1.

In accordance with CASR part 121 and 135, Service Difficulties Report (SDR) should be
submitted to DGCA within?
A. 72 hours.
B. 48 hours.
C. 30 days

2. Who is primarily responsible for the performance of the maintenance, preventive

maintenance, and alteration of its aircraft, including airframe, aircraft engines, propellers,
appliances, and part thereof for air carrier?
A. AMO certificate holder.
B. Air Operator Certificate holder.
C. AMEL Holder.

3. In accordance with CASR 145. Certificates issued for domestic Approved Maintenance
Organization will be valid for a period?
A. One year after the date on which it was issued.
B. Two years after the date on which it was issued.
C. Three years after the date on which it was issued.

4. In accordance with CASR Part 43 appendix A, the servicing of landing gear shock struts
by adding oil, air or both is a?
A. Minor repair.
B. Minor alteration.
C. Preventive maintenance.

5. Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) is valid for?

A. As long as the aircraft is maintained in accordance with CASR part 43 and
the valid maintenance specification.
B. one year.
C. As long as the aircraft is maintained in accordance with CASR part
43 and valid maintenance specification for not more than one year.

6. Requirements for the identification of aircraft, aircraft engines and propellers that are
manufactured under the term of a type or production certificate are prescribes on?
A. CASR Part 43
B. CASR Part 45
C. CASR Part 47

7. The applicability of CASR part 43 does not apply to any?

A. Aircraft having an experimental airworthiness certificate.
B. Foreign-registered civil aircraft used under the provision of part 121, or
135.
C. Aircraft for which an experimental airworthiness certificates has been
issued.
8. If an airworthy aircraft is sold to the foreign operator, what is the status of the Certificate
of Airworthiness?
A. It is transferred with the aircraft.
B. A licence holder to indicate that the aircraft is still airworthy must endorse
it.
C. It is declared void and the DGCA will issue an airworthiness
certificate for export upon application by the owner.
9. Scope and detail of items (as applicable to the particular aircraft) to be included on
annual and 100 hours inspection is prescribe in the CASR part?
A. Part 145
B. Part 43 Appendix B
C. Part 43 Appendix D

10. The ICAO Annex 1 is?

A. Personel Licensing. Licensing of flight crews, air traffic controllers
and aircraft maintenance personel
B. Rules of the Air. Rules relating to conduct of visual and instrument flight
C. Units of Measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations

11. Given that A = X + BY, what is Y equal to?

A. A - X minus B
B. A - X add B
C. A - X divided by B

12. V = (a + b) r2 Find a
A. V – r2 – b
B. (V – b)/ r2
C. V / r2 – b

13. The nucleus of an atom contains

A. protons and neutrons
B. electrons and neutrons
C. electrons, protons, and neutrons

14 How much force is exerted by piston if it is subjected to a pressure of 3000 Pa and has
surface area of 2.5 m2?.
A. 2000 N
B. 3000 N
C. 7500 N

15 What is the defference between a compound and mixture.

A. Chemical bounding properties and conduktivity
B. Compound are chemicelly
C. Elements atom
16. Gold is a precoius metal that is chemically [Link] is used mainly in jewelry,
dentistry, and electronic devices. A piece of gold ingot with a mass of 258 g has a volume
of 14.5 cm cubic. Calculate the density of gold.
A. 17.89 g/cm3
B. 17.79 g/cm3
C. 17.97 g/cm3

17. Molecules of the same compound are held together by.

A. cohesive forces.
B. adhesive forces.
C. gravitational forces.

18. The isometric plane are

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4

19. How to protect drawings from damage

A. never spread them on the floor or lay them on a surface covered with
tools or other objects that may make holes in the paper
B. must be put on floor or lay them on a surface wet
C. never put them on the dirty area

20. What is the angle of attack of lift producing airfoil?

A. Angle of attack less than zero
B. Angle of attack greater than zero
C. Angle of attack is zero

21. Find the resultant force that acts on a van of mass 2400 kg, if it accelerates at 3.5 m/s2.
A. 685.7 N
B. 8400 N
C. 682 N
22. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
A. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for defueling.
B. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any desired level.
C. To allow the feeding of any engine from any tank.

23. Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine?
A. Emulsifies the oil.
B. Aerates the fuel.
C. Increases fuel temperature.

24. The fuel pump Thermal relief valve directs excess pressure to the
A. inlet side of the fuel pump.
B. inlet side of the fuel strainer.
C. fuel tank return line.

25. Boost pumps in a fuel system ...?

A. operate during takeoff only.
B. Transfer fuel between tank
C. Located at the top of the tank.

26. Main pump (high pressure) on most turbine engine fuel system, is using?
A. Centrifugal type
B. Vane and centrifugal type
C. Spur gear type.

27. The Electro-Hydromechanical fuel control operates by receiving?

A. Data from autopilot.
B. Data from electronic thrust sensors mounted on the engine.
C. Basic engine parameters; such as speed, temperature and pressure.

28. During brake applied in parking brake state, what component that closed when brake
lever is pulled?
A. HP fuel pump.
B. Fuel control unit.
C. Fuel shut-off valve.

29. A fuel strainer or filter must be located between the?

A. Fuel tank inlet and outlet
B. boost pump and tank outlet.
C. tank outlet and the fuel metering device.
30. What is the purpose of an engine-driven fuel pump bypass valve?
A. To divert the excess fuel back to the main tank.
B. To divert the excess fuel from the pressure side of the pump to the inlet
side of the pump.
C. To allow the engine-driven pump to pull fuel from the tank if the
boost pump is not operating

31. Each aircraft fuel system must be arranged so that no fuel pump can draw fuel from more
than…..tanks at a time
A. One
B. Three
C. Six

32. Aircraft fuel tanks must be constructed so as to retain fuel if one of the….collapses.
A. Fuel tank expansion
B. Landing gear
C. Fuel tank sump

33. Name five fuel sub-systems found on jet transport aircraft. Except .
A. Storage, vent, distribution, feed, indicating
B. Storage, vent, distribution, supply, electrical
C. Storage, complex, distribution, supply, feed

34. On inspection a bearing is found to show signs of overheating, what action should be
taken?
A. Reject bearing.
B. No action required. Some overheating is normal.
C. clean up bearing and repack with GREASE.

35. What is the purpose of the hole in the swaged end fitting on a swaged cable?.
A. To ensure the cable end passes the inspection hole on drilled through
type fittings but leaves the locking wire hole clear.
B. To allow trapped air to escape.
C. To allow a split pin to be inserted.

36. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal requires.

A. polishing.
B. blending.
C. burnishing.

37. Three things are required for a fire ?

A. Fuel, Heat, Oxygen.
B. Avtur, Heat, Oxygen.
C. Fuel, Heat, Gass.
38. "A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by.
A. the CAA.
B. the pilot.
C. a Licensed aircraft engineer.

39. The basic weight of an aircraft is.

A. the pilot, flight crew and their luggage.
B. the passengers, baggage and fuel.
C. the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil.

40. If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be cracked?

A. it is unserviceable since it may have a restricted flow.
B. it may still be serviceable.
C. it is unserviceable since it may leak.

41. Bonding connections between flexible and rigid pipes are achieved by?
A. ti-wrapping the bonding lead to the pipes.
B. using a corrugated strip.
C. tucking the bonding leads between

42. What is the proof loading for cables after swaging?.

A. 1/3 minimum breaking strain.
B. 2/3 minimum breaking strain.
C. 50% minimum breaking strain.

43. The best way to check control cables for broken wires is to.
A. run a rag along the cable in both directions.
B. examine them visually.
C. increase the tension and check with a magnifying glass.

44. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by.

A. looking through the hole and checking for threads showing.
B. attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole.
C. attempting to push locking wire through the hole.

45. The inspection hole in a turnbuckle is.

A. to allow the locking wire to pass through for the purpose of locking.
B. to ensure that the locknuts are adequately tightened.
C. to ensure that the turnbuckle is in safety

46. Which is the following include of corrosive agents?

A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkalies.
47 In aircraft control cables, when a lock is fitted to the control surface
A. it will prevent the control surface movement but not the control
column movement.
B. it will prevent the control surface and the control column movement.
C. it will not prevent the control surface movement but will lock the control
column.

