Class IX Session 2025-26

Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 5

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry and

Section C is Physics.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

Section A
1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the given cropping program? [1]

a) It involves growing two or more crops b) Both the availability of moisture and
simultaneously on the same piece of land. irrigation facilities decides the choice of the
crop to be cultivated after one harvest and
this cropping program reduces the need
for fertilizers are correct.

c) The availability of moisture and irrigation d) This cropping program reduces the need
facilities decides the choice of the crop to be for fertilizers.
cultivated after one harvest.
2. "Viruses are non-cellular organisms" - this statement is a: [1]

a) False statement b) Partially false

c) True statement d) Partially true

3. Match the following with the correct response: [1]

(a) Meristematic tissue (i) Blood and bones

(b) Epidermal tissue (ii) Divides rapidly

(c) Connective tissue (iii) Conducts message

(d) Nervous tissue (iv) The outer surface of plants

a) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

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 c) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) d) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
4. Find the incorrect statement: [1]
A. Root tips are permanent tissue.
B. Mycoplasma gallisepticum is the smallest cell among the unicellular organisms.
C. Acetabularia measures nearly 10 cm in height.
D. Tonoplast is the membrane surrounding the vacuole.

a) (D) b) (A)

c) (C) d) (B)
5. Assertion (A): Vaccinations are given to farm animals. [1]
Reason (R): Vaccinations protect the farm animals from a number of diseases caused due to virus and bacteria.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

6. Assertion (A): Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of complex plants. [1]
Reason (R): Vascular tissue has made survival of complex plants possible in the terrestrial environments.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. The most abundant material on the plant cell wall is: [1]

a) lipids b) cellulose

c) wax d) proteins
8. Those organs of the body like oral cavity, esophagus, etc., which are subjected to mechanical abrasions are lined [1]
by

a) stratified cuboidal epithelium b) simple squamous epithelium

c) stratified squamous epithelium d) simple columnar epithelium

9. Continuous use of fertilizers can destroy soil fertility because [1]

a) organic matter is not replenished b) microbes in the soil are harmed

c) both organic matter is not replenished and d) soil becomes hard

microbes in the soil are harmed
10. Enumerate the advantages of mixed farming. [2]
11. If cells of onion peel and RBC are separately kept in hypotonic solution, what will happen to each of them? [2]
Explain.
OR
Name the cell organelle found in plant cells only. Write its types and function.
12. Write a short note on ‘phellogen’. [2]
13. Observe the given below diagram and answer the following questions: [3]

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 i. What does A represent in the given diagram? How does cell 'A' of root hairs cells help in water absorption?
ii. How does B in the given diagram help the plants?
iii. Out of A, B, and C cells in the above diagram, which cell helps in the closing and opening of the stomata?
Write the name of the cell.
14. Differentiate between active and passive transport. [3]
15. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Cropping pattern refers to the proportion of land under cultivation of different crops at different points of time.
Intercropping is the practice of growing more than one crop on the same field at the same time in a definite row
pattern. It is much superior to mixed cropping. Intercropping can incorporate crop rotation. The technique makes
the farmers busy throughout the year. Productivity is increased. Soil erosion is prevented. Pests and weeds
remain under control.

i. What is Inter-cropping? (1)

ii. Why intercropping is superior to all other means of cropping? (1)
iii. Which method of cropping prevents soil erosion by checking soil creep after harvesting a crop? (2)
OR
Modern cropping is based on machines from sowing to harvesting. Which is the best method of cropping for
this? (2)

16. i. Describe the role played by the lysosomes. Why are they termed as suicidal bags? How do they perform their [5]
function?
ii. What happens to the dry raisins, when placed in plain water for some time? State the reason for whatever is
observed. What would happen if these raisins are then placed in concentrated salt solution?
OR
Write differences between animal tissue and plant tissue.
Section B
17. Assertion (A): The conversion of gas directly into solid is called condensation. [1]
Reason (R): Naphthalene leaves residue when kept open for some time.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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18. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is [1]

a) N b) N2

c) N+ d) Ni

19. Match the following with the correct response. [1]

(a) A solution having a uniform composition (i) Homogenous

(b) Solution with separate boundaries of various components (ii) Chemical change

(c) New substances are formed (iii) Heterogeneous

(d) Melting of ice (iv) physical change

a) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

c) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
20. Assertion (A): An atom contains a positively charged center called the nucleus of the atom. [1]
Reason (R): The nucleus of an atom is 10,000 times bigger than the atom.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

21. Four different experiments were conducted in the following ways: [1]
i. 3 g of carbon was burnt in 8 g of oxygen to give 11 g of CO2.
ii. 1.2 g of carbon was burnt in air to give 4.2 g of CO2.

iii. 4.5 g of carbon was burnt in enough air to give 11 g of CO2.

iv. 4 g of carbon was burnt in oxygen to form 30.3 g of CO2.

Law of constant proportions is not illustrated in experiment(s).

a) ii, iii and iv only b) iv only

c) i and iii only d) i only

22. When water boils its temperature [1]

a) keeps on increasing as long as heating is b) remains constant

continued.

c) may decreases or increases depending on d) keeps decreases then increases.

the place where the experiment is being
carried out.
23. Boiling points of a few gases are given below: [1]

Gas W X Y Z

Boiling point (oC) -152 -246 -196 -183

If liquid mixture of these gases is fractionally distilled, the order of gases distilling out from first to last is

a) W, X, Y, Z b) Z, X, Y, W

c) X, Y, Z, W d) Y, X, Z, W

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24. Which of the following is a correct setup for absorbing the law of conservation of mass in a chemical reaction [1]
before the solution is mixed?

a) d b) a

c) c d) b
25. A compound is regarded as a pure substance while the mixture is not. Give reason. [2]
26. Write down the names of compounds represented by following formulae: [3]
i. Al2(SO4)3
ii. CaCl2

iii. K2SO4
iv. KNO3

v. CaCO3

OR
Dalton's atomic theory is contradicted by the formula of sucrose C12H22O11. Justify the statement.

