21-01-2026

6201CMD30300125WDWE016 MD

PHYSICS

1) Eight equal drops of water each of radius r = 2 mm are falling through air with a terminal velocity
of 16 cm/s. The eight drops combine to form a big drop. The terminal velocity of the bigger drop will
be :

(1) 16 cm/s
(2) 32 cm/s
(3) 64 cm/s
(4) 30 cm/s

2) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a,b and c

respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is :-

(1) 2a2c/b
(2) 3a/2b2c
(3) 2ac/b2
(4) 3c/2ab2

3) Assertion: Young's modulus for a perfectly plastic body is zero.

Reason: For a Perfectly plastic body, restoring force is zero.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) If Both Assertion and Reason are false

4) A copper rod 2m long is stretched by 1mm, strain will be :-

(1) 10–4, volumetric

(2) 5 × 10–4, volumetric
(3) 5 × 10–4, longitudinal
(4) 5 × 10–3, volumetric

5) The strain-stress curves of three wires of different materials are shwon figure. P, Q and R are the
elastic limits of the wires. The figure shows that:-

(1) Elasticity of wire P is maximum

(2) Elasticity of wire Q is maximum
(3) Elasticity of wire R is maximum
(4) None of the above is true

6) A rod is elongated by a length ℓ, when a body of mass M is suspended form it. The work done by
restoring force will be :-

(1) Mgℓ

(2)
Mgℓ
(3) 2Mgℓ
(4) Zero

7) A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 ×
10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight is negligible. The surface tension

of the liquid film is :

(1) 0.0125 Nm–1

(2) 0.1 Nm–1
(3) 0.05 Nm–1
(4) 0.025 Nm–1

8) A soap bubble of radius r is placed on another soap bubble of radius 3r. The radius of the surface,
common to both the bubbles, is :-

(1)

(2) 3r

(3)

(4) r

9) The excess pressure due to surface tension inside a spherical drop is 6 unit. If eight such drops
combine then the excess pressure due to surface tension inside the larger drop is :-

(1) 3 units
(2) 6 units
(3) 12 units
(4) 48 units

10) On applying a stress of 20 × 108 Nm–2, the length of a perfectly elastic wire is doubled. Its
Young's modulus will be :-

(1) 40 × 108 Nm–2

(2) 20 × 108 Nm–2
(3) 10 × 108 Nm–2
(4) 5 × 108 Nm–2

11) Two blocks of masses 1kg and 4 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as
shown in figure. The breaking stress of the metal wire is 3.18 × 109 N/m2. The minimum radius of
wire is must be :- [g = 10 ms–2]

(1) 1 × 10–5 m
(2) 2 × 10–5 m
(3) 3 × 10–5 m
(4) 4 × 10–5 m

12) A piece of cork starts from rest at the bottom of a lake and floats up. Its velocity v is plotted
against time t. Which of the following best represents the resulting curve–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) A ball of radius r and density ρ falls freely under gravity through a distance h before entering
water velocity of ball does not change even on entering water. If viscosity of water is η. The value of

h is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A long cylindrical glass vessel has a small hole of radius 'r' at its bottom. The depth to which the
vessel can be lowered vertically in the deep water bath (surface tension T) without any water
entering inside is :-

(1) 4T/ρrg
(2) 3T/ρrg
(3) 2T/ρrg
(4) T/ρrg

15) A metallic plate of area 103 cm2 is placed over a 6 mm thick oil layer. A tangential force of 10–2 N
is applied to move it with constant velocity of 6 cm/s. Coefficient of viscosity of oil is.

(1) 0.1 poise

(2) 0.5 poise
(3) 0.7 poise
(4) 0.9 poise

16) Two soap bubbles of different radii R1 and R2 (R2 < R1) coalesce to form an interface of a radius R

as shown in figure. The correct value of R is:-

(1) R = R1 – R2

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Assertion :- The stretching of spring is determined by its shear modulus.

Reason :- Shear modulus change only shape of a body keeping its dimension unchaged.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

18) Assertion : Rubber is more elastic than glass.

Reason : The rubber has higher modulus of elasticity than glass.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

19) When a capillary tube is dipped in water, water rises upto 8 cm in the tube. What happens when
the tube is pushed down such that its end is only 5 cm above outside water level ?

(1) The radius of the meniscus increases and therefore water does not overflow.
(2) The radius of the water meniscus decreases and therefore does not overflow.
(3) The water forms a droplet on top of the tube but does not overflow.
(4) The water starts overflowing.

20) The only elastic modulus that applies to fluids is :

(1) Young's modulus

(2) Shear modulus
(3) Modulus of rigidity
(4) Bulk modulus

21) Young's modulus for a perfectly rigid body is :-

(1) Less than 1

(2) Zero
(3) 1
(4) Infinite
22) A wire of length ℓ, radius R is stretched by force F and a second wire of same material, with
length 2ℓ and radius 2R, is stretched with a force 2F; then the ratio of elongations in the two wires
is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) none of these

23) When 106 smaller drops of a liquid are combined to form a new bigger drop, then its -

(1) density will decrease

(2) density will increase
(3) temperature will increase
(4) temperature will decrease

24) The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N/m. The work done in blowing to form a soap
bubble of surface area 40 cm2 is:-

(1) 1.2 × 10–4 J

(2) 2.4 × 10–4 J
(3) 12 × 10–4 J
(4) 24 × 10–4 J

25)

Ratio of excess pressure inside two soap bubbles is 2 : 3, then ratio of their volumes will be :-

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 27 : 8
(4) 9 : 4

26) Find the minimum force, required to drag a hard polythene plate of area 2 m2 on a thin film of oil
of thickness 0.25 cm and η = 15 poise. Assume the speed of the plate is 10 cm/s.

(1) 2.4 × 107 dyne

(2) 1.8 × 107 dyne
(3) 1.2 × 107 dyne
(4) 6.0 × 106 dyne

27) The thermal capacity of any body is

(1) a measure of its capacity to absorb heat

(2) a measure of its capacity to provide heat
(3) the quantity of heat required to raise its temperature by a unit degree
 the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the body by a unit
(4)
degree

28) A thin copper wire of length l increases in length by 1% when heated from 20°C to 70°C. If a thin
copper plate of length 3l and breadth 2l is heated from 20°C to 70°C, the percentage increase in its
area will be :

(1) 3%
(2) 2%
(3) 7%
(4) 5%

29) What is the temeprature at which the Fahrenheit reading is double that of the Celsius reading ?

