025

6001CMD30302225GRIP006 MD

PHYSICS

1) In the figure shown, A is a fixed charged. B (of mass m) is given a velocity V perpendicular to line

AB. At this moment the radius of curvature of the resultant path of B is :

(1) 0
(2) ∞ (infinity)

(3)

(4) r

2) A positively charged sphere of radius r0 carries a volume charge density ρ (Figure). A spherical
cavity of radius r0/2 is then scooped out and left empty, as shown. What is the direction and
magnitude of the electric field at point B?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A non conducting sphere of radius 'a' has a net charge '+q' uniformly distributed throughout its
volume. A hollow spherical conductor having inner and outer, radii 'b' and 'c' and net charge '–q' is
concentric with the sphere (see the figure)

Read the following statements (i) The electric field at a distance r from the

centre of the sphere = for r < a

(ii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for a < r < b = 0
 (iii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for b < r < c = 0
(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the hollow sphere = –q
(v) The charge on the outer surface of the hollow sphere = +q
Which of the above statements are true ?

(1) (i) , (ii) and (v)

(2) (i) , (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) , (iii) and (v)

4) A charge Q is placed at the center of a cylinder of radius R and length as shown. Find out the

electric flux through the curved surface of the cylinder.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Refer to the arrangement of charges in figure and a Gaussian surface of radius R with Q at the

centre. Then :-

(1)
Total flux through the surface of the sphere is
Field on the surface of the sphere is
(2)

(3) Flux through the surface of sphere due to 5Q is zero

(4) Field on the surface of sphere due to –2Q is same everywhere
6) A charged wire of density 8.85 μC/m is passed through a sphere of radius 5m at a distance 3m

from centre. as shown in fig then flux passing through the sphere will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

7) Two equal positive point charges are kept at points A and B. The electric potential, while moving
from A to B along straight line :

(1) continuously increases

(2) remains constant
(3) decreases then increases
(4) increases then decreases

8) Figure shows a solid metal sphere of radius a surrounded by a concentric thin metal shell of
radius 2a. Initially both are having charges Q each. When the two are connected by a conducting
wire as shown in figure, then amount of heat produced in this process will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Figure shows parallel equipotential surfaces and four paths along which an electron is made to
move from one surface to another as shown. Rank the paths according to work done, greatest first.
(1) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(2) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(3) 3 = 4 > 2 = 1
(4) 2 = 1 > 3 = 4

10) A charge q is uniformly distributed on the surface of a disc of radius R. Then a circular hole of
radius R/2 is punched taking one of the radii as the diameter of the hole. Calculate the potential V

due to remaining portion of the disc at the center of the disc.

(1) V = 2V0
(2) V = V0
(3) V = 3V0

(4)

11) Figure shows an electric line of force which curves along a circular arc. The magnitude of
electric field intensity is same at all points on this curve and is equal to E. If the potential at A is V,

then the potential at B is :

(1) V – ERθ

(2)

(3) V + ERθ
V + 2ER sin
(4)

12) The electic potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = – x2 y – xz3 + 4. The electric field at that
point is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
13) Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as ρ(r) =

0
ρ upto r = R, and ρ(r) = 0 for r > R, where r is the distance from the origin. The electric
potential at a distance R from the origin is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric field produced by a point charge placed at P
as shown in figure. Let VA , VB , VC be the potentials at point A , B and C respectively due to sphere.

Then :-

(1) VC > VB
(2) VB > VA
(3) VA > VB
(4) VA = VC

15) Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R are given charges Q1, Q2, Q3,
respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are
equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the shells Q1 : Q2 : Q3, is :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 : 9
(4) 1 : 8 : 18

16) A point electric dipole of moment C-m is kept in an electric field then:-

(1)
Force on the dipole =

(2)
Torque on the dipole = 8 N-m
(3) Their interactional potential energy = +6 J
(4) All of the above are correct
17) Two point dipoles are located at (0, 0, 0) and (1m, 0, 2m) respectively. The resultant
electric field due to the two dipoles at the point (1m, 0, 0) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

18) A point particle of mass M is attached to one end of a massless rigid non-conducting rod of
length L. Another point particle of same mass is attached to the other end of the rod. The two
particles carry charges +q and & –q respectively. This arrangement is held in a region of uniform
0
electric field E such that the rod makes a small angle θ (< 5 ) with the field direction. The minimum
time needed for the rod to become parallel to the field after it is set free.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following expressions represents a farad ?

(1) Joule/volt
(2) Volt / coulomb
(3) Coulomb/volt
(4) Coulomb/joule

20) Choose the correct option :

(1)
The capacitance of spherical capacitor is

(2)
The energy density between plates of capacitor is .

(3)
The force between plates of parallel plate capacitor is .

(4)
The capacitance of cylindrical capacitor is .
21) Statement–A:– The total charge on the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is zero.

Statement–B:– The electric field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is , where is
surface charge density. Select the correct option.

(1) Both statement A and B are correct

(2) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

22) A charge Q is given to a parallel plate capacitor. The energy density between the plates is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

23) If the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor (without a source) are moved apart from each
other, then
A. the voltage across it, increases.
B. the energy stored in it, decreases.
C. its capacitance decreases.
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. the product of charge and voltage increases.
Choose the most appropriate correct statement from the options given below :

(1) B, C and E only

(2) A, C and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

24) A charge of 20µC is placed on the positive plate of an isolated parallel-plate capacitor of
capacitance 10µF then potential developed between the plates :-

(1) 1V
(2) 2V
(3) 3V
(4) 4V

25) A solid conducting sphere of radius a has a net positive charge 2Q. A conducting spherical shell
of inner radius b and outer radius c is concentric with the solid sphere and has a net charge -Q. The
surface charge density on the inner and outer surfaces of the spherical shell will be:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

26) The capacitance of spherical capacitor is 1 μF. If the separation between the two spherical shells
is 1 mm. The radius of outer shell is nearly

(1) 30 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 2 m
(4) 3 m

27) A cylindrical capacitor has charge Q and length L. If both the charge and the length of the
capacitor are doubled by keeping the other parameters fixed, then the energy stored in the capacitor

(1) Remains same

(2) Increases to two times
(3) Decreases to two times
(4) Increases to four times

28)

In a cylindrical capacitor with plate radii a and b, the potential difference between them is V. The
electric field between the plates at the radial distance r from axis is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is-

(1) 2 μF
(2) 4 μF
(3) 6 μF
(4) 8 μF

30) A finite ladder is constructed by connecting several section of 3μF, 6μF capacitor combinations
as shown. The value of C such that the equivalent capacitance of ladder between the points A and B

become independent of number of sections in between :

(1) 2 μF
(2) 4 μF
(3) 6 μF
(4) 8 μF

31) The capacitance of the system is C. If the key is closed, the total energy loss is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

32) Two capacitor of capacitances 30 μF and 60 μF are connected in parallel to a supply of 100 V.
Energy stored in the above combination is E. When these capacitors are connected in series to the
same supply, the stored energy is: -
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a parallel plate

capacitor but has a thickness , where d is the separation of the plates. The ratio of the
capacitance C (in the presence of the dielectric) to the capacitance C0 (in the absence of the
dielectric) is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) 1000 small water drops each of radius r and charge q coalesce together to form one spherical
drop. The potential of the big drop is larger than that of the smaller drop by a factor of : -

(1) 1000
(2) 100
(3) 10
(4) 1

35) A parallel plate capacitor, partially filled with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, is
connected with a cell of emf V volt, as shown in the figure. Separation between the plates is D. Then

(1) electric field at point P is less than that at point P′.