27. How does evaporation differ from vaporisation? [3]

28. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed inside the atom. While revolving in
discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy. Neutrons are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except
hydrogen. In general, a neutron is represented as ‘n’. The mass of an atom is therefore given by the sum of the
masses of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus. The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is
given by the formula 2n2, where ‘n’ is the orbit number or energy level index, 1, 2, 3... Electrons are not
accommodated in a given shell unless the inner shells are filled.

i. Write the name of the sub-atomic particle discovered by [Link] . What type of charge occurs on this
particle ? In which part of an atom this particle is located? (1)
ii. Identify the element in the following figure. (1)

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 iii. What is the electronic configuration of phosphorus? (2)
OR
What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in M Shell of an atom? (2)
29. Classify each of the following as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons. [5]
i. Drying of a shirt in the sun.
ii. Rising of hot air over a radiator.
iii. Burning of kerosene in a lantern.
iv. Change in the colour of black tea on adding lemon juice to it.
v. Churning of milk cream to get butter.
OR
i. Under which category of mixtures will you classify alloys and why?
ii. Whether a solution is always liquid or not. Comment.
iii. Can a solution be heterogeneous?
Section C
30. If force, change in momentum and time are given by F, p and t respectively, then they are related by [1]

a) F = pt b) Ft2 = p

c) F =
P

t
d) p = F2t

31. Assertion (A): No work is done when a woman carrying a load on her head, walks on a level road with a [1]
uniform velocity.
Reason (R): No work is done if force is perpendicular to the direction of displacement.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

32. What is the use of the device shown in the given below image? [1]

a) The direction of underwater objects b) The distance of underwater objects

c) All of these d) The speed of underwater objects

33. Why is the weight of an object on the moon 1

6
th its weight on the earth? [2]
34. Explain why some of the leaves may fall from a tree, if we vigorously shake its branch. [2]
OR
According to the third law of motion, when we push on an object, the object pushes back on us with an equal and
opposite force. If the object is a massive truck parked along the roadside, it will probably not move. A student

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 justifies this by answering that the two opposite and equal forces cancel each other. Comment on this logic and
explain why the truck does not move.

35. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s-2 for 2 minutes. Find: [3]

a. the speed acquired.

b. the distance travelled.
36. Reena’s grandmother took her mother to a doctor as she was four months pregnant for ultrasonography. But she [3]
showed her interest in determining whether the child is a boy or a girl. The doctor was annoyed and refused to
disclose the gender of the child.
a. What is ultrasonography?
b. On what principle does it work?
c. Why do you think the doctor refused to determine the gender of the child?
d. What values are promoted by the doctor?
37. The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of a floor is shown in the figure. Find the force acting [3]
on the ball if the mass of the ball is 50 g.

38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The force with which a planet attracts an object towards it is called the weight of the object on that planet. The
weight of an object on the surface of the earth is W newton. The object is now taken to a planet whose mass is 1

times the mass of earth and radius is 1

8
times the radius of the earth. It is found that the weight of the object on
the planet is different than the weight on the earth. g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth.
i. What is weight and how is it different from mass? (1)
ii. Why is the weight of an object less on the moon than on earth? (1)
iii. What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on the planet? (2)
OR
On what factors do the weights of an object depend? (2)

39. i. State the law of conservation of energy. [5]

ii. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which occur when we draw a
pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate.
OR
i. If the displacement of a body is zero, is it necessary that the distance covered by it is also zero?
ii. A body starts to slide over a horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 0.7 m/s. due to friction, its velocity
decreases at the rate 0.07 m/s2. How much time will it take for the body to stop?

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 Class IX Session 2025-26
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 4

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry and

Section C is Physics.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

Section A
1. X, Y, and Z are meristematic tissues present at different regions in plants. Which of these are responsible for the [1]
increase in girth of stems or roots?

a) Y b) Both Y and Z

c) X d) Z
2. Cell arises from the pre-existing cell was stated by [1]

a) Robert Hook b) Virchow

c) Purkinje d) Robert Brown

3. Match the following with the correct response: [1]

(a) Lysosomes (i) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(b) Centriole (ii) Spindle formation

(c) Processing & packaging of cell secretions (iii) Suicidal bags

(d) Synthesis of lipids (iv) Golgi apparatus

a) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

c) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
4. Select the incorrect sentence [1]

a) Two bones are connected with ligament b) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue

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 c) Blood has matrix containing proteins, salts, d) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile
and hormones
5. The principal cereal crop in India is _______. [1]

a) Wheat b) Maize

c) Rice d) Sorghum
6. Assertion (A): Most of plant tissues are dead. [1]
Reason (R): Due to the sedentary existence of plants, dead cells provide mechanical strength more easily than
live ones and need less maintenance.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Assertion (A): Cell wall is found in only the animal cells. [1]
Reason (R): Cell membrane is found in both plant and animal cells.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true and R is false. d) A is false and R is true.

8. Weeds affect the crop plants by - [1]

a) All of these b) Dominating the plants to grow.

c) Killing of plants in the field before they d) Competing for various resources of crops
grow. (plants)
9. Which of the following is the fastest growing carp? [1]

a) Singhara b) Mrigal

c) Rohu d) Catla
10. What is the main function of each of the following organelles? [2]
(a) Ribosome
(b) Cell wall.
11. Write a short note on xylem. [2]
OR
Why is epidermis important for the plants?
12. Define the term hybridization and photoperiod. [2]
13. Study the following diagram of phloem and answer the following questions: [3]

i. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.

ii. What term is used for the end walls of the B?
iii. What are the two functions performed by C?

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 [3]

14.

