08-10-2025

6001CMD30303225006 MD 6) The equation of a progressive wave are , where x is in meter and t is in

second. The frequency and velocity of wave are

(1) 100 Hz, 5 m/s

PHYSICS
(2) 300 Hz, 100 m/s
(3) 100 Hz, 330 m/s
1) Water waves are of the nature :
(4) 30 m/s, 5 Hz
(1) Transverse
7) The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal travelling waves are given by
(2) Longitudinal
Wave 1 : y(x,t) = (2cm) sin(3x–6t)
(3) Sometimes longitudinal and some times transverse and longitudinal both Wave 2 : y(x,t) = (3cm) sin(4x–12t)
(4) Neither transverse nor longitudinal Wave 3 : y(x,t) = (4cm) sin(5x–11t)
where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves :
2) A thunder tap is heard 5.5 second after the lightning flash. The distance of the flash is (velocity of
sound in air is 330 m/sec.) :- (1) wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(1) 3560 m (2)
speed.
(2) 300 m (3) wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
(3) 1780 m wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(4)
(4) 1815 m speed.

3) If at a place the speed of a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz is V, the speed of another wave of 8) Intensity ratio of two waves is 9:1 then the ratio of their maximum and minimum intensities will
frequency 150 Hz at the same place will be: be :-

(1) V (1) 10 : 8
(2) V/2 (2) 7 : 2
(3) 2V (3) 4 : 1
(4) 4V (4) 2 : 1

4) Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring 9)
constants k1 and k2, respectively. If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of
amplitudes of A and B is- Column I Column II
Particles of the medium vibrate
A Longitudinal waves P p e r p e n d i c u l a r t o t h e w a v e
(1)
propagation.
(2) k1/k2 Two progressive waves of slightly
(3) different frequencies
B Transverse waves Q
superimpose in the same
(4) k2/k1 direction
Two progressive waves of same
5) The equation y = 4 + 2 sin (6t – 3x) represents a wave motion with C Beats R frequency superimpose in the
opposite directions
(1) amplitude 6 units Particles of the medium vibrate
D Stationary waves S
(2) amplitude 4 units along the wave propagation
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) wave speed 2 units
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(4) wave speed 1/2 units
(3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R

10) The end correction of resonance tube is 1 cm. If lowest resonant length is 15 cm then next (4) 1:1
resonant length will be :-
15) An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27°C resonates at 400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled
(1) 36 cm with the same gas at 90°C, the resonance frequency at the same mode will be :-
(2) 45 cm
(1) 420 Hz
(3) 46 cm
(2) 440 Hz
(4) 47 cm
(3) 484 Hz
11) The x - t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The (4) 512 Hz

16) The total energy of a harmonic oscillator of mass 2kg is 9 joules. If its potential energy at mean
position is 5 joules, its K.E. at the mean position will be :

(1) 9J
acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is :
(2) 14J
(3) 4J
(1)
(4) 11J

(2) 17)

(3) Newton's formula for the velocity of sound in gases is: [Symbols have their usual meaning]

(4) (1)

12) If the tension in a sonometer wire is made four times then fundamental frequency of vibration
(2)
changes by :

(1) 4 times (3)

(2) (1/4) times
(3) 2 times (4)

(4) (1/2) times

18) The graph AB shown in figure is a plot of temperature of a body in degree Celsius and degree
13) A set of 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series that each fork gives 4 beats per second with
the previous one. The frequency of the last fork is 3 times that of first. The frequency of first fork is :

(1) 110
(2) 60
(3) 56
(4) 65 Fahrenheit. Then

14) If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds (1) slope of line AB is 9/5
of a transverse wave along the string is: (2) slope of line AB is 5/9
(3) slope of line AB is 1/9
(1)
(4) slope of line AB is 3/9
(2)
(3) 1:2

1 19) The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.15% when its temperature is raised by 24°C. The
coefficient of linear expansion of metal is:- Reason : On heating the length of the rod increases

(1) (1) If both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) (3) If assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) (4) If assertion & reason both are false.

20) The temperature of a pendulum, the time period of which is t, is raised by ΔT. The change in its 24) A person is talking in a small room and the sound intensity level is 60 dB everywhere within the
time period is: room. If there are eight people talking simultaneously in the room, what is the sound intensity level ?

