23-11-2025

7501CMD303033250014 MD

PHYSICS

1) Three charges +q, +2q and +4q are connected by strings as shown in the figure. What is the ratio

of tensions in the strings AB and BC.

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 4 : 3

2) A semicircular ring having charge density +λ on first half and –2λ on second half is kept as shown

in figure. Direction of electric field at O can be given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Charge 2Q and –Q are placed as shown in figure. The point at which electric field intensity is zero

will be :

(1) Somewhere between –Q and 2Q

(2) Somewhere on the left of –Q
(3) Somewhere on the right 2Q
(4) Somewhere on the right bisector of line joining –Q and 2Q

4) The cube shown below has edge lengths of 1.4 m and is placed such that the hidden corner is at
the origin of the coordinate system. If N/C , where is in units of newtons/coulomb and y
is coordinate in meters, what is ?

(1) 5.88 N-m2/C

(2) 0
(3) 8.23 N-m2/C
(4) 4.2 N-m2/C

5) What is the flux through the part of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 1 for region x > 0, y > 0, z > 0 due
to the electric field ?

(1) 25 π
(2) 50 π
(3) 75 π
(4) 100 π

6)

Two charged bodies A and B exert repulsive forces on each other. If charge on A is more then that
on B, which of the following statement is true.

(1) Body A experiences more Colombian force then B

(2) Body A experiences less Colombian force then B
(3) Both of them experience Colombian forces of equal magnitude
(4) It depends whether the bodies can be treated as point like charges or not

7) Statement-1 : An uncharged conducting slab is placed normally in a uniform electric field. The
resultant electric field inside the slab is zero.
Statement-2 : The equal and opposite charges appearing on two surfaces of slab cancel the
external field.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

8) The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that enclose the charged particles in free space is given
by ? q1 = –14 nC, q2 = –80 nC, q3 = –56 nC

(1)
Nm2 C–1
(2) 103CN–1m–2
(3) 6.32 ×103 Nm2 C–1
(4) 6.32 × 103 CN–1 m–2

9) The value of electric field at the cetnre of the electric dipole will be:

(1) Zero
(2) Equal to the electric field due to one charge at centre
(3) Twice the electric field due to one charge at centre.
(4) Half the value of electric field due to one charge at centre.

10) If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface, then:–

(1) work is done on the charge

(2) work is done by the charge
(3) work done is constant
(4) No work is done

11) When an electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field making angle θ, it experiences

(1) Net Force as well as torque

(2) Torque but no net force
(3) Net force but no torque
(4) No net force and no torque

12) A ring of charge with radius 0.5 m has gap. If the ring carries a charge of the
electric field at the centre is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Two charge, each equal to q are kept at x = –a and x = +a on x-axis. A particle of mass m and
charge –q/2 is placed at the origin. If charge is given a small displacement (y <<< a) along the y-
axis, the force acting on particle is proportional to

(1) y
(2) y2
(3) 1/y
(4)

14) In the following configuration of charges, force on charge q2 by q1 is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A point charge q is rotated along a circle in the electric field generated by another point charge
Q. The work done by the electric field on the rotating charge in one complete revolution is :-

(1) zero
(2) positive
(3) negative
(4) zero if the charge Q is at the centre and nonzero otherwise

16) Two arc of radius r and 2r carries charge density λ and λ and subtends angle π/3 and π/2
respectively at centre as shown in figure. The electric field at centre is :-
(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

17) A cube of side a is placed in electric field given by (b = constant). Flux linked with cube

is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18)

Excess charge given to a conductor is distributed at

(1) outer surface

(2) inner surface
(3) middle point
(4) surroundings

19) Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming
out of the cube will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

20) An electron experiences a force equal to its weight, when placed in an electric field. The
intensity of the field will be

(1) 1.7 × 10–11 N/C

(2) 5.0 × 10–11 N/C
(3) 5.5 × 10–11 N/C
(4) 56 N/C

21) A block of mass 3 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. The magnitude

of net force exerted by the surface on the block will be :-

(1) 26 N
(2) 19.5 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 30 N

22) Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m, respectively, are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in the figure. The
magnitude of acceleration of A and B, immediately after the string is cut, are respectively :

(1) g, g/2
(2) g/2, g
(3) g, g
(4) g/2, g/2
23) A body is placed on an inclined place and has to be pushed down in order to make it move. The
angle made by the normal reaction with the vertical will be :-

(1) Equal to angle of repose

(2) Equal to the angle of friction
(3) Less than the angle of repose
(4) More than the angle of friction

24) In the system shown in the adjoining figure, the tension T2 is :

(1) g
(2) 2g
(3) 5g
(4) 6g

25) Two massless and frictionless pulleys A and B are connected as shown in the figure and a weight
W = 200 kg is suspended from third pulley. System is in equilibrium by applying force F. The tension
at points X of the string is :-

(1) 980 N
(2) 1962 N
(3) 654 N
(4) 130 N

26) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is

y = 5 sin 2π
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

27) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following , choose the wrong

statement about particle velocity-

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity.

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity.
(3) Points C and G have zero velocity.
(4) Points A and B have upwards positive velocity.

28) The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as

y = 10–6 sin m, where t is in second and x in metre. The speed of the wave is :-

(1) 2000 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5π m/s

29) A wave is travelling along a string . At an instant the shape of the string is as shown in figure. At
this instant, point A is moving upward, then select the correct option.
(1) Wave is travelling to the left
(2) Amplitude of all the particles are same.
(3) At this instant, velocity of C is directed downward.
(4) All the above

30) Which of the following is the longitudinal wave:-

(1) Sound wave

(2) Wave on plucked string
(3) Water wave
(4) Light waves

31) A sound wave of frequency 500 Hz covers a distance of 1000 m in 5 seconds between points X
and Y. The no. of waves between X and Y are:-

(1) 500
(2) 1000
(3) 2500
(4) 3000

32) Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium y1 = 5 sin
2π (75t –0.25x), y2 = 10 sin 2π (150t – 0.50x). The intensity ratio I1/I2 of the two waves is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

33) The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal traveling waves are given by,
Wave 1 : y(x,t) = (2cm) sin(3x–6t)
Wave 2 : y(x,t) = (3cm) sin(4x–12t)
Wave 3 : y(x,t) = (4cm) sin(5x–11t)
where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves-

(1) wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(2)
speed.
(3) wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
 wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(4)
speed.

34) Two waves represented by ;

and

,
are superposed. The resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-

(1) zero
(2) 2a
(3) a
(4)

35) Which of the following represent a travelling wave ?

(1) (x – vt)2
(2) ℓn (x + vt)
(3)

(4)

36) Find ratio of velocity of sound in H2 & O2 at same temperature :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/s with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A little
wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces
2 beats/s. The frequency of the unknown fork is-

(1) 286 cps

(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps

38) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the
mainscale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale
is :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

39) In the reading shown in the figure, find the zero error.

(1) 0.05 cm
(2) –0.05 cm
(3) 0.03 cm
(4) –0.03 cm

40) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2mm. Find the measured value

of thickness of a thin sheet.