Answer the following questions:

i. Soybean and maize can grow simultaneously on the same field explain?
ii. What is the main purpose of mixed cropping?
iii. Enlist various methods to control weed, insect, and disease.
15. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Plant cells, in addition to the plasma membrane, have another rigid outer covering called the cell wall. The cell
wall lies outside the plasma membrane. The plant cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose. The nucleus has a
double-layered covering called a nuclear membrane. The nuclear membrane has pores that allow the transfer of
material from inside the nucleus to its outside, that is, to the cytoplasm. The nucleus contains chromosomes,
which are visible as rod-shaped structures only when the cell is about to divide. Chromosomes contain
information for the inheritance of characters from parents to the next generation in the form of DNA. The
nucleus plays a central role in cellular reproduction, the process by which a single cell divides and forms two
new cells.
i. Cellulose is a complex substance which provides? (1)
ii. What are chromosomes made up of? (1)
iii. How is plasmolysis in a plant cell defined? (2)
OR
In which type of solution will the cell shrink? (2)

16. i. State what will happen when human red blood cells are placed in a hypotonic salt/sugar solution. [5]
ii. Why plant cell shrinks when kept in a hypertonic solution.
iii. Why lysosomes are known as suicidal bags?
OR
Differentiate between sclerenchyma and parenchyma tissues. Draw a well-labeled diagram.
Section B
17. Which of the following solids undergo sublimation upon heating? [1]

a) Ice b) Sugar

c) Urea d) Iodine
18. What are a and b? [1]

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 a) a = divide by 22.4 L, b = divide by 22.4 L b) a = divide by 22.4 L, b - multiply by 22.4 L

c) a = multiply by 22.4 L, b = multiply by 22.4 d) a = multiply by 22.4 L, b = divide by 22.4 L

L
19. Assertion (A): When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution placed in a dark place the path of the [1]
beam becomes visible.
Reason (R): Light gets scattered by the colloidal particles.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Match the following with the correct response: [1]

(1) Atomic number (A) Number of protons

(2) Atomic mass (B) Same atoms with similar atomic numbers

(3) Isotopes (C) Total number neutrons and protons

(4) Isobars (D) Different atoms with similar atomic masses

a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

21. Which of the following represents a correct chemical formula? Name it. [1]

a) NaS b) NaSO4

c) BiPO4 d) CaCl

22. Following figure shows three states of matter and its interconversion. Which process display in A and B? [1]

a) (A)Sublimation (B) condensation b) (A) Fusion and (B) Condensation

c) (A) Vapourisation (B) Condensation d) (A) Fusion (B) Solifification

23. Tyndall effect is observed in which one of the following? [1]

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 a) Starch + Water b) NaCl + Water

c) Alum + Water d) True solution

24. Assertion (A): Atomicity of oxygen is 2. [1]

Reason (R): 1 mole of an element contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

25. You are provided with a fine white coloured powder which is either sugar or salt. How would you identify it [2]
without tasting?
26. Why do not the dispersed phase particles in a colloidal solution combine with one other? [3]
OR
Differentiate between elements and compounds.
27. An old man and a scientist were talking about a deserted house. The old man was sure that it was haunted by [3]
ghosts, but the scientist discarded the view saying no one had ever seen a ghost. The old man was annoyed and
challenged the scientist about existence of atoms, sub-atomic particles which also could not be seen.
i. Name the three sub-atomic particles and their discoverers.
ii. Whose viewpoint do you support and why?
28. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The minimum temperature at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its
melting point. The energy supplied by heat overcomes the forces of attraction between the particles. The
particles leave their fixed positions and start moving more freely. A stage is reached when the solid melts and is
converted to a liquid. The process of melting, that is, change of solid state into a liquid state is also known as
fusion. The temperature of the system does not change after the melting point is reached, till all the ice melts.

i. Define fusion? (1)

ii. What is melting point ? what is the melting point of Ice? (1)
iii. What is latent heat of fusion? (2)
OR
What do you mean by latent heat? (2)

29. i. What is an octet? How do elements attain an octet? [5]

ii. Make a schematic atomic structure of magnesium and phosphorus.
[Given number of protons of magnesium =12 and that of phosphorus = 15 ]

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 OR
If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.
Section C
30. As the sailor jumps forward out of a rowing boat, the force on the boat moves it backward. This is an example of [1]

a) second law of motion b) third law of motion

c) law of conservation of momentum d) first law of motion

31. Two cars A and B approaching each other with a momentum of 50 kg m/s and 25 kg m/s respectively, stick to [1]
each other after the collision. The momentum after the collision is:

a) 75 kg m/s b) 50 kg m/s

c) In the direction of B d) In the direction of A

32. Assertion (A): Sound needs a material medium for their propagation. [1]
Reason (R): Sound waves are mechanical waves.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

33. A bullet of mass 5 g travelling at a speed of 120 ms-1 penetrates deeply into the fixed target and is brought to [2]
rest in 0.01 s. Calculate: (a) the distance of penetration in the target, (b) the average force exerted on the bullet.
34. The volume of 50 g substance is 20 cm3. If the density of water is 1 g cm-3, will the substance float or sink? [2]
OR
An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its potential energy? If the object is
allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half way down.
35. Suppose you go up a tower 80 m high and throw a ball horizontally with a velocity of 20m/s. What will be the [3]
shape of the path followed by the ball? While falling, the motion of the ball will be a combination of two
independent motions. Name these two motions.
36. Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find the ratio [3]
of times taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the second child.
37. A bullet travelling at 360 m/s strikes a block of soft wood. The mass of the bullet is 2.0 g. The bullet comes to [3]
rest after penetrating 10 cm into the wood.
a) Find the average de-accceleration force exerted by the wood.
b) Find the time taken by the bullet to come to rest.