(1) 60 dB
(1)
(2) 69 dB
(2) 2αtΔT
(3) 74 dB
(3) (4) 81 dB

(4) 2αΔT 25) Statement–I: Sound waves transfer both energy and momentum.
Statement II: Both transverse and longitudinal waves propagate in a solid
21) At STP a rod is hung from a frame as shown in figure, leaving a small gap between the rod and Choose the correct statement
floor. The frame and rod system is heated uniformly upto 350 K. Then
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct and statement I is incorrect

26) Frequency of the wave is 50 Hz, length is 1 meter and mass of string is 10 gm. What is tension in
(1) The rod will never touch the floor in any case. the string?
(2) If αrod > αframe, then rod may touch the floor.
(3) If αrod < αframe, then rod may touch the floor.
(4) None of the above

22) Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 > d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated (1) 10 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 200 N

27) Wave pulse on a string shown in figure is moving to the right without changing shape. Consider
two particles at positions x1 = 1.5 m and x2 = 2.5 m. Their transverse velocities at the moment

(1) Both d1 and d2 will decrease

(2) Both d1 and d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease shown in figure are along directions :
(4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase
(1) positive y–axis and positive y–axis respectively
23) Assertion : When a rod lying freely is heated no thermal stress is developed in it (2) negative y–axis and positive y–axis respectively
(3) positive y–axis and negative y–axis respectively

(4) negative y–axis and negative y–axis respectively 33) Two waves with same amplitude and wavelength travel in opposite directions with equal speed
in a medium. When the waves are superimposed the phenomenon observed is
28) In a string transverse wave speed is 100 m/s and frequency is 500 Hz and amplitude is 2 × 10 –2

m. Its wave equation is :- (1) Stationary waves

(2) Harmonic travelling waves
Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (3) Beats
(1)
(4) Polarisation
(2) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (1000πt – 10πx)
34) Which of the following properties of a wave does not change with a change in medium ?
(3) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (500πt – πx)
(4) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (200πt – 10πx) (1) Frequency
(2) Wavelength
29) Two waves represented by :
(3) Velocity
and (4) Amplitude
are superposed. The resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-
35) The amplitude of sound is doubled and the frequency is reduced to one-fourth . The intensity of
(1) zero sound at the same point will become:-
(2) 2a
(1) 2 times
(3) a
(2) 4 times
(4)
(3)
times

30) If then find ratio of maximum to minimum amplitude :- (4)

times
(1) 11 : 1
36) If the magnitude of displacement is numerically equal to that of acceleration, then the time
(2) 121 : 1
period is
(3) 6 : 5
(4) 81 : 1 (1) 1 second
(2) π second
31) A transverse wave is described by the equation Y = Y0 sin 2π(ft – x/λ). The maximum particle
(3) 2π second
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if
(4) 4π second
(1) λ = π Y0/4
37) The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is equal to the first overtone frequency of an
(2) λ = π Y0/2 open organ pipe. If the length of the open pipe is 60 cm. What is the length of the closed pipe ?
(3) λ = π Y0
(4) λ = 2π Y0 (1) 15 cm
(2) 30 cm
32) Sound waves of wavelength λ travelling in a medium with a speed of v m/s enter into another (3) 60 cm
medium with speed of 2v m/s. Wavelength of sound waves in the second medium is :-
(4) 7.5 cm

(1) λ

(2)

(3) 2λ
(4) 4λ

2
 (4) 4f

42) The scale on a steel metre stick is calibrated at 15°C. What is the error in the reading of 60 cm
at 27°C? (αsteel = 1.2 × 10–5/°C)

(1) 0.00864 mm
(2) 0.00864 m
38) The total spring constant of the system as shown in the figure will be :
(3) 0.00864 cm

(1) (4) 0.00864 μm

43) Match the column with scale of temperature and its range -
(2)
Column-1 Column-2
(3)
(A) Celsius scale (P) 32° to 212°

(4) (B) Fahrenheit scale (Q) 0° to 100°

(C) Kelvin scale (R) 273.15 to 373.15

(1) A → P, B→ R, C→ Q
39) A particle executes simple harmonic motion according to equation 4 . Its time (2) A → Q, B→ P, C→ R
period of oscillation is :- (3) A → P, B→ Q, C→ R
(4) A → R, B→ Q, C→ P
(1)
44) A bar of iron is 10 cm at 20°C. At 19°C it will be (αFe = 11 × 10–6/°C)
(2)
(1) 11 × 10–6 cm longer
(3) (2) 11 × 10–6 cm shorter
(3) 11 × 10–5 cm shorter
(4)
(4) 11 × 10–5 cm longer

40) 45) The phase difference between the displacement and acceleration of particle executing SHM in
radian is:-
Two sources have frequency 256 Hz and 258 Hz. Then time difference between two consecutive
maxima is:
(1)
(1) 1s
(2)
(2) 0.5s
(3) π
(3) 2ms
(4) 2π
(4) None

41) A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a frequency f. The frequency with which its CHEMISTRY
kinetic energy oscillates is :-
1) The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is :-
(1)

(2) f
(3) 2f

6) In , hybridization at C1, C4 and C7 are respectively :-

(1)
(1) sp, sp2, sp2
(2) sp, sp, sp2
(2) (3) sp2, sp2, sp
(4) sp2, sp, sp
(3)