(2) electric field at point P′ is less than that at point P.
(3) electric fields at points P and P′ are equal

(4)
electric field at point P is E = .

36) In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 30V is applied across AB. The potential difference
between the points M and N is :
(1) 10 V
(2) 15V
(3) 20V
(4) 30V

37) In the circuit shown in the figure C = 6 μF. The charge stored in capacitor of capacity C is : -

(1) zero
(2) 90 μC
(3) 40 μC
(4) 60 μC

38) Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its dielectric can withstand a maximum
electric field of 106 V/m. The plate area is 10–4 m2. What is the dielectric constant if the capacitance
is 15 pF? (given ε0 = 8.86 × 10–12 C2/Nm2)

(1) 3.8
(2) 8.5
(3) 4.5
(4) 6.2

39) Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants k1 and k2(k1 < k2) are inserted between plates of
a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field E between the plates
with distance d as measured from plate P is correctly shown by
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Two identical metal plates are given positive charges Q1 and Q2 (< Q1) respectively. If they are
brought close together to form a parallel plate capacitor with capacitance C, the potential difference
between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Find common potential if plates of same polarities are connected with each other

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A light bulb, a capacitor and a battery are connected together as shown here, with switch S
initially open. When the switch S is closed, which one of the following is true :-

(1) The bulb will light up for an instant when the capacitor starts charging.
(2) The bulb will light up when the capacitor is fully charged.
(3) The bulb will not light up at all
(4) The bulb will light up and go off at regular intervals.

43) Figure shows an uncharged capacitor connected in series with a resistor R and ideal battery. At t
= 0 switch Sw is closed and it is observed that when charge on capacitor is 75% of maximum value

then current in the circuit is 1A, then value of R is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) can’t be determined

44) When the key K is pressed at time t = 0. Which of the following statements about the current i in

the resistor AB of the adjoining circuit is true ?

(1) i = 2 mA at all t
(2) i oscillates between 1 mA and 2 mA
(3) i = 1 mA at all t
(4) At t = 0, i = 2 mA and with time it goes to 1 mA

45) A capacitor of is connected as shown in the circuit. The internal resistance of the battery is

. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates will be :

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of following order is incorrect :-

(1) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 (Thermal stability)

(2) LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH (Solubility in water)
(3) Number of paramagnetic gases evolved on heating Na2CO3 < KNO3 < Be(NO3)2
(4) H2 < D2 < T2 (Boiling point)

2) Select the correct IUPAC name for [Cr(η6 – C6H6)2] :-

(1) bis (η5 – benzene) chromium (0)

(2) bis (η5 – benzene) chromate (0)
(3) bis (η6 – benzene) chromate (0)
(4) bis (η6 – benzene) chromium (0)

3) Consider the following statements

S1 : [Cr (NH3)6]3+ is a inner orbital complex with crystal field stabilization energy equal to – 1.2 Δ0
S2 : The complex formed by joining the CN– ligands to Fe3+ ion has theoretical value of ‘spin only’
magnetic moment equal to 1.73 B.M.
S3 : Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS],
In reactant and product the oxidation states of iron are same
arrange in the order of true/false.

(1) F T F
(2) T T F
(3) T T T
(4) F F F

4) Magnetic moments of Cr (Z = 24), Mn+ (Z = 25) and Fe2+ (Z = 26) are x, y and z respectively.
Which of the following order is correct ?

(1) x < y < z

(2) x = y < z
(3) z < x = y
(4) x = y = z

5) A reagent used for identifying nickel ion is :-

(1) Potassium ferrocyanide

(2) Phenolphthalein
(3) Dimethyl glyoxime
(4) EDTA

6) CuSO4 + KI → CuI2, CuI2 —→ Cu2I2 + I2, I2 Na2S4O6 + NaI

in this reaction. Which of the following product does not exist :-

(1) CuI2
(2) Cu2I2
(3) Na2S4O6
(4) All

7) Which of following isomers of [M(NH3)2Cl2] would react with silver oxalate (Ag2C2O4) ?

(1)

(2)

(3) Both
(4) None

8) Strongest CO bond is present in :-

–
(1) [V(CO)6]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
 +
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
(4) None of above

9) Which is not a π-bonded complex ?

(1) Zeise salt

(2) Ferrocene
(3) Bis (benzene) chromium
(4) Tetraethyl lead

10) Which order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding [Ni(dmg)2] ?

(1) Ni+2 gives rosy red ppt with dmg–1

(2) It is dsp2 hybridized
(3) Total no. of chelating rings are 4
(4) All rings are 6 membered.

12) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

–
(1) CN , NH3
– –
(2) NO2 , SCN
(3) H2O, en
(4) en, dien

13) Coordination number of calcium is six in :-

(1) [Ca(EDTA)]2–
(2) CaC2O4
2–
(3) [Ca(C2O4)2]
(4) CaSO4.4H2O

14) Which of the following order of stability is incorrect ?

– +3 +3
(1) [Fe(EDTA)] > [Fe(en)3] > [Fe(NH3)6]
–3 –3 +3
(2) [Fe(CN)6] > [Fe(C2O4)3] > [Fe(H2O)6]
+2 –2
(3) [Ni(en)2] > [Ni(DMG)2] > [NiCl4]
+3 +3 +3
(4) [Co(H2O)6] < [Rh(H2O)6] < [Ir(H2O)6]
15) Which of the following ligand has strongest field ?

(1) CO
(2) I–
(3) Br–
(4) NH3

16) Match column I & II & select correct relation :-

Column-I Column-II

Estimation of
(A) (i) Cis-Platin
hardness of water

(B) Detection of nickel (ii) EDTA–4

(C) Electro plating (iii) DMG

–
(D) Treatment of cancer (iv) [Ag(CN)2]
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

17) A, B and C are possible complexes of CoCl3.6H2O. A shows maximum electrical conductance and
C has maximum percentage of nonionisable Cl– and shows conductivity Then incorrect statement is :-

(1) No weight loss, when A is treated with conc, H2SO4

(2) Order of number of moles of AgCl ppt on adding excess AgNO3 solution is A > B > C
(3) Complex C is [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O
(4) Complex B is [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O

18)

Which of the following is most stable complex ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NH3)5 (NO2)]Cl2 is :

(1) Nitrito-N-pentaammine cobalt (III) chloride

(2) Nitrito-N-pentaammine cobalt (II) chloride
(3) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride
(4) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
20) The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) in units of Δ0 for [CoF3(H2O)3] is :-

(1) 0
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.8
(4) 1.8

21) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls possesses both σ and π character.
Reason (R) : The ligand to metal bond is a π bond and metal to ligand bond is a σ bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

22) Which of the following is not incorrect ?

–2
(1) [NiCl4(NH3)2] → geometrical isomerism
(2) [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] → Fac-mer isomerism
(3) CoCl3.6H2O → Hydrate isomerism possible
(4) 1 & 3 both

23) N(CH2CH2NH2)3 ligand is :-

(1) Bidentate
(2) Tridentate
(3) Tetradentate
(4) Pentadentate

24)

Select the correct match :

d-orbitals having
Complex
highest energy

(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– dxy,

(2) [NiCl4]2–

(3) [Cr(en)3]Cl3

(4) [PtCl4]–2 dxy, dyz, dxz

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) For the system, the value of magnetic moment (µ) is :-

(1) 2.83 B.M.

(2) 1.73 B.M.
(3) 3.87 B.M.
(4) 4.92 B.M.

26) Assertion: [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.