(1) 3.41 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

41) The main scale of a Vernier calliper reads in mm and its Vernier is divided into 10 divisions
which coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale. The reading for the situation is found to be (x/10)
mm. Find the value of x. In fig (1) 8th div. of V.S. coincides with M.S.D. & in fig (2) 6th div. of V.S.

coincides with M.S.D.

(1) 104
(2) 108
(3) 114
(4) 118

42) The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on it circular scale. The
instrument reads +2 divisions on circular scale when nothing is put in-between its jaws. In
measuring the diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd division of
circular scale coincides with the reference line. Then the diameter of the wire is

(1) 4.05 mm
(2) 4.405 mm
(3) 3.05 mm
(4) 1.25 mm

43) In a vernier calliper of least count 0.10 mm and zero error (–0.3 mm), the reading of diameter of
sphere on main scale is 6 mm and 5th division of verneir scale coincides with one of main scale
division. The correct diameter of sphere is :-

(1) 6 mm
(2) 6.2 mm
(3) 6.5 mm
(4) 6.8 mm

44) A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire
main scale reading : 1 mm
circular scale reading : 48 divisions
Given that 1mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of
the wire from the above data is :-

(1) 1.48 cm
(2) 0.148 cm
(3) 1.46 cm
(4) 0.146 cm

45) If a = 8 ± 0.08 and b = 6 ± 0.06, Let x = a + b, y = a – b, z = a × b. The correct order of % error

in x,y and z –

(1) x = y < z
(2) x = y >z
(3) x < z < y
(4) x > z < y

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following has least mass :-

(1) 4 gram atoms of carbon

(2) 3.011 × 1023 atoms of Nitrogen
(3) 1 mol CO2
(4) 32 g SO2

2) The volume of 0.2 mol CH4 at STP is :-

(1) 4.48 mL
(2) 4480 mL
(3) 4480 L
(4) 2240 L

3) Twenty molecules of SO3 will weight as much as ________ molecules of oxygen.

(1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 15
(4) 8

4) 11 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume of STP. The gas is:-

(1) NO
(2) N2O4
(3) CO
(4) CO2

5) Which of the following has maximum number of atoms -

(1) 14 mg of CH4
(2) 28 gram-atoms of nitrogen
(3) 36 mg of water
(4) 44 gram of CO2

6) If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops then number of molecules in a drop of water is :

(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecules

(2) 1.376 × 1026 molecules
(3) 1.62 × 1021 molecules
(4) 4.346 × 1020 molecules

7) The actual mass of O2 is:-

(1) 32 g
(2) 5.33 × 10–23g
(3) 16 g
(4) 2.66 × 10–23g

8) A sample of ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4, contains 3.18 mol of hydrogen atoms. The number
of moles of oxygen atoms in the sample is :

(1) 0.265
(2) 0.795
(3) 1.06
(4) 3.18

9) Number of atoms present is 50 amu of hydrogen is:-

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 1
(4) None of these

10) The density of air is 0.001293 g ml–1. It's vapour density is —

(1) 143
(2) 14.3
(3) 1.43
(4) 0.143

11) What is the volume occupied by 1 molecule of water at 25° C ?

(1) 3.99 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 2.99 × 1023 cm3
(3) 2.99 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 1.99 × 10–23 cm3

12) A Triatomic molecule has vapour density 24, then find out atomic mass in that molecule ?

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 48

13) The volume occupied by 4 mol of ideal gas at 0°C and 2 atm pressure will be
(use R = 0.0821 atm L mol–1K–1)

(1) 2.24 L
(2) 44.8 L
(3) 55.87 L
(4) 96.66 L

14) If 3.01 × 1020 molecules are removed from 98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of H2SO4
left are :–

(1) 0.1 × 10–3

(2) 0.5 × 10–3
(3) 1.66 × 10–3
(4) 9.95 × 10–2

15) Total number of atoms present in 1.0 cm3 of solid urea [NH2 Co NH2] (density 0.3 g/cm3) at 25°C
are :

(1) 3.01 × 1021

(2) 2.41 × 1022
(3) 3.01 × 1022
(4) 2.41 × 1023

16) Gabriel pthalimide synthesis can be used to prepare :

(1) Only primary aromatic amine

(2) Only primary aliphatic amine
(3) Only primary and secondary amine
(4) All types of amine

17)
Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of :

(1) C > A > B

(2) B > C > A
(3) A > C > B
(4) C > B > A

18) The end–product in the reaction sequence would be :

Ethyl amine A B C

(1) Ethyl cyanide

(2) Ethyl amine
(3) Methyl amine
(4) Acetamide

19) Which of the following amine does not give isocyanide test :–

(1)

(2) Amino benzene

(3) Ethyl amine
(4) N,N-Dimethyl aniline

20)

Chloroform react with aniline and alcoholic KOH gives

(1)
(2) Benzene
(3) Phenyl cyanide
(4) None of these
21) Find the product of the following reaction

(1) CH2NH2

(2) NH2

(3) NC

(4)

22) + NH (C2H5)2 product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In the given reaction sequence final product (C) will be –

A B C
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Aniline on treatment with bromine water yields white precipitate of :-

(1) o-Bromoaniline
(2) 2,4,6-Tribromo aniline
(3) p-Bromoaniline
(4) m-bromoaniline

25)
Product B is –

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) Which of the followings is not a fat soluble vitamin :-

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin E

27) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
(Compound) (Colour for indication)

(i) Nitrogen (a) Prussian Blue ppt

(ii) Sulphur (b) Black ppt

(iii) Chlorine (c) Yellow ppt

(iv) Phosphorous (d) White ppt

(1) i → a ; ii → b ; iii → d ; iv → c
(2) i → a ; ii → b ; iii → c ; iv → d
(3) i → c ; ii → a ; iii → d ; iv → b
(4) i → d ; ii → c ; iii → b ; iv → a

28) In a carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.15 g of an organic compound gave 0.12 g of AgBr.
Find out the percentage of bromine in the compound : (Molar mass of AgBr = 108 + 80 = 188 g
mol–1)

(1) 34.04%
(2) 36%
(3) 30%
(4) 43.04%

29) Kjeldhalls method for detection of 'N' in organic compounds can be used for -

(1) CH3CH2NO2
(2)

(3) Ph – N = N – Ph
(4) Urea

30) Which of the following vitamin is responsible for blood clotting.

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K

31)
What is the final product C in above reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following will not give Hoffmann bromamide reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) 1°, 2° and 3° amines are differentiated by :-

(1) Hinsberg's test

(2) Lucas test
(3) Lieberman nitroso test
(4) Iodoform test

34)
Product P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) In given set of reaction, find final product.

