15-11-2025

6001CMD30302225GRIP004 MD

PHYSICS

1) There are n1 photons of frequency γ1 in a beam of light. In an equally energetic beam, there are n2
photons of frequency γ2. Then the correct relation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the
cut-off voltage and the saturation current are respectively 0.6 volt and 18.0 mA. If the same source
is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then

(1) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt

(2) the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt
(3) the saturation current will be 0.6 mA
(4) the saturation current will be 3.0 mA.

3) How many photons of wavelength λ = 6600 nm must strike a totally reflecting screen per second
at normal incidence so as to exert a force of 1N ?

(1) 5 × 1027 photons s–1

(2) 2 × 1030 photons s–1
(3) 1.7 × 1020 photons s–1
(4) 3.4 × 1023 photons s–1

4) A photon of energy 8 eV is incident on a metal surface of threshold frequency 1.6 × 1015 Hz. The
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted is -
(Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s; 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)

(1) 1.4 eV
(2) 0.8 eV
(3) 4.2 eV
(4) 2.8 eV
5) In the following diagram if V2 > V1 then

(1)
(2) λ1 < λ2
(3) λ1 = λ2
(4) λ1 > λ2

6) Figure represents a graph of maximum kinetic energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency
(ν) for a metal used as cathode in photoelectric experiment. What is value of frequency at point A.

(1) 5 × 1014 Hz
(2) 1015 Hz
(3) 5 × 1015 Hz
(4) 1016 Hz

7) Wave nature of light cannot explain photoelectric effect because in photoelectric effect, it is seen
that :

For the frequency of light below a certain value, the photoelectric effect does not take place,
(1)
irrespective of intensity
(2) Maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons is independent of intensity of radiation
(3) There is no time lag between the incidence of radiation and emmission of electrons
(4) All of these

8) A photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because :

(A) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
(B) the maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons depends only on the frequency of light and not
on its intensity
(C) Above thresold frequency even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photoelectrons
leave the surface immediately
(D) electric charge of photoelectrons is quantized In the above true statement is :-

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B
(3) A
(4) All

9) When a certain metallic surface is illuminated with mono-chromatic light of wave length λ, the
stopping potential for photo electric current is 6V0. When the same surface is illuminated with light
of wave length 2λ, the stopping potential is 2V0. The threshold wavelength of this surface for
photoelectric effect is :-

(1) 6 λ
(2) 4λ/3
(3) 4λ
(4) 8λ

10) An e-m wave of wavelength λ is incident on a photo sensitive surface of negligible work function.
If the photoelectrons emitted from this surface have the de-Broglie wavelength λ1. Find relation
between 'λ' and 'λ1' :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

11) The de-Broglie wavelength of a thermal neutron at 927°C is λ. It's wavelength at 327°C will be:-

(1) λ/2
(2)
(3)
(4) 2λ

12) Particle A of mass mA = moving along the x-axis with velocity ν0 collides elastically with

another particle B at rest having mass mB = . If both particles move along the x-axis after the
collision, the change Δλ in de-Broglie wavelength of particle A, in terms of its de-Broglie wavelength
(λ0) before collision is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S2 is
producing 1.02 × 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100 Å.
Then, (power of S2)/(power of S1) is equal to :-

(1) 0.98
(2) 1.00
(3) 1.02
(4) 1.04

14) The kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the energy of a photon. The particle moves at 5% of
the speed of light. The ratio of the photon wavelength to the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is
[No need to use relativistic formula for the particle.]

(1) 40
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 80

15) Two large parallel plates are connected with the terminal of 100 V power supply. These plates
have a fine hole at the centre. An electron having energy 200 eV is so directed that it passes through
the holes. When it comes out it's de-Broglie wavelength :-

(1) 1.22 Å
(2) 1.75 Å
(3) 2 Å
(4) None of these

16)

The angular momentum of an electron in first orbit of Li++ion is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) The matter waves are : -

(1) e.m. waves

(2) sound waves
(3) mechanical waves
(4) probability waves

18) Failure of Ratherford's Atomic model :

(1) Concept of nucleous can not explained with the help of this model.
(2) Scattering of α-particles cannot be explained with the help of this model.
(3) It couldn't explain discrete nature of hydrogen spectra.
(4) All of the above

19) In a Rutherford α scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1 approaches
a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the
projectile is:

(1) directly proportional to M1 × M2

(2) directly proportional to Z1Z2
(3) directly proportional to Z1
(4) directly proportional to mass M1

20) The innermost orbit of the hydrogen atom has a diameter of 1.06 Å. What is the diameter of the
tenth orbit ?

(1) 5.3 Å
(2) 10.6 Å
(3) 53 Å
(4) 106 Å

21) The wavelength of light emitted is maximum in H-atom during transition of electron from

(1) n = 5 to n = 4
(2) n = 3 to n = 1
(3) n = 5 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

22) The following diagram indicates the energy levels of a certain atom, where the system moves
from 4E level to E level, a photon of wavelength λ1 is emitted. The wavelength of photon produced

during its transition from E level to E level is λ2. The ratio will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

Two hydrogen atoms are in excited state with electrons residing in n = 2. First one is moving
towards left and emits a photon of energy E1 towards right. Second one is moving towards right with
same speed and emits a photon of energy E2 towards right. Taking recoil of nucleus into account
during emission process

(1) E1 > E2
(2) E1 < E2
(3) E1 = E2
(4) information insufficient

24) The angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of Bohr's hydrogen atom is:

(1) Directly proportional to n

Inversely proportional to
(2)

(3) Inversely proportional to n2

(4) Inversely proportional to n3

25) If R is the Rydberg constant for hydrogen, then the wave number of the first line of the Lyman's
series.

(1)

(2) 2r

(3)

(4)

26)

The wavelengths of K∝ x-rays of jtwo metals 'A' and 'B' are and respectively, where 'R'
is Rydberg's constant. The number of elements lying between'A' and 'B' according to their atomic
numbers is

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4

27) Which of the following wavelength is not possible for a X-ray tube which is operated at 40 kV

(1) 0.25Å
(2) 0.5Å
(3) 0.52Å
(4) 0.34Å

28) Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by force k/r where ‘k’ is a constant and ‘r’ is
the distance of the electron from the origin. By applying Bohr model to this system, the radius of the
nth orbital of the electron is found to ‘rn’ and the kinetic energy of the electron to be ‘Tn’. Then which
of the following is true

(1) Tn independent of n, rn independent of n

(2)

(3) Tn is independent of n,

(4)

29)

The photon radiated from hydrogen corresponding to 2nd line of Lymn series is absorbed by a
hydrogen like atom 'X' in 2nd excited state. As a result the hydrogen like atom 'X' makes a transition
to nth orbit. Then,

(1) X = He+, n =4
(2) X = Li++, n = 6
(3) X = He+, n = 6
(4) X = Li++, n = 9

30) Transition between three energy levels in a particular atom give rise to three spectral lines of
wavelengths, in increasing magnitudes λ1, λ2 and λ3 . Which of the following equations correctly
relates λ1, λ2, λ3 ?

(1) λ1 = λ2 – λ3
(2) λ1 = λ3 – λ2

(3)

(4)

31) An unknown nucleus contains 70 neutrons and has twice the volume of the nickel nucleus.
Identify the unknown nucleus in the form .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y
and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is:-

(1) Y → 2Z
(2) W → X + Z
(3) W → 2Y
(4) X → Y + Z

33) The binding energy per nucleon of Na23 is 7.68 MeV and Na24 is 7.48 MeV. The energy (in MeV)
required to remove the extra neutron from Na24 is very nearly equal to :-

(1) 2.88
(2) 3.7
(3) 3.9
(4) 5

34) The binding energies of the nuclei of He, Li, C& N are 28, 52, 90, 98 MeV respectively.
Which of these is most stable.

(1) He
(2) Li
(3) C
(4) N

35) A200 → B120 + C80 + Q

If released energy in given equation is 120 MeV and binding energy per Nucleon of A and C are 7.5
MeV and 8 MeV respectively the calculate binding energy of B.

(1) 960 MeV

(2) 980 MeV
(3) 540 MeV
(4) 1500 MeV

36) Let Fpp, Fpn and Fnn denote the nuclear force between proton–proton, proton–neutron and
neutron–neutron pair respectively. When the separation between the two particles is 1 fm, then
which of the following option is correct?