(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2–

2) What is the common name of the following structure 7) The configuration of the compound is

(1) E
(1) Ethyl methyl ketone (2) R
(2) Methyl n-propyl ketone (3) S
(3) Dimethyl ketone (4) Z
(4) None of these
8) Stereoisomers of which of the following will be optically active ?
3) The correct structural formula of the compound 1, 3-dimethylcyclohexene is
(1) Butane
(2) 4-Methylheptane
(1)
(3) 3-Methylheptane
(4) 2-Methylpentane
(2)
9) Most stable conformation of ethylene glycol among the following is :

(3)

(1)
(4)

4) The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is:
(2)
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
(3)
5) In homologous series, consecutive member has difference of mol. wt. is :

(1) 12
(2) 13
(4)
(3) 14

3
(4) 15
10) IUPAC name of is :-

(1)

(1) Acetic anhydride

(2) Methanoic anhydride (2)
(3) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride
(4) Ethanoic anhydride

11) Which is ring chain isomer? (3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
15) Calculate total geometrical isomers in
CH3 – CH = CH – CH = CH – CH = CH – Ph

(3) (1) 8
(2) 6
(4) All
(3) 4

12) Number of carbon atoms in the principle carbon chain in the given compound are :- (4) 20

16) Which of the following has/have Z-configuration :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

13) IUPAC name of following :

(1) 5,6-Dimethyl-2-Ethyl dec-4-ene

(2) 5,6-Diethyl-2-methyl dec-4-ene
(3) 1, 2, 9-Trimethyl-dec-4-ene
(4) 2-methyl-5, 6-diethyl-dec-4-ene (1) Only A
(2) A, B & D
14) Which of the following represent incorrect numbering. (3) A ,B & C

(4) B & D

17) In the given conformation, C2 is rotated about C2–C3 bond anticlockwise by an angle of 120°, then (4)
the conformation obtained is :-

20) Total number of structural isomers having alcohol functional group possible for C4H10O

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

21) Out of following, which has same hybridisation as that of central atom of CO2 ?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
(1) Fully eclipsed
(2) Partially eclipsed (2)
(3) Gauche
(4) Anti-Staggred (3) CH ≡ CH
(4) H3C–CH2–OH
18) CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3 &
CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 22)
are :-
Which one is not a D-sugar?
(1) Position-isomer
(2) Chain-isomer
(3) Metamer
(1)
(4) None of the above

19) Which are enantiomers ?

(2)
(1)

(3)
(2)

(3) (4)

4
23) Which of the following is most stable conformer of ethane ? Column-I Column-II
(Compound) (Degree of unsaturation)

(1) (A) (P) 2

(B) (Q) 3

(2)
(C) C4H4O4 (R) 1

(D) (S) 4
(3)
(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)

(4) None (2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)

(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(S)
24) With respect to the conformers of ethane, (4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(Q); (D)–(S)
Statement I : Bond angle changes.
Statement II : Bond length changes. 27) Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) Position - Isomer
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(2) Metamer
25) Match the following List-I with List-II.
Functional -
(3)
List-I List-II Isomer

(A) Benzene (1) Heterocyclic

(B) Pyridine (2) Alicyclic &

(4) Metamer
(C) Cycloalkane (3) Aliphatic

(D) Alkane (4) Aromatic

The correct match is : (1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Which of the followings is isooctane :-

(1) 1 (1)

(2) 2
(3) 3 (2)
(4) 4
(3)
26) Match the following Column-I with Column-II.

(4) None (4) None

29) Which of the following is not a pair of a homologous series ? 34) The compound which has one isopropyl group is :

(1) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethyl pentane

(1) (2) 2,2-Dimethyl pentane

& (3) 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane

(4) 2-Methyl pentane

35) Assertion: Alkanes show conformational isomerism

& Reason: Due to restricted rotation around the carbon-carbon double bond in alkanes
(2)
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion

(3) (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false

& (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4)

30) What is the relation between 3-Ethylpentane and 3-Methylhexane ? 36) are

(1) Chain isomers (1) Position isomers only

(2) Position isomers (2) Metamers only
(3) Functional isomers (3) Both position & meta isomers
(4) No relation (4) They are not isomers

31) How many π and σ bonds are in the given compound ?

(1) 3π and 6σ bonds

(2) 3π and 7σ bonds
37) Number of 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° C present in compound are respectively
(3) 2π and 7σ bonds
(4) 4π and 8σ bonds (1) 7, 4, 5 and 1
(2) 7, 3, 4 and 1
32) Which of the following pairs represent isomer?
(3) 7, 3, 5 and 1
(1) CH3–CH3, CH3–CH2–CH3 (4) 7, 4, 4 and 1
(2) H2C=CH–OH, CH3–O–CH3
38) Statement-I :- Meso compounds are optically inactive due to internal compensation.
(3) Statement-II :- Racemic mixture is optically inactive due internal compensation.