(1) 320°F
(2) 300°F
(3) 373°F
(4) None

30) When a copper ball is heated, the largest percentage increase will be in :-

(1) Diameter
(2) Area
(3) Volume
(4) Radius

31) For the phase diagram of water given in figure, curves OA, AB and AC are respectively.

(1) Sublimation curve, vaporisation curve and fusion curve

(2) Sublimation curve, fusion curve and vaporisation curve
(3) Fusion curve, vaporisation curve and sublimation curve
(4) Fusion curve, sublimation curve and vaporisation curve

32) The absolute zero temperature in Fahrenheit scale is :-

(1) –273°F
(2) –32°F
(3) –460 °F
(4) –132 °F
33) A lead ball moving with velocity v strikes a wall and stops. If 50% of its energy is converted into
heat, then what will be the increase in temperature? (specific heat of lead is s) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Thermal capacity of a body depends on :

(1) Heat given

(2) The temperature raised
(3) The mass of body
(4) None of these

35) If 80 cal heat is extracted from 4 gm ice at –10°C then its final temperature will be :-

(1) –20°C
(2) –40°C
(3) –30°C
(4) –50°C

36) Find ratio of specific heat for A to B, if mass of both substance is same.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Terminal speed of 2 cm radius ball in a viscous liquid is 20 cms-1. Then the speed of 1 cm radius
ball in the same liquid is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
38) 1 kg of ice at –10°C is mixed with 4.4 kg of water at 30°C. The final temperature of mixture is :
(specific heat of ice = 2100 J/kg-k)

(1) 2.3°C
(2) 4.4°C
(3) 5.3°C
(4) 8.7°C

39)
Shape of a liquid drop on a plate looks like as shown in figure. Then correct option about liquid and
plate material is :-

(1) Water drop on glass plate

(2) Mercury drop on glass plate
(3) Water drop on silver plate
(4) All of the above are possible

40) Two capillary A and B of same material are dipped in the water. If the rise of water in capillary A
is two times that of B then the ratio radius of A to the radius B will be

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

41) Shape of meniscus for a liquid of zero angle of contact is

(1) Plane
(2) Parabolic
(3) Hemi-spherical
(4) Cylindrical

42) The water equivalent of a calorimeter is 5 g. If the specific heat capacity of the material of
calorimeter is 0.1 cal g–1 °C–1, then the mass of calorimeter is

(1) 5 g
(2) 50 g
(3) 250 g
(4) 500 g

43) Boiling point of water is 100°C at 1 atm. If the atmospheric pressure is suddenly decreased,
what will be the effect on the boiling temperature ?

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains same
(4) Data insufficient

44) The freezing point of the liquid decreases when pressure is increased, if the liquid :-

(1) Expands while freezing

(2) Contracts while freezing
(3) Does not change in volume while freezing
(4) None of these

45)

How much heat energy is gained when 5 kg of water at 20°C is brought to its boiling point
(Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg–1c–1)

(1) 1680 kJ
(2) 1700 kJ
(3) 1720 kJ
(4) 1740 kJ

CHEMISTRY

1) is less stable than :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The order of acidic strength of the hydrogen atom (Hα, Hβ, Hγ) in the given molecule is :

(1) Hγ > Hα > Hβ

(2) Hγ > Hβ > Hα
(3) Hα > Hβ > Hγ
(4) Hβ > Hα > Hγ

3) Which of the following is aromatic :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) In which of the following cases lone-pair is involved in resonance :

(1) 2 and 4
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1 and 3

5) Acetic acid is considered as resonance hybrid

Which of the following order is correct for the stability of four contributing structure :

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) I > IV > III > II

6)

In each of the following ions which ion is more stable:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) Which shows aromatic character:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Among the following the aromatic compound is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Which of the following is anti-aromatic species :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which of the following is non-aromatic :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In which of the following cases lone-pair is not involved in resonance :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Among the following aromatic compound is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) True statement is :-

(1) Resonance effect is distance independent

(2) Resonating structures are not real structures
(3) I-effect decreases with increase in distance
(4) All

14) The correct order of decreasing acid strength of following carboxylic acids is
(1) III > I > IV > II
(2) I > II > IV> III
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) IV > III > II > I

15) Acid strength order of a, b & c is

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > c > a
(3) c > b > a
(4) b > a > c

16) Which of the following compounds would exhibit aromatic properties ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Which is maximum acidic :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CH=CH2

(4)

18) Four structures are given in options (a) to (d). examine them and select the aromatic structures
(1) a and d
(2) b and c
(3) a and b
(4) a and c

19) An ‘Electrophile’ from the following is-

(1) SO2
(2) NH3
(3) CO2
(4) A & C

20) A 'Neucleophile' from the following is-

(1) AlCl3
(2) BCl3
(3) NH3
(4) Cl⊕

21) In which of the following molecule, resonance is possible?

(1)

(2) H2C = CH–CH=O

(3)

(4)

22) How many total resonance structures can be drawn for the following anion (including those

without separation of charge)?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which is correct statement following structures

(1) b, d and e are antiaromatic

(2) a and d are non-aromatic
(3) a, c and f are aromatic
(4) a, b, c and f are aromatic

24) The most unlikely representation of resonance structure of p-nitrophenoxide ion is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Most stable resonating structure is?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which compound show resonance.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
27) Which compound show resonance

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Correct resonating structure of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29)

The correct decreasing order of stability of following intermediate is :-

(1) I > III > II > IV
(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > II > IV > III

30) Which of following are aromatic in character :-

(1) I, II, III, IV, and V

(2) I, II, and V
(3) I, II, III, and V
(4) I, IV and VI

31) Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following is most stable carbanion?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which will not show hyperconjugation :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CH=CH2

(4)