(1) Fpp < Fpn = Fnn

(2) Fpp > Fpn = Fnn
(3) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn
(4) Fpp < Fpn < Fnn

37) The statement which is incorrect for nuclear force between two protons is

(1) These are always attractive

(2) These are non-central forces
(3) These are charge independent
(4) These are short range forces

38) How much energy is released when 2 mole of U235 is fissioned

(1) 1024 MeV

(2) 24 × 1025 MeV
(3) 1024 J
(4) 1024 MeV

39) In a fission reaction , the binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is

8.5 MeV whereas of is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated will be about

(1) 200 KeV

(2) 2 MeV
(3) 200 MeV
(4) 2000 MeV

40) An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each
nucleus of uranium atom U235 is 170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be :-

(1) 30 × 1025
(2) 4 × 1022
(3) 10 × 1020
(4) 5 × 1015

41)

Nuclear enregy is released in fusion since binding energy per nucleon is numerically:
(1) smaller for fusion products than for fusing nuclei
(2) same for fusion products as for fusing nuclei
(3) larger for fusion products than for fusing nuclei
(4) sometimes larger and sometimes smaller

42) The binding energy of deuteron is 1.112 MeV per nucleon and an α– particle has a
binding energy of 7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the fusion reaction , the
energy Q released is :-

(1) 1 MeV
(2) 11.9 MeV
(3) 23.8 MeV
(4) 931 MeV

43) The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of 1H2, 1H3 and 3Li6 in some condensed form. The
chain reaction is given by
6 1 4 3
3Li + 0n →2He + 1H
2 3 4 1
1H + 1H → 2He + 0n

During the explosion the energy released is approximately

[Given : M(Li) = 6.01690 amu. M (1H2) = 2.01471 amu. M (2He4) = 4.00388amu, and 1 amu = 931.5
MeV]

(1) 28.12 MeV

(2) 12.64 MeV
(3) 16.48 MeV
(4) 22.22 MeV

44) If an atom of U, after absorbing a slow neutron, undergoes fission to form an atom of Xe
and an atom of Sr, the other particles produced are :-

(1) one proton and two neutrons

(2) three neutrons
(3) two neutrons
(4) one proton and one neutron

45) Boron used in Atomic Reactor for:-

(1) absorbption of neutrons

(2) absorbption of α - particles
(3) speed up the reaction
(4) change the reaction

CHEMISTRY

1) Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution, due to –

(1) d10 configuration
(2) disproportionation
(3) less charge
(4) pseudo inert gas configuration

2) Transition element makes complex compound due to :-

(1) Availability of empty orbitals

(2) Large size
(3) Variable valency
(4) Low charge density

3) Which oxide of Mn is acidic in nature ?

(1) MnO
(2) Mn2O7
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO2

4) Maximum spin magnetic moment will be in :-

(1) Sc+3
(2) Cr+3
(3) Ti+3
(4) V+4

5) Which of the following eg orbital have four lobes?

(1) dxy
(2) dyz
(3)
(4)

6) Strongest Reducing ion is -

(1) Fe2+
(2) Mn2+
(3) Cr2+
(4) Mn3+

7) Arrange Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+, and Yb3+ in increasing order of their ionic radius –

(1) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+

(2) Ce3+ > Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+
(3) Yb3+ > Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
(4) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+

8) Electronic configuration of Gd(At. no. 64) is

(1) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

0
(2) [Xe] 4f8 5d 6s2
(3) [Xe] 4f9 5d1 6s2
(4) [Xe] 5f8 6d1 7s2

9) Which of the following statement is correct when a mixture of NaCl and K2Cr2O7 is gently warmed
with conc. H2SO4?
I. a deep red vapor is evolved.
II. the vapour when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4
III. Chlorine gas is evolved
IV. chromyl chloride is formed

(1) I, II, IV
(2) I, II, III
(3) II, III, IV
(4) all are correct

10) Match the columns

Column-I Column-II
(Ion) (Mcalculated)
(A) Ti2+ (P) 2.84
2+
(B) Zn (Q) 5.92
2+
(C) Mn (R) 0
2+
(D) Fe (S) 4.90
(1) A–(s), B–(p), C–(q), D–(r)
(2) A–(r), B–(p), C–(q), D–(s)
(3) A–(p), B–(r), C–(q), D–(s)
(4) A–(p), B–(s), C–(q), D–(r)

11) Lanthanide contraction is due to increase in :

(1) Shielding by 4f-electrons

(2) Atomic number
(3) Effective nuclear charge
(4) Size of 4f-orbital

12) Zn and Cd metals do not show variable valency because :

(1) they have only two electrons in the outermost subshells

(2) their d-subshells are completely filled
(3) their d-subshells are partially filled
(4) they are relatively soft metals

13) Identify correct statement from below :-

(A) The chromate ion is square planar
(B) Dichromates are generally prepared from chromates
(C) The green maganate ion is diamagnetic
(D) Green coloured K2MnO4 disproportionates in a neutral or acidic to give permanganate
(E) With increasing oxidation number of transition metal ionic character of oxides decreases.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (B), (D), (E) only

(2) (A), (B), (C) only
(3) (A), (D), (E) only
(4) (B), (E), (D) only

14)

Zr (Z =40) and Hf (Z =72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :

(1) Belonging to same group

(2) Diagonal relationship
(3) Lanthanoid contraction
(4) Having similar chemical properties

15) The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 and purple colour of KMnO4 is due to

(1) Charge transfer transition in both

(2) d → d transitions in KMnO4 and charge transfer transition in K2Cr2O7.
(3) d → d transition in K2Cr2O7 and charge transfer transitions in KMnO4
(4) d → d transitions in both

16)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) In the dichromate anion (Cr2O72–).

(1) All Cr – O bonds are equivalent

(2) 6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(3) 3 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(4) No bonds in Cr2Or– are equivalent.

18) The second and third row elements of transition metals resemble each other much more than
they resemble the first row because of

(1) Lanthanoid contraction which results in almost same radii of second and third row metals
(2) Diagonal relationship between second and third row elements
(3) Similar ionisation enthalpy of second and third row elements
(4) Similar oxidation states of second and third row metals.

19) An element with atomic number 106 has been discovered recently. Which of the following
electronic configuration will it posses :

(1) [Rn] 5f14 6d4 7s2

(2) [Rn] 5f14 6d5 7s2
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d5 7s1
(4) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2 7p3

20) The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order
(Atomic no's. Ti = 22,Y = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)

(1) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO

(2) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
(3) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
(4) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

21) is highly positive than that of or because

(1) Mn2+ (d5) can be easily oxidised to Mn3+(d4) due to low ionisation enthalpy
Third ionisation enthalpy of Mn is much larger due stable half filled d5 electronic configuration
(2)
of Mn2+
(3) Mn3+ is more stable than Mn2+ due to higher oxidation state.
(4) Second ionisation enthalpy of Mn is higher than third ionisation enthalpy.

22) The number of gaseous product(s) are formed on the basis of following :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which of the following actinoids show oxidation state upto +7 ?

(1) Pu, Am
(2) Am, U
(3) U, Np
(4) Pu, Np

24) The correct order of ionic raii of Ce3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+ is :
(Atomic numbers Ce = 58, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71)

(1) Ce3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+

(2) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(3) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
(4) La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ < Ce3+

25) Why actinoids show more number of oxidation states than lanthanides:-

(1) Energy gap between 5d & 4f is small

(2) Energy gap between 7s & 7d is small
(3) Energy gap between 6d & 5f is small
(4) Energy gap between 6s & 4f is small

26) Which of the following ion do not show colour?

(1) Lu3+
(2) Pm3+
(3) Eu3+
(4) Dy3+
27) Match the column :

Column I Column II

(i) FeSO4.7H2O (p) Green vitriol

(ii) MgSO4.7H2O (q) Blue vitriol

(iii) ZnSO4.7H2O (r) Eupsum salt

(iv) CuSO4.5H2O (s) White vitriol

(1) a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q
(2) a-q, b-r, s-s, d-p
(3) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(4) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r

28) CuSO4 + KI → CuI2, CuI2 —→ Cu2I2 + I2,

I2 Na2S4O6 + NaI
in this reaction. Which of the following product does not exist :-

(1) CuI2
(2) Cu2I2
(3) Na2S4O6
(4) All

29) Hypo is used in photography because of it

(1) Reducing behaviour

(2) Oxidising behaviour
(3) Complex forming behaviour
(4) Reaction with light

30) Which of the following reaction is not incorrect.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which among the following order of oxidising power is correct–

(1)
(2)
(3) CrO3 < MnO2 < Fe2O3
(4) Pb4+ < Sn+4 < C4+

32) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Cr+2 act as reducing agent and Mn+3 act as oxidising agent.
0
Statement-II : E (M+2/M) value for all 3d-series element's are negative.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.

33) Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified solution

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated
against it?

V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ :

(1)
paramagnetic behaviour
Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ :
(2)
ionic size
Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr3+ < Sc3+ :
(3)
stability in aqueous solution
Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn :
(4)
number of oxidation states

35) Which of the statements is not true ?

(1) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes orange to yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7 & convert to K2CrO4
(2) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed
(3) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis
(4) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange

36) Which from following alloys is used for ultra-high speed flight?

(1) Cupra-nickel
(2) Bronze
(3) Titanium alloy
(4) Nichrome
37) Purple colour of KMnO4 due :-

(1) Charge transfer spectra

(2) d–d transition
(3) Homo-Lumo transition
(4) None

38) Match List-I with List-II and identify correct option.

List-I List-II

Colourless in
(P) aqueous (i) Cu2+, Fe3+
medium

(Q) μ = 5.9 BM (ii) Ti+3, Cu2+

Coloured in
(R) aqueous (iii) Fe3+, Mn2+
medium

(S) μ = 1.7 BM (iv) Zn2+, Sc3+

(1) (P) → (iii), Q → (iv), (R) → (i), S → (ii)
(2) (P) → (iv), Q → (iii), (R) → (i), S → (ii)
(3) (P) → (ii), Q → (iii), (R) → (iv), S → (i)
(4) (P) → (i), Q → (ii), (R) → (iii), S → (iv)

39)
X and Y are respectively.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) Which of the following lanthanide ions is colorless in solution?

(1) Ce3+
(2) Eu2+
(3) La3+
(4) Tb3+

41) Which of following is incorrect for dichromate ion ?