Reason: d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

27)

List-I List-II
Coordination entity Wavelength of light absorbed in nm

(A) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (I) 310

(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (II) 475

(C) [Co(CN)6]3– (III) 535

(D) [Cu(H2O)4]2– (IV) 600

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

28) Consider the following complexes.

(i) K2PtCl6 (ii) PtCl4·2NH3
(iii) PtCl4·3NH3 (iv) PtCl4·5NH3
Their electrical conductances in aqueous solution are

(1) 256, 0, 97, 404

(2) 404, 0, 97, 256
(3) 256, 97, 0, 404
(4) 404, 97, 256, 0
29) The magnitude of CFSE (crystal field splitting energy, Δ0) can be related to the configuration of
d-orbitals in a coordination entity as [for a d4 configuration] :-

(1) If Δ < P, electronic configuration → for weak field ligand. High spin complex, unpaired
0

electrons = 4

(2) If Δ > P, Electronic configuration → , strong field ligand. Low spin complex, unpaired
0

electrons = 4

(3) If Δ > P, Electronic configuration → , Strong field ligand. High spin complex, unpaired
0

electrons = 2

(4) If Δ = P, Electronic configuration → , strong field ligand high spin complex, unpaired
0

electrons = 4

30) The colour of the complex

[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O is green. The absorption of light corresponds to the wavelength of colour :-

(1) Violet
(2) Blue
(3) Green
(4) Red

31) Arrange the following cobalt complexes in the order of increasing crystal field
stabilisation energy (CFSE) value.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) B < A < C < D
(3) B < C < D < A
(4) C < D < B < A

32) In octahedral complex central metal ion is Fe+3. In presence of strong field ligand it shows
paramagnetic character due to presence of :-

(1) 5 unpaired e–
(2) 3 unpaired e–
(3) 2 unpaired e–
(4) 1 unpaired e–

33) Some statement are given below–

(a) Coordination compounds [Pt(NH3)3(NCS)] and [Pt(NH3)3(SCN)] are examples of linkage
isomerism
(b) In the coordination compound K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation state of nickel is zero.
(c) The hybridization, shape and magnetic moment of K3[Cu(CN)4] are respectively dsp2, square
planar, 1.73 B.M.
(d) [Cr(NCS)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4] exhibits only Linkage isomerism

(1) only a, b, c are correct

(2) only a, b are correct
(3) only b, c, d are correct
(4) All are correct

34) Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammonical

Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry.

(2) Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand.
(3) Red complex has a square planar geometry.
(4) Complex has symmetrical H-bonding.

35) A complex containing K+, Pt(IV) and Cl¯ is 100% ionised giving i = 3. Thus, complex is:

(1) K2[PtCl4]
(2) K2[PtCl6]
(3) K3[PtCl5]
(4) K[PtCl3]

36) The following complexes are given :-

(A) trans-[Co(NH3)4I2]+
(B) cis-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(C) trans-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(D) [NiI4]2–
(E) [TiF6]2–
(F) [CoF6]3–
Choose the correct statement :

(1) D, E are coloured ; F is colourless

(2) B is optically active ; A, C are optically inactive
(3) A, B are optically active ; C optically inactive
(4) D is coloured ; E, F are colourless

37) How many stereoisomers are possible for [Pt (en)2 Cl2]+ ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4
38) Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism :-

(1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(2) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
2+
(3) [Ni(en)3]
+2
(4) [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]

39) Spin only magnetic moment for [MnBr4]2– is:- (in BM)

(1) 2.92
(2) 3.92
(3) 4.92
(4) 5.90

40) The complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ is formed in Brown ring test for nitrates select correct statement
for the complex ?

(1) Hybridisation of Fe is sp3d2

(2) Fe and NO has +1 oxidation state
(3) It has spin only magnetic moment of 3.87 B.M.
(4) All are correct

41) In which of the following pair, the EAN of central metal atom is not same :-

–3 +3
(1) [Fe(CN)6] and [Fe(NH3)6]
+3 –3
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] and [Cr(CN)6]
–3 –3
(3) [FeF6] and [Fe(CN)6]
–2
(4) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]

42) Which of the following is correct about splitting of d-orbitals in square planar complex,
considering only axial e– density get affected by field of ligand?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43) Assertion : Transition metal ion forming octahedral complexes undergo sp3d2 or
d2sp3 hybridisation.
Reason : Strong field ligands force the unpaired electrons of central metal ion to pair up causing
d2sp3 hybridisation whereas weak field ligands do not affect electronic configuration of the metal ion
undergoes in sp3d2 hybridisation.

(1) If assertion is true but the reason is false

(2) If assertion is false but reason is true
(3) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(4) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

44) Which of the following complex ion is most stable :-

(1) K2[Ni(EDTA)]
(2) [Pt(en)2]Cl2
(3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(4) K3[Cr(C2O4)3]

45) Isomerism exhibited by [Cr(NH3)2(H2O)2Cl2]+ are :-

(1) Ionisation, optical

(2) Hydrate, optical
(3) Geometrical, optical
(4) Coordinate, geometrical

BOTANY

1) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) [Link]
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

2) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) DNA is an acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion How many of above statements are
correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
3) Given below structure represent :-

(1) Nucleotide of DNA

(2) Nucleotide of RNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA
(4) Nucleoside of RNA

4) 6-aminopurine is one of the component common in DNA and RNA and it is :-

(1) Guanine
(2) Adenine
(3) Uracil
(4) Thymine

5) Adenine + Ribose + Phosphate form :

(1) Adenosine
(2) Adenylic acid
(3) Adenosine diphosphate
(4) Adenosine triphosphate

6) If a DNA molecule contain 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases, the total number of nucleotides in
this DNA fragment is:-

(1) 120
(2) 240
(3) 60
(4) 480

7) Which DNA molecule among the following will melt at lowest temperature :-

(1) 5'-A-A-T-G-C-T-G-C-3' 3'-T-T-A-C-G-A-C-G-5

(2) 5'-A-A-T-A-A-A-G-A-3' 3'-T-T-A-T-T-T-C-T-5'
(3) 5'-G-C-A-T-A-G-C-T-3' 3'C-G-T-A-T-C-G-A-5'
(4) 5'-A-T-T-C-T-G-A-T-3' 3'-T-A-A-G-A-C-T-A-5'

8) Which of the following pair is incorrect :-

(1) Peptide bond – between amino acid

(2) Phosphodiester bond – between Nucleotides
(3) H-bond – between nucleosides
(4) Glycosidic bond – between two monosaccharide

9) Nucleic acid is polymer of monomer 'A'. In structure of 'A', phosphate is always attach with which
carbon of carbohydrate :-

(1) 5th
(2) 2nd
(3) 3rd
(4) 4th

10)

No. of Nucleotide
Organism
and Base Pair

(i) ϕ × 174 A 4.6 × 106 bp

(ii) Lambda bacteriophage B 3.3 × 109 bp

(iii) [Link] C 5386 Nucleotide

(iv) Human D 48502 bp

Following match is correct

(1) i = D, ii = C, iii = B, iv = A
(2) i = B, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B
(3) i = A, ii = D, iii = C, iv = B
(4) i = C, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B

11) Which is the transcriptionally inactive chromatin ?