48. When checking cable tensions you are looking for.

A. free movement only.
B. full and free movement.
C. artificial feel.

49. Why Human factors should be introduced to aircraft maintenance personnel?

A. To make them aware of how it affects the maintenance performed.
B. Can’t affect their performance and safety while performing maintenance
practices.
C. Some of these include only fatigue, deadline pressure, stress.

50. The flight line is a place of dangerous activity, the technician who perform maintenance
must constantly be aware ?
A. The noise from engine, APU, Fuel trucks, baggade handling equipment
and so forth.
B. FOD is any damage caused by any loose object to aircraft, personnel, or
equipment.
C. A and B correct.

51. Fore and aft limits of the CG?

A. are determined by the pilot when calculating the loading datA.
B. are specified by the manufacturer.
C. are determined by the licensed engineer after a major check and weighing.

52. The basic equipment of an aircraft is.

A. that equipment which is required for every role of the aircraft for
which the aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel.
B. all equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular flight.
C. the crew equipment, and other equipment including fuel and oil necessary
for a particular flight.

53. Any time current flows, whether during generation or transmission, a byproduct of that
flow is heat. When this heat becomes too great, protective coatings on wiring and
A. to keep the area around electrical work or electrical equipment clean,
uncluttered, and free of all unnecessary flammable substances.
B. Ensure that all power cords, wires, and lines are free of kinks and bends
which can damage the wire.
C. Ignore the condition of the damaged electrical equipment before
further use.
54. False Brinelling of a bearing is.
A. movement of the outer ring relative to its housing.
B. indentations on the race-way due to load transferred through the
bearing when static.
C. a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball or roller skidding.

55. When tightening a nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is?
A. inversely proportional to the force applied to the spanner.
B. the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular
distance from the point of application to the centre of the bolt.
C. independent of whether the threads are wet or dry.

56. How many teeth per inch are there on a fine hacksaw blade?.
A. 64.
B. 16.
C. 32.

57. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be?

A. twice the working pressure for two minutes.
B. 1.5 times the working pressure.
C. three times the working pressure for five minutes

58. What is used to measure the depth of a blend after a corrosion repair?.
A. Dial Test Indicator.
B. Straight edge and slip gauges.
C. Vernier caliper.

59. The corner joint requires no filler rod, since the edges fuse to make the weld?
A. Closed type
B. Open type
C. Braced

60. The heated windshields for high-speed aircraft?

A. Teflon.
B. Tempered glass.
C. Resin.

61. Heat the plastic material to the recommended temperature, remove it from the heat
source, and carefully drape it over the prepared form.
A. vacuum forming.
B. compound curve forming.
C. simple curve forming.
62. If the material shows signs of cracking during cold forming over small radii, the material
should be?
A. formed in the annealed condition.
B. continued the cold forming.
C. changed with other material.

63. The design is called stressed skin and may be divided into?
A. one class.
B. two classes.
C. three classes.

64. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are?

A. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.
B. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%.
C. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%.

65. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?.

A. Cellulose only.
B. Not cellulose.
C. Polyurethane.

66. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna?

A. use any paint.
B. use cellulose paint.
C. do not use cellulose paint.

67. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to?

A. ensure the separator does not bottom.
B. damp the rebound.
C. absorb the landing shock.

68. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim
tab?
A. Down.
B. Up.
C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation

69. He two stages in a good adhesive bond are.

A. wetting and gripping.
B. wetting and Setting.
C. spreading and setting.

70. The recommended maintenance on the Return filters.

A. 1500 Hours.
B. 600 Hours.
C. 2000 Hours.
71. Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor assembly?
A. Rotor and stator.
B. Stator and diffuser.
C. Compressor and manifold.

72. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas turbine are known as.
A. stator vanes.
B. bleed vanes.
C. pressurization vanes.

73. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of a typical axial
flow compressor?.
A. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion chambers.
B. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers.
C. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.

74. An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its high.

A. ram efficiency.
B. pressure rise per stage.
C. peak efficiency.

75. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the.