(1) Cr–O–Cr bond angle is 126º

(2) It has two types of Cr–O bond length
(3) Cr is tetrahedral
(4) Cr is in +4 oxidation state

42) Select the correct statement :-

(a) Mn+3 act as stronger oxidising agent than Cr+3 & Fe+3
(b) MnF7, & all are known flouride
+3 +3
(c) La & Lu both are diamagnetic
(d) When K2Cr2O7 react with H2O2 in acidic medium it forms dark orange (CrO5) compound

(1) a,b,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c,d

43) Cl2 gas is obtained by various reactions but not by :

(1) KMnO4 + conc. HCl

(2) KCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4

(3) MnO2 + conc. HCl

KCl + F2
(4)

44) Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7
solution ?

(1) The solution turns blue

(2) The solution is decolourized
(3) SO2 is reduced
(4) Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed

45) Highest oxidation state of manganes in fluoride is +4 (MnF4) but highest oxidation state in
oxides is +7 (Mn2O7) because :

(1) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen

(2) Fluorine does not posses d-orbitals
(3) Fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state
(4) In covalent compounds fluorine can form single bond only while oxygen form double bond

BOTANY

1)

Read the following statements with respect to back cross ?

(A) It is the cross of F1 individual with either one of the two parents
(B) Phenotypic & genotypic ratios are same
(C) It includes both test cross and out cross
(D) It is performed by Mendel in his breeding experiment

How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) How many phenotypes are produced in a self cross of AaBBCC ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Eight
(4) Twelve

3) When AABBCc is crossed with AaBbCc then the ratio of hybrid for all three genes is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which one from those given below is the period of Mendel’s hybridisation experiments?

(1) 1856-1863
(2) 1840-1850
(3) 1857-1869
(4) 1870-1877

5) The law of dominance is applicable in inheritance of

(1) Seed colour in pea

(2) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
(3) Starch grain size in pea
(4) Roan coat colour in cattles

6) In humans, Myotonic dystrophy is autosomal dominant. Find probability of affected child if both
parents are normal.

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 0
(4) 3/4
7) When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow seed (TtYy) and tall plant with green seed
(Ttyy), what proportion of phenotype in the offspring could be expected to be tall and green?

(1) 25%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 37.5%
(4) 50%

8) In a plant gene 'A' is responsible for tallness and its recessive allele 'a' for dwarfness and 'B' is
responsible for red flower colour and it's recessive allele 'b' for white flower colour. A tall and red
flowered plant with genotype AaBb crossed with dwarf and red flowered (aaBb). What is the
percentage of dwarf-white flowered offspring of above cross ?

(1) 50%
(2) 6.25%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 50%

9) In a cross CcDdEe × ccddEe, what will be the probability of organisms, which are homozygous for
first character and heterozygous for second and third characters?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) In an experiment, individual homozygous for 'ab' gene, were crossed with wild type. The F1
hybrid was test crossed and progenies produced in following ratio :-
++ / ab → 896
ab / ab → 880
+ a / ab → 108
+ b/ab → 116
Calculate the distance between a and b gene

(1) 22.4 cM
(2) 44 cM
(3) 11.2 cM
(4) 45 cM

11) Genotype of F1 individuals can be tested by :

(1) Backcross with homozygous dominant parent.

(2) Backcross with heterozygous dominant parent
(3) Backcross with homozygous recessive parent
(4) Reciprocal cross

12) Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II

A Snapdragon flower I Co-dominance

B AB Blood group II Incomplete dominance

C ABO blood group III Multiple allele

D Kernel colour in wheat IV Polygenic inheritance

(1) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(2) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(3) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(4) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

13) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to
the offspring when both the partners are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a

single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-

(1) GTG, GAG,Val

(2) CAC, GTG, Val
(3) CAC, GTG, Glu
(4) GTC, GAC, Val

14) In the following pedigree, studied trait is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. What will be
the genotype of mother and father respectively :-

(1) aa and Aa
(2) AA and aa
(3) Aa and Aa
(4) Aa and AA

15) Mark these statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
A. Sickle cell anaemia is classical example of frame-shift mutation.
B. Radiations can also act as mutagen.
C. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

A B C

(1) T T T

(2) T F F

(3) F T T

(4) F T F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) In pea plant gene of seed shape shows:

(a) Dominance
(b) Incomplete dominance
(c) Pleiotrophy
(d) Multiple allele
(e) Polygenic inheritance

(1) Only a and b

(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c and d

17) Assertion : Sickle cell anaemia is a classical example of point mutation.

Reason : Sickle cell anaemia arises due to change in single base pair of DNA.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
18) The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IA IB & IA i. Among the blood types of their children,
how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

(1) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

(2) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

19) When a garden pea plant with intermediate sized starch grains in seed is crossed with other
plant having small sized starch grains in seed, the total number of seeds obtained in progenies is
120. What is correct for these progenies?

(1) 90 large size, 30 small size

(2) 60 large size, 60 small size
(3) 60 intermediate size, 60 small size
(4) 30 large size, 60 intermetiate size, 30 small size

20) Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by:

(1) Sutton and Boveri

(2) Hugo de Vries
(3) G. J. Mendel
(4) Alfred Sturtevant

21) Read the following statements (assertion-A and reason-R) and select the correct option:
A: A person having genotype has AB blood group.
R: alleles are co–dominant.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

22) Haplodiploid sex- determination system is seen in

(1) Birds
(2) Honey bee
(3) Drosophila
(4) Moth

23) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t incomplete dominance.

(1) Genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same in generation.

(2) Test cross of hybrid can produce two phenotypes
(3) Phenotype of hybrid resembles both the parents
(4) Flower colour in Antirrhinum majus is the example of this phenomenon
24) Phenotype of an organism, for example skin color is the result of

(1) Mutations and linkages

(2) Genotype and environment interaction
(3) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(4) Environment changes and sexual dimorphism

25) A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic marries a male with no ancestral history of
haemophilia. What will be the possible phenotypes of the offsprings ?
(a) Haemophilic son and haemophilic daughter.
(b) Haemophilic son and carrier daughter.
(c) Normal daughter and normal son.
(d) Normal son and haemophilic daughter.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (d) only

26) A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and
normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

27) A woman with blood group O has a child with blood group O. She claims that a man with blood
group 'A' is the father of her child. What would be the genotype of the father, if her claim is right?

(1) I°I°
(2) IAIB
(3) IAi
(4) IAIA

28)

How many Mendelian disorders follow criss-cross inheritance?

Cystic fibrosis, haemophilia, Sickle cell anaemia, Colour-blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Five

29) Distance between the genes a, b, c and d in map units is a-d = 3.5, b-c = 1, a-b = 6, c-d = 1.5
and a-c = 5. Find out the sequence of the genes.

(1) a d c b
(2) a c d b
(3) a b c d
(4) a c b d

30) What would be the number of chromosomes of a male honey bee, if the number of chromosomes
in the egg of female honey bee is 16?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 32

31) An Allele is the

(1) Total number of genes for a trait

(2) Total number of genes on chromosome
(3) Alternative form of a gene
(4) Alternative form of a character

32) Which of the following shows X–linked recessive trait ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

Study the figure given below carefully and select correct option about it :
 Possibility–I Possibility–II
(1) Possibility I and II showing independent assortment
(2) It is a representation of mitosis
(3) Possibility I shows independent assortment while possibility II shows linkage
Possibility I and II are showing independent separation of two genes present on same
(4)
chromosome

34) A colorblind girl is rare because she will be born only when :-

(1) Her mother and maternal grand father was colourblind

(2) Her father and maternal grand father was colourblind
(3) Her mother is colourblind but father is normal
(4) Both parents are normal but grand parents are colourblind

35) Blue eye colour in human is an autosomal recessive trait. Black eyed son of a blue eyed mother
marries with a blue eyed girl, if the first child is blue eye then what is the probability of the second
child also being blue eyed ?

(1) 0 %
(2) 25 %
(3) 50 %
(4) 100 %

36) Read the following statements carefully :

(a) Linkage is physical association of genes on a chromosome.
(b) In drosophila, genes of body colour and eye colour are tightly linked on X-chromosome.
(c) In honey bee a fertilised egg develops as a male (drone).
(d) In grasshopper males have only one X-chromosome besides the autosomes.
(e) Drosophila can complete their life cycle in about two months.
Choose the correct option having all correct options.

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) c and e
(3) a, b and d
(4) c, d and e

37) Study the two cases carefully.

Mother Father Children

With
Case 1 Normal Sons always with disease
disease

With Sons and daughters

Case 2 Normal
disease could show disease

The correct interpretation of the two cases is

(1) Case 1 : X-linked recessive disease ; case 2 : autosomal recessive disease
Case 1 and 2 : X-linked recessive disease ;
(2)
Case 2 : X-linked recessive disease
(3) Case 1 : Y-linked recessive disease; case 2 : X-linked recessive disease
(4) None of these

38) A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have
seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons) Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of
the daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this
disease ?

(1) Autosomal dominant

(2) Sex-linked dominant
(3) Sex-limited recessive
(4) Sex-linked recessive

39) What name is given to the type of gene mutation illustrated in the following diagram?

(1) Inversion
(2) Deletion
(3) Insertion
(4) Substitution

40) Read the following statements (A-D) :- (A) All gene mutation result in non-synthesis of normal
product.
(B) Polygenic inheritance also takes into account the influence of environment
(C) Genes present on different loci always control different characters.
(D) In case of back cross, genotype ratio and phenotype ratio are always same.
How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

41) All of the following statements are excluded from linkage phenomenon except :-

The two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of
(1)
parental gene combinations are much lower than non-parental combination
The two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the two different chromosomes and the
(2)
proportion of parental gene combinations are much higher than the non-parental combination.
(3) In case of linkage, the ratio of dihybrid test cross is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.
Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same
(4) chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and mapped their position on the
chromosome.