34) Stability order of following anion is :-

(1) A < B < C

(2) A > B > C
(3) A > C > B
(4) B > A > C

35) In which of the following compound lone pair not involved in resonance ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

36)

Free radicals & charged species are formed in ___& ___ cleavage respectively :-

(1) Homolytic & Homolytic

(2) Heterolytic & Homolytic
(3) Homolytic & Heterolytic
(4) Heterolytic & Heterolytic

37)

Decreasing order of –I effect of triad (–CN, –COOH, –OCH3)

(1) –OCH3 > –CN > –COOH

(2) –CN > –OCH3 > –COOH
(3) –COOH > –CN > –OCH3
(4) –CN > –COOH > –OCH3

38)

Which of the following group has (–M) effect :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

Which will be the least stable resonating structure:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Lone pair of nitrogen is localized in

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The bond dissociation energy at the C–H bond for the compound :-
(I) CH3H (II) CH3–CH2–H (III) CH2=CH–CH2–H (IV) C6H5–H

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) II > I > IV > III

42) Inductive effect refers to :

(1) electron displacement along a carbon chain

complete transfer of one of the shared pair of electrons to one of the atoms joined by a double
(2)
bond
(3) complete transfer of electrons of lone pair
(4) none of the above

43) has how many localised lone pair?

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) In which of following compound resonance is not present :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The correct stability order of the following resonance structures is

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) (I) > (II) > (IV) > (III)

(2) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
(3) (II) > (I) > (III) > (IV)
(4) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)

BOTANY

1) Photo-respiration is favoured by :

(1) Low light intensity

(2) Low O2 and high CO2
(3) Low temperature
(4) High O2 and Low CO2

2) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belong to external factors of plants which affect photosynthesis ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

3) Which of the following is not a C4 plant?

(1) Sugarcane
(2) Rice
(3) Maize
(4) Sorghum
4) Number of ATP molecules required to synthesize one molecule of glucose by C4, pathway are :–

(1) 12
(2) 18
(3) 24
(4) 30

5) The first action spectrum of photosynthesis was described by :–

(1) Julius von Sachs

(2) Cornelius van Niel
(3) T.W. Engelmann
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

6) Identify the correct sequence of stages of Calvin cycle:

(1) Reduction → Carboxylation → Regeneration

(2) Carboxylation → Regeneration → Reduction
(3) Carboxylation → Reduction → Regeneration
(4) Regeneration → Reduction → Carboxylation

7) How many carbon atoms are present in

(a) Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plant?
(b) Primary CO2 fixation product in C4 plant?

(1) a – 4; b – 5
(2) a – 3; b – 5
(3) a – 3; b – 4
(4) a – 5; b – 3

8) Statement-A: Water stress reduces surface area of leaves and their metabolic activity as well.
Statement-B: Carotenoid pigments protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

9) To make 100 molecules of glucose, how many molecules of ATP & NADPH are required in C3
plants?

(1) 1800 and 1200 respectively

(2) 1200 and 1800 respectively
(3) 1800 and 600 respectively
(4) 200 and 600 respectively
10) Law of limiting factor was given by -

(1) Priestley
(2) Blackman
(3) Batman
(4) Whiteman

11) Moll's Half-leaf experiment explains that

(1) Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis

(2) Chlorophyll and water are necessary for photosynthesis
(3) Light and water are essential for photosynthesis
(4) All the above are correct

12) Which of the following protein is most abundant on the earth?

(1) Catalase
(2) Amylase
(3) RuBisCO
(4) None

13) Photosynthesis is

(1) Oxidative, exergonic, catabolic

(2) Redox-reaction, endergonic, anabolic
(3) Reductive, exergonic, anabolic
(4) Reductive, endergonic, catabolic

14) In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have :-

(1) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts

(2) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
(3) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts
(4) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts

15) The primary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants is:-

(1) PEP
(2) OAA
(3) PGA
(4) RuBP

16) The most crucial step in C3 cycle is:-

(1) Carboxylation
(2) Reduction
(3) Regeneration
(4) Glycolytic reversal

17) At low light conditions, which of the following plants respond to high CO2 conditions?

(1) C3 plants
(2) C4 plants
(3) Both C3 and C4 plants
(4) Neither C3 nor C4 plants

18) C3 plants differ from C4 plants in:-

(1) presence of RuBisCO in mesophyll cells

(2) presence of C3 cycle
(3) presence of dimorphic chloroplasts
(4) formation of PGA in Calvin cycle

19) The effect of water as a factor is more through its effect on the plant, rather than directly on
photosynthesis.
The above statement is justified by which of the following?

(1) Water stress causes the closing of stomata

(2) Reduction in surface area of leaves due to wilting
(3) Reduction in metabolic activities due to water deficiency
(4) All of above

20) The significance of light & chlorophyll in photosynthesis was discovered by:-

(1) Priestley
(2) Ingenhousz
(3) Englemann
(4) Blackman

21) Find the number of ATP molecules required in reduction step of C3 cycle, when the cycle is
involved in the formation of sucrose:-

(1) 12 ATP
(2) 24 ATP
(3) 18 ATP
(4) 6 ATP

22) Find odd one out with respect to C4, plants :-

(1) Maize
(2) Sorghum
(3) Bell pepper
(4) Sugarcane

23) During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, when electrons are lost from the reaction centre at PS
II, what is the source which replaces these electrons?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Water
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Light

24) Chemiosmosis requires:

(1) A membrane
(2) ATP Synthase
(3) Proton gradient
(4) All of these

25) Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from non-cyclic photophosphorylation as the former

(1) Synthesises both ATP and NADPH

(2) Does not require external source of electrons
(3) Is associated with the photolysis of water
(4) Involves two different photosystems

26) Photolysis of water results in :

(1) Splitting of water molecules

(2) Release of electrons
(3) Release of oxygen
(4) All of the above

27) When the light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm are available for the excitation of chlorophyll-a
then occurs:-

(1) No photophosphorylation
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

28) How many of the given statements is/are not incorrect for cyclic photophosphorylation?
(I) Only PS-I is functional.
(II) Occurs in stroma thylakoids.
(III) Occurs by using 700 nm light.
(IV) Synthesis of both ATP and NADPH occurs
(V) Electrons are circulated between both photosystems.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