38. A vehicle of 1 tonne travelling by a speed of 60 ms-1 notices a cow on the road 9m ahead applies brakes. It stops [4]
just in front of the cow.

i. Find out the KE of the vehicle before applying brakes.(1)

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 ii. Calculate the retarding force provided by the brakes. (1)
iii. How much time did it take to stop after the brakes were applied? (2)
OR
What is the work done by the braking force? (2)

39. i. A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution. In which case, will it experience [5]
a greater buoyant force? If each side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm and then immersed in water, what will be
the effect on the buoyant force experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water. Give the
reason for each case.
ii. A ball weight 4 kg of density 4000 kg m-3is completely immersed in water of density 103kg m-3. Find the
force of buoyancy on it. (Given g = 10 ms-2.)
OR
A stone is dropped from a 100 m high tower. How long does it take to fall?
a. the first 50 m and
b. the second 50 m.

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 Class IX Session 2025-26
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 3

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry and

Section C is Physics.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

Section A
1. While observing a thin section of a plant stem, four students sketched sclerenchyma as given below. The correct [1]
diagram is:

a) C b) A

c) D d) B
2. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cells? [1]

a) Over centrosome b) Over the Nucleus

c) Over the Ribosomes d) Over Golgi bodies

3. Match the following with the correct response: [1]

(a) Robert Brown (i) Nucleus

(b) Purkinje (ii) Cell

(c) Robert Hooke (iii) Protoplasm

(d) Schleiden (iv) Cell theory

a) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) b) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

c) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
4. Find out the incorrect sentence: [1]

a) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack b) Apical and intercalary meristems are
vacuoles. permanent tissues.

c) collenchymatous tissues are irregularly d) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular

Page 1 of 15
 thickened at corners. spaces.
5. Assertion (A): The cells of sclerenchyma tissue are living. [1]
Reason (R): They are long and narrow as the walls are thickened due to the deposition of lignin.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

6. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are examples of [1]

a) Micro-nutrients and Macro-nutrients b) Macro-nutrients

c) Fertilizers d) Micro-nutrients
7. Assertion (A): Mitochondria, nucleus, and chloroplast are regarded as semi-autonomous cell organelles. [1]
Reason (R): These organelles contain their own DNA, ribosomes and replicate independently of the nucleus.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true and R is false. d) A is false and R is true.

8. Determine the mineral nutrient/element whose loss is compensated by growing a pulse crop between two cereal [1]
crops.

a) Nitrogen b) Magnesium

c) Calcium d) Sulphur
9. Which of the following type of irrigation system is used in areas closer to rivers? [1]

a) River lift b) Tanks

c) Dug wells d) Canals

10. What is the function of cellulose in a plant cell? [2]
11. Draw a labelled diagram of a neuron. [2]
OR
Differentiate between meristematic and permanent tissue.
12. How do insect pest damage crop plants? [2]
13. Study the following figure and answer the following questions: [3]

i. Identify the type of tissue shown in the given figure. Write the labellings - A, B, C, D.
ii. Is the given type of tissue in the figure is flexible or not? Give a reason for your answer.
iii. What are the functions of the tissue shown in the given figure?
[3]

Page 2 of 15
14.

Answer the following questions:

i. Fertilizers have short term benefits but long term use of it is harmful. Explain.
ii. What are the uses of fertilizers?
iii. What is the major problem of using fertilizers in a high dose?
15. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Leeuwenhoek discovered the free-living cells in pond water for the first time. Robert Brown discovered the
nucleus in the cell. A single cell may constitute a whole organism as in Amoeba. These organisms are called
unicellular organisms. On the other hand, many cells group together in a single body and assume different
functions in it to form various body parts in multicellular organisms. The shape and size of cells are related to
the specific function they perform. Each living cell has the capacity to perform certain basic functions that are
characteristic of all living forms. Each kind of cell organelle performs a special function, such as making new
material in the cell, clearing up the waste material from the cell and so on.
i. Who first discovered cells? (1)
ii. Is Chlamydomonas a unicellular or multicellular organism? (1)
iii. Who suggested that all cells arise from pre-existing cells? (2)
OR
Identify the given cell. (2)

16. Write the main function of each of the following. [5]

(a) Plasma membrane
(b) cell wall
(c) Ribosome
(d) Lysosome
(e) Nucleolus
(f) Endoplasmic reticulum
OR
Describe the types of connective tissues along with their functions.
Section B
17. The evaporation of a liquid occurs only at [1]

Page 3 of 15
 a) temperature less than 100oC b) temperature more than 100oC

c) all temperatures d) fixed temperature

18. An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has the formula, MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5. [1]

What will be the molecular mass of the oxide of element M?

a) 44 b) 99

c) 28 d) 72
19. Assertion (A): The interconversion of state occurs without a change in composition but there is a change in the [1]
chemical nature of the substance.
Reason (R): During burning one substance reacts with another to undergo a chemical composition.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Match the following with the correct response: [1]

(a) Carbon (i) 2, 8, 1

(b) Sodium (ii) 2

(c) Argon (iii) 2, 8, 8

(d) Helium (iv) 2, 4

a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

c) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
21. An element P forms an oxide with formula PO. The formulae of its sulphate and phosphate will be respectively [1]

a) PSO4 and P2(PO4)3 b) P2(SO4)3 and PPO4

c) P(SO4)2 and P(PO4)2 d) PSO4 and P3(PO4)2

22. Which experiments set-up is correct for determining the melting pt. of ice? [1]

a) Neither P nor Q b) Q

c) P d) Both P and Q
23. The particles of the colloidal solution are: [1]

a) visible with the naked eye b) visible with a simple microscope

c) visible with a powerful microscope d) not visible with a powerful microscope

24. Assertion (A): An atom is very huge in size. [1]
Reason (R): About one million atoms are stacked together to equal the thickness of a sheet of paper.