42) Read the following four statement (A-D) :-

(A) In monohybrid test cross and dihybrid test cross result of F2 generation has phenotypic ratio.
(B) Alleles of same gene are present on the same locus of non homologous chromosome pair.
(C) In case of complete linkage recombinants are not formed
(D) Result of f2 generation when selfing is takes place in monohybrid cross shows dominance &
segregation both.
How many statements are right ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) The mutation seen in the below given representation is

(1) Substitution mutation

(2) Chromosomal aberration
(3) Frame-shift mutation
(4) Deletion mutation

44) Given below are two statements.

Statement-A : Frame shift mutation (Gibberish mutation) provides proof that genetic code is
commaless.
Statement-B : Frame shift mutation involves the change the protein product due to addition or
deletion.
Answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct
(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect

45) Match the columns

Column – I Column - II
a. Down’s syndrome p. Presence an extra sex chromosome
b. Cri-du-chat syndrome q. Loss of short arm of chromosome 5
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome r. Absence of a sex chromosome
d. Turner’s syndrome s. Presence of an extra somatic chromosome
(1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(2) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(4) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p

ZOOLOGY

1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as :-

(1) Natural genetic engineer of plant

(2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(4) Symbiotic plant

2) After completing the transfer of a desired DNA in vector which was having 'Lac Z' gene as marker
gene, the recombinant colonies should :-

(1) Give blue colour

(2) Not give blue colour
(3) Have active galactosidase enzyme
(4) Both (2) & (3)

3) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Hind II is the first restriction endonuclease that cuts DNA molecules at a specific
recognition sequence of six base pairs.
Statement II: The naming convention for restriction enzymes includes the first letter from the genus
and the next two letters from the species of the prokaryotic cell they were isolated from, such as
EcoRI from Escherichia coli.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

4) Which of the following processes is not a part of the downstream processing in product
development?

(1) Separation
(2) Purification
(3) Formulation with preservatives
(4) Photosynthesis

5) Which of the following is not correctly described?

(1) Vector Able to carry foreign DNA into host cell

Technique which introduce DNA into
(2) Gene gun host cell via DNA coated with gold or
tungsten
Technique used for separation of DNA
Gel
(3) fragment through a gel when subjected
electrophoresis
to an electric field
Restriction Degerade the bacterial DNA into small
(4)
endonuclease piece during replication
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Statement-I : Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA.

Statement-II : Endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

7) Bioprocess engineering enables-

(1) Microbial contamination free environment.

(2) Growth of only the desired microbe/ eukaryotic cells.
(3) Production in large quantities.
(4) All of the above

8) Statement-I : Bioreactors have volume of 100-1000 liters.

Statement-II : They provide optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing
optimum growth conditions.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

9) Solution/Explanation:
Assertion (A) : Genetic engineering overcomes the drawbacks of traditional hybridisation.
Reason (R) : Genetic engineering involves creation of a recombinant DNA and introduce the
desirable genes into target organisms.
Final Answer is option (1).

(1) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true but R is false
(4) If A is false but R is true

10)

Observe the given diagram and choose the correct option

(1) A - Motor, B - Foam braker, C - Flat bladed impeller, D - Sterile air

(2) A - Sterile air, B - Foam braker, C - Flat bladed impeller, D - Motor
(3) A - Flat bladed impeller, B - Motor, C - Sterile air, D - Foam braker
(4) A - Sterile air, B - Motor, C - Foam braker, D - Flat bladed impeller

11) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is called:

(1) PCR
(2) Scaling
(3) Spooling
(4) Elution

12) The almost pure DNA which gets precipitated by chilled ethanol is removed from solution by
process:-

(1) Spooling
(2) Elution
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(4) Scaling

13) During heat shock to the bacterium, the temperature used for giving thermal shock is:

(1) 24°C
(2) 109°C
(3) Room temperature
(4) 42°C

14) After electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments, can be visualised in ethidium bromide gel
exposed to UV light. These DNA fragments appear as ______ coloured bands.

(1) Orange
(2) Blue
(3) Silver
(4) Green

15) Approximately how many restriction enzymes have been isolated from the different (over 230)
strains of bacteria?

(1) 300
(2) 600
(3) 750
(4) 900

16) The conventional method for naming the restriction enzymes is followed. In case EcoRI, the
letter 'R' indicates the name of:

(1) Genus
(2) Species
(3) Scientist (discoverer)
(4) Strain

17) Gel electrophoresis is used for:

(1) Isolation of DNA molecule

(2) Cutting of DNA into fragments
(3) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
(4) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining foreign DNA with cloning vectors

18) Molecular scissors refer to:

(1) Restriction enzymes

(2) Ribozymes
(3) Recombinant DNA
(4) Vectors
19) Plasmid used to make the first artificial recombinant DNA was isolated from which bacterium?

(1) [Link]
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Agrobacterium
(4) Streptococcus

20) Choose the correct statement for insertional inactivation of gene for the synthesis of -
galactosidase enzyme:

(1) Blue colour colonies due to presence of insert and are recombinant colonies.
(2) Colourless colonies due to presence of insert and are non-recombinant colonies.
(3) Blue colour colonies due to presence of insert and are non-recombinant colonies.
(4) Colourless colonies due to presence of insert and are recombinant colonies.

21) Tools of recombinant DNA technology is/are

(1) Restriction enzymes

(2) Cloning vectors
(3) Competent hosts
(4) All of these

22) Which of the following is a characteristic of vector?

(1) It has selectable marker

(2) It has cloning sites for restriction endonuclease
(3) It has origin of replication (ori) sequence
(4) All are correct

23) First recombinant DNA was constructed by:

(1) Franklin Stahl and Meselson in 1972

(2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972
(3) Jacob and Monod 1952
(4) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1952

24) First restriction endonuclease is:

(1) Hind I
(2) Hind II
(3) EcoRI
(4) Bam HI

25) The three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism are:

(i) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
(ii) Formation of multiple copies of vector
(iii) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny
(iv) Separation and isolation of RNA fragments
(v) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
(vi) Bioprocess engineering

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(3) (i), (iii) and (v)
(4) (i), (iv) and (vi)

26) Assertion: Normally, antibiotic resistant genes such as ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline
or kanamycin resistant genes are considered useful selectable markers for [Link].
Reason: The normal [Link] cells carry resistance against these antibiotics.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

27) Assertion: Bacteria made 'competent' to take up DNA by treating them with a specific
concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium.
Reason: Calcium increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its
cell wall.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

28) Match the following enzymes with their functions:

Column-I Column-II

Joins the DNA

(A) Endonuclease (i)
fragments

Extends primers on
(B) Exonuclease (ii) genomic DNA
template

Cuts DNA at specific

(C) DNA ligase (iii)
position within the DNA

Removes nucleotides
(D) Taq polymerase (iv)
from the ends of DNA
(1) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii).
(2) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii).
(3) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii).
(4) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii).

29) For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded to the plant cells are
made up of:

(1) Silicon or Platinum

(2) Gold or Tungsten
(3) Silver or Platinum
(4) Platinum or Zinc

30) Match the following techniques or instruments with their usage:

Column-I Column-II

Separation of DNA
(A) Bioreactor (i)
fragments

Production of large
(B) Electrophoresis (ii)
quantities of products

(C) PCR (iii) Molecular diagnosis

(D) ELISA (iv) Amplification of nucleic acids

Select the correct option from following:

(1) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv).
(2) (A) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i).
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii).
(4) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i).

31) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence. Choose option which
contain correct sequence:
(i) Isolation of DNA.
(ii) Isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(iii) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host.
(iv) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector.
(v) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
(vi) Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale and extraction of the desired product.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)

(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(3) (i), (v), (ii), (iv), (iii), (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii), (vi)

32) Name the regions marked A, B and C.

(1) A - BamH I, B - tetR, C - ampR
(2) A - EcoR I, B - ampR, C - Hind I
(3) A - BamH I, B - Pst I, C - ampR
(4) A - EcoR I, B - Pst I, C - tetR

33) Given figure represents a typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of undigested
and digested set of DNA fragments. Select correct option for migration of fragments?

(1) Lane 2 to 4-undigested and lane 1-digested set of DNA fragments

(2) Lane 1-undigested and lane 2 to 4-digested set of DNA fragments
(3) Lane 1 to 3-undigested and lane 4-digested set of DNA fragments
(4) lane 2 and 3-undigested and lane 1 and 4-digested set of DNA fragments

34) The linking of desired gene with the plasmid vector become possible with the special enzyme,
which acts on cut DNA molecules and join their ends, this enzyme is called

(1) Restriction enzyme

(2) DNA ligase
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) Reverse transcriptase

35) Pvu I site is present in pBR322 at

(1) ampR
(2) tetR
(3) Ori
(4) rop

36) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement-A: Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants, is able to deliver a
piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ into plant host cells and transform them.
Statement-B: Non disarmed retroviruses are used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement A is correct while statement B is incorrect
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is correct

37) Retroviruses are related to animals as ______ are related to plants.

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks w.r.t. genetic engineering.