(1) CH3–CN
(2) CH3–NC

(3)

(4) CH3–NH2

36) Which of the following will not reduce Tollen's reagent :-

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose

37) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

(1) α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose

(2) β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
(3) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
(4) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose

38) The non-essential amino acid among the following is

(1) Lysine
(2) Valine
(3) Leucine
(4) Alanine

39) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Mixtures/Sample) (Technique used for purification)

(A) Glycerol from spent lye (I) Steam distillation

(B) Chloroform + Aniline (II) Fractional distillation

(C) Fractions of crude oil (III) Distillation under reduced pressure

(D) Aniline + Water (IV) Distillation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II),(C)-(III),(D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III),(C)-(II),(D)-(IV)

40) Nitrogen present in an organic compound can be estimated by

(1) Kjeldahl's method

(2) Duma's method
(3) Carius method
(4) Both (1) and (2)

41) Which of the following orders are true and false :

(a) BF3 > BF4– (bond length)
(b) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 (Lewis acid strength)
(c) (SiH3)2O > (CH3)2O (bond angle)
(d) CH3OH > SiH3OH (acidic character)

(1) T F T F
(2) F T T F
(3) T T T F
(4) F T T T

42) Which one of the statement about H3BO3 is not correct :-

(1) It is weak monobasic acid

(2) It is lewis acid
(3) It do not act as proton donor
(4) It is a strong tribasic acid

43) Assertion: There is a considerable Increase is covalent radius while going from C to Si but there
is small increase after that.
Reason: Due to the presence of completely filled d and f orbitals in heavier elements.

(1) Assertions is true, Reason is true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true, Reason is True and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true.

44)

XeF2 reacts with SbF5 to form ?

+ –
(1) [XeF] [SbF6]
– –
(2) [XeF3] [SbF4]
+
(3) [XePtF6]
(4) XeF4

45)

Which is not obtained when metal carbides react with H2O ?

(1) Al4C3 + H2O —→ CH≡CH

(2) CaC2 + H2O —→ CH≡CH
(3) Mg2C3 + H2O —→ CH3C≡CH
(4) Be2C + H2O —→ CH4

BIOLOGY

1) "Reproductive health means total well being in all aspects of reproduction i.e., physical,
behavioural and social". Which agency/organization is responsible for ratifying this on global scale?

(1) NDRI
(2) CDRI
(3) WHO
(4) IARI

2) Our population which was approximately 350 million at the time of our independence reached
close to the billion mark by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011. Probable reason for this ?

(1) A rapid decline in death rate

(2) A rapid decline in infant mortality rate (IMR)
(3) Increase in number of people in reproducible age
(4) All the above

3) Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptive as they
could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 hours?
A. Administration of progestogens
B. Progestogen-estrogen combination
C. IUDs inserted within 72 hours of coitus

(1) A only
(2) A & B only
(3) B only
(4) A, B & C

4) Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects used by females. They work by

(1) Inhibiting ovulation

(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these

5) Use of spermicidal creams, jellies and foams along with diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults
leads to

(1) Increased contraceptive efficiency

(2) Prevention of ovulation
(3) Prevention of implantation
(4) Increased sexual desire and drive
6) Lactational amenorrhoea, is a natural way of birth spacing. It is due to the high level of

(1) FSH and LH hormones

(2) Estrogen
(3) Prolactin
(4) Progesterone

7) Which of the following is an incorrect statement for periodic abstinence?

The couple should abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation
(1)
could be expected
(2) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile period, when the chances of fertilisation are high
(3) This prevents the chances of union of male and female gametes
In this method, the ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of
(4)
barriers

8)
Identify the contraceptive method

(1) Barrier method

(2) Natural method
(3) IUD
(4) Implant

9) Among the following methods, which one has the highest failure rate?

(1) Cervical cap

(2) Condom
(3) IUDs
(4) Lactational amenorrhea

10) Hormone releasing IUD’s are ?

(1) Progestasert, LNG - 20

(2) Progestasert & Lippes loop
(3) LNG 20 & Lippes loop
(4) Multiload 375 & Cu 7

11) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are

(1) Natural method
(2) Hormonal method
(3) Barrier method
(4) Terminal method

12) Which one of the following hormone/s is / are maintained at high level during hormonal method
of Birth control ?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Both 1 & 2

13) Which one of the following barrier is not reusable ?

(1) Vaults
(2) Nirodh
(3) Diaphragms
(4) Cervical cap

14) Match the column I & column II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Non Medicated IUD i. Saheli

b. Cu-releasing IUD ii. Lippes loop

c. Hormone releasing IUD iii. Multiload 375

d. Non - steroidal oral pill iv. Progestasert

(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(4) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

15) Which oral Pill is taken once a week?

(1) Mala-N
(2) Mala-D
(3) Quinestrol
(4) Saheli

16) Select true statements regarding 'Saheli' given below?

I. Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
II. Contains a steroidal preparation
III. "Once-a-week" pill
IV. Many side effects
V. High contraceptive value
VI. Very few side effects
VII. Low contraceptive value

(1) I, II, III, IV, V

(2) I, III, IV, V
(3) I, II, III, V, VI
(4) I, III, V, VI

17) Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is not completely curable?

(1) Genital warts

(2) Genital herpes
(3) Chlamydiasis
(4) Gonorrhoea

18) Sterilisaton techniques are generally full proof methods of contraception with least side effects.
Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
I. It is almost irreversible.
II. of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive.
III. it is a surgical procedure.
IV. of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option.

(1) I and III

(2) II and III
(3) II and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

19) Medical termination of pregnancy is considered safe up to :

(1) 12 week
(2) 30 week
(3) 40 week
(4) 27 week

20) Match the following and give the answer for correct match :-

A ZIFT i More than 8 blastomere stage transfer into the uterus

B IUT ii Sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of ovum

Zygote with upto 8 blastomere could be transfer into the

C GIFT iii
fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected from ovary into the

D ICSI iv
fallopian tube
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

21) Life appeared on Earth approximately how long after its formation?

(1) 100 million years

(2) 500 million years
(3) 2 billion years
(4) Immediately after formation

22) The early atmosphere of Earth did NOT contain:

(1) Oxygen
(2) Methane
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Ammonia

23) Life cannot originate from inorganic materials now because of:

(1) High degree of pollution

(2) Low atmospheric temperature
(3) Absence of raw material
(4) High atmospheric oxygen

24) The theory of spontaneous generation stated that

(1) life arose from living forms only

(2) life can arise from both living and non-living
(3) life can arise from non-living things only
(4) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living

25) One of the greatest advocates of the theory of special creation was -

(1) C. Darwin
(2) Aristotle
(3) Father Saurez
(4) Huxley

26) Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all by careful
experimentation demonstrated by

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Oparin
(3) Haldane
(4) Ernst Haeckel
27) Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life:
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen

(1) (a) is correct but (b) is false

(2) (b) is correct but (a) is false
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Both (a) and (b) are false

28) In following experiment of Stanly Miller A,B,C are simulation of

A B C

(1) Raining Primitive atmosphere Hot dilute soup

Primitive
(2) Hot dilute soup Raining
atmosphere

(3) Primitive atmosphere Raining Hot dilute soup

Primitive
(4) Raining Hot dilute soup
atmosphere
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Experiment to prove that synthesis of organic compounds formed the basis of origin of life was
performed by -

(1) Oparin
(2) Haldane
(3) Miller
(4) Fox

30) Chemical theory for origin of life was given by -

(1) Stanley Miller

(2) Oparin and Haldane
(3) Spallanzani
(4) Louis Pasteur

31) Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of
terms to explain the evolution.