(1) Euchromatin
(2) Heterochromatin
(3) Loosely packed chromatin
(4) Both (2) and (3)

12) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of nucleic acid identify the parts labelled A, B, C & D
and select the right option about it :-
 Part A Part B Part C Part D

Phospho Hydrogen Nitrogenous Pentose

(1)
diester bond bond base sugar

Hydrogen Phospho Pentose Nitrogenous

(2)
bond diester bond sugar base

Nitrogenous Pentose Phospho Hydrogen

(3)
base sugar diester bond bond

Pentose Nitrogenous Hydrogen Phospho

(4)
sugar base bond diester bond
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Given below are the two statement :-

Statement-I :- A typical nucleosome contains 200bp of DNA helix.
Statement-II :- There are 3.3 × 107 nucleosome present in a mammalian cell.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

14)
(A) Histone octamer is made up of 5 types of Histone protein
(B) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA Helix
(C) Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called as histone octamer
(D) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

15) Enzyme, that does not participate in the process of DNA-replication in prokayotes :-

(1) DNA ligase

(2) DNA topoisomerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) DNA polymerase

16) Viruses having RNA genome evolve faster, because :-

(1) RNA is unstable and mutate at a faster rate

(2) RNA is more stable
(3) RNA is first genetic material
(4) RNA is the main genetic material

17) Which one is true among the following for DNA replication :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Which of the following is true for RNA processing ?

 Exons are excised before the m-RNA
(1)
processing
Assemblies of protein and snRNPs, called
(2)
spliceosomes, may catalyze splicing
The RNA transcript that leaves the nucleus
(3) may be much longer than the original
transcript
Large quantities of r-RNA are assembled
(4)
into ribosomes

19) Which statement is true for transcription?

(1) Both strands of DNA are copied during transcription

(2) The total DNA of an organism gets transcribes
(3) Only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase enzyme catalyses process of transcription

20) In a transcription unit the terminator is located towards.

(1) 3' end of the coding strand

(2) 5' end of the coding strand
(3) 3' end of the template strand
(4) All the above

21) E. coli bacteria were grown on heavy nitrogen medium for several generation and then
transfered to normal or light nitrogen source. What must be the number of pure heavy DNA
molecules after four generations on light nitrogen medium ?

(1) Zero
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Eight

22) Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?

(1) Ribosomal RNA – Carries amino acid to the site of protein synthesis
(2) Transcription – Process by which protein is synthesised
(3) Translation – Process by which DNA carries information from the nucleus to ribosomes
(4) Anticodon – Site of a tRNA molecule that binds to the mRNA molecule

23) Which of the following is false about tRNA?

(1) It is synthesised by RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes

(2) The actual structure of the molecule is like clover leaf
(3) It has an anti-codon loop that has bases complementary to code
(4) It acts as adapter molecule
24) An operon have :-

(1) A group of bacterial structural genes that are transcribed together.

(2) A group of structural genes controlled by different promoter
(3) Monocistronic structural genes controlled by common promoter.
(4) Part of biotechnology

25) Which of the following is involved in translation :-

(1) Only m-RNA

(2) m-RNA , t-RNA
(3) m-RNA, t-RNA, r-RNA
(4) Only DNA

26) Which of the following rRNA acts as structural as well as ribozyme in eukaryote :-

(1) 23s rRNA

(2) 18s rRNA
(3) 5.8s rRNA
(4) 28s rRNA

27) 5'GUGUUUACAGAGAUG3' is a sequence of transcribed mRNA. What will be the corresponding

sequence of the coding strand of a gene ?

(1) 5' GTGTTTACAGAGATG 3'

(2) 5' CACAAATGTCTCTAC 3'
(3) 3' GTGTTTACAGAGATG 5'
(4) 3' CACAAATGTCTCTAC 5'

28) Which of the following structure is incorrectly paired with its function ?

A site of tRNA at which activated amino acid

(1) 5' end of t-RNA :
bind

(2) UTRs : Required for efficient translation process

A site in lac operon at which RNA polymerase

(3) Promoter :
bind

Required for binding of m-RNA to smaller sub

(4) Capped-hnRNA :
unit of 80s ribosome
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) The enzyme primase is a :

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase

30) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the lists

List-I List-II

a Ligase Join short segment of DNA together

b DNA polymerase Cuts protein at specific spequence

Breaks the hydrogen bonds between

c Helicase
complementary pairs during DNA replication
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) a and b are correct but c is false
(3) a is correct but b and c are false
(4) a and c are correct but b is false

31) Choose the correct steps in the organisation of eukaryotic chromosome:-

(1) Chromatin → Solenoid → Nucleosome

(2) DNA → Solenoid → Nucleosome
(3) Solenoid → Nucleosome → Chromatid
(4) Nucleosome → Solenoid → Super solenoid → Chromatid

32) Shine Dalgarno sequence is present in :-

(1) Smaller sub-unit of ribosome.

(2) DHU-loop of t-RNA.
(3) 5'-UTR of m-RNA.
(4) Larger sub-unit of ribosome.

33) In [Link] rho–factor is required for:-

(1) Initiation of transcription at specific site

(2) Initiation of transcription at many site
(3) Termination of transcription.
(4) Termination of translation at many sites

34) The 3'–end of t–RNA is characterized by:-

(1) UAG
(2) CCA
(3) UAA
(4) Guanine
35) The distance between two base pairs in the DNA helix is approximately:

(1) 0.34 nm
(2) 3.4 nm
(3) 1.0 nm
(4) 2.0 nm

36) The repressor protein of lac operon is synthesized as:-

(1) Always active

(2) Always inactive
(3) Sometimes active
(4) Sometimes inactive

37) Expressed Sequence Tages (ESTs) refers to :-

(1) Genes expressed as RNA

(2) Lipid expression
(3) DNA polymorphism
(4) Novel DNA sequences

38) Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products.

(a) i gene (i) β-galactosidase

(b) z gene (ii) Permease

(c) a gene (iii) Repressor

(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Which of the following options is correct for Chargaff’s equivalency rule?

(1) Purines Pyrimidines

(2) A + G = T + C
(3) A + U = G + C
(4) A + T / G + C = Constant for all species

40) Highest number of genes are found on :-

(1) X Chromosome
(2) Y Chromosome
(3) Chromosome -1
(4) Chromosome -22

41) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In lac operon the repressor protein binds to the promotor region of the operon and
prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.
Statement II : Regulation of lac operon can also be visualized as regulation of enzyme synthesis by
its substrate.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

42) Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements.
(A) Male sex chromosome (Y) has fewest genes and most genes are present on chromosome-1
(B) Largest known human gene is dystrophin
(C) In human genome project, the fragments of DNA sequenced using automated DNA sequencers
that worked on the principle of a method developed by Frederick Meischer.
(D) In Eukaryotes, the polycistronic structural genes do not have inervening sequence along with
coding sequences. (E) Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide chain.

(1) B, C and E
(2) A, B and E
(3) C, D and A
(4) D, E and A

43) Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon ?

(1) Glucose
(2) Galactose
(3) Lactose
(4) Lactose and galactose

44) DNA fingerprinting involves identifying difference in some specific region in DNA sequence
called as:-

(1) Non repetitive DNA

(2) Coding DNA
(3) Repetitive DNA
(4) All of the above

45) Polymorphism in DNA sequences is the basis of genetic mapping of________

(1) DNA Fingerprinting

(2) Human genome
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

ZOOLOGY

1) A set of standards by which a community regulates its behaviour and activities in relation to the
biological world is termed as :-

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biopiracy
(3) Patent
(4) Bioethics

2) In 1997, an American company RiceTec, got patent rights on Basmati rice, which allowed the
company to sell a ‘new’ variety of Basmati, in the US and abroad. This ‘new’ variety of Basmati had
actually been derived by crossing

(1) Indian Basmati with Pusa Sadabahar

(2) Indian Basmati with semi-dwarf varieties
(3) Indian Basmati with Pusa Komal
(4) Indian Basmati with Kalyan Sona

3) Two stages of insulin (stage P and Q) are shown in the diagram select the correct statement :

(1) Stage P is earlier and inactive stage of insulin

(2) Stage Q is inactive and earlier stage of insulin
(3) Stage Q is reffered as proinsulin
(4) Stage P is an active stage

4) Which of the following novel strategy was adopted to develop nematode resistant plant?
(1) Biofortification
(2) RNA interferance
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Molecular diagnosis

5) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called -

(1) Plasmid
(2) Vector
(3) Probe
(4) Clone

6) Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel -

(1) Bioinsecticidal plants

(2) Bio-mineralization processes
(3) Biofertilizers
(4) Bio-metallurgical techniques

7) In which of the following methods, a probe is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA in
the clone of cells?