29) In photosynthesis, during ATP formation accumulation of protons occurs :-

(1) in lumen of thylakoid

(2) in stroma of chloroplast
(3) in periplastidial space
(4) at outer surface of thylakoid

30) Which pair is wrong :-

(1) C3 plant-maize
(2) Calvin cycle-PGA
(3) Hatch and Slack cycle - Maize
(4) C4 plant- Kranz

31) How many turns of Calvin cycle would generate one molecules of glucose/hexose

(1) One cycle

(2) Three cycles
(3) Six cycles
(4) Twelve cycles

32) The first stable product of Calvin cycle and HSK-cycle (Hatch & Slack) are

(1) 4-C and 3-C compounds

(2) 4-C and 6-C compounds
(3) 3-C and 4-C compounds
(4) 5-C and 4 - C compounds

33) Statement I: The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is RuBP and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCO enzyme.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

34) Maximum absorption by chlorophyll a occurs in-

(1) blue & green region

(2) red & green region
(3) blue & red region
(4) yellow & red region
35) Light Reaction is also known as-

(1) photochemical phase

(2) biosynthetic phase
(3) both of these
(4) None of these

36) LHC stands for-

(1) Late Harvesting Complex

(2) Light Harvesting Complex
(3) Light Hanging Complex
(4) Late Hanging Complex

37) Photosynthetic pigments are present in which part of chloroplast?

(1) Inner membrane

(2) Thylakoid membrane
(3) Stroma
(4) Thylakoid lumen

38) Which of the following is least effective in photosynthesis?

(1) Sunlight
(2) Red light
(3) Blue light
(4) Green light

39) What is incorrect for cyclic photophosphorylation?

(1) P700 is photoexited

(2) ATP is synthesized
(3) NADP+ is reduced
(4) PS-II is not involved

40) During photosynthesis:-

(1) Water is reduced & CO2, is oxidized

(2) CO2 is reduced & water is oxidized
(3) Both CO2 & water get reduced
(4) Both CO2 & water get oxidized

41) The Calvin cycle proceed in the given three stages:-

(A) Carboxylation. (B) Reduction.
(C) Regeneration.
Which column is not correctly matched?

Column I Column II
(Process) (required)

(1) A and B

(2) B

(3) C ATP

(4) A, B and C
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

42) Which of the following graphs correctly gives the relationship between the rate of
photosynthesis and light intensity?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) Below graph showing the effect of CO2 concentration on the rate of photosynthesis. Based on the
graph choose the correct option.

plant, plant,
(1)

plant, plant,
(2)

plant, plant,
(3)

plant, plant,
(4)

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

44) Light saturation in plants occurs at ______ of full sunlight.

(1) 2 percent
(2) 10 percent
(3) 5 percent
(4) 1 percent

45) Which of the following is correctly labelled for the given figure:-
(1) A : PS II : B : PS I : C : e– acceptor D : LHC
(2) A : LHC : B : e– acceptor : C : PSI : D : PSII
(3) A : PSI : B : PSII : C e– acceptor : D : LHC
(4) A : e– acceptor : B : LHC : C : PSII : D : PSI

ZOOLOGY

1) Which acts as the command and control system of the body ?

(1) Brain
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Pituitary gland
2) Which event is shown at B point in given graph :-

(1) Na+VGC open

(2) Na+ VGC close
(3) K+VGC close
(4) 2 and 3 both

3) The given below diagram can be used to show the functional organization of the human nervous

system. Identify 1 to 5.

1-PNS, 2-CNS, 3- ANS, 4-sympathetic nervous system,

(1)
5-parasympathetic nervous system
1-ANS, 2-CNS, 3- PNS, 4-sympathetic nervous system,
(2)
5-parasympathetic nervous system
1-CNS, 2-PNS, 3- ANS, 4-sympathetic nervous system,
(3)
5-parasympathetic nervous system
1-ANS, 2-PNS, 3- CNS, 4-sympathetic nervous system,
(4)
5-parasympathetic nervous system

4) The figure below shows three steps X, Y, Z of conduction of a nerve impulse. Select the option

which gives correct identification of the figure.

 Z—The current flows in inner surface from site A to B and outer surface flows from site B to A to
(1) complete circuit of current flows hence polarity is reversed and action potential is generated at
site 'B'
X—It shows that stimulus is applied at site A thus leads to repaid influx of Na+ followed by
(2)
reversal of polarity
Y—Ionic gradient across the resting membrane maintained by active transportation of ion by
(3) sodium- potassium pump as result outer surface of axonal membrane possess positive charge
while inner surface becomes negatively charged therefore called polarized state at site A
(4) Z—show axonal membrane of neuron is polarized state at site A is responsible for excitability

5) Limbic system is included in :-

(1) Hind brain

(2) Mid brain
(3) Only diencephalon
(4) Forebrain

6) Saltatory conduction occurs in -

(1) Non-myelinated fibers

(2) Myelinated fibers
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

7) Given below is the figure showing three different types of neuron. Select the option giving correct

identification with what it represents :-

(1) 'A' represents Bipolar neuron

(2) 'B' represents Multipolar neuron which are present in retina and olfactory epithelium
(3) 'C' represents unipolar neuron
(4) 'B' represents Bipolar neuron.