(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) Thermus aquaticus

38) The correct sequence for each cycle in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

(1) Extension, Annealing, Denaturation

(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

39) Microinjection introduces recombinant DNA ____ into the nucleus of a/an ____ cell.
Fill in the given blanks respectively by choosing suitable option.

(1) Directly, animal

(2) Indirectly, animal
(3) Directly, plant
(4) Indirectly, plant

40) Fill up the blanks. (A) When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments
have the same kind of _____ and these can be joined together for end-to-end using ______. (B)
Disruption of the cell wall can be achieved by treating the bacterial cells, plant or animal tissue with
enzymes such as _____ (bacteria), _____ (plant cells) and _____ (fungus).
(C) If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called as _____. (D) In gel
electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments can be seen only after staining the DNA with a
compound known as _____ followed by exposure to UV radiation.

A-sticky ends, recombinase; B-lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase; C-recombinant protein; D-ethidium

(1)
bromide
A-sticky ends, DNA ligases; B-exonuclease, cellulase, chitinase; C-recombinant protein; D-
(2)
ethidium bromide
A-cut ends, DNA topoisomerase; B-hemicellulose, cellulase, chitinase; C-native glycoprotein; D-
(3)
CSCI
A-sticky ends, DNA ligases; B-lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase; C-recombinant protein; D-ethidium
(4)
bromide
41) EcoR I cuts the DNA between the same two bases on the opposite strands when following
sequence is present in the DNA ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The term 'competent' for a bacterium host cell denotes

(1) a transformed bacterium cell

(2) a bacterial cell ready to take up foreign DNA
(3) a bacterium infected with bacteriophage
(4) product of a desired gene inside a host bacterium

43) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement-1 : In insertional inactivation, blue colour produced by bacterial colonies indicates that
the plasmid does not have an insert.
Statement-2 : Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of gene for the β-galactosidase
enzyme and the colonies do not produce any colour.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 2 is correct and statement 1 is incorrect

44) The definition given by EFB for biotechnology is

(1) Techniques of using live organisms only

(2) Techniques of using enzymes only to produce products and processes useful to humans
The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues
(3)
for products and services
(4) Techniques which include only synthesizing a gene and using it

45) Consider the following statements and select the correct option :-
(A) Any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, is called a recombinant protein.
(B) Stirred tank reactor facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.
(C) The down stream processing and quality control testing similar to all products.

(1) A and C are correct while B is wrong

(2) A and B are correct while C is wrong
(3) C and B are correct while A is wrong
(4) Only A is correct while B and C are wrong
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 1 4 2 4 1 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 3 4 3 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 4 4 4 1 3 4 3 4 3 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 2 3 3 1 1 1 3 3 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 3 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 2 1 3 2 4 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 1 1 2 3 1 1 2 3 3 1 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 1 3 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 2 2 4 4 4 4 1 1 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 3 1 2 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

E = n1hγ1 = n2hγ2

2)

Stopping potential depends on the wavelength of the radiation and does not change with
distance between the source and the photoelectric cell. Intensity of illumination varies
inversely as the square of distance.

Therefore

3) Explanation:
No. of proton's striking per sec.
Concept:
Force is the rate of change of momentum
Solution:
F = ΔP/Δt
For totally reflecting surface Δp = 2p

Δp=2( )

= 4.98×1027
Correct option: (1)

4) Given that;
energy of photon, (E) = hv = 8 eV
threshold frequency, (v0) = 1.6 × 1015 Hz
From Einstein's photelectric equation
KEmax = hv – hv0

or
or KEmax = 8 –6.6
or KEmax = 1.4 eV
5) . From the graph V2>V1

⇒ λ1 >λ2

6)

K = hν – ϕ
2 = hν – 2

hν = 4 eV ⇒
ν = 1015 Hz

7)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks why the wave theory of light cannot explain the
photoelectric effect. It provides observations from the photoelectric effect and wants to
identify which one(s) contradict the wave nature explanation.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves the photoelectric effect, where electrons are
emitted from a metal when light shines on it. Key points include the threshold frequency below
which no electrons are emitted, the maximum kinetic energy of electrons depending on light
frequency, and the instantaneous emission of electrons. These cannot be explained by classical
wave theory but are explained by the quantum idea of photons with energy quantized as E =
hν.

Relevant Formulas: E = hν, where E is the energy of a photon, h is Planck's constant, and
ν is the frequency of light.

Maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons: where is the work function

(energy needed to eject an electron).

Tips and Tricks: Remember that wave theory predicts gradual energy absorption and
dependence on intensity, while photon theory predicts energy packets (photons) with energy
dependent only on frequency.

Common Mistakes: Assuming that increasing light intensity, even at low frequencies, can
eventually cause electron emission (which contradicts the threshold frequency observation).

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that only mention one of the observations (like
only threshold frequency or only absence of time lag) do not fully explain why wave theory falls
short. The correct answer includes all observations, because wave theory fails to account for
all three simultaneously.
8)

Theory based

9)

Using eV0 = E – ϕ

0
6eV = –ϕ .....(1)

0
2eV = –ϕ .....(2)
(1) dividing (2)

3=

2ϕ = ⇒ ϕ=

0
⇒ λ = 4λ

10)

11)

Use : KE ∝ temperature ∝ (momentum)2

12)
Applying momentum conservation

= .... (1)
Since, collision is elastic (e = 1)

0
e=1= ⇒ V = VB – VA ... (2)

On solving (1) & (2) :

Now, De-Broglie wavelength of A before collision :
⇒
Final De-Broglie wavelength :

⇒
Now Δλ = lf – λ0

Δλ =

⇒ Δλ = ⇒ Δλ = 4 ×
⇒ Δλ = 4λ0

13)

14) Let m be the mass of particle.

, where symbols have their usual meanings.

and

15) Energy of the electron, when it comes out from the second plate = 200 eV - 100 eV = 100
eV Hence accelerating potential difference = 100 V

16)

Angular momentum (mvr) = = (n = 1)

17)

Conceptual

18) Question Explained

We need to identify the failure of Rutherford's atomic model among the given options.
Concept
Based on Limitations of Rutherford's Atomic Model in explaining atomic structure and
spectra.

Analysis of Given Options/Calculation/Clearification :

• Option 1: Incorrect - Rutherford's model introduced the concept of the nucleus and
successfully explained it.
• Option 2: Incorrect - The model was based on a-particle scattering, and it explained the
experimental results of scattering correctly.
• Option 3: Correct - The model could not explain the discrete nature of the hydrogen
spectrum since it suggested that electrons should spiral into the nucleus due to continuous
energy loss.
• Option 4: Incorrect - Since only option 3 is correct, option 4 (All of the above) is incorrect.
Final Answer
Option (3) is correct: "It couldn't explain discrete nature of hydrogen spectra."

19) The energy of the projectile will be equivalent to potential energy of the charge system.

Energy [E ∝ Z1 Z2]

20)

Diameter or radius ∝ n2

⇒ D = 100 × 1.06 Å
= 106 Å

21) l ∝

22) Transition from (4E to E)

Energy of photon 4E – E = ,

thus λ1 = ....(1)

Transition from ( E to E)

λ2 = ....(2)
eq. (1) & (2)

23)
In the first case K.E. of H-atom increases due to recoil whereas in the second case K.E.
decreases due to recoil but E1 + KE1 = E2 + KE2.
∴ E2 > E1

24) . Further, and r ∝ n2m hence ω ∝ (1/n3).

25) = =

26)

Using =
For α particle: n1 = 2, n2 = 1

For metal A ; =
⇒ z1 = 26

For metal B ; 675R =

⇒ z2 = 21

27)

Concept
The minimum wavelength (λmin) given by the Duane-Hunt law and is inversely related to the
applied voltage.
Formula

where V = 40 kv (or 40,000 V).

Calculation

Since the X-ray tube cannot produce wavelengths smaller than 0.031 A. wavelengths greater
than or equal to 0031 A are possible.
• Wavelengths 0.25 A, 0.5 A, 0.52 A, and 0.34 are all larger than the minimum wavelength of
0031 A. However, 0.25 is smaller than the possible minimum wavelength for the 40 kv tube,
making itimpossi
Answer: Option I (0.25 A)

28) Tn is independent of n,

29)
Energy of nth state in Hydrogen is same as energy of 3nth state in Li++.
∴ 3 – 1 transition in H would give same energy as the 3 × 3 ⇒ 1 × 3
transition in Li++.

30) Let the three energy levels be E1, E2 and E3. The wavelength λ1, λ2 and λ3 of the spectra

lines corresponding to the three energy transitions. ;

Given that
Thus, for the three wavelengths, we have

.....(1)

.....(2)

.....(3)

31) V = =
V' = 2V ⇒ A' = 2A = 120
⇒ Z = 50

32) Energy is released in a process when total Binding energy (B.E.) of the nucleus is
increased or we can say when total B.E. of products is more than the reactants. By calculation
we can see that only in case of option (3), this happens. Given W → 2Y
B.E. of reactants = 120 × 75 = 900 MeV
and B.E. of products = 2 × (60 × 85) = 1020 MeV i.e. B.E. of products > B.E. of
reactants.

33) 11Na24 → 11Na23 + 01n

∴ = 23 × 7.68 – 24 × 7048 = – 2.88 MeV

34)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given nuclei (helium-4, lithium-7,
carbon-12, or nitrogen-14) is the most stable. Stability in this context is related to how strongly
the nucleons (protons and neutrons) are bound together within the nucleus. We compare the
nuclei based on their binding energy per nucleon to determine which one is most stable.