(1) Analogy, convergent

(2) Homology, divergent
(3) Homology, convergent
(4) Analogy, divergent

32) Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by the sketch given figure ?

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

33) Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent evolution.

List-I List-II

A. Lemur I. Flying phalanger

B. Bobcat II. Numbat

C. Ant eater III. Spotted cuscus

D. Flying squirrels IV. Tasmanian tiger cat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

34) Match list-I and list-II.

List-I List-II

Darwin's Convergent
(A) (I)
Finches evolution

Forelimbs Adaptive
(B) (II)
of mammals radiation
 Industrial Divergent
(C) (III)
melanism evolution

Wings of
Natural
(D) butterfly and (IV)
selection
birds

Choose the correct answer :-

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

35) Fish with snout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water. This was about
_________.

(1) 320 mya

(2) 500 mya
(3) 350 mya
(4) 200 mya

36) Which of the following statements are not correct regarding embryological evidence of
evolution.
(A) Biogenetic law was proposed by Von baer.
(B) All embryos develop into similar adult organisms.
(C) Vestigial structures provide evidence of evolutionary history by showing remnants of ancestral
traits.
(D) Embryos of related organisms have dissimilar features.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D

37) Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?

(1) Genetic recombination

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene migration
(4) Constant gene pool

38) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column I Column II
Directional Transfer of genes from one
A. (i)
selection population to other.
 Stablization Individual acquire value other
B. (ii)
selection than mean character value
Individual acquire mean
C. Genetic drift (iii)
character value
Frequency of a gene change by
D. Gene flow (iv)
random chance
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

39) A population splits into two or more groups and these groups occupy the different ecological
zones. This is known as

(1) Allopatric speciation

(2) Sympatric speciation
(3) Ecological speciation
(4) None of the above

40) What is the correct chronological sequence of human evolution?

(1) Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo erectus Neanderthal Homo sapiens sapiens

(2) Ramapithecus Homo habilis Homo sapiens sapiens Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo habilis Homo sapiens sapiens
(4) Homo habilis Australopithecus Homo erectus Homo sapiens sapiens

41) The modern man, i.e., Homo sapiens sapiens evolved about:

(1) 75,000 - 10,000 years ago

(2) 1,00,000 - 34,000 years ago
(3) 1.5 mya
(4) 2.5 mya

42) Assertion {A): The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull than adult
chimpanzee skull.
Reason (R): Chimpanzees are non-primates whereas humans are primates.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

43) Read the following carefully.

(a) They probably lived in East African grasslands, about two mya.
(b) They hunted with stone weapons.
(c) They essentially ate fruits.
All of the above characteristics hold true for

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Australopithecines
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) Homo erectus

44) Assertion : Placental wolf and tasmanian wolf shows convergent evolution .
Reason : When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated
geographical area, one can call this convergent evolution.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason correct, Reason not correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason correct, Reason correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Only Assertion is correct
(4) Assertion is incorrect

45) Assertion: Copper-T prevents implantation.

Reason: It increases sperm motality.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct Explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.

46) During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some cells left behind' from the shoot
apical meristem, constitute the :-

(1) Leaf primordia

(2) Terminal bud
(3) Axillary bud
(4) Maturation zone

47)

On the basis of the given diagram, find out the correct option :-

A B P Q

Root Apical Shoot Apical Leaf

(1) Protoderm
Meristem meristem primordia
 Shoot
Root Apical Axillary
(2) Apical Root cap
Meristem bud
meristem

Root Apical Shoot Apical Axillary

(3) Root cap
Meristem meristem bud

Root Apical Shoot Apical Axillary

(4) Protoderm
Meristem meristem bud

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Root cap is living part which secrete mucilage and make soil softer. Which organelle found is in
high amount in it's cells -

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Nucleus
(4) mRNA

49) Which simple tissue is characterized by pits?

(1) Collenchyma
(2) Parenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) All of these

50) Read the character given below and identify the tissue :-
(a) The cell wall is consist of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin
(b) It often contain chloroplast
(c) In transverse section cell appear oval or round or polygonal (d) The cell contain localised
deposition mainly at corner Option :

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Both (2) and (3)

51) The sclereids have thickening of :-

(1) Pectin and cellulose

(2) Suberin
(3) Either of these
(4) Lignin
52)
Observe the above figure and read following statements :- (i) A – Occurs in layers below the
epidermis in dicotyledonous plants. (ii) B – Occurs in pulp of guava & sapota.
(iii) A – Is a living mechanical tissue. (iv) C – Forms the major component within organ. How many
statements are true from above :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

53) Find out the correct match from the following table

Column -I Column-II Column -III

(i) Radial Exarch Roots

(ii) Bicollateral Endarch Cucurbita stem

(iii) Hadrocentric Open Roots

(1) iii only

(2) i only
(3) i and ii
(4) ii and iii

54) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen

(2) Vessels are unicellular with narrow lumen
(3) Vesseles are multicellular with perforated end wall
(4) Tracheids are multicellular with perforated end wall

55) Which one of the following have enucleated cell?

(1) Guard cell

(2) Companion cell
(3) Vessel
(4) All the above

56) The type of vascular bundle present in maize stem is

(1) Radical vascular bundle

(2) Conjoint and open vascular bundle
(3) Conjoint and closed vascular bundle
(4) Bicollateral vascular bundle

57) Read the features of unknown plants 'A' and 'B'.

Character 'A' 'B'

Hypodermis Absent Collenchymatous

Vascular bundles Radial Conjoint

Endodermis Distinct Single layered

Pericycle Not in patches Semilunar patches

'A' and 'B' most likely to be

(1) A - Monocot root, B-Dicot stem
(2) A - Dicot stem, B - Dicot leaf
(3) A - Monocot leaf, B - Dicot root
(4) A - Dicot stem, B - Dicot root

58) In given figure A and B are :

(1) A – Epidermal cell, B – Guard cell

(2) A – Subsidiary cell , B – Stomtal pore
(3) A – Guard cell, B – Subsidiary cell
(4) A – Subsidiary cell, B – Gaurd cell

59) Type of meristems occur in grasses and regenerate parts removed by the grazing herbivores is :

(1) Apical meristems

(2) Lateral meristems
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) None is correct

60) Primary xylem is of the exarch type in:

(1) All leaves

(2) Dicot stems
(3) All roots
(4) Monocot stems

61) C40H56O2 is empirical formula of

(1) Carotene
(2) Xanthophyll
(3) Anthocyanin
(4) Chlorophyll

62) Above diagram represents ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. In which one of the options all
the four parts A, B, C and D are correct :

A B C D

(1) Plastoquinone Thylakoid membrane ATP synthase Photosystem-II

(2) H+ Thylakoid membrane H+ Grana

(3) Electron Photosystem-II ATP synthase Grana

(4) H+ Photosystem-II ATP synthase Thylakoid membrane

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) In succulent xerophytes, there is accumulation of malic acid in night, this path of CO2
metabolism is called :-

(1) Beta carboxylation

(2) Hatch and Slack cycle
(3) Crassulacean acid metabolism
(4) Calvin cycle

64) Which of the following shows Kranz anatomy :-

(1) Sugarcane
(2) Maize
(3) Sorghum
(4) All of these
65) In which of the following processes utilization of ATP occurs ?