8) Given below is a diagram of neuron. labelled by a,b,c,d, points. Choose the correct match for
these points :

(1) A = Dendrites – Efferent fibre

(2) B = Schwan cell – Myelination in CNS
(3) C = Node of Ranvier – Saltatory conduction
(4) D = Nissl's granules – Internal conduction of impulse

9) Which of the following functions are correct regarding forebrain and it's structure?
Choose the correct codes given below
I. It is responsible for intersensory association, memory and communication
II. It is involved in sexual behaviour and expression of emotional reactions
III. It contains centres which control respiration, cardio vascular reflex and gastric secretion
IV. It has major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling

(1) I and III

(2) I and II
(3) I and IV
(4) I, II and IV

10) Which cell-organelle is absent in neurons ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosome
(3) Centriole
(4) Nucleus

11) Match these columns :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Match column-I (present in structure of neuron) with column-II (Description) and choose the
correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(I) Protein
(A) Dendron
synthesis

(II) Saltatory
(B) Nissl’s granules
conduction

(C) Neuro Fibrils (III) Afferent part

(D) Myelinated axon (IV) Efferent part

(V) Helps in
(E) Nerve fibre
internal conduction
(1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV, E – V
(2) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III, E – V
(3) A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – II, E–III
(4) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – IV

13) The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site of depolarisation is
called :-

(1) Graded potential

(2) Resting potential
(3) Action potential
(4) None of the above

14) Functional connection between two neurons is known as :-

(1) Ganglia
(2) Chiasma
(3) Synapse
(4) 1 and 3 both
15) Transmission across a synapse is dependent on the release of -

(1) Neurotransmitters
(2) Synaptic vesicle
(3) Neurons
(4) Receptor proteins

16) Hypothalamus contain the brain centre which controls the

(1) Body temperature

(2) Urge for eating
(3) Urge for drinking
(4) All of these

17)

Chemicals which are released at the junction of synapse are called

(1) Hormones
(2) Cerebrospinal fluid
(3) Lymph
(4) Neurotransmitter

18) Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

(1) Norepinephrine
(2) Cortisone
(3) Acetylcholine
(4) Epinephrine

19)

Nissil bodies are mainly composed of

(1) Proteins & lipids

(2) DNA & RNA
(3) Nucleic acid & SER
(4) Free ribosomes & RER

20) Which of the following is not a reflex action?

(1) Salivation
(2) Sweating
(3) Withdrawal of hand when pinched by needle.
(4) None of the above

21)
Which among the following parts form brain stem:

(1) Pons
(2) Midbrain
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) All of the above

22) Corpus callosum connects two

(1) Cerebral hemispheres

(2) Ventricles of brain
(3) Cerebellar hemispheres
(4) Optic thalamus

23) Inside the bony structure skull, the brain is covered by

(1) Arachnoid
(2) Cranial meninges
(3) Piamater
(4) Duramater

24) Identify the labelled structure and select the function associated with it.

(1) A-Pons, contains centre for respiration.

A-hypothalamus, contains a number of centres which control body temperature, urge for eating
(2)
and drinking.
(3) A-Epithalamus, includes pineal gland which secretes melatonin.
A-Midbrain, controls and coordinate the movement of the head and eye at the same time to fix
(4)
and focus on an object.

25) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e. resting, the axonal membrane is more
permeable to ________ and impermeable to ________ and _______.

(1) Na+, K+, negatively charged proteins

(2) K+, Na+, negatively charged proteins
(3) K+, Na+, positively charged proteins
(4) Na+, K+, positively charged proteins

26)

Which of the following is mainly responsible for the resting membrane potential of a neuron.

(1) Equal distribution of ions

(2) Higher permeability of a membrane to

(3) Higher permeability of a membrane to

(4) Active transport of

27) Assertion : Myelin sheath is essential for the rapid conduction of nerve impulse.
Reason : Myelin insulates the axon and prevents the leakage of ions, allowing for saltatory
conduction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

28) Nissl’s granules are not found in:

(1) Cell body

(2) Axon
(3) Dendrites
(4) Both (1) and (3)

29) Which of the following part of the brain is a major coordinating center for sensory & motor
signaling

(1) Thalamus
(2) Medulla
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Hypothalamus

30) The regions of cerebral cortex which are responsible for complex functions like memory and
communication are

(1) Sensory areas

(2) Motor areas
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Association areas

31) Read the following statements :

(i) Coordination is the process through which only two organs can interact and complement the
functions of one another
(ii) The various physiological processes occurring in our body are independent events
(iii) The neural system provides an organised network of point-to-point connection for a quick
coordination
(iv) The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones
(v) In our body neural system and endocrine system rarely coordinate and integrate the activities of
organs
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (iii), (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

32) Which of the following contains centres which control cardiovascular reflexes?

(1) Midbrain
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebellum

33) How many of the below given functions are not related to medulla oblongata?
Thermoregulation, Hunger, Thirst, Human behaviour, Hearing, Speech, Memory, Intelligence,
Respiration, Rage, Gastric secretion.

(1) 9
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 8

34) There is a free flow of electrical impulse in myelinated axons at the nodes of Ranvier due to the:

(1) Lack of myelin sheath

(2) Presence of myelin sheath
(3) Lack of cell body
(4) All of the above

35) Read the following statement, where Assertion is represented A and the Reason is represented
R. Select the correct answers from the options given below?
Assertion A: The membrane of neurons is in a polarised state.
Reason R: The outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a positive charge while its inner
surface is negatively charged.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Assertion A is false, but Reason R is true.
(4) Both Assertion A and Reason R are false.
36) Statement 1 : Along with hypothalamus, midbrain is involved in the regulation of sexual
behaviour, expression of emotional reactions and motivation.
Statement 2 : A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the mid brain.
Choose the correct answer from the following options :

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.

(2) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.

37) Mark the option with all the correct statements regarding "resting stage" of neuron :
(a) Axonal membrane is more permeable for potassium ions (K+)
(b) Axonal membrane is nearly impermeable for sodium ions (Na+)
(c) Axonal membrane is permeable for negatively charged protein.
(d) The fluid outside of axon contains a low concentration of Na+ than inside
(e) The fluid inside axon contains high concentration of K+ than outside

(1) a, b, c
(2) c, d, e
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, d, e

38)

Which of the following part's nerve fibres tract interconnect different regions of the brain

(1) Pons
(2) Midbrain
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Cerebrum

39) The action potential is mainly due to:

(1) Efflux of K+ and Na+

(2) Influx of Na+
(3) Efflux of Na+
(4) Influx of K+

40)

Neuroglial cells differ from neurons because they

(1) conduct nerve impulses

(2) are excitable cells
(3) provide support & protection to neurons
(4) for synapses
41) Part of brain that receives and integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs:

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Mid Brain
(3) Spinal cord
(4) Hypothalamus

42) Nerve cell with one dendrite and one axon is

(1) Multipolar, found in cerebral cortex

(2) Bipolar, found in retina
(3) Unipolar, found usually in embryonic stage
(4) Unipolar, found in retina

43)

Which of the following statements or structures is not correct about the midbrain?