Underlying Concept: The core scientific concept is the binding energy per nucleon in nuclear
physics. Binding energy is the energy required to disassemble a nucleus into its individual
protons and neutrons. Higher binding energy per nucleon means the nucleus is more tightly
bound and thus more stable.

Relevant Formulas: Binding energy per nucleon =

Where: - BE = total binding energy in MeV - A = total number of nucleons (protons +
neutrons)

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate the binding energy per nucleon for each nucleus
by dividing the given binding energy by the mass number.

For :

For :

For :

For :
Step 2: Compare these values to identify the highest binding energy per nucleon.

Tips and Tricks: Focus on calculating binding energy per nucleon to compare nuclei of
different sizes fairly. This is a common approach in nuclear physics to assess stability.

Common Mistakes: A common error is comparing the total binding energies directly without
dividing by the number of nucleons, which can lead to misidentifying the most stable nucleus.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing a nucleus with higher total binding energy
but lower binding energy per nucleon is incorrect because stability depends on average energy
holding each nucleon, not the total alone.

35) A200 → B120 + C80 + Q

Q = (B.E.)f – (B.E.)i
120 = Eb + 80 × 8 – 200 × 7.5
Eb = 980 MeV

36)

Question Explanation:
Comparing nuclear forces between proton-proton (Fpp) proton-neutron (Fpn) and neutron-
neutron (Fnn) at 1 fm distance. Determine their relative strengths based on nuclear force
properties.

Concept:
Nuclear Force

Solution:
1. Charge Independence : Nuclear force strength is approximately equal between any
nucleon pair at 1 fm.
2. Short Rage: Nuclear force operates effectively at 1 fm.
3. Conclusion : Fpp ≈ Fpn ≈ Fnn

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

37) Nuclear forces between two forces may also be repulsive for small separation between
them.

38)

Explanation :
The total energy released in the fission of 2 moles of Uranium -235 needs to be determined
given that energy released per fission is approximately 200 MeV.

Concept:
Nuclear fission → Energy released per fission event multiplied by the number of fission
reactions.

Formula
Total Energy = (Energy per fission) × (Number of atoms undergoing fission)
Number of atoms = Moles ×NA

Calculation:
• Energy per fission of U-235 = 200MeV
• Number of atoms in 2 moles = 2 × 6.022 ×1023
• Total Energy Released:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

39)

Total energy liberated

= 8.5 MeV (117 +117) – 7.6 MeV (236)
= 1989 MeV – 1793.6 MeV
= 195.4 MeV
 200 MeV

40)
In per hour = 1.1×1019 × 3600 = 3960×1019 /hr
= 4 × 1022 /hr

41)

Question Asking About:

We need to determine the numerical relationship of binding energy per nucleon between
fusion products and fusing nuclei to understand why energy is released in nuclei fusion.

Key Concept:
Binding energy per nucleon in nuclear fusion.

Formula
• Fusion Process: Light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus
• Energy Release Condition:
Binding Energy per Nucleon (Product) > Binding Energy per Nucleon (Reactant)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
• In nuclei fusion (e.g. hydrogen fusion to helium) the binding energy per nucleon increases
for the product nucleus.
• This means the fusion products have higher binding energy per nucleon than the fusing
nuclei leading to the release of excess energy.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

42)

Q = 4(7.047 – 1.112) = 23.8 MeV

43) 3Li6 + 0n1 → 2He4 + 1H3

2 3 4 1
1H + 1H → 2He + 0n

Energy released in process

Q = Δmc2
Q = [M(Li)+ M (1H2) –2 × M(2He4)] × 931.5 MeV
Q = [6.01690 + 2.01471 – 2 × 4.00388] × 931.5 MeV
Q = 22.216 MeV
Q = 22.22 MeV

44) No solution is required

 45) Question Explanation:
Boron us used in nuclear reactors for controlling the neutron flux. The question asks for the
specific role of boron in reactors.

Concept:
Boron is a neutron absorber, used to control the rate of nuclear reactions by capturing excess
neutrons in reactors.

Formula:
Boron absorbs neutrons through the reaction:
Boron - 10 + Neutron → Boron - 11.

Calculation:
Boraon-10 (B-10) captures a thermal neutron and undergoes a reaction that produces
Boron-11, B-11) while releasing energy, thus reducing excess neutrons in the reactor.
The correct answer is A. absorption of neutrons.

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation:
The question asks why Cu+ is unstable in water, prompting consideration of its chemical
behavior and relavite stability compared to other copper species in solution.
Concept:
Thermodynamic stability of different oxidation states of an element in a specific environment
(aqueious solution in this case).
Solution:
Cu+ in unstable in aqueious solution due to its tendency to undergo disporportionation. It
spontaneously oxidized to Cu2+ and reduces to Cu(s) because Cu2+ is more stable in water due
to its higher hydration enthalpy.

Final Answer: Option (2)

47) Explanation:
The question asks for the main reason transition elements form complex compounds.
Cocept:
General Properties of d block
Solution:
Transition elements form complex compounds primarily due to the availability of empty d
orbitals in their valence shell. These orbitals can accept lone pairs of electrons from ligands,
forming coordinate covalent bonds, which are characteristic of complex ions.
Final Answer: Option:1

48) Question Explanation: Identifying the acidic oxide of Manganese.

Concept: Acidic Nature of Oxides and Oxidation State.
Solution: The acidity of a metal oxide increases as the oxidation state of the metal
increases. We calculate the oxidation state (O.S.) of Mn in each oxide:

A. MnO:Mn+2 (Basic)
B. Mn2​O7​:Mn+7 (Most Acidic)
C. Mn2​O3​:Mn+3 (Amphoteric/Weakly Basic)
D. MnO2​:Mn+4 (Amphoteric) Calculation: Mn2​O7​→2x+7(−2)=0→x=+7. The highest O.S. makes
it the most acidic oxide. Final Answer: Mn2​O7

49) Cr+3 will have 3 unpaired e–

50) eg =

51) Question Explanation: Identifying the strongest Reducing ion.

Concept: Reducing Power and Stability of Oxidation States.
Solution: The strongest Reducing ion is the one most easily oxidized (M2+→M3+). Cr2+ (d4)
is easily oxidized to the highly stable Cr3+ (d3). Final Answer: Cr+2.

52)

Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+

53)

Question Asking:

A. The electronic configuration of Gadolinium (Gd, atomic number 64).

Concept:

A. Electronic Configuration: The distribution of electrons among the energy levels of an atom.
B. Gadolinium (Gd): A lanthanide element with atomic number 64.
C. Stability of Half-Filled Orbitals: The stability associated with half-filled f-orbitals (f7).
D. Xenon (Xe): A noble gas with atomic number 54.

Formula:

A. No specific formula is needed, but understanding the electronic configuration rules is

essential.

Solution/Explanation:

A. General Electronic Configuration of Lanthanides:

A. The general electronic configuration of lanthanides is [Xe] 4f1–14 5d0–1 6s2.

B. Gadolinium (Gd):
 A. Gd has an atomic number of 64.
B. The expected configuration would be [Xe] 4f8 6s2.
C. However, due to the extra stability of the half-filled 4f⁷ orbital, one electron from the 4f
orbital is shifted to the 5d orbital.
D. Therefore, the actual electronic configuration of Gd is [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

54)

Chromyl chloride test

55)

Asking for : To match transition metal ions (Ti2+, Zn2+, Mn2+, Fe2+) with their calculated
magnetic moments.

Concept : Magnetic moment

Solution :
Magnetic moment (Mcalculated​) is determined by the number of unpaired electrons (n) using the
spin-only formula: n(n+2)​ BM.

A. Ti2+ = [Ar](3d2) : n=2, M≈2.83 BM (P)

B. Zn2+ = [Ar](3d10) : n=0, M=0 BM (R)
C. Mn2+ = [Ar](3d5) : n=5, M≈5.92 BM (Q)
D. Fe2+ = [Ar](3d6) : n=4, M≈4.90 BM (S)

The correct match is A-(p), B-(r), C-(q), D-(s).

Answer : Option : 3

56)

Effective nuclear charge

57)

Their d-subshells are completely filled

58)

Question Explanation :

Select which given statements about chromate, dichromate, manganate, and oxides are
correct

Concept :

Structure, acid–base equilibria, electronic configuration, disproportionation, oxidation-state

covalency.

Solution :

(A) False — CrO₄²⁻ is tetrahedral, not square planar.

(B) True — chromates convert to dichromates on acidification.

(C) False — Mn⁶⁺ in MnO₄²⁻ is d¹, paramagnetic.

(D) True — manganate disproportionates to permanganate and MnO₂ in acid/neutral.

(E) True — higher oxidation states increase covalency, reducing ionic character.

Final Answer : Option (1)

59) Question Explanation: Explaining why Zr and Hf have similar atomic and ionic radii.
Concept: Lanthanoid Contraction.
Solution: The similar size of 4d (Zr) and 5d (Hf) elements is a direct consequence of the
Lanthanoid Contraction. Final Answer: Lanthanoid contraction.
Due to lanthanoid contraction Zr and Hf have similar atomic radius.

60)

Cr and Mn in K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4 are in +6 and +7 states which are highest in them and result
0
in d configuration.
Thus, their colours are due to charge transfer transitions and not d-d transition.