(1) Gene therapy

(2) Autoradiography
(3) Polymerase chain reaction
(4) Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA)

8) Genetic modification has

(I) reduced reliance on chemical pesticides.
(II) reduced post-harvest losses.
(III) increased efficiency of minerals usage by the plants.
(IV) enhanced nutritional value of the food.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) III and IV

9) Assertion: Organisations like GEAC are necessary to monitor GM researches and test the safety
of introducing GM organisms for public services.
Reason: When genetically modified organisms are introduced into the [Link] researches
can have unpredictable results which even can be disastrous.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

10) In RNAi, the genes are silenced using

(1) dsRNA
(2) ssDNA
(3) ssRNA
(4) dsDNA

11) Assertion (A):– RNAi is a cellular defence mechanism in eukaryotes.

Reason (R):– It is silencing of a specific tRNA.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true

12) Crystalline protein synthesized by Bacillus thuringiensis is activated by

(1) Acidic conditions of bacterial food vacuole

(2) Alkaline pH bacterial food vacuole
(3) Acidic pH in insect fore-gut
(4) Alkaline pH in insect mid-gut

13) Which of the following is used in the production of insulin by genetic engineering?

(1) Rhizobium
(2) Entamoeba coli
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Escherichia coli

14) Which part of tobacco plant is infected by Meloidegyne incognitia?

(1) Root
(2) Flower
(3) Leaf
(4) Stem

15) Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called
genetically modified organisms (GMO). Which of the following is not an advantage of genetic
modification?

(1) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides

(2) prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil
(3) Crops less tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat)
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
16)

Which of the following transgenic protein product has been used to treat emphysema?

(1) -1-antitrypsin
(2) -Lactalbumin
(3) Cry protein
(4) C-peptide

17) The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with which of the following
enzyme deficiency?

(1) Adenosine deaminase

(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Monamine oxidase
(4) Adenine aminase

18) In the structure of insulin which of the following statements is invalid?

(1) 2 polypeptide chains are present

(2) The chains are linked by disulphide bonds
(3) It is synthesised as an inactive proinsulin form before it is processed to become functional
(4) C-peptide is added to the active insulin.

19) A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing
countries is:

(1) Golden rice

(2) Flavr Savr tomatoes
(3) Starlink maize
(4) Bt soyabean

20) Options that can be thought for increasing the food production?

(1) By agrochemical based agriculture

(2) By organic agriculture
(3) By genetically engineered crop-based agriculture
(4) All of the above

21) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because:

(1) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin

(2) Toxin is enclosed within nucleoid
(3) Toxin is inactive
(4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac

22) Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of PCR technique?
(1) Herbert Boyer
(2) Hargovind Khorana
(3) Kary Mullis
(4) Arthur Kornberg

23) Assertion: The Green Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply but yet it was not enough
to feed the growing human population.
Reason: Further increases in yield with existing varieties are possible using conventional breeding.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

24) Assertion: Recombinant DNA technology, Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and Enzyme Linked
Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) are used for early diagnosis.
Reason: ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

25) Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in [Link].
(4) Eli Lily company prepared humulin in 1983

26) Arrange in sequence the steps of prevention of nematode infection in transgenic host plant:
I. the two RNAs being complementary to each other form a dsRNA that initiates RNAi which
silences the specific mRNA of nematode
II. The transgenic plant gets protected from the nematode
III. The consequence is that the nematode cannot survive in the transgenic host plant which
expresses specific interfering RNA
IV. using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plant. The
introduction of DNA is such, that it produced both sense and antisense RNA in the host cells

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Bt toxin kills the insect by

(1) Blocking the nerve conduction

(2) Damaging the surface of trachea
(3) By creating pores in the tracheal system
(4) By creating pores in the mid gut

28) A regulatory body working for the release of transgenic crop is

(1) ICWMI
(2) IARI
(3) IRRI
(4) GEAC

29) The definition given by EFB for biotechnology is

(1) Techniques of using live organisms only

(2) Techniques of using enzymes only to produce products and processes useful to humans
The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues
(3)
for products and services
(4) Techniques which include only synthesizing a gene and using it

30) Which enzyme was targetted during the first clinical gene therapy given in 1990 to a 4 year old
girl?

(1) Monamine oxidase

(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.

31) Fill in the blanks.

I. Using Agrobacterium vectors, ....A.... specific genes are introduced into the host plant.
II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B.....
III. The genes .....C.... and .....D.... control cotton bollworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to control corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be:-

A-fungal, B-pest resistance,

(1)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac
A-nematode, B- Cellular defence
(2)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
A-insects, B-cellular defense,
(3)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
A-virus, B-protection against viral infection,
(4)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

32) The illegal and unlawful development of biomaterials without payment to the inhabitants of their
origin is called :

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biotechnology
(3) Bio-war
(4) Biopiracy

33) Select the correct set of the names labelled A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

(1) A–A-peptide, B–B-peptide, C–Proinsulin, D–Free C-peptide

(2) A–Proinsulin, B–A-peptide, C–B-peptide, D–Free C-peptide
(3) A–Free C-peptide, B–A-peptide, C–B-peptide, D–Proinsulin
(4) A–A-peptide, B–B-peptide, C–Free C-peptide, D–Proinsulin

34) The milk of 'Rosie' cow contains human specific protein known as :-

(1) Alpha lactalbumin

(2) Beta lactalbumin
(3) Insulin
(4) -1-antitrypsin

35) In Bt cotton, the proteins encoded by gene cry IAc and cry II Ab control -

(1) Cotton bollworms

(2) Corn borer
(3) Flies
(4) Nematodes

36) Statement-I : RNAi mechanism takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as method of cellular
defence.
Statement-II : Meloidegyne incognitia infects the shoot of tobacco plants.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

37) Match the columns and select correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(A) Golden rice (i) Increases shelf life

 (B) Flavr Savr tomato (ii) Brassica napus

(C) Hirudin (iii) Vitamin-A

(D) Insulin (iv) No C - chain

(1) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
(2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv

38) Which type of vector is used to introduce a functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes during gene
therapy for ADA deficiency?

(1) Plasmid
(2) Bacteriophage
(3) BAC
(4) Disarmed retrovirus

39) Read the following statements w.r.t transgenic animals and choose the option that correctly fills
the blanks (A) and (B).
a. Over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are (A)
b. The first transgenic cow Rosie, produced human protein enriched milk containing (B) grams per
litre

A B

(1) Sheep 2.4

(2) Mice 4.2

(3) Sheep 4.2

(4) Mice 2.4

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) In RNAi, host-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation as it prevents :

(1) Formation of sense-RNA

(2) Translation of a specific mRNA
(3) Formation of antisense-RNA
(4) Lipid synthesis in host plant

41) There are an estimated _______ varieties of rice in India, Out of which _______ are documented
varieties of Basmati. Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks respectively.