Page 4 of 15
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

25. Why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation? [2]
26. Differentiate between a true solution and a colloid. [3]
OR
List the points of difference between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.
27. Find out the valency of atoms represented by the following figures. [3]

i.

ii.

iii.

28. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Everything in this universe is made up of material “matter”. The air we breathe, the food we eat, stones, clouds,
stars, plants and animals, even a small drop of water or a particle of sand – everything is matter. when we make
tea, coffee or lemonade, particles of one type of matter get into the spaces between particles of the other. This
shows that there is enough space between particles of matter. Particles of matter are continuously moving, that
is, they possess what we call kinetic energy. particles of matter have a force acting between them. This force
keeps the particles together. The strength of this force of attraction varies from one kind of matter to another.

i. Define matter? give some examples. (1)

ii. Explain with activity that matter have space between them? (1)
iii. How can we say that solid has the strongest intermolecular force? (2)
OR
Which kind of matter have the largest intermolecular space between them? (2)
29. Explain with examples: [5]
i. Atomic number,
ii. Mass number,

Page 5 of 15
 iii. Isotopes and
iv. Isobars.
Give any two uses of isotopes.
OR
Give an experiment to show that cathode rays are deflected by magnetic fields.
Section C
30. The image shows a force which always opposes the motion of one body over another body. This is: [1]

a) Magnetic force b) Frictional force

c) Gravitational force d) Electrostatic force

31. The rate of doing work is called ________. [1]

a) body b) power

c) motion d) energy
32. Assertion (A): Transverse waves can be produced in liquids. [1]
Reason (R): Light waves are transverse waves.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

33. A man throws a ball of mass 0.4 kg vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. What will be its initial [2]
momentum? What would be its momentum at the highest point of its reach?
34. Calculate the work done against the gravity. [2]
OR
An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in 10 hours?
35. Write a short note on uniform circular motion. [3]
36. Kunal and Abhimanyu were waiting to go across a railway crossing. Kunal jumped over the barrier and [3]
curiously put his ear on the railway track. Abhimanyu opposed Kunal and pulled him away from the railway
track.
a. Why did Kunal put his ear on the railway track?
b. Can sound travel faster through (i) copper (ii) water?
c. Why did Abhimanyu pull Kunal away from the railway track?
37. The speed-time graph of a car is given. The car weighs 1000 kg. [3]
i. What is the distance travelled by car in the first 2s?

Page 6 of 15
 ii. What is the braking force applied at the end of 5 s to bring the car to stop within one second?

38. Work is closely related to energy. The work-energy principle states that an increase in the kinetic energy of a [4]
rigid body is caused by an equal amount of positive work done on the body by the resultant force acting on that
body.
i. Define potential energy.
ii. Give an example where potential energy is acquired by a body due to a change in its shape.
iii. A skier of mass 50 kg stands at A, at the top of a ski jump. He takes off from A for his jump to B. Calculate
the change in his gravitational potential energy between A and B.

OR
An object of mass, m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should be done on the object in
order to bring the object to rest?

39. A car falls off a ledge and drops to the ground in 0.5 s. Let g = 10 ms-2 (for simplifying the calculations). [5]

i. What is its speed on striking the ground?

ii. What is its average speed during the 0.5 s?
iii. How high is the ledge from the ground?
OR
What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface? (Mass of the earth
is 6 × 10 24
kg and radius of the earth is6.4 × 10 m).
6

Page 7 of 15
 Class IX Session 2025-26
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry and

Section C is Physics.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

Section A
1. Which type of muscles are shown in the image? [1]

a) Spindle-shaped, uninucleated b) Cylindrical, unbranched

c) Both Spindle-shaped, uninucleated d) Elongated, without striations

and Elongated, without striations
2. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane, are manufactured by [1]

a) Golgi apparatus b) Plasma membrane

c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum d) Mitochondria

3. Match the following with the correct response given below: [1]

(1) Largest cell (A) Mycoplasma

(2) Smallest cell (B) Bacteria

(3) Single cell (C) Amoeba

(4) Prokaryotic cell (D) Ostrich egg

a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

4. Identify the tissues in given diagrams and choose the correct sequence [1]

Page 1 of 14
 a) A : Parenchyma, B : Sclerenchyma, C : b) A : Sclerenchyma, B : Parenchyma, C :
Onion peel, D : Cheek cells Onion peel, D : Cheek cells

c) A : Parenchyma, B : Sclerenchyma, C : d) A : Sclerenchyma, B : Parenchyma, C :

Cheek cells, D : Onion peel Cheek cells, D : Onion Peel
5. Who is known as the 'Father of white revolution' in India? [1]

a) Prof M.S. Swaminathan b) Shri Jai Prakash Narain

c) Mrs. Indira Gandhi d) Dr.V. Kurein

6. Assertion (A): Animals of colder regions and fishes of cold water have a thicker layer of subcutaneous fat. [1]
Reason (R): The thick layer of subcutaneous fat acts as an insulator and prevents the heat of the body to escape
out. The layer of fat acts as subcutaneous insulation of body for thermoregulation.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Assertion (A): The compost is rich in organic matter and nutrients. [1]
Reason (R): Compost prepared by using earthworms to hasten the process of decomposition of plant and animal
for refuse is called vermicompost.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

8. Describe the functions of epithelium tissue. [2]
9. i. Name the month during which Kharif crop is grown. [2]
ii. List any two factors for which crop variety improvement is done.
OR
Discuss the implications of the following statement:
“It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre food stuff (which is unfit for
human consumption) into highly nutritious animal protein food.”
10. Define the following statements :- [2]
(i) White revolution
(ii) Silver revolution
(iii) Blue revolution.
11. i. Identify the tissue given in the following figure. [3]
ii. Mention the characteristic features of the cells.
iii. Specify the function of this tissue.

Page 2 of 14
 iv. Name any one part of the plant, where these cells are present.