(4) All of these (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I & Statement II both are correct
33) CH3 —NH— C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of Isomerism
(3) Statement I & Statement II both are incorrect
(1) Position (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

5
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
 (i) (P) Homologues
39) In structure how many hetero atoms are present ?

(1) 1
(2) 2 Functional
(3) 3 (ii) (Q) group
isomers
(4) 4

40) IUPAC name of the given compound is: (iii) (R) Metamers

(1) Propane-1, 2, 3-triol

(2) Glycerol
(3) Both (1) and (2) Position
(iv) (S)
(4) None of these isomers

41) What is the common name of the following structure (1) (i)→R; (ii)→S; (iii)→Q; (iv)→P
CH2 = CH - CH2Br
(2) (i)→P; (ii)→Q; (iii)→R; (iv)→S
(1) Tert-butyl bromide (3) (i)→P; (ii)→R; (iii)→Q; (iv)→S
(2) Isobutyl bromide (4) (i)→S; (ii)→R; (iii)→Q; (iv)→P
(3) n-butyl bromide
45) Geometrical isomerism is not shown by-
(4) Allyl bromide
(1) Pent 1 ene
42) How many of the following functional groups is given priority over –CHO while naming the
(2) Pent 2 ene
compound according to IUPAC system.
(3) 1 Chloropent 2 ene
(4) 2 Chloropent 2 ene
(1) 4
(2) 5 BOTANY
(3) 2
(4) 6 1) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular oxygen with
synthesis of ATP, the site of this process located-
43) Functional group isomerism not possible in :-
(1) In the matrix of the mitochondria
(1) Alcohol
(2) In the cytoplasm
(2) Aldehyde
(3) In the intermembrane space of mitochondria
(3) Alkyl halide
(4) On the inner membrane of the mitochondria
(4) Cyanide
2) The common phase between aerobic & anaerobic respiration is
44) Match the column I with column II.
(1) TCA cycle
Column-I Column-II (2) Kreb's cycle
(Compounds) (Relation)
(3) Glycolysis

(4) Photorespiration (2) Condensation of acetyl group with OAA and water to yield citric acid
(3) Condensation of a-KGA with OAA and water to yield citric acid
3) Which of the following is the energy yielding step of glycolysis ?
(4) Condensation of oxalo succinic acid with acetyl CO A and water to yield citric acid.
(1) Glucose Glucose - 6 - phosphate
9) RQ of Tripalmitin is
(2) 1, 3 BPGA PGA
(3) Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate PGAL (1) More than one
(4) Phosphoglycerate Phosphoenolpyruvate (2) Less than one
(3) Zero
4) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and is present in all living organisms. Scheme of
(4) Equal to one
glycolysis was given by

10) Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is

(1) G. Embden, [Link], [Link]
catalyzed by:
(2) G. Embden, O. Meyerhof, M. Calvin
(3) G. Embden, J Parnas, A. Benson (1) Aldolase
(4) G. Embden, O. Meyerhof, J. Parnas (2) Enolase
(3) Hexokinase
5) Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(4) Phosphofructokinase
(R)
Assertion (A): It would be better to consider the respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway
11) Match List - I with List - II
Reason (R): The respiratory pathway is Involved in both anabolism and catabolism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below: List-I List-II

(a) ETS complex-l (i) Cyt bc1

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Cyt a, a3 and 2 copper
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (b) ETS complex-II (ii)
centres
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(c) ETS complex-III (iii) NADH dehydrogenase
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Ubiquinone and FADH
(d) ETS complex-IV (iv)
6) Assertion (A): Plants have systems in place that ensure the availability of oxygen. dehydrogenase
Reason (R): Plants require oxygen for respiration to occur and they also give out CO2.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c).(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) Both (A) & (R) are not correct (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

7) Which of the following is formed during TCA cycle? 12) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

(1) Pyruvic acid

Column I Column II
(2) PGAL (Steps of respiration) (Site)
(3) Malic acid
Inner mitochondrial
(4) All of these A Glycolysis i
membrane