(1) 5,00,000; 30
(2) 20,000; 27
(3) 2,00,000; 35
(4) 2,00,000; 27

42) Find the correct statements:

(i) In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation.
(ii) C peptide is not present in the mature insulin.
(iii) 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use the world over.
(iv) PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) only

(2) (iii), (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii) only
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

43) In RNAi process, the source of the complementary RNA could be from

(1) Meloidegyne incognitia

(2) Transposons that replicate via an RNA intermediate
(3) Infection by viruses having RNA genomes
(4) Both (2) and (3)

44) Statement-I : In India, 30 recombinant therapeutics are presently being marketed.

Statement-II : Insulin from an animal source, though caused some patients to develop allergy.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

45) Green revolution succeeded in increased food production for about

(1) 2 times
(2) 4 times
(3) 3 times
(4) 5 times
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 4 2 2 2 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 3 3 1 1 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 1 2 3 1 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 3 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 1 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 3 3 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 4 1 3 1 1 4 1 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 3 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 3 4 4 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

r < a, E =

a < r < b, E =
b < r < c, E = 0 (Inside conductor E = 0)

4)

5) Due to external charge ϕin = ϕout

∴ No contribution in flux

6)
Max length of wire in the sphere

Charge on wire is q = γL =
= 8.85μc × 8μC

Flux through the sphere

ϕ = 8 × 106

7)

8)

9) Wi→f = (–e)(Vf – Vi)

W1 = (–e) (70 – 80) = 10 eV
W2 = (–e) (60 – 70) = 10 eV
W3 = (–e) (60 – 80) = 20 eV
W4 = (–e) (50 – 70) = 20 eV

10)

= x = 2R cosθ

dx = -2R sin θ dθ
 11) vA – vB = work done by electric field on + 1 coul. charge from A to B = E Rθ
∴ vB = vA – E Rθ = v – E Rθ

12)

The electric potential at a point,

V = – x2y – xz3 + 4

The field

13) 4π r2 dr =
At surface

14) Conductor surface is equipotential.

15) The charge distribution on the surfaces of the shells are given. As per the given condition.

16) F = 0

17)
The given point is at axis of dipole and at equatorial line of dipole so total field at given
point is

18)

Time taken to become parallel to the field

19)

Concept:
• Capacitance C is defined as the charge stored per unit potential difference

• The SI unit of capacitance is farad (F)

Formula:

Calculation :
From the formula, the correct unit of farad is :

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: Coulomb/Volt

20) The energy density between plates of capacitor is .

21)

Question Explanation
We need to comment whether given statements are correct or incorrect.
Concept
The concept based on parallel capacitor (change & electric field)

Explanation
Qnet = (+ Q) + (– Q) = zero (hence A is correct)
Enet = (hence B is incorrect)
Final Answer (3)

22) Explanation : We have to find energy density between plates of a parallel plate capacitor
charge Q.

Concept : Energy density in a capacitor.

Formula :

Mathematical Calculation :

Energy stored in capacitor is =

E (electric field) =

Energy density =

Energy density =

Energy density =
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Estimated Time : 1-2 minutes

Level : Easy

23) Battery is not connected so Q = constant

Now
A : V = Q/C ∝ 1/C ⇒

B:U=

C:C=

Therefore statements A, C and E are correct.

24)

C=

∴V= = 1V

25) Surface charge density

So and

26)

27) Energy of a charged capacitor, E =

For a cylindrical capacitor,

Where L = length of the cylinder

a and b = radii of two concentric cylinder
E’=2E

28)

we know electric field due to a wire is

here = charge × Area

for capacitor

So,

29)
CAD = 2μF

30)
C = 6μF
CAB = 6μF

31) Loss in energy = =

32) For parallel combination,

 ... (i)
For series combination,

... (ii)

From eqn. (i) and (ii), we get

33) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor in the absence of the dielectric is
... (i)
Where A is the area of each plate and d is the distance between them.
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor in the presence of dielectric slab of thickness t
and dielectric constant K, is

...(ii)
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get

34)

35) Electric field at P and P' =

36)

37) Let the charge distribution be as shown in figure.

From Kirchhoff's law
 q = 40μC i.e. charge on capacitor is 40μC

38)

Question Explanation : Asking about the dielectric constant for the dielectric if it can
withstand maximum field strength of 106V/m.

Concept : This question is based on circuit analysis with capacitors having dielectrics

Solution :

Capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric of dielectric constant k is given by

15 × 10–12 =
k = 8.5
Final Answer : option (2)

39)

Explain Question : Asking about the variation of electric field E between the plates with
distance "d".

Concept : This question is based Effect of dielectric slab.

Solution :

In a region of vacuum,

In a region where dielectric is present,

As k1 < k2, decrease in E is greater for k2 than for k1.

Final Answer : option (1)

40)

Within the plates electric fields due to charges Q1 and Q2 are

E1 = and E2 =
As these fields are in opposite directions and Q1 > Q2, the net electric field within the plates is
E = E 1 – E2 =

Hence V = Ed = (Q1 – Q2) =

41) Concept:
• Charge is conserved when capacitors are connected.
• The total charge before connection equals the total charge after connection,
Formula:
Total initial charge:
Qinitial = C1V1 + C2V2
Final common potential:

Calculation:
By using the charge conservation equation:

Thus, the correct answer is Option 4

42)

At "t=0" capacitor behave as a wire.

43)

44) At t = 0 whole current passes through capacitance

So effective resistance of circuit is

And current
After sufficient time, steady state is reached; then there is no current in capacitor branch;
so effective resistance of circuit is

1000 + 1000 = 2000 and current

i.e., current is 2 mA at t = 0 and with time it goes to 1 mA.

45) At steady state capacitor will be fully charged and will behave like open circuit is given by
the potential difference across resistance,

Capacitor is in parallel with resistance, so it also has 2V potential difference across it.
 The charge on capacitor,

CHEMISTRY

46)

LiOH < NaOH < .....CsOH (solubility)

47)

IUPAC naming rule

48)

S1 → [Cr(NH3)6]+3 O.N. of Cr = +3 | & CN = 6

Cr+3 = 3d3 Hyb. d2sp3 (inner orbital complex)

CFSE =
= –0.4 × 3 + 0 + 0
= –1.2 Δ0 → True
S2 → ligand CN⊖ C.M.I. → Fe+3
Fe+3 → 3d5 → Ligand is strong field (SFL) then pairing occur.
unpair e– = 1
magnetic moment = 1.73 B.M. True.
S3 →
Na2S + Na2 [Fe(CN)5NO] → Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
O.S. of Fe in both side will be same.
* Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
+2 + x – 5 + 1 = 0
x = +2
* Na4[Fe(CN)5 NOS]
= +4 + x – 5 – 1 = 0
x–2=0
x = +2 True.

49)

Asking for: The correct order of magnetic moments for Cr, Mn+, and Fe2+.

Concept: Calculating magnetic moments using the number of unpaired electrons.

Formula:

A. Magnetic moment (μ) = √[n(n+2)] Bohr magnetons (BM), where n is the number of unpaired
electrons.
 Solution/Explanation:

A. Cr (Z=24):

A. Electronic configuration: [Ar] 3d5 4s1

B. Number of unpaired electrons (n) = 6
C. μ = √[6(6+2)] = √48 ≈ 6.93 BM
B. Mn+ (Z=25):

A. Mn: [Ar] 3d5 4s2

B. Mn+: [Ar] 3d5 4s1
C. Number of unpaired electrons (n) = 6
D. μ = √[6(6+2)] = √48 ≈ 6.93 BM
C. Fe2+ (Z=26):

A. Fe: [Ar] 3d6 4s2

B. Fe2+: [Ar] 3d6
C. Number of unpaired electrons (n) = 4
D. μ = √[4(4+2)] = √24 ≈ 4.90 BM

Therefore, x = y > z.