12. What is the difference between plasma membrane and cell wall ? Give the functions of each one. [3]
13. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The covering or protective tissues in the animal body are epithelial tissues. Epithelium covers most organs and
cavities within the body. It also forms a barrier to keep different body systems separate. Epithelial tissue cells are
tightly packed and form a continuous sheet. The skin, which protects the body, is also made of squamous
epithelium. Skin epithelial cells are arranged in many layers to prevent wear and tear. This columnar epithelium
facilitates movement across the epithelial barrier. In the respiratory tract, the columnar epithelial tissue also has
cilia, which are hair-like projections on the outer surfaces of epithelial cells. Cuboidal epithelium forms the
lining of kidney tubules.
i. Identify the type of epithelial tissue shown in the following figure. (1)

ii. Which cell is present in the inner lining of the intestine? (1)
iii. Is excretion is the main function of the cuboidal epithelium? (2)
OR
Sometimes a portion of the epithelial tissue folds inward, and a multicellular gland is formed which is called
a? (2)
14. Draw a neat labelled diagram of an animal cell. [5]
OR
Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? How are they different from one other?
Section B
15. Find the incorrect statement [1]
A. Cooling is caused during boiling
B. The normal room temperature is 298K
C. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon but boiling is not
D. Low boiling liquids evaporate faster than high boiling liquids.

a) C b) D

c) A d) B
16. Which of the following statements are true for pure substances? [1]
i. Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
ii. Pure substances may be compounds or mixtures
iii. Pure substances have the same composition throughout
iv. Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel

Page 3 of 14
 a) (i) and (iii) b) (ii) and (iii)

c) (i) and (ii) d) (iii) and (iv)

17. A food sample turned blue-black after addition of a few drops of iodine solution. This sample contains: [1]

a) protein b) fat

c) glucose d) starch
18. Match the following with the correct response : [1]

(a) Deuterium (i) Radio carbon-dating

(b) Carbon-14 (ii) Treatment of cancer

(c) Isotope of Uranium (iii) Nuclear reactors

(d) Cobalt-60 (iv) An isotope of Hydrogen

a) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

c) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

19. What mass of CO2 will 3.011 × 1023 molecules contain? [1]

a) 4.4 g b) 22.0 g

c) 11.0 g d) 44.0 g
20. The inferences drawn by the temperature versus time graph are [1]

A. During the melting, temperature of substance does not change.

B. Temperature rises after all amount of ice melts.
C. At a specific temperature water starts boiling and temperature remains the same during the conversion of
water into steam.
Which statement is correct regarding graph?

a) All (A), (B) and (C) are correct b) Only (C) is correct

c) Only (A) is correct d) Only (B) is correct

21. To observe starch granules in potato under a microscope, freshly cut surface of potato placed on a slide. The [1]
stain that will show starch granules clearly is:

a) iodine b) eosin

c) safranin d) methylene blue

22. Assertion (A): A molecule is a group of two or more atoms chemically bonded together. [1]
Reason (R): A molecule is the smallest particle of an element or a compound.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

Page 4 of 14
 c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
23. The mass of one molecule of a substance is 4.65 × 10 −23
g. What is its molecular mass? What could this [2]
substance be?
24. Liquids generally have low density as compared to solid. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. [3]
Find out why?
OR
Why are gases compressible but not liquids?
25. An element 'X' contains 6 electrons in 'M' shell as valence electrons: [3]
(a) What is the atomic number of 'X'?
(b) Identify whether 'X' is a metal or non-metal.
26. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Mixtures are constituted by more than one kind of pure form of matter. Sodium chloride is itself a pure
substance matter. The solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Lemonade, soda water etc.
are all examples of solutions. Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and cannot
be separated into their components by physical methods. A solution has a solvent and a solute as its components.
The component of the solution that dissolves the other component in it (usually the component present in a
larger amount) is called the solvent. The component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent
(usually present in lesser quantity) is called the solute.

i. In a water-sugar solution: Identify solute and solvent? (1)

ii. What is the size of the particles of a solution? (1)
iii. What is pure substance? (2)
OR
What do you mean by Alloy? (2)
27. Describe valency by taking the examples of silicon and oxygen. [5]
OR
For the following statements, write T for True and F for False and give a reason:
a. J.J Thomson's proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
b. A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore it is neutral.
c. The mass of an electron is about times that of a proton.
1

2000

d. An isotope of iodine is used for making a tincture of iodine, which is used as a medicine.
Section C
28. When we press a rubber ball with both the hands, it [1]

Page 5 of 14
 a) changes composition b) changes its Mass

c) becomes light d) changes its shape

29. Statement A: Any physical or mental activity is termed as work done in physics. [1]
Statement B: Work is said to be +ve work done when the body is displaced in the direction of applied force.
Which of the two statements is true?

a) neither A nor B b) Statement A and B

c) Statement B d) Statement A
30. Match the following with correct response. [1]

Column A Column B

(1) Velocity (A) m/s 2

(2) Displacement (B)m/s

(3) Acceleration (C) −m/s 2

(4) Retardation (D) m

a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

31. If cross - sectional area of an object is more than the pressure applied by the external force is :- [1]

a) Remains same b) None of the above.

c) Less d) More
32. Assertion (A): Compression and rarefaction involve changes in density and pressure. [1]
Reason (R): When particles are compressed, the density of medium increases and when they are rarefied, the
density of medium decreases.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