(1) Located between the thalamus/hypothalamus and pons

(2) Has Arbor vitae
(3) Has a canal (Cerebral aqueduct)
(4) Its dorsal part consists of 4 lobes (corpora quadrigemina)

44) Multipolar and bipolar neurons differ in

(1) Number of axons

(2) Presence or absence of Nissl's granules
(3) Number of dendrites
(4) Both (1) and (3)

45)

The cerebellum integrates information from _______ & __________ .

(1) Pons, Medulla oblongata

(2) Limbic, muscles
(3) Iris, auditory system
(4) Semicircular canals, auditory system
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 1 4 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 4 2 4 3 4 2 3 3 1 4 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 2 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 2 2 1 1 4 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. (4) 1 (1) 2 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 2 3 1 4 2 4 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 4 4 2 4 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 1 2 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

We know that,
vterminal ∝ r2

∴
when 8 drops combine, we have

8× =
⇒ r2 = 2r1

∴ ⇒ v2 = 64 cm/sec

2)

TS = 3mg

= yS ×

= yb ×

= × × × = ×

3)

Concept:

Young's modulus defines a material's elasticity. For a perfectly plastic body, the restoring
force is zero, and therefore, its Young's modulus is zero because it doesn't return to its original
shape.

Formula:

Young's Modulus Y is given by:

Y=

Calculation:

For a perfectly plastic body, the restoring force is zero because it undergoes permanent
deformation without returning to its original shape. Since Young's modulus depends on
restoring force, it is zero for a perfectly plastic body.
Thus, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the
assertion.

Answer: Option l: If both Assertion and Reason are true & the Reason is a correct explanation
of the Assertion.

6) Question Explanation:
The problem involves a rod that is elongated when a body of mass M is suspended from it. We
need to calculate the magnitude of work done by the restoring force.

Concept:
The magnitude of work done by the restoring force is equal to the change in potential energy
of the rod.

Solution:
The magnitude of work done by the restoring force is given by the formula for elastic potential
energy in the rod:

The force applied is F = Mg so the magnitude of work done by the restoring force is:

Final Answer: option (2)

7) Question Explanation :
A liquid film between a U-shaped wire and a light slider supports a given weight. We need to
determine the surface tension using the given force and the slider's length.

Concept : Force due to Surface tension

Formula :

Solution :
Given :
F = 1.5 × 10–2 N
L = 30 cm =0.30 m

T=

T=
T = 2.5 × 10–2N/m

Final Answer : Option (4)

8)

Question Explanation : A soap bubble in placed on another soap bubble, we need to find the
radius of interface.
 Concept:- This question is based on excess pressure

Solution :

The radius of common surface

Final Answer : option (3)

9) R = = 2r

Pex ∝ ⇒ =
⇒ (Pex)big = 3 unit

10)

Young's modulus =
As the length of wire gets doubled therefore strain = 1
Y = Stress = 20 × 108 Nm–2

11) Tension in wire = T =

T= = 16 N

breaking stress S = ⇒ r=

= = 4 × 10–5 m

12) As the cork moves up, the force due is buoyancy remains constant. As its speed increases,
the retarding force due to viscosity increases. Thus the acceleration gradually decreases.

13)
Here
14)

15) F = ηA ⇒ η = 10–2 dP ⇒ η = 10–1 P = 0.1 P

16)

Explain Question : We are asked to find the radius of curvature of the common
interface when two soap bubbles of radii R1 and R2 coalesce.
Concept : This question is based on pressure difference across interface determines curvature
of coalesced bubbles.
Solution : The pressure difference due to surface tension is :

For two bubbles in contact, the pressure difference across the interface given :

Pressures inside the bubbles :

Simplifying :

Final answer : option (3)

17) In stretching of spring the adjacent rings undergo twist of spring material while linear
dimension of spring wire, remains constant. Thus stretching of spring is determined by shear
modulus. In shear modulus, there may be change in shape but dimensions of material remains
unchanged.

18)

Explain the Question :

We check if rubber is more elastic than glass, and whether it is due to higher modulus of
elasticity.
Concept : This question is based on elasticity in physics = ability to regain shape (depends on
strain recovery, not high Young’s modulus).
Solution:
Rubber is more elastic since it regains shape after large strain, while glass breaks easily. But
the modulus of elasticity Y of glass is actually much higher than rubber. Hence Reason is false.
Final Answer : 3
19) or

or or hR = constant
If h decreases, the radius of curvature of the meniscus increases.

20)

Explain the Question :

We need to find which elastic modulus applies to fluids among the given options.
Concept : This question is based on bulk modulus.
Solution :
Fluids do not have any exact shape, they acquire the shape of container therefore only bulk
modulus deals with change in volume and can be applied to fluids.
Final Answer : 4

21) Explain the Question : Determine the Young's modulus (Y) for a perfectly rigid body from
the given options.
Concept : This question is based on
Young's modulus (Y)
Formula :

Solution :
Since strain = 0 for a perfectly rigid body:

Final answer : 4

22) Explain the Question : Two wires of the same material, but with different lengths and
radii, are stretched with different forces. We need to find the ratio of their elongations.
Concept : This question is based on elongation depends on force, length, cross-sectional area,
and Young's modulus. It is directly proportional to force and length, and inversely proportional
to area.
Formula :

Solution :

For wire 2 :

Thus : ΔL1 = ΔL2. so the ratio is 1 : 1.

Final answer : 2

23) Question Explanation : The question states that 106 (one million) identical small liquid
drops are combining, or coalescing, to form a single large drop. We have to determine the
resulting change in the liquid drops physical properties: either its density or its
 temperature.

Concept: Surface Energy – Droplet Coalescence

Formula : Surface energy = TΔA (T = surface tension, ΔA = change in area)

Solution: Density: Density (mass/volume) is an intrinsic property. Since both total mass and
total volume are conserved when the drops merge, the density remains constant. (Options 1
and 2 are incorrect).Surface Area & Energy: When many small drops combine (106) to form
one large drop, the total surface area decreases significantly.
Energy Conservation: This reduction in surface area leads to a decrease in the total surface
energy (potential energy) of the liquid.
Temperature: To conserve energy, this "lost" surface energy is converted into internal energy
(heat), causing the temperature of the new drop to increase. (Option 3 is correct).