Answer : Option : 3

50)

51) Cu+2 + I– → Cu2I2

strong
R.A. CuI2 ×

52)

53) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify which of the given metal
carbonyl complexes contains the strongest carbon-oxygen (CO) bond.
Concept : Synergic bonding
Solution : The strongest CO bond is in [Cr(CO)6​]+ because the positive charge on Cr reduces
back-bonding to the CO π∗ orbitals.

54)

Tetraethyl lead σ bonded omc

 55)

Theory (order of spectrochemical series)

56)

Asking for:

Identify the incorrect statement about the complex [Ni(dmg)₂].

Concept:

A. [Ni(dmg)₂]: Nickel dimethylglyoxime, a coordination complex.

B. dmg⁻¹: Dimethylglyoximate anion.
C. dsp² hybridization: Square planar geometry.
D. Chelating rings: Rings formed by a ligand coordinating to a metal through multiple donor
atoms.

Formula:

A. dmg⁻¹: (CH3​)2​C2​(NOH)NO−
B. [Ni(dmg)₂]: A complex formed by Ni²⁺ and two dmg⁻¹ ligands.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Ni²⁺ gives rosy red ppt with dmg⁻¹: This is a characteristic test for Ni²⁺. The reaction forms
the bright red [Ni(dmg)₂] precipitate. This statement is correct.
B. It is dsp² hybridized: [Ni(dmg)₂] has a square planar geometry, which corresponds to dsp²
hybridization. This statement is correct.
C. Total no. of chelating rings are 4: Each dmg⁻¹ ligand forms a five-membered chelate ring
with Ni²⁺. Two more rings are also formed through H-bonding. So a total of four chelating
rings are formed. So this statement is also correct.
D. All rings are 6 membered: As explained in point 3, the rings formed are 5 membered rings,
not 6 membered rings. So, this statement is incorrect.

So the incorrect statement is option 4.

Answer : Option : 4

57) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify the pair of ligands from the
given options where both ligands are ambidentate.
Concept : Types of ligand
Solution : The pair containing only ambidentate ligands is NO2−​ (nitrite) and SCN−
(thiocyanate), as each can coordinate through two different atoms.

58) Explaining the question : The question asks in which of the given chemical formulas the
coordination number of the calcium ion (Ca2+) is six.
Concept : Coordination number and ligand type
Solution : In [Ca(EDTA)]2−, calcium is coordinated by the hexadentate EDTA ligand through
six donor atoms, resulting in a coordination number of six.
 59)

[Ni(DMG)2] > [Ni(en)2]2+ > [NiCl4]2–

60)

Explain Question : Identify strongest ligand.

Concept : This question is based on Spectro chemical series.

Solution : CO is the strongest field ligand among the options due to its strong π–acceptor
ability. causing maximum crystal field splitting.
Spectro chemical series → I- < Br- < NH3 < CO
Final Answer : option (1)

61)

Question Explanation – The question asks to match the correct uses of chemical compounds.
Concept – (Properties of Compounds- EDTA, Dimethylglyoxime, Silver complex & Cis
platin)
i. EDTA is used for estimation of hardness of water.
ii. Dimethyl glyoxime is used for detection and estimation of Nickel.
iii. Silver complex are used for electro plating.
iv. Cis-platin is used for treatment of cancer.

Final Answer : (2)

62) A → [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
B → [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
C → [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O

63) is most stable complex among the given complexes as en(ethylenediamine) is

chelating ligand forms stable complex.

64)

Explanation: The question asks for the correct IUPAC name of the coordination complex
[Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2, requiring proper ligand naming and oxidation state determination.
Concept: (IUPAC of Coordination Compounds)

A. Identify the central metal (cobalt) and its oxidation state (+3).
B. Name the ligands alphabetically: pentaammine, then nitrito-N.
C. Combine ligand names with metal name and oxidation state: pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt(III).
D. Name the counter ions (chloride) separately.
E. The complete IUPAC name is pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride.

Final Answer - Option (4)

65) F– and H2O are weak ligands so in t2g there will be 4 electrons which in eg orbitals there
will be 2 electrons.

66) Synergic bonding

67) [NiCl4 (NH3)2]

[Ma4b2] & (aa) (aa) (bb)
(aa) (ab) (ab)
(c) [Co (H2O)6] Cl3
[Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2. H2O
(Co (H2O)4Cl2) Cl. 2 H2O

68)

Question Explanation – The question asks to determine the denticity of the N(CH2CH2NH2)3
ligand, which means identifying how many points of attachment it has to a metal ion.
Concept – Number of donor atoms in N(CH2CH2NH2)3 is four hence it is a tetradentate ligand.
Each nitrogen atom is a donor atom.

Final Answer : (3)

69)

70)

Asking for : Magnetic moment (μ) for a t2g6​eg2​ system.

Concept : (Magnetic moment of [t2g6​eg2])

Magnetic moment is calculated using unpaired electrons (n) in the spin-only formula:
μ=n(n+2)​ BM.
 Solution : In t2g6​eg2​ system​, all t2g​ set of orbitals are filled (0 unpaired electrons). In eg set of
orbitals​, there are 2 unpaired electrons (one in each eg​ orbital). Thus, n = 2. μ = 2(2+2) ​=8​.
μ≈2.83 BM.

Final Answer : Option : 1

71)

Conceptual.

72)

List-II
List-I
Wavelength of light absorbed in
Coordination entity
nm

(A) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (I) 535

(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (II) 475

(C) [Co(CN)6]3– (III) 310

(D) [Cu(H2O)4]2– (IV) 600

⇒ Δ(CFSE) ∝ ∝ strength of ligand

73) Greater the number of ions, greater the conductance.

(i) K2PtCl6 ⇌ 2K+ + [PtCl6]2– → Three ions
(ii) PtCl4·2NH3 ⇌ [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] → No ion (least)
(iii) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl ⇌ Two ions
(iv) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 ⇌ Four ions (Maximum)

74) If pairing energy is more than crystal field splitting energy, the fourth electron goes to eg
orbital. Thus high spin complex is formed.

75)

76) For the same central metal ion, the CFSE increases with increase in strength of the ligand.
The order of strength of ligand is given by the spectrochemical series :
Thus, the order of CFSE of given complexes will be :

77)

78)

[Cr(NCS)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4] exhibit linkage and coordination iso.

79) Question is Asking About:

In this question we have to check wrong statement related to complex.
Concept:
Red precipitate
Structure of

DMG is bidentate ligand

Ground state =

Excited state =
DMG is strong field ligand.
Hence, option (1) is correct.

80)

In
O.S. of Pt =+4
i=3

81) trans-[Co(NH3)4I2]⊕,
trans-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (Optically inactive)
Cis-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (Optically active)
[NiI4]2–, [CoF6]3– (Coloured) (Ni+2, d8)(Co+3, d6)
0
[TiF6]2– (Colourless) (d , Ti+4)

82)

Explain Question : Find total no. of stereoisomers.

Concept : This question is based on Isomerism

Solution :

Non Superimposable mirror image optically active

So,

Final Answer : option (3)

83) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] is tetrahedral geometry so not show isomerism

 84) NCERT XIIth Pg # 250, Example Q. 7

85)

In [Fe(H2O)5NO]+2
Fe+ = 3d6 4s1
0
in presence of ligand Fe+ = 3d7 4s
hybridisation = sp3d2, spin only magnetic moment = 3.87 B.M.