A. number of compressor stages.
B. air inlet velocity.
C. rotor diameter.

76. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection must be reinstalled in?
A. the same slot.
B. a specified slot 180°away.
C. a specified slot 90°away in the direction of rotation.

77. During the low RPM range on an axial flow gas turbine engine, in what position are the
variable intake guide vanes and bleed valves?
A. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves open.
B. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves closed.
C. At minimum swirl position, bleed valves closed.

78. The fan speed of a twin spool axial compressor engine is the same as the?
A. low pressure compressor.
B. forward turbine wheel.
C. high pressure compressor.

79. If an inlet is choked then the velocity?

A. increases and pressure decreases.
B. increases and pressure increases.
C. decreases and pressure increases.
80. The velocity of air on entry to compressor inlet on an aircraft flying supersonic speed
would be controlled at.
A. Mach 2.2.
B. Mach 1.
C. Mach 0.4.

81. Some turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two spool or split compressors.
When these engines are operated at high altitudes, the
A. low pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load
decreases in the lower density air.
B. low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases
in the lower density [Link].
C. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of the high pressure
rotor due to the lower density air.

82. Boyle's law states that, at constant temperature, if a gas is compressed.

A. its absolute pressure is proportional to its volume.
B. its absolute temperature is proportional to it's volume.
C. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.

83. Reduction gearing in the drive to a propeller allows the blade tips to operate …
A. below the speed of sound
B. above the speed of sound
C. at the same speed as the blade roots

84. The propeller tip to ground minimum clearance for a single engine tail wheel aircraft is
measured when the aircraft …
A. main wheel is on the ground
B. is jacked up in the rigging position
C. is in the take-off position

85. Propeller blade stations are measured in inches from the …

A. blade root
B. hub centerline
C. leading edge

86. When un-feathering a propeller the RPM control lever should be positioned at?
A. fully fine pitch
B. constant speed position
C. reverse

87. A propeller governor is sensitive to changes in ?

A. Torque
B. RPM
C. blade angle
88. Propeller efficiency is the ratio of …
A. engine speed to propeller speed
B. work done by the propeller to work done by the engine
C. aircraft speed to slipstream speed

89. When the propeller blades move to feather they will be

A. fully zero
B. fully negative
C. full coarse

90. In normal flight the Centrifugal Turning Moment acts to turn the propeller blades towards
?
A. Reverse
B. coarse pitch
C. fine pitch

91. Wooden propellers are permitted?

A. repairs using sawdust and aeroglue
B. repairs that do not affect weight and balance
C. minor repair only

92. In a single acting counterweight propeller, what creates the force used to move the blades
to fine pitch?
A. Centrifugal force
B. Spring pressure
C. Oil pressure

93. Forces acting on a propeller are?

A. centrifugal, twisting, and bending.
B. torque, thrust and centrifugal.
C. torsion, tension and thrust.

94. As propeller rotation speed increases the centrifugal turning moment on the blades will?
A. increase.
B. decrease.
C. Remain constant through r.p.m. range.

95. Counterweights are fitted to blade root to

A. counteract ATM.
B. assist blade to move to fine pitch.
C. counteract CTM.
96. Human error; Unintended action due to attention failure or can be thought of as actions
not carried out as intended or planned, e.g. 'transposing digits when copying out numbers,
or mis-ordering steps in a rocedure is:
A. Slip.
B. Violation.
C. Mistake

97. Concept of Basic Initial error model are?

A. CF - HUMAN ERROR - EVENT
B. EVENT - HUMAN ERROR - CF.
C. HUMAN ERROR - CF - EVENT.

98. There are Two Conceptual Model commonly use that can helps in understanding of
HUMAN FACTOR - HUMAN PERFORMANCE and LIMITATION;
A. CRM and Maslaw’s Hierarchy
B. SHELL and Reason.
C. Iceberg and Reason.

99. Human Working Memory can only remember ________ Unrelated items Lasts for about
10 to 20 seconds
A. 5 items
B. 7 items
C. 8 items

100. Human error; Unintended action due to memory failure is:

A. Violation.
B. Mistake
C. Lapses.