Final answer: Option (3)

24)

W = 2TA
= 2 × 0.03 × 40 × 10–4
= 2.4 × 10–4 J

25)

Explaining the Question :- We are given the ratio of excess pressure in two soap bubbles to
find the ratio of their volumes.

Concept:- This question is based on excess pressure

Solution :-

Final Answer :- 3

26)

= 15 × 2 × 104 × = 1.2 × 107 dyne

27)

Explain : The question asks for the definition of the thermal capacity of a body
Concept : Thermal capacity (Heat capacity)
Formula :
Thermal capacity (C)

Calculation :Option 3 accurately describes thermal capacity as the quantity of heat needed to
raise the temperature of the entire body by a unit degree.
Ans (3) Difficulty level : easy

28)

Explain : A copper wire's length increases by 1% for a 50∘C temperature change. find the
percentage increase in the area of a copper plate with given dimensions for the same
temperature change.
Concept : Thermal expansion

Formula : Linear expansion: = αΔT

Area expansion: ​= βΔT = 2αΔT

Calculation :

= 2%

Ans (2) Difficulty level : EASY

29)

320°F

30) % Change in volume is max. because γ>β>α.

31) Question Explanation: For given phase diagram we need to identify the curves OA, AB
and AC
Concept: Phase diagram of water
Solution: ..
OA : boundary between solid & vapour ⇒ sublimation curve
AB : boundary between solid & liquid ⇒ Fusion (melting) curve
AC : boundary between liquid & vapour ⇒ Vaporisation curve
Final answer: option (2)

32) Since,
⇒ F = –459.4°F ≈ –460°F

33)

Δθ =

34) Question Explanation

In this question, we are asked: Thermal capacity (heat capacity) of a body depends on which
quantity?

Concept : Thermal/Heat capacity.

Solution :
Thermal capacity = heat required per degree rise in temperature
Thermal capacity of a body:
C = ms
Where
m = mass of the body
s = specific heat

Therefore thermal capacity depends only on mass, because specific heat is material
property.
It does not depend on
heat given (Q)
temperature rise (ΔT)

Final Answer: Option (3)

35) Q = ms (T2 – T1)

–80 = 4 ×
–80 = 2 (T2 + 10)
–40 – 10 = T2
T2 = –50°C

36)
 37)

38)

A. Asking About: The final temperature of a mixture of ice and water after thermal equilibrium
is reached.
B. Concept: Heat exchange between substances at different temperatures leads to a final
equilibrium temperature. Heat lost by the hotter substance equals the heat gained by the
colder substance, considering phase changes (molting of ice).
C. Formula:
A. Heat gained/lost without phase change:
B. Heat gained during melting of ice: (where Lf is the latent heat of fusion of ice,
approximately )
D. Calculation / Explanation:

1. Heat needed to raise the temperature of ice from

2. Heat needed to melt the ice at

3. Total heat required by ice to become water at

4. Heat lost by water cooling from to :

(specific heat of water is approximately )
5. Since , all ice will melt, and the final temperature will be above . Let the
final temperature be Tf.
6. Heat lost by water cooling from 30º C to Tf :
7. Heat gained by melted ice (now water at ) to reach Tf :

8. Equating heat lost and gained: Tf)

9. 554400 - 18480 Tf = 355000 + 4200 Tf
10. 199400 = 22680 Tf

11. Tf =

A. Final answer: The final temperature of the mixture is approximately .

B. Correct Option: 4

39)

Question Explanation :
We need to select best option giving liquid and plate material, that will form the liquid surface
as shown in the figure.
Concept : This question is based on angle of contact.
Solution :
For water and glass, contact angle is less than 90°.
 Final Answer : Option(1).

40)

41) Conceptual

42)

44)

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

Question Explanation :

Identify order of acidic strength of H - atom.

Concept :

Acidic strength.

Solution :

Most stable (double Resonance) conjugate base

Stability order of conjugate base (i) > (ii) > (iii)
So acidic H Hγ > Hα > Hβ

Final answer : Option(1)

48)

Explain the Question : The problem asks which of the given species is aromatic and which is
not aromatic.
Concept : This question is based on Aromaticity, Hückel’s Rule (4n + 2 π-electrons),
Resonance Stabilization
Solution :

Cyclic, planar completely conjugated 4πe⊝ Anti Aromatic

Cyclic planar completely conjugated 6πe⊝ (Huckel rule) Aromatic

Cyclic planar completely conjugated 4πe⊝ Anti Aromatic

Cyclic non-planar Non Aromatic

Final answer : 2

49) 2 and 4

50)

Stability order for resonating structure:

(1) Complete octet and neutral R.S
(2) Complete octet charged R.S.
(3) In complete Octet charged R.S. having +ve
charge on less electronegative atom, –ve
charge on more electronegative atom.

51)
52)

53)

Explain the Question : The problem asks which of the given compounds is not aromatic.
Concept : This question is based on Aromaticity, Hückel’s Rule (4n + 2 π-electrons),
Resonance Stabilization
Solution :

Thus, the Aromatic compound is only (1), while the others are Anti-Aromatic.
Final answer : 1

54)

Explain the Question : The problem asks which of the given species is anti aromatic.
Concept : This question is based on Aromaticity, Huckel’s Rule (4n + 2 π-electrons),
Resonance Stabilization
Solution :

Final answer : 4

55)

Explain the Question : The problem asks which of the given cyclic species is non-aromatic.
Concept : This question is based on Aromaticity, Antiaromaticity, Hückel’s Rule (4n + 2 π-
electrons), Resonance
Solution

Thus, the non-aromatic species is (2).