8) Kreb's cycle starts with B TCA cycle ii Stroma of chloroplast

6
C ETS iii Mitochondrial matrix
(1) Condensation of malic acid with acetyl group and CO₂ to yield citric acid
 D Link reaction iv Cytoplasm i Ketoglutaric acid a 6C
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i ii Pyruvic acid b 5C
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv iii Citric acid c 4C
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
iv Fumaric acid d 3C
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-iii
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
13) Assertion (A): ATP acts as energy currency of the cell. (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
Reason(R): ATP is broken down when ever energy needs to be utilized in a cell. (3) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 17) Match the following w.r.t. RQ
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are not correct Column II
Column I
(Respiratory
R.Q
14) Assertion (A): In a coupled reaction GTP is converted into GDP with simultaneous synthesis of substrate)
ATP from ADP. a Fats i 0.9
Reason (R): GTP is synthesised by substrate level phosphorylation during EMP pathway.
b Glucose ii 0.7
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) c Proteins iii One
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
iv More than one
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
15) Identify the correct labelling for the given figure: (3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i

18) Read the following statements

(a) Roots, stems and leaves respire at rates for higher than animals do.
(b) The break down of C-C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading
to release of Considerable amount of energy.
(c) Fermentation takes place under anaerobic conditions in many prokaryotes.

(1) All are correct except 'a'

(2) All are correct except 'b'

(1) B - F1; C - Fo (3) All are incorrect except 'a'

(4) All statements are true
D - outer mitochondrial membrane;
(2)
E - matrix
19) Identify the correct set of statements:
(3) C - F1; D - Inner mitochondrial membrane (a) There is very little transport of gases from one plant part to another.
(4) A - 2H+; D - matrix (b) The complete oxidation of glucose produces CO2 and H2O as end products.
(c) Yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 percent.
16) Match the following column I with column II (d) NADH is oxidised to NAD+ rather slowly in fermentation, however the reaction is very vigorous in
case of aerobic respiration.
Column II (No. of Choose the correct answer from options given below:
Column I
carbons present in
(Name of the compound)
that compounds) (1) a, b and c only
(2) b, c and d only

(3) a, c and d only A-Lactic acid

(4) a, b, c and d B-Ethanol + CO2
(3) C-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
D-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
20) Statement-I: Cytochrome 'c' is a small protein remain attached to outer surface of inner
E-3-Phosphoglyceric acid
mitochondrial membrane.
Statement-II: Cytochrome 'c' is a mobile e carrier between complex-III and IV of mitochondrial A-3-Phosphoglyceric acid
B-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
ETS.
(4) C-Lactic acid
Options:
D-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
E - Ethanol + CO2
(1) Only statement-l is correct
(2) Only statement-ll is correct 23) Enzyme of Kreb's cycle is found attached to inner mitochondrial membrane?
(3) Both the statements are correct
(1) Citrate synthase
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Malic dehydrogenase
21) The reaction (3) Succinate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate Acetyl CoA is called :- (4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation 24) How many molecules of NADH2 are yielded from two TCA cycles?
(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Hydrogenation (1) Two
(4) Substrate Level phosphorylation (2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six

25) Who elucidated citric Acid cycle?

(1) Hans Krebs

(2) Charles Elton
(3) Meyerhoff
(4) Melvin Calvin

26) What is the net gain of ATP from one molecule of glucose in one complete glycolysis?

(1) One
(2) Two
22) Identify A-E in the given figure: (3) Three
(4) Four
A-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
B-Lactic acid
(1) C-3-Phosphoglyceric acid 27) Term glycolysis has originated from
D-Ethanol + CO2
E-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate (1) The Greek word
A-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate (2) The Latin word
B-3-Phosphoglyceric acid (3) The French word
(2) C-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
D-Ethanol + CO2 (4) The Italian word
E- Lactic acid

7 28) During EMP pathway, fructose 1, 6 bi phosphate splits into.

(1) PGA and PGAL A ETS I Pyruvate
(2) DHAP and PGAL
B Alcoholic fermentation II Acetaldehyde
(3) PEP and PGA
C Lactic acid fermentation III Oxygen
(4) G-3P and Pyruvic acid
(1) A-III; B-I; C-II
29) How many redox-equivalents are removed from PGAL to form NADH+H+ (2) A-I; B-III; C-II
(3) A-III; B-II; C-I
(1) Two
(4) A-II; B-III; C-I
(2) Three
(3) Four 35) In glycolysis, chain of how many reactions occur under the control of different enzymes?
(4) Five
(1) 08
30) What is the net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose. (2) 05
(3) 10
(1) 28
(4) 20
(2) 38
(3) 40 36) Select the statement which is not related to fermentation
(4) 02
(1) It accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose
31) The terminal e– acceptor in mitochondrial ETS is (2) It gives only 2ATP as net for glucose degradation upto pyruvic acid
(3) NADH is oxidized slowly as compared to aerobic respiration
(1) Cytochrome a3
(4) ETS gives 11ATP for each Krebs cycle
(2) Cytochrome-a
(3) Oxygen 37) Number of acetyl Co-A formed from one molecule of glucose is
(4) FADH
(1) One
32) How many molecules of ATP are produced by oxidation of 4 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 molecules (2) Two
respectively? (3) Four
(4) Six
(1) 8 and 3
(2) 16 and 9 38) Complexes involve in electron transport during ETS in mitochondria?
(3) 12 and 2
(4) 4 and 3 (1) Complex I, Complex II, Complex III, Complex IV only
(2) Complex II, Complex III, Complex IV and Complex V
33) Fate of pyruvic acid depends on (3) Complex V only
(4) Complex III, Complex IV and Complex V only
(1) The availability of nitrogen
(2) The cellular needs 39) Connecting link between EMP pathway and TCA cycle.
(3) The non availability of ATP and NADPH2
(1) Link reaction
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Formation of Acetyl Co-A
34) Match the column I with column II (3) Gate way reaction
(4) More than one option are correct
Column I
Column II
(Final hydrogen acceptor) 40) In alcohol fermentation, ____ of energy in glucose in released & not all of it is trapped as high
energy bonds of ATP.