33. A hammer of mass 500 g, moving at 50 ms −1
, strikes a nail. The nail stops the hammer in a very short time of [2]
0.01 s. What is the force of the nail on the hammer?
34. A balloon of volume 50 m3 is filled with hot air of density 0.4 kgm-3, if the weight of the fabric of balloon is 12 [2]
kgf and equipment 'P' is attached to it, such that balloon is in the state of equilibrium. Calculate:i) Weight of hot
air,ii) Weight of hot air, balloon and equipmentiii) Upthrust,iv) Weight of equipment.
OR
A boy of mass 40 kg runs up flight of 50 steps each 10 cm high in 5 second. Find

i) the work done by the boy ii) the power developed. (g = 9.8 ms-2)
35. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then, a heavy object does not fall faster [3]
than a light object?
36. i. The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. What happens to its [3]

a. Kinetic energy,

Page 6 of 14
 b. total mechanical energy?
State the law on which your answer is based.
ii. A household consumes 1 kWh of energy per day. How much energy is this in joules?
37. The driver of a car travelling along a straight road with a speed of 72 Km/h observes a signboard which give the [3]
speed limit to be 54 Km/h. The signboard is 70 m ahead, when the driver applies the brakes. Calculate the
acceleration of the car which will cause the car to pass the signboard at the stated speed limit.
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Electrical energy is energy derived as a result of the movement of electrically charged particles. When used
loosely, electrical energy refers to the energy that has been converted from electric potential energy.

i. When 1 Joule of work is said to be done? (1)

ii. An electric oven is rated 5000 W. How many units of electrical energy does it use in 2 hours? (1)
iii. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it. Explain. (2)
OR
A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10s. What is its power? (2)
39. Two identical bullets are fired one by a light rifle and another by a heavy rifle with the same force. Which rifle [5]
will hurt the shoulder more and why?
OR
A body of mass 2 Kg is at rest at the origin of a frame of reference. A force of 5 N acts on it at t = 0. The force acts
for 4 s and then stops.
i. What is the acceleration produced by the force on the body?
ii. What is the velocity at t = 4 s
iii. Draw the vt graph for the period t = 0 to t = 6 S.
iv. Find the distance travelled in 6 s.

Page 7 of 14
 Class IX Session 2025-26
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry and

Section C is Physics.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

Section A
1. The student were shown the slide of a nerve cell. They were asked to drawn the diagram of the nerve cell. The [1]
correct sequence of the labeling 1, 2, 3, 4 is:

a) Cilia, Nucleus, Dendrite, Cyton b) Axon, Nissl's granule, Dendrite, Cytoplasm

c) Dendron, Cyton, Nucleus, Axon d) Axon, Cytoplasm. Dendrite, Nucleus

2. The cell sap in plant cells consists of: [1]

a) water only b) water + organic substances

c) water + inorganic substances d) both (water only) and (water + inorganic

substances)
3. Match the following with the correct response: [1]

(a) Genes (i) Loss of water by plant cells

(b) Diffusion (ii) Gases

(c) Osmosis (iii) Hereditary units

(d) Plasmolysis (iv) Movement of water molecules

a) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) b) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

c) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
4. Choose the wrong statement: [1]
A. The nature of the matrix differs according to the function of the tissue

Page 1 of 17
 B. Fats are stored below the skin and in between the internal organs
C. Epithelial tissues have intercellular spaces between them
D. Cells of striated muscles are multinucleate and unbranched

a) (D) b) (B)

c) (C) d) (A)
5. Which one of the following is broad leaf weed? [1]

a) Convolvulus b) Chenopodium

c) All of these d) Amaranthus

6. Assertion (A): Meristematic tissues are growth tissues and found in the growing regions of the plant. [1]
Reason (R): According to the position of meristematic tissues they are of three types.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Assertion (A): Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell. [1]
Reason (R): Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

8. Describe the function of bones. [2]
9. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen? [2]
OR
What is the functional unit of life ? Define it.
10. Why are manure and fertilizers used in fields? [2]
11. Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions: [3]

i. Identify the type of tissue mentioned in the given figure.

ii. Write any two characteristics of the type of tissue mentioned in the given figure.
iii. Where is the given tissue found in our body? What is the nature of the given tissue mentioned in the
diagram?
[3]

12.

Page 2 of 17
 Answer the following questions:
i. What is the main purpose of green manure?
ii. Name any two plants which can be used for green manure.
iii. What is the advantage of using biological manure?
13. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Animal tissue has various types of epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue, and nervous tissue and of
tissue one of them is the connective tissue which consists of blood, bone, cartilage. Blood is the fluid matrix
called plasma in which red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelet are suspended while bone form the
framework that supports the body it also anchors the muscle and supports the main organ of the body. Two bones
are connected by a ligament. cartilage is a solid matrix composed of sugar and protein.
i. Name the tissue which connects muscle to a bone. (1)
ii. Matrix of bone cells are composed of (1)
iii. Two bones are connected by ligament how muscle connects to the bone? (2)
OR
Where the cartilage is found in the human body? (2)
14. What are cell organelles? Write the names of different cell organelles. [5]
OR
i. Which process in meristematic tissue converts it to permanent tissue?
ii. Which feature of meristematic tissue helps aquatic plants to maintain buoyancy in water?
iii. Why epidermis of plants living in dry habitats is thicker?
iv. Identify the following.
a. Living component of xylem
b. Dead element of phloem
v. Which type of conducting tissues conduct water and minerals vertically?
Section B
15. Which of the two statements is true? [1]
Statement A: The temperature of the liquid becomes constant once it starts boiling.
Statement B: The pressure of air at sea level is 70 cm.

a) Both A and B are false b) Both A and B

c) Statement B d) Statement A
16. Which of the following statements is not true about H2SO4? [1]

A. It is composed of 2 Hydrogen, 1 Sulphur, and 4 Oxygen atoms.

B. Its relative molecular mass is 98.
C. It is composed of one molecule of H2, one atom of S, and two molecules of O2.

D. Its relative molecular mass is 108.

a) B and C b) All of these

c) A, B and D d) C and D
17. Fermentation of grapes is an example of [1]

a) Chemical change b) Redox reaction

Page 3 of 17
 c) Reversible change d) Physical change
18. Match the following with the correct response: [1]