(1) Light reaction

(2) Proton gradient formation
(3) Facillitated diffusion
(4) Photorespiration

66) During photo-respiration, amino-acids synthesized are -

(1) Glycerine & cystein

(2) Serine & glycerine
(3) Glutamine & Alanine
(4) Glycine & serine

67) Main factor which limits the rate of photosynthesis in clear sky is :

(1) Chlorphyll
(2) Light
(3) CO2
(4) Water

68) Which of the following is formed in all the plants during photosynthesis :-

(1) Oxaloacetic acid

(2) Malic acid
(3) Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) Pyruvic acid

69) Which phase of calvin cycle do not use any energy rich compound ?

(1) Carboxylation
(2) Carboxylation & reduction
(3) Reduction
(4) Regeneration

70) The figure below shows three stages (A, B, C) of calvin cycle. Select the option giving correct
identification together with what it represents ?

(1) C-Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor that require 2ATP for phosphorylation
(2) A-Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into a stable inorganic intermidiate
(3) B-Reduction that require one ATP for phosphorylation and two molecules of NADPH+H+
(4) C-Regeneration of RUBP is crucial if the cycle is to continue uninterrupted

71) The correct summary of photosynthesis is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

72) In the chromatogram prepared using paper chromatography, chlorophyll-b appears as

(1) Bright green

(2) Yellow-green
(3) Yellow
(4) Yellow-orange

73) Which of the following is absent in the stroma lamellae membrane ?

(1) PS II
(2) PSI
(3) NADP reductase
(4) Both (1) & (3)

74) Read the following statements

(a) The LHC are made up of very few pigment molecule bound to lipids.
(b) Accessory pigment protect chl-a from photo-oxidation.

(1) Only a is correct

(2) Both a & b are correct
(3) Both a & b are incorrect
(4) Only b is correct

75) Which of the following chemicals is or are produced in light reaction of higher plants ?

(1) ATP only

(2) NADPH only
(3) ATP & NADPH
(4) ATP & NADH

76) Find out the wavelength at which maximum photosynthesis occurs in plants-

(1) Blue and Red

(2) Blue & Yellow
(3) Red & green
(4) Green & Blue

77) Statement I : CO2 is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis.

Statement II : C4 plants adapted to dry tropical regions

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are correct

78)

Identify the likely factor/component A, B, C, D in the given diagram :-

A B C D

(1) CO2 Chl 'b' Chl 'a' R. C.

 (2) CO2 Chl 'a' FRS Antenna pigments

(3) Photon R. C. Chl 'b' Antenna pigments

(4) Photon Primary acceptor P-700 Antenna pigments

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) How many ATP molecules formed during complete oxidation of one molecule of fructose 1, 6
biphosphate in bacteria :-

(1) 20
(2) 38
(3) 40
(4) 80

80) How many ATP are produced by complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl- CoA by Kreb's
cycle ?

(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 30
(4) 24

81) The metabolic breakdown of carbohydrates, fatty acids and amino acids is connected through :-

(1) Acetyl–CoA
(2) Pyruvic acid
(3) PGAL
(4) α-ketoglutarate

82) How many ATP molecules are produced during complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl-CoA
by that method of ATP formation which doesn't requires involvement of ETS ?

(1) 12 ATP
(2) 11 ATP
(3) 1 ATP
(4) 14 ATP

83)

How many of the following enzymes catalyse ATP utilising steps of glycolysis ?

Isomerase, Hexokinase, Pyruvate Kinase, Transphosphorylase, Phosphofructokinase, Aldolase

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

84) During EMP pathway, at how many steps :-

(A) ATP is utilised
(B) ATP is synthesised
(C) NADH+H+ is formed

(1) A – Two, B – Two, C – One.

(2) A – One, B – Two, C – Two.
(3) A – Two, B – Two, C – Four.
(4) A – Four, B – Two, C – Four.

85) A - Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell.

B - Process is independent of oxygen.
C - It can occur in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
Choose the correct option for given statements A to C :-

(1) Krebs cycle

(2) Link reaction
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Fermentation

86)

Acceptor of acetyl-CoA in Krebs cycle is :-

(1) RUBP
(2) OAA
(3) Pyruvate
(4) Glucose

87) In plants, glucose and fructose as respiratory substrates are derived from :-

(1) Lactose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Starch
(4) Glycogen

88)

In the given diagram for respiratory process inside mitochondria, correctly identify 'A', 'B' and 'C'
(1) A=ATP, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2
(2) A=ATP, B=Fumaric acid, C=CO2
(3) A=CO2, B=Fumaric acid, C=CoA
(4) A=CO2, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2

89) Assertion :- Aerobic respiration yields more energy than anaerobic respiration.
Reason :- In aerobic respiration there is complete oxidation of pyruvic acid with release of all
hydrogen and CO2.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) An important micro-organism useful for alcohol production in wine industry is :-

(1) [Link]
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Lactobacilli
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 2 4 1 3 4 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 4 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 1 4 4 4 4 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 4 1 3 4 4 4 1 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 4 1 3 3 3 4 2 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 4 2 2 4 4 3 1 4 4 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

T1 =

T2 =

2)

Based on direction of electric field.

3)
E1 = E2 when r1 < r2
So neutral point will be close to –Q and at left of –Q

4) ϕ =
= 3.00yj × (1.4)2
= 3 × 1.4 × (1.4)2
= 8.23 Nm2 / C

5) ϕ = EA = = 25 π

6)
magnitude of force will be same on charge A and B

7) Explaining the Question :- When a conductor is placed in an external electric field, free
electrons inside the conductor start moving due to the field. This movement creates induced
charges on the surface of the conductor. These induced charges generate their own electric
field, which opposes and cancels the external electric field inside the conductor.
Concept:-· In electrostatics, the electric field inside a conductor is always zero in steady
state.· This is because induced surface charges rearrange in such a way that their field
cancels the external field inside the conductor.· Therefore, the net field inside the
conductor is zero.
Solution :- · Statement-1 is true: Electric field inside a conductor is zero in electrostatic
equilibrium.· Statement-2 is also true: The charges on both surfaces cancel the external field
inside.· Statement-2 correctly explains Statement-1: Because the induced surface charges
are the reason why the field inside becomes zero.
Final Answer :- Option (1)
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for
Statement-1.

8)

9) Twice the electric field due to one charge at centre.

10) No work is done

11) Torque but not net force

12) Charge on the element opposite to the gap is

13) Fnet = 2Fcosθ

 (y <<< a)

14)

15) For closed loop in conservative field work done is zero.