(1) Less than 1%

ZOOLOGY
(2) More than 10%
(3) Less than 7%
1) Given below are some statements :
(4) More than 40% I. Members of this class are ectoparasite on some fishes.
II. Bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits.
41) RQ value of tripalmitin is: III. Circular mouth without jaw.
IV. Member of this class are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
(1) How many statements belong to class cyclostomata ?

(1) Only two

(2)
(2) Only three
(3) (3) Only one
(4) All four
(4)
2) Read the following statements:
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
42) Select out correct sequence of glycolytic steps (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(1) PGAL →13, BIPGA → 3-PGA → PEP
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(2) PGAL → PEP → 1,3,BiPGA → 2-PGA (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of echinoderms.
(3) PGAL → DHAP → PEP → 1,3 BiPGA Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(4) Pyruvic acid → PGAL → PEP → 1,3 BiPGA
(1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
43) Enzyme enolase is involving in which of the following reaction. (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
3-phyosphoglyceric acid
(1) (4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
2-phosphuglyceric acid
(2) 2-PEP pyruvic acid + CO2 3) Animal belonging the phylum mollusca are : –
2-phyosphoglyceric acid
(3)
2-PEP + H2O (1) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate.
(4) DHAP PGAL (2) Radial symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate.
(3) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate.
44) Number of CO2 molecules are released during TCA cycle
(4) Radial symmetrical, diploblastic, coelomate.

(1) One
4) Chordates are characterized by some specific characters. Which of the following is not true about
(2) Two chordates?
(3) Three
(1) Notochord is present
(4) Ten
(2) Dorsal myogenic heart is present
45) Which of the following enzymes is involved in fermentation? (3) A post-anal tail is present
(4) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(2) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase 5) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Citrate dehydrogenase Column-I Column-II

8
 Jointed (4) Aedes
(a) Asterias (i)
appendages
10) Three pairs of legs are found in :-
Canal
(b) Sycon (ii)
system
(1) Crab
Excretory (2) Spider
(c) Apis (iii) system is
absent (3) Locust
(4) Planaria
(d) Nereis (iv) Parapodia
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 11) What is the most unique feature of mammals.
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Presence of diaphragm
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Mammary gland
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Warm blooded
6) In the given diagram chordata characteristics are represented. Find correct name of A,B,C and D (4) 4-chambered heart

respectively :-

(1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Gill Slits, Post anal part

(2) Nerve cord, Notochord, Gill Slits, Post anal part
(3) Notochord, Gill Slits, Nerve cord, Post anal part
(4) Nerve cord, Post anal part, Gill Slits,Notochord 12) Which points are correct about the given animal ? (A) Diploblastic, Radial
symmetry
7) True coelom is the space between wall of alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by the layers of (B) Sexes are separate
(C) Exclusively marine
(1) Mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other (D) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular
(2) Endoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other
(1) A, B, C, D
(3) Mesoderm on both sides
(2) A, C, D
(4) Ectoderm on both sides
(3) A, C
8) Which statement is incorrect about annelids ? (4) B, C, D

(1) Members of this phylum are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and pseudocoelomates. 13) Which animal has been placed in wrong habitat?
(2) Close type circulatory system.
(1) Hydra - Fresh water
(3) Nephridia helps in excretion and osmoregulation.
(2) Spongilla - Fresh water
(4) Longitudinal and circular muscles are found
(3) Pennatula - Sea water
9) Out of following which animals is not vector ? (4) Ctenoplana - Fresh water

(1) Anopheles 14) Identify (A, B, C) the types of animals w.r.t. the presence or absence of body cavities:-
(2) Apis
(3) Culex