(a) Discovery of subatomic particles (i) Orbits

(b) Energy levels (ii) Positively charged

(c) Universal particles (iii) Electrons

(d) Canal rays (iv) Discharge tube

a) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

c) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) d) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
19. The number of molecules in CuSO4.5H2O bonded by H-bond is [1]

a) 5 b) 3

c) 2 d) 1
20. The temperature-time graph given alongside shows the heating curve for pure wax. [1]

What is the melting point of the substance?

a) 9°C b) 110°C

c) 15°C d) 90°C
21. Which one is a physical change? [1]

a) Mixing NH3 and HCl b) Adding NaCl to water

c) Mixing BaSO4 + NaCl d) Burning magnesium in air

22. Assertion (A): We use names and symbols as stated by IUPAC. [1]
Reason (R): Many symbols are the last letter or the last two letters of the name of the element.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

23. State the Postulates of Dalton Theory. [2]
24. The solubility of sodium chloride in water increases with rise in temperature while that of lithium carbonate [3]
decreases. Give reason.
OR
Differentiate between metals and non-metals based upon the various properties that they show.

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25. Given below is the atomic structure of an atom of element 23
11
A , according to Bohr's model of atom. [3]

i. What is wrong with this structure of atom?

ii. Draw a correct representation of this atom.
iii. Write the chemical formula of the chloride of this element.
26. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Matter around us exists in three different states–solid, liquid and gas. These states of matter arise due to the
variation in the characteristics of the particles of matter. Solids have a tendency to maintain their shape when
subjected to outside force. Solids may break under force but it is difficult to change their shape, so they are rigid.
the difference in various states of matter is due to the difference in the distances between the constituent
particles. Pressure and temperature determine the state of a substance, whether it will be solid, liquid or gas.

i. write the properties of solid state of matter? (1)

ii. How does solid gets converted directly into gaseous states of matter? (1)
iii. What is vaporization? (2)
OR
Give an example from which we can say that gas can directly converted into solid state of matter? (2)
27. Complete the following table. [5]

Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of Name of the atomic

Number Number Neutrons Protons Electrons Species

9 - 10 - - -

16 32 - - - Sulphur

- 24 - 12 - -

- 2 - 1 - -

- 1 0 1 0 -

OR

Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of Name of the atomic

number number neutrons protons electrons species

9 - 10 - - -

16 32 - - - Sulphur

- 24 - 12 - -

- 2 - 1 - -

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 - 1 0 1 0 -

Section C
28. The given image shows an effect of force that it can [1]

a) Change the size of the object b) Move a stationary object

c) Stop a moving object d) Change the shape of the object

29. Which of the following energy cannot be completely converted into other forms due to the transmission system? [1]

a) Nuclear energy b) Solar energy

c) Heat energy d) Mechanical energy

30. Which of the following is a false statement? [1]
A. The body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed.
B. The body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated.
C. The body can have a constant speed and still have varying velocity
D. The direction of the velocity of a body can change when its acceleration is constant.

a) (A) b) (B)

c) (D) d) (C)
31. Upthrust depends on: [1]

a) dipped volume of the body immersed b) density of the liquid

c) both density of the liquid and dipped d) volume of the liquid

volume of the body immersed.
32. Assertion (A): The velocity of sound in hydrogen gas is less than the velocity of sound in oxygen gas. [1]
Reason (R): The density of oxygen is more than the density of hydrogen.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

33. A hockey ball of mass 200 g travelling at 10 ms-1 is struck by a hockey stick so as to return it along its original [2]

path with a velocity at 5 ms-1. Calculate the magnitude of change of momentum occurred in the motion of the
hockey ball by the force applied by the hockey stick.
34. The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with a velocity of 5 ms-1 is 25 J. What will be its kinetic [2]
energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased to three
times?

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 OR
An engine can pump 30,000 litres of water a vertical height of 45 metres in 10 minutes. Calculate the work done by

the machine and its power. [g = 9.8 m/s2; Density of water = 103kg/m3, 1000 litre = 1 m3].
35. The graph given below shows the positions of a body at different times. Calculate the speed of the body as it [3]
moves from
i. A to B
ii. B to C
iii. C to D

36. Observe the given figure and answer the following questions: [3]

i. Identify the characteristics of the two graphs as shown above in the given figure.
ii. What is the relationship between the velocity of sound, its wavelength, and frequency?
iii. What is the term for the magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of the mean
value?
iv. Give the unit of frequency?
37. The velocity-time graph of an object of mass m = 50 g is shown in the figure. Observe the graph carefully and [3]
answer the following questions.
i. Calculate the force on the object in time interval 0 to 3 s.
ii. Calculate the force on the object in the time interval 6 to 10 s.
iii. Is there any time interval in which no force acts on the object? Justify your answer.

38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Work is done whenever a force moves something over a distance. You can calculate the energy transferred, or
work done, by multiplying the force by the distance moved in the direction of the force. Energy transferred =

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 work done = force × distance moved in the direction of the force.

Four men lift a 250 kg box to a height of 1 m and hold it without raising or lowering it.
i. Define work done. (1)
ii. How much work is done by the men in lifting the box? (1)
iii. How much work do they do in just holding it? (2)
OR
Why do they get tired while holding it? (g = 10 ms-2) (2)

39. i. Suppose the mass of the earth somehow increases by 10% without any change in its size. What would [5]
happen to your weight?
ii. Suppose the radius of the earth becomes twice of its present radius without any change in its mass. What will
happen to your weight?
OR
A block of wood is kept on a tabletop. The mass of the wooden block is 5 kg and its dimensions are 40 cm × 20 cm
× 10 cm. Find the pressure exerted by the wooden block on the table top if it is made to lie on the table top with its
sides of dimensions

i. 20 cm × 10 cm and
ii. 40 cm × 20 cm.

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