Final answer : 2

56)

57)

60)

Question Explanation : The question asks for the decreasing order of acid strength for three
labeled hydrogen atoms (Ha, Hb​, Hc​) on a substituted cyclohexene ring.
Concept : This question is based on Acid Strength, Stability of Conjugate Base, Hybridization
(sp3, sp2, sp), Resonance.
Solution: Acid strength is proportional to the stability of the conjugate base (R−).
The order of stability is : Allylic Anion > sp2 Vinylic Anion > Alkyl Anion. So, (Ka​) : c > b > a.
Final answer : option (3)

61) Question Explanation: Identifying the aromatic compounds.

Concept: Aromaticity
Solution: An aromatic compound must be cyclic, planar, fully conjugated, and have
(4n+2) π electrons. The compound in option A, a pyrrole derivative, has 6 π electrons and is
aromatic. The compound in option B is non-aromatic. The compound in option C, a pyrazole,
has 6 π electrons and is aromatic. The compound in option D is an anti-aromatic
species. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 1

62)

63)

a and c

64) SO2 → Electrophile

CO2 → Electrophile

65) NH3 → Neucleophile

67)
68)

69)

70)

71)

72)

73)

74) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about stability of carbocation.

Concept :
This question is based on stability of carbocation α no. of hyperconjugation.

Solution :

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

α–C–H = 9 α–C–H = 6 α–C–H = 3 α–C–H = 0

Stability carbon cation = I > II > III > IV

Final Answer:
Option (2)

75) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about aromatic compound is:

Concept :
This question is asking about Aromaticity, Hiikel Rule (4n +2)πe–.

Solution :

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(V) (VI)

Final Answer :
Option (3)

76)

Explaining the Question: Most stable carbocation

Concept: Stability of carbocation

Solution:

Final Answer: Option_3

77)

Explaining the Question: Identify Most stable carbanion.

Concept: Stability of carbanion

Solution:

–I order = –F > – CI > – Br > –I

Stability of Carbanion = 2 > 4 > 3 > 1

Final Answer: Option (2)

79)

86) (1)

(2)

(3) (Allylic) most stable

(4) (Phenyl) (least stable)

Stability of free radical

So B.D.E. order ⇒ IV > I > II > III

87) Inductive effect refers to electron displacement along a carbon chain.

88) Question Explanation: Question is asking number of localized lane pair

Concept : This question is based on Resonance effect and delocalization concept.
Solution:

It has total three localized lane pair. One pair on pyridine nitrogen and two pairs on amide
 oxygen.
Final Answer: Option (3)

89)

90)

Question Explanation: Identifying the correct stability order of the given resonance
structures of Diazomethane (CH2N2).

Concept: This question is based on stability of resonating structures.

Solution:

A. Structures with complete octet are more stable than those with incomplete octet.

B. I and III have complete octets; II and IV have incomplete octets → I, III > II, IV

C. Between I and III, negative charge on N (I) is more stable than on C (III) → I > III

D. Between II and IV, negative charge on N (II) is more stable than on C (IV) → II > IV

Hence, overall stability: I > III > II > IV

Final Answer : Option (2)

BOTANY

91)

Ncert page 147.

92)

Ncert page 149.

93)
Allen module.

94)

Ncert page 146.

95)

Ncert page 135.

96)

Ncert page 144.

97)

Ncert page 146.

98)

Ncert page 138 and 150.

99)

Ncert page 144.

100)

Ncert page 149.

101)

Ncert page 134.

102)

Conceptual.

103)

Ncert page 133.

104)

Ncert page 145.

105)

Ncert page 146.

106)

Ncert page 144.

107)

Ncert page 150.

108)

Ncert page 148.

109)

Ncert page 149.

110) Ncert page 134.

111)

Ncert page 144.

112)

Ncert page 145 and 150.

113)

Ncert page 139.

114)

Ncert page 142.

115)

Ncert page 139 to 140.

116)

Ncert page 139.

117)

Ncert page 138.

118)

Ncert page 140.

119)

Ncert page 141.

120)

Ncert page 145.

121)

Ncert page 144.

122)

Ncert page 144 and 146.

123)

Ncert page 146.

124) Ncert page 137.

125) Ncert page 138.

126) Ncert page 138.

127)

Conceptual.

128)

Ncert page 137.

129)
 Ncert page 140.

130)

Conceptual.

131)

132) Ncert page 148.

133)

134) Ncert page 149.

135)

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT Page no. 235

137)

Allen module.

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 316

139)

Ncert page 233.

140)

NCERT Page no. 321

141)

Ncert Pg No. 233

142)

NCERT Page no.317

143)

Ncert page 232.

144) NCERT Page No 321

145) Allen module

146)

Ncert page 232.

147) Allen race module.

148) Ncert page 233.

149)

Ncert Pg No. 230

150)

Ncert page 234.

151)

Ncert page 236.

152)

Ncert exemplar.

153) Application based question.

154)
Allen module.

155) Allen module.

156)

Ncert page 236.

157) NCERT Page no. 321

158) NCERT Page no. 320

159) NCERT Reference: Zoology-XI, Page No.-320

160) Ncert page 317.

161)

Ncert page 251.

162)

NCERT, Page No: 232

163)

Ncert page 232.

164)

Ncert page 236.

165)

Ncert page 236.

166)

NCERT Page no. 315

167)

Ncert Pg No. 236

 168) Ncert page 236.

169)

Ncert page 232.

170) Correct Answer:

Option (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The neuron membrane is in a polarized state when it is at rest. This means there is a
difference in charge across the membrane. The outer surface is positively charged, while the
inner surface is negatively charged due to the unequal distribution of ions. This polarization
occurs because:

A. ​Na+ ions are more concentrated outside the membrane.

B. K+ ions are more concentrated inside the membrane.(Moreover inner surface is negatively
charged due to the presence of large anionic proteins)
C. The Na+/K+ pump actively transports Na+ out and K+ in, maintaining the resting membrane
potential.

Since the outer surface is positively charged and the inner surface is negatively charged, the reason
correctly explains the assertion.

171) NCERT, Page No: 236

172) NCERT, Page No: 232

173)

Ncert page 237.

174)

Ncert page 233.

175)

Ncert page 250.

176) Ncert page 237.

177)

NCERT Page no. 317

178)

Allen module.

179) NCERT Page no. 317

180)

Ncert page 237.