A = Salamandra; Class : Amphibia

(1) B = Chelone; Class : Reptilia
C = Pteropus; Class : Mammalia
A = Calotes; Class : Reptilia
A B C (2) B = Chelone; Class : Reptilia
(1) Coelomate Pseudo-coelomate Acoelomate C = Psittacula; Class : Aves
(2) Acoelomate Coelomate Pseudo-coelomate A = Chameleon; Class : Reptilia
(3) Acoelomate Pseudo-coelomate Coelomate (3) B = Ornithorhynchus; Class : Mammalia
(4) Pseudo-coelomate Coelomate Acoelomate C = Salamandra; Class : Amphibia
(1) 1 A = Salamandra; Class : Amphibia
(2) 2 (4) B = Ornithorhunchus; Class : Mammalia
C = Chameleon; Class : Reptilia
(3) 3
(4) 4 19) The members of phylum Arthropoda and Annelida are common in

15) Heart is always four chambered in :- (1) Having triploblastic and acoelomate condition
(2) Having parapodia for locomotion and open circulation
(1) Mammals
(3) Having file like rasping organ for feeding
(2) Aves
(4) Having organ system level of organization
(3) Reptiles
(4) Both (1) and (2) 20) Which one of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda ?

16) The digestive tract has additional chambers, the crop and gizzard in (1) Metameric - segmentation
(2) Parapodia
(1) Calotes
(3) Jointed appendages
(2) Corvus
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Macropus
(4) Pteropus 21) Which of the following sentence is/are correct.

17) Segmentation is present in :- (1) Ascaris have well developed muscular pharynx
(2) Digestive system absent in Tape worm
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca
(3) Nereis is an aquatic form of Annelida
(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata
(4) All the above
(3) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata
(4) Echinodermata, Arthropoda, Aschelminthes 22) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

18) Identify the following animals and their classes and select the correct option ?

9 Column-I Column-II
 Any plane passing
through central axis
(a) of body divides (1)
the organism into two
identical halves

Body can be divided 26) Identify the figure A, B and C respectively ?

(b) into identical left and right (2)
halves in only one plane (1) Euspongia, Spongilla, Sycon
(2) Spongilla, Euspongia, Sycon
(3) Spongilla, Sycon, Euspongia
Any plane that passes
through the centre (4) Sycon, Euspongia, Spongilla
(c) (3)
does not divide them into
equal halves 27) Metagenesis is seen in ?

(1) Meandrina
(1) a-1, b-2, c-3 (2) Adamsia
(2) a-3, b-2, c-1 (3) Obelia
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2 (4) Gorgonia
(4) a-2, b-3, c-1
28) Fill in the blanks :-
23) Which of the following animals have feathers and hair on body respectively? In ....a...., the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates, i.e., they exhibit ....b.... of organisation.
Some division of labour (activities) occur among the cells :-
(1) Psittacula, Carcharodon
(1) a-sponges, b-cellular level
(2) Pavo, Chelone
(2) a-coelentrates, b-tissue level
(3) Elephas, Struthio
(3) a-platyhelminthes, b-organ level
(4) Neophron, Pteropus
(4) a-coelentrates, b-cellular level
24) Which of the following is a gregareous pest ?
29) The excretory organ present in the organism given in figure is
(1) Pheretima
(2) Culex
(3) Locusta
(4) Ascaris

25) Assertion : Osteichthyes have bony endoskeleton.

Reason : They have cycloid or ctenoid scales.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(1) Rennet cells
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
(2) Protonephridia or flame cells
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) Kidney

35) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm ?

(1) Macropus
(2) Chelone
(3) Psittacula
30) Identify the following animal & this belongs to which phylum/subphylum. (4) Camelus

(1) Ascidia, urochordata 36) Feather like gills which helps in excretion and respiration are present in :-
(2) Balanoglossus, Hemichordata
(1) Pila
(3) Nereis, Annelida
(2) Balanoglossus
(4) Octopus, Mollusca
(3) Ophiura
31) Find out the correct match from the following table :- (4) Laccifer

Column-I Column-II Column-III 37) Match the following columns :

i Pinctada Pearl oyster Mollusca Column-I Column-II
ii Chaetopleura Chiton Annelida (A) Pennatula (1) Braincoral
(B) Meandrina (2) Sea fan
iii Pila Tusk shell Mollusca
(C) Gorgonia (3) Sea pen
(1) Only i (D) Adamsia (4) Sea anemone
(2) i and ii Option :
(3) iii only
(1) A-3; B-2; C-l; D-4
(4) ii and iii
(2) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
32) Assertion (A) : Reptiles are the successful terrestrial chordates. (3) A-2; B-4; C-l; D-3
Reason (R) : Mostly reptiles depend on water for reproduction. (4) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-l