61)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to understand the conditions under which forces
acting on a rigid body keep it in rotational equilibrium. Specifically, it wants to know how the
arrangement and lines of action of forces affect the net torque, so the body doesn't rotate.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is rotational equilibrium in physics, which states that
a rigid body remains in rotational equilibrium if the net torque about any axis is zero. This
involves understanding torque, the effect of a force's line of action relative to the pivot, and
how multiple forces combine to produce zero net torque.

Relevant Formulas: The key formula used is: \[ \sum \vec{\tau}_P = 0 \] where is the
torque about point . Torque depends on the magnitude of the force , the perpendicular
distance from the pivot (lever arm), and the angle of application, often given as .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that for three forces to be in equilibrium, their lines of action
must be concurrent or parallel. Using the point where lines of action intersect as a pivot helps
simplify torque calculations as moment arms become zero.

Common Mistakes: Assuming one force alone can keep a body in rotational equilibrium
without it acting through the axis. Not checking if lines of action meet or if torques from
different forces cancel out properly.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options suggesting non-concurrent forces or forces
with non-zero net torque fail because they do not satisfy the equilibrium condition of zero net
torque.

62)

Asking for : Equivalence of Cr-O bonds in dichromate (Cr2​O72−​).

Concept : Dichromate has bridging and terminal oxygen atoms. Resonance affects bond
lengths and equivalence.

Solution: Dichromate has a Cr-O-Cr bridge. There are two bridging Cr-O single bonds and six
terminal Cr=O double bonds. Resonance delocalizes the double bond character among the six
terminal Cr-O bonds, making them equivalent. The bridging bonds are different.

Answer : Option : 2

63)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks why the elements in the second and third rows of
transition metals share more similar properties with each other than with the first-row
elements.

Underlying Concept: The main concept involved is the lanthanoid contraction. This refers to
the gradual decrease in atomic and ionic radii observed in the lanthanoid series due to poor
shielding by the 4f electrons. As a result, the 5d (third-row) transition metals have atomic sizes
very close to the 4d (second-row) transition metals, leading to similar chemical properties.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that poor shielding by f-electrons causes the atomic radius to
contract more than usual, so elements beyond the lanthanides in the periodic table appear
smaller than expected, making their properties similar to the previous row.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the similarities arise from diagonal relationships, oxidation
states, or ionisation enthalpies instead of size effects due to lanthanoid contraction.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Diagonal relationships usually occur between lighter
elements in different groups and periods, not between second and third row transition metals.
Ionisation enthalpy and oxidation states may be similar to some extent but are not the main
cause of the close resemblance. The key factor is the near identical atomic radii caused by
lanthanoid contraction.

64) Explaining the question : The question asks for the electronic configuration of the
 element with atomic number 106.
Concept : Aufbau principle
Solution :

Element 106 (Seaborgium) follows the Aufbau principle after Radon, resulting in the
configuration [Rn] 5f146d47s2

65)

Explanation - This question asks for the correct order of basicity among transition metal
monoxides.

Concept - (Basicity Order)

The basic character of transition metal monoxides decreases across the period. TiO is the most
basic, followed by VO, CrO, and FeO. This trend is due to increasing electronegativity and
decreasing ionic character. Higher ionic character correlates with greater basicity.
Therefore, TiO > VO > CrO > FeO is the correct order.

Final Answer - Option (4)

66) Explaining the question : The question states that the standard reduction potential for
the Mn3+/Mn2+ redox couple is significantly more positive than those for Cr3+/Cr2+ or
Fe3+/Fe2+.
Concept : Ionisation energy
Solution : The highly positive E∘Mn3+/Mn2+​ is due to the large third ionization enthalpy of Mn
required to remove an electron from the stable half-filled d5 configuration of Mn2+ to form Mn3+
(d4).

67) Question Explanation: Counting the number of gaseous products formed from the given
reactions of lanthanoids (Ln).
Concept: Chemical Reactivity of Lanthanides.
Solution: We analyze each reaction pathway to identify gaseous products:

A. Burns in O2​: Ln2​O3​ (Solid).

B. With acids: Ln+H+→Ln3++H2​ (1 Gas).
C. With halogens: LnX3​ (Solid).
D. With H2​O: Ln(OH)3​+H2​ (2 Gases).
E. With C at 2773 K: Carbides LnC2​, Ln2​C3​, Ln3​C (Solids).
F. Heated with N2​: LnN (Solid). Calculation: The gaseous products are H2​ from reaction with
acids and H2​ from reaction with H2​O. Total number of gaseous products is 2. Final Answer: 2

68)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which pair of actinoid elements can exhibit oxidation
states up to +7. In simpler terms, it wants to know which two elements from the given options
can reach the highest oxidation number of +7 in their chemical compounds.
 Underlying Concept: The core concept is the variation in oxidation states of actinoid
elements. Actinoids can have multiple oxidation states due to their electronic configurations,
and some exhibit high oxidation states up to +7. Identifying which elements can reach this
state involves understanding their chemistry and common oxidation states.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that neptunium and plutonium are unique among actinoids in
frequently exhibiting the +7 oxidation state, while uranium generally reaches only +6, and
americium rarely goes beyond +6.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all actinoids can reach +7 or confusing americium's highest
oxidation state with +7.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options containing uranium do not qualify because
uranium's highest stable oxidation state is +6. Similarly, americium does not reach +7, so
pairs including americium are incorrect.

69) Question Explanation: Identifying the correct order of ionic radii of

Ce3+,La3+,Eu3+,Lu3+.
Concept: Lanthanoid Contraction.
Solution: Ionic radii of Ln3+ ions decrease steadily as the atomic number increases
(Lanthanoid Contraction).

A. Order by Z: La(57)<Ce(58)<Eu(63)<Lu(71).
B. Order by size (Decreasing): La3+>Ce3+>Eu3+>Lu3+.
C. Order by size (Increasing): Lu3+<Eu3+<Ce3+<La3+. Final Answer:
Lu3+<Eu3+<Ce3+<La3+

On going from La3+ to Lu3+, the ionic radii decreases from 1.15Å to 0.93Å (lanthanoid contraction).

70)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks why actinoids show more varied oxidation states
compared to lanthanides. In simpler terms, it wants to understand what causes actinoid
elements to have more ways to lose electrons and form different charged ions than lanthanoid
elements.

Underlying Concept: The key concept is the energy difference between atomic orbitals
involved in bonding and ionization. In actinoids, the 5f and 6d orbitals are very close in energy,
so electrons can be removed from either, making multiple oxidation states accessible. In
contrast, lanthanides have a larger energy gap between the 4f and 5d orbitals, so they mostly
lose electrons from the 4f orbitals, restricting them mainly to one oxidation state (+3).

Tips and Tricks: Remember that smaller energy gaps between orbitals mean electrons can be
removed from multiple orbitals easily, leading to various oxidation states.

Common Mistakes: Assuming lanthanides and actinoids behave the same because they are in
f-block; ignoring orbital energy differences causes confusion.
 Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options mentioning energy gaps between 5d & 4f or 7s
& 7d or 6s & 4f are incorrect because these gaps are not as relevant or small in actinoids to
allow multiple oxidation states. The small energy gap between 6d and 5f in actinoids is the key
reason.

71) Explanation:
Reaction of Cu+2 with excess KI is asked.
Concept:
Cu+2 oxidizes I– to I2
Solution:
2 Cu+2 + → Cu2 I2 + I2
In this reaction Cu2 I2 and I2 is formed as prodirt Cu I2 is not foryed.

72)

Question Explanation: Matching metal sulfates (vitriols) with their common names.
Concept: Common Names of Metal Salts.
Solution:

A. (i) FeSO4​⋅7H2​O: →(p) Green Vitriol.

B. (ii) MgSO4​⋅7H2​O: →(r) Epsom Salt.
C. (iii) ZnSO4​⋅7H2​O: →(s) White Vitriol.
D. (iv) CuSO4​⋅5H2​O: →(q) Blue Vitriol. Final Answer: a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q.

73) Question Explanation: Identifying the non-existent product in the reaction sequence
involving CuSO4​ and KI.
Concept: Redox Reaction of Cu2+ with I−.
Solution: When CuSO4​ (Cu2+) reacts with KI (I−), an immediate redox reaction occurs. The
CuI2​ intermediate does not exist because the Cu2+ ion, acting as an oxidizing agent,
immediately oxidizes the reducing agent I− to I2​ , while Cu2+ is reduced to the stable Cu2​I2​
(Cu+). Calculation: 2Cu2++4I−→Cu2​I2​(s)+I2​. Final Answer: CuI2​.

74)

AgBr + Na2S2O3 →

75) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify which of the four provided
chemical reactions is not incorrect( Means correct )
Concept : principles of redox reactions and thermodynamics
Solution : Reaction 3 (Cr2++ H+ → Cr3++ ½ ​H2​(↑)) is correct as Cr2+ can be oxidized by H+ to
Cr3+ with H2​ evolution.

76) Explanation:
Oxidizing power oxide of d-block element is asked
Concet:
By stability of oxidation state
 Solution:
Vo2+ < Cr2 O7–2 < MNO4– (oxidizing power)
This is due to the in creasing stability of the lower spuits to which they are reuled.

77)

Question Explanation: Assessing statements about the redox nature of Cr2+ and Mn3+ and
the E∘(M2+/M) trend.
Concept: Redox Tendency and Standard Reduction Potential.
Solution:

A. Statement I: Cr2+ (reduced to Cr3+) is a reducing agent. Mn3+ (reduced to Mn2+) is an

oxidising agent. (Correct)
B. Statement II: E∘(M2+/M) value for all 3d-series elements are negative. (Incorrect, Cu has a
positive value, +0.34 V). Final Answer: Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.