86)

EAN
Ni(CO)4 36

[Ni(CN)4]–2 34

87) dx -y : e– density is present along x & y axis.

2 2

dx : e– density is in xy plane also.

2

88)

Due to synergic bonding in CH2 = CH2

89)

Stability ∝ Number of chelate rings.

90)

Ma2b2c2 types compound show 5 G.I. and 2 O.I.

BOTANY

91)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

92) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 97, para 2,3,5

93) Explain Question : The question asks to identify what the provided structure represents.

Concept : This question is based on Nucleotides.

Explanation : Since the sugar is ribose and a phosphate group is present, the structure
represents a nucleotide of RNA.

Final answer : 2

94)

95) Question Explanation: Identifying the structure formed by linking a base, a sugar, and a
phosphate.
Concept: Nucleotide structure (Adenosine monophosphate).
Solution: A nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by a nitrogenous base + pentose sugar
+ phosphate group. When the base Adenine links to the sugar Ribose, it forms a nucleoside
called Adenosine. The addition of a single Phosphate group to Adenosine forms a nucleotide
(or nucleic acid monomer), which is correctly called Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or
Adenylic acid. Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP) and Triphosphate (ATP) have two and three
phosphate groups, respectively.

Final Answer: adenylic acid

96)

97)

98)

99)

100)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 96, Para # 3

101)

102) Explain Question :This question is about identifying the different components and
bonds within a diagrammatic sketch of a DNA double helix.
Concept : DNA Structure And Features.
Explanation :
Part A: Points to the bond that connects the phosphate group (P) of one nucleotide to the
pentose sugar of the adjacent nucleotide within the same strand. This bond is the
Phosphodiester bond.
Part B: Points to the bonds linking the complementary nitrogenous bases (C and G, or A and T)
across the two strands. These bonds hold the two helix strands together. This is the Hydrogen
bond.
Part C: Points to the entire heterocyclic ring structure, such as 'A' (Adenine) or 'T' (Thymine),
that projects inward from the sugar-phosphate backbone. This is the Nitrogenous base.
Part D: Points to the five-carbon ring structure (pentagon shape in the diagram) in the
backbone, which is attached to the phosphate group and the nitrogenous base. This is the
Pentose sugar (Deoxyribose).
Final answer : 1

103) NCERT XII Pg # 99

104)

NCERT Pg. No. 83

105)

Question Explanation: The question is asking you to identify which enzyme is not involved in
the process of DNA replication in prokaryotes .

Concept: Enzymes of DNA replication in Prokaryotes.

Solution: Reverse transcriptase does not participate in DNA replication in prokaryotes.

Final answer: option (3)

106) Explaining the Question:

Asking about only RNA containing virus evolve faster

Concept: RNA

Solution:
RNA is more active as compare to DNA and more active substance are less stable or unstable
so there are high probability of mutation that create variations. So RNA containing virus
evolve faster.

Final Answer:
Option (1) RNA is unstable and mutate at a faster rate

107)
Explanation:

Option 2 depicts the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication, where each new DNA
molecule consists of one original parental strand and one newly synthesized strand. 1 It also
shows the bidirectional replication with leading and lagging strand synthesis occurring at the
replication forks.

Final Answer: 2

108) Correct Answer: Option 2: Assemblies of protein and snRNPs, called

spliceosomes, may catalyze splicing
Explanation:
Spliceosomes are complexes of snRNPs (small nuclear ribonucleoproteins) and proteins that
catalyze the splicing of pre-mRNA, removing introns and joining exons.

109) Explaining the Question:

Asking about correct statement regarding transcription from given statements.

Concept:
Transcription

Solution:
The correct statement is (3) only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into
RNA.
⇒ For each transcribed gene, only one strand (Template strand) is used to synthesize RNA.

Final Answer:
Option (3)

110)

NCERT-XII Pg. No. # 108

111) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : No molecule of heavy DNA would be observed if bacteria was grown on normal
nitrogen medium.
Final Answer : (1)

112) Concept :- Anticodon loop of t- RNNA have just complimentary sequence of m-RNA's
codon.
Solution :- Anticodon - site of a t- RNA molecule that bind to m-RNA molecule is the correct
match from given.
bcz - The anticodon is a specific three nucleotide sequence of t- RNA molecule. This sequence
can base pair with a complimentary three nucleotide sequence called codon on the m- RNA
molecule This Pairing is crucial for ensuring the correct amino awed is added during
translation .
Final Answer: Option 4

113)

114)

NCERT-XII Pg. No. # 116

115)

116)

117)

5' GTGTTTACAGAGATG 3'

118)

119)

120)

121)

122)

123)
124)

125) Ans : (A) 0.34 nm

126)

127)

128)

129)

Allen module pg no.111

130)

131) Question Explanation: Asking about the correct answer regarding statements.
Concept: Operon
Solution:
Statement I is incorrect because repressor protein binds with operon not with promoter.
Statement II is correct, hence both statements are correct.
Final answer: option (3)

132) NCERT-XII Pg. # 120

133)

134)

135)
ZOOLOGY

136) Question Explanation

A set of standards by which a community regulates its behaviour and activities in relation to
the biological world is termed as :-

Solution:
• Bioethics is the study of ethical issues arising from advances is biology and medicine. It
encompasses the moral principles that guide research technology and practices related to
living organisms.

Hence,
Correct option: (4) Bioethics

137)

138)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:

A. Proinsulin (Earlier Stage):

A. This is the initial, inactive form of insulin.

B. It contains the A, B, and C peptides.

B. Active Insulin (Later Stage):

A. The C-peptide is removed, leaving the A and B peptides connected by disulfide

bonds.

B. This is the active form of insulin.

Given this, the stage representing the Proinsulin would be the earlier stage, and would be the
inactive stage.

Final Answer:
 A. The correct answer is 1. Stage P is earlier and inactive stage of insulin. Assuming that P
is the proinsulin stage.

139)

140)

141)

142)

143)

144)

145)

146)

147)

148)

149) NCERT Page No. 210

150) NCERT Page No. 208

151) NCERT Page No. 213

152) NCERT Page No. 211

153) NCERT Page No. 211

154) NCERT Page No. 208

155) NCERT Page No. 208

156) NCERT Page No. 208

157)

NCERT Exemplar [Link] 18

158) NCERT Page No. 208

159) NCERT Page No. 212

160) NCERT Page No. 211

161) NCERT Page No. 210

162)

NCERT Pg. No. 208,209

163)

NCERT Pg. No. 213

164) NCERT [Link].193

165) NCERT-XII Pg. # 211

166) NCERT-XII Pg # 208, 209

167)

XII Old NCERT Pg # 185

168)

NCERT Pg. No. 211

169)

NCERT Pg. No. 213

170)

NCERT Pg. No. 209

171)

NCERT Pg. No. 209

172)

Ncert Pg No: 178, 179

173)

NCERT Pg. No. 208,

Allen Module

174)

NCERT Pg. No. 211

175)

NCERT Pg. No. 209

176)

NCERT Pg. No. 214

177) NCERT Page no. 182-183

178)
NCERT Pg. No. 209

179)

NCERT Pg. No. 210

180)

The correct answer is: 2. 4 times

The Green Revolution kicked off in the 1960s and brought about a remarkable boost in food
production thanks to several key factors:
The introduction of high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of crops
The use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
Enhanced irrigation methods
The mechanization of farming practices
Because of these advancements, countries such as India and Mexico saw their food grain
production soar to nearly four times what it was before the Green Revolution.