16)

17) =

18)

Electric field inside a charged conductor is zero and hence the charge being on outer surface

19)

When Dipole placed in a cube :

Total change = 0

20)

F = mg
21)

f = mg sinθ
n = mg cosθ
Net contact force,

=
F = mg = 3 × 10 = 30 N

22)
aA = g/2
aB = g

23) At angle of repose, block just starts sliding down when θ < angle of repose. Then external
force is required to move it down.

24) From the figure, it follows that

T1 = 3g
2g + T1 = T2
or T2 = 2g+ 3g
= 5g

25) 3T = 200g ⇒ T = = = 653.33N

26) k = = or λ = 50 cm
 27)

Particle velocity,

or = – wave velocity × slope of the wave

(a) For upward velocity, vpa = + ve, so slope must negative which is at the points D, E and F.

(b) For downward velocity, vpa = –ve, so slope must be positive which
is at the points A, B and H.
(c) For zero velocity, slope must be zero which is at C and G.
(d) For maximum magnitude of velocity, |slope| = maximum, which is at A and E. Hence, the given
(d) alternative is wrong.

28) Question Explanation :

The displacement equation of a particle in a medium is given. find the speed of the wave.

Concept:
This question is based on Wave Speed.

Formula :

Calculation :

Hence,
Option (2) is correct

Difficulty level : Easy

29) Question Explanation: Analyzing particle motion in a wave.

Concept: Transverse Wave Properties.

Solution:

A. Direction of Wave: We are given that point A is moving upward. For this to happen, the
wave shape must be moving to the left. If it were moving right, point A would be moving
downward. So, statement (1) is correct.
B. Amplitude: In a simple harmonic wave, every particle of the medium oscillates with the same
amplitude (maximum displacement). So, statement (2) is correct.
C. Velocity of C: Since the wave is travelling to the left, we can determine the motion of point C.
 The part of the wave to the right of C is lower. As the wave moves left, point C must move
downward to match the approaching shape. So, statement (3) is correct.

Since all three statements are correct, the final answer is "All the above".

Final Answer:(4)

30) Question is Asking About:

The question asks about which of the given options represents a longitudinal wave.

Concept:
Longitudinal wave

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The wave in which the partical of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of wave
propagation.
Ex.: Sound wave

Hence, option (1) is correct.

Level : Easy

31) 1. Question Explanation

The problem asks to determine how many sound waves fit between two points (X and Y), given
the frequency of the wave and the distance it travels in a specific time.
2. Concept Based
To solve this, we use the relationship between wave speed, frequency, and wavelength:

Additionally, the number of waves between two points is the distance divided by the
wavelength:

3. Formula Used

A. Wave speed:

B. Wavelength:

C. Number of waves: Number of waves =

4. Calculation

A. Step 1: Calculate the wave speed v:

A. Step 2: Calculate the wavelength λ :

 A. Step 3: Calculate the number of waves:

Thus, the number of waves between points X and Y is 2500.

32) Question Explanation :

Two waves with different amplitudes are traveling in the same medium. The ratio of their
intensities needs to be determined using the relationship between intensity and amplitude.

Concept Based :
This question is based on progressive wave.

Formula :
Intensity of a wave:
I µ A2ω2
Intensity ratio:

Calculation :
Given wave equations:
y1 = 5sin 2π(75t – 0.25x)
y2 = 10sin 2π(150t – 0.5x)
Identifying amplitudes:
A1 = 5, A2 = 10
Using intensity formula:

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : I1 : I2 = 1 : 16 Ans.

33) Question Explanation : The problem three sinusoidal wave equation and asks which
wave has the greatest wave speed and which has the greatest transverse string speed.
Concept Based : This question is based on Wave speed.
Formula :
Wave speed = w/k
Maximum transverse speed vmax = Aw
and a travelling wave equ. is given as
y = A sin (kt –wt)

Calculation :
Comparing all the given equation with the standard wave equation in formula.
 Wave 2 has the highest wave speed (3 m/s3 m/s), and Wave 3 has the highest transverse string
speed (44 cm/s).

Correct answer: Option 4.

34) A =
A=
A=

35) Concept:
A function qualifies as a traveling wave if it depends on (x ± vt) and remains finite and well-
defined for all x and t.

Formula:
A function represents a traveling wave if: y = f(x ± vt), where y is finite for all x, t.
Calculation:
Checking each option for wave form and validity:

A. Option 1: (x – vt)2
A. As x → ∞, (x – vt)2 → ∞
B. This function does not remain finite.
B. Option 2: ln(x + vt)
A. Depends on x + vt, but is undefined when x + vt = 0, making it not a valid wave.
C. Option 3:
A. Depends on x – vt, but as x → ∞, (x – vt)2 → ∞, causing the exponent to approach zero.
B. This function remains finite for all x, t, making it a valid traveling wave.

D. Option 4:
A. Becomes infinite when x + vt = 0, making it invalid.

Final Answer:(3)
Correct option:→

36)

Question Asking About:

The question asks for the ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen (H2) and oxygen(O2) at the
same temperature. The speed of sound in a gas depends on molecular mass.

Key Concept:
Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportion to the square root of its molar mass at
constant temperature.
 Formula

Since γ, R and T are constant,

where M is the molar mass of gas.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
For H2, M1 = 2, and for O2 M2 = 32

=4

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

37) Question Explanation: Find frequency using beats.

Concept: Beats and Tuning Forks

Solution: The beat frequency is the difference between the two tuning fork frequencies. The
frequency of the known fork is f1​=288 cps, and the initial beat frequency is 4 beats/[Link]
means the initial frequency of the unknown fork (f2​) could be one of two possibilities:

A. f2​=288+4=292 cps
B. f2=
​ 288−4=284 cps

A key principle is that placing wax on a tuning fork increases its mass and therefore
decreases its [Link]'s test the two possibilities:

A. If the original frequency was 292 cps: Adding wax would lower the frequency, bringing it
closer to 288 cps. This would decrease the beat frequency (e.g., if it becomes 290 cps, the
beats become 290−288=2). This matches the problem statement.
B. If the original frequency was 284 cps: Adding wax would lower the frequency further,
moving it away from 288 cps. This would increase the beat frequency (e.g., if it becomes 282
cps, the beats become 288−282=6). This contradicts the problem statement.

Therefore, the original frequency of the unknown fork must have been 292 cps.

Final Answer: (2)

38)

0.1 mm =
MSD = 1mm

39)
In the diagram, zero of the vernier scale lies to the right of zero of main scale. So it has
positive zero error.
N = 0, Third division of vernier scale is coinciding with the main scale division.
∴ zero error
= N + 3 × L.C = 0 + 3 × 0.01 cm
= 0.03 cm
Z.E. = +0.03 cm
& zero correction = –0.03 cm.