78) readily decolourises pink violet colour of acidified solution.

79) Question Explanation: Identifying the arrangement that does not represent the correct
order of the stated property.
Concept: Paramagnetic Behavior, Ionic Size, Stability, and Oxidation States Trends.
Solution: A. V2+(d3,n=3)<Cr2+(d4,n=4)<Mn2+(d5,n=5)>Fe2+(d6,n=4): Paramagnetic
behavior (μs​∝n). Fe2+(n=4) is not less than Mn2+(n=5), so Fe2+ is >V2+ but <Mn2+. The
given linear order is incorrect. B. Ni2+<Co2+<Fe2+<Mn2+: Ionic size (↓ across L→R).
(Correct). C. Co3+<Fe3+<Cr3+<Sc3+: Stability in aqueous solution
(Sc3+>Cr3+>Fe3+>Co3+). (Incorrect). D. Sc<Ti<Cr<Mn: Number of O.S. (Correct,
Sc(1)<Ti(2)<Cr(4)<Mn(5−6)). Final Answer: V2+<Cr2+<Mn2+<Fe2+: paramagnetic
behaviour.
Unpaired e¯
2+ 3
V : → 18[Ar] 3d → 3
2+ 4
Cr : → 18[Ar] 3d → 4
2+ 5
Mn : → 18[Ar] 3d → 5
2+ 6
Fe : → 18[Ar] 3d → 4
∴ Correct order : V < Cr = Fe2+ < Mn2+
2+ +2

80)

Question Explanation : Identifying the statement about dichromate/chromate that is not

true.

Concept : Chromate–dichromate equilibrium depends on pH; K2Cr2O7 is analytical standard.

Solution :

A. True: Dichromate (Cr2​O72−​, orange) shifts to chromate (CrO42−​, yellow) when pH>7 (alkali
added).
 B. True: H2​S reduces acidified K2​Cr2​O7​ to green Cr3+ and elemental sulfur (S), causing a milky
appearance.

C. False: K2​Cr2​O7​ is the preferred primary standard over Na2​Cr2​O7​ because the sodium salt is
hygroscopic.

D. True: Acidified K2​Cr2​O7​ is orange.

Final Answer : Option (3)

81) Titanium alloy has good mechanical properties at high temp.

82)

Asking for:

A. The reason for the purple color of KMnO₄.

Concept:

A. KMnO₄ Color: Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) exhibits a deep purple color.

B. Charge Transfer Spectra: A type of electronic transition where an electron is

transferred between metal and ligand orbitals.

Solution/Explanation:

A. The intense purple color of KMnO₄ is due to ligand tometal charge transfer spectra.
B. According to complementry color cycle.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

83) Question Explanation: Matching metal ions with their color and magnetic properties (μs
 ).
Concept: Color and Magnetic Moment of d-block Ions.
Solution:

A. Colorless ions (P) →d0 (Sc3+) or d10 (Zn2+). →(iv)

B. Coloured ions (R) →d1−9 (Fe3+,Cu2+). →(i)
C. μs​=5.9 BM (Q) →n=5 (Fe3+,Mn2+). →(iii)
D. μs​=1.7 BM (S) →n=1 (Ti3+,Cu2+). →(ii) Final Answer: (P)→(iv),Q→(iii),(R)→(i),S→(ii).

84)

85) La³⁺ has no unpaired electrons (electronic configuration [Xe]), making it colorless.

86)

Explain Question : Identify incorrect statement for dichromate ion.

Concept : This question is based on dichromate ion.

Solution : Cr is in +6 oxidation state with tetrahedral geometry.

Final Answer : option (4)

87)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 223 & 236

88)

KCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4 →

89)

Question Explanation: Identifying the correct statement when SO2​ is passed through
acidified K2​Cr2​O7​ solution.
Concept: Redox Reaction of Dichromate with SO2​.
Solution: Cr2​O72−​ (Orange) is reduced to Cr3+(Green), and SO2​ (S+4) is oxidized to SO42−​
(S+6). Final Answer: Green Cr2​(SO4​)3​ is formed.
When SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green from orange.
K2Cr2O7 + 2H2SO4 + 3SO2 → 2Cr2(SO4)3 + K2SO4 + H2O
 90) Question Explanation: Explaining why Mn reaches a higher O.S. in oxides (Mn2​O7​, +7)
than in fluorides (MnF4​, +4).
Concept: Stabilization of Highest Oxidation State.
Solution: Oxygen can form a double bond (σ+π) with Mn, allowing it to satisfy the higher
valency of Mn in a lower stoichiometric ratio and thus stabilizing the +7 state. In contrast,
fluorine forms only single bonds (σ only), making the formation of a compound like MnF7​
highly unfavorable due to steric hindrance. Calculation: No calculation is required. Final
Answer: In covalent compounds fluorine can form single bond only while oxygen form double
bond

BOTANY

91)

92)

93)

94)

95)

Seed colour in pea

96)

97)

98)

99)
101) NCERT, Pg. # 54

102)

103)

104)

105)

NCERT Reference:
Biology -XII, Page No.-88

107)

109)

110) NCERT Pg No: 65.

111)

Ncert Pg No: 77, 2021-22

112) Ncert Pg No: 87

113) Ncert Pg No: 60

114) NCERT_12_21-22_PG_85

115)
 The girl will be carrier (Heterozygous) for Hemophilia while the male have no history of
Haemophilia.

116) 50%

117)

118)

119)

120)

121)

123) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 82, Fig. 5.9

124) The correct answer is: 2. Her father and maternal grandfather were colorblind.

Explanation: The girl will be colorblind if:

A. Her father is colorblind (providing one X-chromosome with the colorblind allele).
B. Her maternal grandfather is colorblind (passing the colorblind allele to her mother)

Therefore, both her father and maternal grandfather must be colorblind for the girl to be colorblind.

126)
 NCERT XII, Pg # 83, 86, 87

127)

128)

129) NCERT_12_2021-22_91

130) NCERT (XII), Pg # 73,75,76,77,85

131) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 67

132)

133) Ncert Page 74 and 97.

134) NCERT Page No. # 113

135)

NCERT Page No. 76

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 178

137) NCERT-XII Pg # 170

138)

Statement I: Correct. Hind II is indeed the first restriction endonuclease discovered that cuts
DNA molecules at a specific recognition sequence of six base pairs. Statement II: Correct. The
naming convention for restriction enzymes is such that the first letter of the enzyme's name is
derived from the genus and the next two letters from the species of the prokaryotic cell from
which they were isolated, as exemplified by EcoRI, which comes from Escherichia coli.
 139) Downstream processing includes separation, purification, and formulation with suitable
preservatives. Photosynthesis is a biological process used by plants to convert light energy into
chemical energy and is not related to downstream processing in product development.

140)

Explanation:

Vector: Carries foreign DNA. Correct.

Gene gun: DNA coated gold/tungsten. Correct.

Gel electrophoresis: Separates DNA by size. Correct.

Restriction endonuclease: Cuts at specific sites, not during replication. Incorrect.

The correct answer is (4).

141)

Question Explanation: Types of DNA-cutting enzymes.

Concept:N uclease Enzyme Action

Solution: Reason: The names of these enzymes give a clue to their function. Exo- means
"outside," so exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of a DNA strand. Endo- means
"within," so endonucleases make cuts at specific positions inside the DNA strand. Both
statements correctly describe their respective jobs.

Final Answer: 4. Both statement I and statement II are correct.

142)

Solution:
Bioprocess engineering lets us:

A. Keep things clean (no unwanted microbes).

B. Grow only what we want.

Make lots of products.

Answer: (4) All of the above.

143) The correct answer is: 1 Both statement I and statement II are correct.

Explanation:
Statement I: Bioreactors often range from 100-1000 liters. (Correct in a general sense).
Statement II: They provide optimal growth conditions (Correct).

Correct option: (1)

144)

Solution/Explanation:

Genetic engineering is better than traditional breeding because it lets you add only the desired
genes to an organism, avoiding unwanted traits. This is done by creating recombinant DNA.

Final Answer is option (1). If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

145)

Explaining the Question : The question asks to identify the correct labals for the different
parts (A,B,C, D) in biorealor.

Concept : Bioreactors.

Solution : A - Motor
B. Form braker
C- Flat bladed impeller
D- Sterile air

Final answer : Option (1)

146) NCERT Page No. 198

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149) NCERT Page No. 198

150) NCERT Page No. 195

151) NCERT Page No. 195

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NCERT Page No. 195

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155) NCERT Page No. 200

156) NCERT Page No. 195

157) NCERT Page No. 199

158) NCERT Page No. 194

159) NCERT Page No. 195

160) NCERT Page No. 195

161) NCERT Page No. 199

162) NCERT Page No. 201

163) NCERT Page No. 196

164) NCERT Page No. 201

165) NCERT Page No. 209

166) NCERT Page No. 201

167) NCERT Page No. 199

168) NCERT Page No. 198

169)

NCERT Pg. No. 195

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NCERT Pg. No. 199

171)

NCERT Pg. No. 200

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NCERT Pg. No. 200

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NCERT Pg. No. 202

174)

NCERT Pg. No. 201

175)

NCERT Pg. No. 197,198, 203

176)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 195,197

177) NCERT XII Pg # 170

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 200

179) NCERT [Link].193

180)

NCERT Pg. No. 204