40) Least count =

Least count = ;
1 MSD = Pitch
1 MSD = 2 mm
Reading = 3× 2 + (46–5) (0.01) = 6.41 mm

41) Least count (LC) = MSD;

here a = 9, b = 10;
1MSD = 1mm

LC = 1mm = 0.1mm
There is zero error in measurement.
As the zero of the vernier lies to the left of the main scale, it has negative zero error.
For negative zero error, the coinciding division is to be read from right and it has 2nd division
coinciding from right. Thus zero error
= ZE = –2 VSD = –2 × 0.1mm
= –0.2mm
Reading at measurement: 11MSD + 6VSD (coinciding)
Corrected reading = MSR + VSR × LC – zero error = 11mm + [6 × 0.1mm] – (–0.2mm) =
11.8mm
Hence the value of x = 118

42) Pl = 0.5 mm
N = 100 divisions
zero correction = 2 divisions
Reading = Measured value + zero correction

= (8 × 0.5) mm + (83 – 2) × .

= 4 mm + 81 × mm
= 4.405 mm

43) Reading = MSR + (VSR × LC) – ZE

= 6 mm + (5 × 0.1)mm – (–0.3 mm)
= 6.8 mm
 44) Least count = = 0.01 mm
Diameter = main scale reading + circular scale reading
= 1 mm + 48 × 0.01 mm
= 1.48 mm = 0.148 cm

45) a + b = 14 ± 0.14 ⇒ % error =

a – b = 2 ± 0.14 ⇒ % error =

a × b = 48 ± 0.96 ⇒ % error =
so, order of % error x < z < y

CHEMISTRY

46)

3.011 × 1023 atoms of Nitrogen

47)

Answer 4480 mL

48)

Answer 50

49)

Moles of gas =

⇒ mole of gas = 11 g of gas

⇒ 1 mole of gas = 44 g of gas Hence gas could be CO2

50)

28 gram-atoms of nitrogen

51) (i) Density of water = 1 g/mL

∵ 1000 mL = 1000 g
(ii) Number of moles of water in 1000 g (n) = w/m

n= = 55.56 moles
∴ Number of moles in 1 mL of water (n) =
(n) = 0.0556 moles
(iii) ∵ 1 mL of H2O contain 20 drops

∴ Number of moles of H2O in one drop =

(n) per drop = 0.0027

(iv) ∵
N = n × NA = 0.002 × 6.023 × 1023
N = 0.0162 × 1023 = 1.62 × 1021 molecules

52)

5.33 × 10–23g

53)

The correct answer is (3)

54)

1 atom of hydrogen = 1 a.m.u

50 atoms of hydrogen = 50 a.m.u.

55) V.D. =

56)

2.99 × 10–23 cm3

57)

Answer 16

58) NCERT Pg. # 141

59)

nrem = ninitial – nremoved

=
nrem = 0.5 × 10–3
60)

Answer 2.41 × 1022

61) It is us to prepare only primary aliphatic amine.

62) Question:
Percentage yield of product of given reaction.

Concept:
It is an example nitration of aniline

Solution:

Answer (4)

63)

64)

The correct answer is (4)

66)

The correct answer is (3)

67)

The correct answer is (1)

69) Explain the question : Identify the major product formed when aniline reacts with
bromine water.
Concept : This question is based on electrophilic substitution reaction (bromination)
Solution : –NH2 is a strong activating group.
• Directs substitution to ortho and para position.
So aniline is highly reactive towards halogen is aqueous medium.

The product is 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline (white ppt)

Final answer : 2

70)

The correct answer is (4)

71)

Vitamin C is water soluble.

72)

(i) Nitrogen → (a) Prussian Blue ppt

(ii) Sulphur → (b) Black ppt
(iii) Chlorine → (d) White ppt
(iv) Phosphorous → (c) Yellow ppt

73) %Br =

%Br =

74)

The correct answer is (4)

75)

The correct answer is (4)

76)
77) 2° and 3° amide not give Hoffman bromamide reaction.

78) 1°, 2° and 3° amines are differentiated by Hinsberg's test.

79)

Explaining the Question :- Identify the product 'P' in the given reaction

Concept:- This question is based on Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, SN mechanism and

2

Hydrolysis.

Solution :

Final Answer : option (3)

80) B → , C → CH3–NH2

81) Sucrose is non-reducing sugar

82)

83)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to identify which amino acid from the given list is
non-essential. Non-essential amino acids can be synthesized by the human body, whereas
essential amino acids cannot and must be obtained from the diet.

Underlying Concept: Amino acids are building blocks of proteins and are categorized into
essential and non-essential types. Essential amino acids like lysine, valine, and leucine cannot
be synthesized by the body and must be consumed through food. Non-essential amino acids
like alanine are naturally produced by the body.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the mnemonic for essential amino acids: 'PVT TIM HALL'
(Phenylalanine, Valine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Methionine, Histidine, Arginine,
Leucine, Lysine). Amino acids not in this list are usually non-essential.

Common Mistakes: Confusing non-essential amino acids with essential ones or assuming all
listed amino acids are essential.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Lysine, valine, and leucine are essential amino acids,
meaning they cannot be synthesized by the body. Thus, selecting any of them as non-essential
is incorrect.

84)

Question Explanation :
Question asks about matching technique used fo purification for given mixture samples.

Concept :
Basic technique for purification of organic compounds

Solution:
Physical methods for purification are applied
(A) Glycerol & spent lye = Distillation under reduced pressure (as glycerol decomposes at it
B.P)
(B) Chlorform & aniline - Distillation (B.P of chlorform = 334.3k & anilien is 457.28 k)
(C) Fractions of crude oil - fractional distillation
(D) Aniline + water - steam distillation (aniline is not misible with water & volatile with steam)

Correct option:
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I).

85)

Explaining the Question :-

The question asks Nitrogen present in an organic compound can be estimated by which
method.
Concept:-
Estimation of nitrogen in organic compounds is done by kjeldahl's method and Duma's
method
Solution :-
Kjeldahl's Method: The organic compound is digested with concentrated sulfuric acid in the
presenceof catalysts (like K2SO4 and CuSO4), converting nitrogen to ammonium sulfate. The
mixture is then made alkaline, and the liberated ammonia is distilled and absorbed in a
standard acid. The amount of acid neutralized by ammonia is Formula used Percentage of
Nitrogen=[1.4 × (Volume of acid used for NH3) × (Normality of acid)]/Weight of substance (g).
Duma's Method: The organic compound is heated with copper oxide in a stream of carbon
dioxide. Nitrogen is liberated as a gas, which is collected and measured. The volume of
nitrogen gas is used to calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the compound formula used
 Percentage of Nitrogen = (Volume of N 2 at STP × 28)/22400× Weight of substance
(g).
Final Answer :- (4)

86)

Answer F T T F

87)

It is a strong tribasic acid

88)

Assertions is true, Reason is true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

89)

[XeF]+ [SbF6]–

90)

Al4C3 + H2O —→ CH≡CH

BIOLOGY

91) World Health Organization (WHO)

92)

All the above

93) The drugs used for emergency contraception are morning after pills.

94) Failure rate of oral contraceptive is 2-3 per 100 women.

95) Chemical method includes spermicides. Barrier methods are mechanical devices
preventing the deposition of sperms into vagina and their passage into uterus. Both together
will decrease the failure rate.

96) High level of prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropins.

97) Periodic abstinence is a natural method, not a barrier method.

98)

Answer Implant

99)

Lactational amenorrhea

100) Progestasert, LNG - 20

101)

Barrier method

102) Progesterone

103)

Answer Nirodh

104)

a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

105) Saheli

106)

I, III, V, VI

107)

Genital herpes

108)

I and III

109) 12 week .

110)
 A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

111) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06, 6.1

112) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

113) NCERT Page No. 127

114)

life can arise from non-living things only

115)

Father Saurez

116)

Louis Pasteur

117)

Both (a) and (b) are correct

118)

(3) Primitive atmosphere Raining Hot dilute soup

119)

Answer Miller

120)

Oparin and Haldane

121) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : -
Final Answer : (1)

122) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : -
Final Answer : (4)

123)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

124) NCERT, Pg. # 114,115,116

125) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Page # 122
Data based sentence.
Final Answer : (3)

126) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Page # 113
(A) Biogenetic law was proposed by Ernst Haeckel.
(B) Early embryos of different vertebrates show remarkable similarities and not develop into
similar adult organisms.
(C) Vestigial structures provide evidence of evolutionary history by showing remnants of
ancestral traits.
(D) Embryos of different species pass through similar developmental stages, indicating
common ancestry.
Final Answer : (3)

127) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Page # 121
Final Answer : (4)

128) NCERT-XII, Page # 120,121

Directional selection :- When more individuals acquire value other than the mean character
value.
Stabilisation selection :- More individuals acquire mean character value.
Genetic drift :- If the frequency of a gene change by chance, it is called genetic drift.
Gene flow :- Transfer of gene from one population to other is known as gene migration and if
it happens multiple times, it is known as gene flow.

129)

Allopatric speciation

130) New NCERT Page No. 140

131) New NCERT Page No. 141

132) Hint: Chimpanzees exhibit menstrual cycle

Sol.: A comparison of the skull of adult human being, baby chimpanzee and adult chimpanzee
had been made, and it was found that the skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human
skull than adult chimpanzee skull.

133) Hint: Came before Homo habilis

Sol.: Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows
they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruits. Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
First human-like being, the hominid was Homo habilis. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils
discovered in Java revealed next stage, i.e., Homo erectus. Homo sapiens arose in Africa.

134) NCERT XII Page # 118

135)

Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 85

137)

NCERT Pg. # 85

138)

Golgi bodies

139)

Sclerenchyma

140) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 86

141)

Answer Lignin

142) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 86,87

143)

i and ii
 144)

Vesseles are multicellular with perforated end wall

145) NCERT Pg # 87

146)

Conjoint and closed vascular bundle

147)

A - Monocot root, B-Dicot stem

148)

A – Subsidiary cell, B – Gaurd cell

149)

Intercalary meristem

150) All roots .

151)

Xanthophyll

152)

(4) H+ Photosystem-II ATP synthase Thylakoid membrane

153)

Crassulacean acid metabolism

154)

All of these

155) NCERT-XI, Page # 220

156)
 Glycine & serine

157) Module Pg.#192

158) NCERT Pg. # 216

159)

Carboxylation

160) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 217

161)

162) NCERT Pg. # 210

163) NCERT Pg. # 213

164) NCERT Pg. # 211

165) NCERT Pg. # 209

166) NCERT Pg. # 210

167)

A. Statement I: "CO2 is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis" - This is correct. During
photosynthesis, CO2 is essential for the production of glucose. In many conditions, the
concentration of CO2 can limit the rate of photosynthesis.
B. Statement II: "C4 plants adapted to dry tropical regions" This is also correct. C4 plants, like
maize and sugarcane, are adapted to hot and dry climates. They have a specialized pathway
for photosynthesis that helps them efficiently use CO2 and minimize water loss, making them
well-suited for such environments.

Thus, the correct answer is:

4. Both statements I and II are correct.

168)

(4) Photon Primary acceptor P-700 Antenna pigments

169)
 Question Explanation: Calculating ATP yield from a substrate.
Concept: Cellular respiration ATP yield.
Solution:The question is about the ATP yield from the oxidation of a single molecule of
fructose 1,6-bisphosphate in bacteria. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is an intermediate in
[Link] with glucose, the overall process of cellular respiration in a bacterium
(which is prokaryotic) yields 38 ATP. However, the initial steps of glycolysis consume 2 ATP to
convert glucose into fructose 1,[Link] the starting molecule is already fructose
1,6-bisphosphate, the initial 2 ATP investment is bypassed. Therefore, the net gain will be
higher.

A. ATP production from a glucose molecule:

A. Glycolysis: 4 ATP (gross) - 2 ATP (investment) = 2 ATP (net) + 2 NADH
B. Link Reaction: 2 NADH
C. Krebs Cycle: 2 ATP + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2​
D. Total NADH and FADH2​: 10 NADH and 2 FADH2​
E. ATP from ETC: 10 NADH x 3 ATP/NADH + 2 FADH2​ x 2 ATP/FADH2​ = 30 + 4 = 34 ATP
F. Total ATP: 2 ATP (net from glycolysis) + 2 ATP (from Krebs cycle) + 34 ATP (from ETC)
= 38 ATP
B. ATP production from a fructose 1,6-bisphosphate molecule:
A. The 2 ATP from the initial investment in glycolysis is saved.
B. Therefore, the total ATP count is 38 (from a glucose molecule) + 2 (saved from
investment) = 40 ATP.

This assumes that the bacterium's electron transport chain is highly efficient, yielding 3 ATP per
NADH and 2 ATP per FADH2​.
Final Answer:The correct answer is 40.

170) Explanation:
The complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl-CaA in the Krebs cycle produces.
• 3 NADH (which generate A ATP via oxidative phosphorylation)
• 1 FADH2 (which generates 2 ATP)
• 1 GTP (or ATP ) via substrate level phosphorylation
Correct Ans. (2)

171)

Concept :- Cellular respiration

Solution :- Acetyl CoA is a metabolic inter mediate that connect the breakdown of
carbohydrates fatty acids and amino acids.
Answer :- 1
NCERT-XI, Pg # 236

172)

Answer 1 ATP

173)

Answer Two
174)

Explain Question: The question asks how many distinct steps in the EMP pathway involve
ATP use, ATP production, and NADH formation.
Concept: This question is based on Glycolysis, Control of Glycolysis, Fate of Pyruvic acid.
Solution:
(A) ATP is utilised:
2 steps →
Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate
Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(B) ATP is synthesised:
2 steps →
1,3-BPG → 3-PG
PEP → Pyruvate
(C) NADH + H⁺ is formed:
1 step →
G3P → 1,3-BPG

Final answer: 1

175) Module Pg. # 205

176)

Answer OAA

177) NCERT Pg. # 229

178) Explanation
In the diagram
• A is CO2 released during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl - CoA
• B is Oxaloacetic acid, which combines with acetyl- CoA to form citric acid
• C is released during the conversion of alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl -CoA in the critic acid
cycle.
Correct Ans. (4)

179)

Ncert Pg No: 231

180) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 230