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. 38) Match the column A and B
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. Column A Column B
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (i) Gills (a) Prawn
(ii) Book gills (b) Limulus
33) Animal without notochord is :- (iii) Book Lungs (c) Scorpion
(iv) Tracheal system (d) Cockroach
(1) Petromyzon
(1) (i)-a; (ii)-b; (iii)-c; (iv)-d
(2) Saccoglossus
(2) (i)-b; (ii)-c; (iii)-d; (iv)-a
(3) Myxine
(3) (i)-c; (ii)-d; (iii)-a; (iv)-b
(4) Torpedo
(4) (i)-d; (ii)-a; (iii)-b; (iv)-c
34) Assertion : Arthropods possess an open circulatory system.
Reason : Arthropods have jointed appendages and an exoskeleton made of chitin. 39) Body is divided into head, and trunk. Skin is moist without scales. Heart is three chambered.
Identify the class ?
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) Mammal
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Bird
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(3) Amphibian
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

10 (4) Reptile
40) Sexual dimorphism is found in :- ANSWER KEYS

(1) Hydra
(2) Earthworm
(3) Leech PHYSICS
(4) Ascaris
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 2 1
41) Assertion :- Aves and mammals are homeothermal animals. Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Reason :- Aves and mammals are able to maintain a constant body temperature. A. 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect A. 3 3 2 3 3

(2) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
CHEMISTRY
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
(4)
Assertion
Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 2
42) Phylum whose organism may be endoparasites in plants Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 2 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
(1) Platyhelminthes
A. 4 1 3 3 1
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Aschelminthis BOTANY
43) What is the correct sequence of canal system ? Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 3

(1) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 1 4 3
(2) Spongocoel → Osculum → Ostia Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 3 2 2
(3) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum

44) Water canal system is characteristic feature of :- ZOOLOGY

(1) Sycon Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 3 4 4 2
(2) Sea-urchin Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 3 4
(3) Hydra
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
(4) Pila A. 3 4 4 1 2

45) Notochord is extended from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life in

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Cephalochordata
(3) Urochordata
(4) All of these

SOLUTIONS
vw1 = 2m/s vw2 = 3m/s vw3 =
vp1 = 12cm/s vp2 = 36cm/s vp3 = 44cm/s
PHYSICS

8) Question Explanation :
1) 1. Problem Explanation : The ratio of their maximum and minimum intensities.
The problem asks about the nature of water waves, whether they are transverse, longitudinal, Concept :
or a combination of both. This question is based on Interference of wave.
Solution :
2. Concept Used : Nature of water waves

3. Formula(s) Used :

4. Calculation in Minimum Steps :

Water waves are typically a combination of both transverse and longitudinal waves, as 9) 1. Explanation (30 words):
particles of water move both perpendicular (up and down) and parallel (forward and The question asks to match types of waves and phenomena (longitudinal, transverse, beats,
backward) to the wave direction. and stationary waves) with their respective descriptions based on wave behavior and
characteristics.
Answer : 2. Concept (20 words):
Water waves are sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse and longitudinal both Longitudinal waves involve particle motion parallel to wave direction, while transverse waves
(Option 3). involve perpendicular particle motion. Beats and stationary waves are phenomena related to
wave superposition.
3. Matching the Statements:
2) distance = speed × time
A. A: Longitudinal waves
3) Speed of sound wave is medium dependent term. Longitudinal waves involve particle vibration along the direction of wave propagation. This
corresponds to S: "Particles of the medium vibrate along the wave propagation."

4) A. B: Transverse waves

Transverse waves involve particle vibration perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. This
⇒ corresponds to P: "Particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the wave propagation."

A. C: Beats

Beats occur when two progressive waves of slightly different frequencies superimpose in the same
5)
direction. This corresponds to Q: "Two progressive waves of slightly different frequencies
superimpose in the same direction."

6) A. D: Stationary waves
Compare general eq. Stationary waves occur when two progressive waves of the same frequency superimpose in opposite
ω = 200 π ⇒ n = 100 Hz directions. This corresponds to R: "Two progressive waves of the same frequency superimpose in the
opposite directions."
⇒ = 330 m/s 4. Conclusion:
The correct matching of Column I and Column II is:

A. A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R

7) vwave =
vparticle = Aω Final Answer:
On comparing The correct option is A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R.

11
 10) e = 1 cm ℓ1 = 15 cm 16) T.E. = (PE)min + (K.E.)max
9 = 5 + (K.E.)max
(K.E.)max = 4 J
This is KE at mean position
2 = ℓ2 – 45
ℓ2 = 47 cm 17)

Conceptual.
11) x = A sin (wt)

18) Slope of line AB

19)

12)
20)

13) Generated by Allie

Explain question : Find the frequency of the first turning for K in a series of 56 forks. Problem Statement: The question asks how the time period of a simple pendulum changes
when its temperature is increased by , considering that the pendulum's length changes due
Concept: This question is based on tuning fork to thermal expansion.

Solution: Underlying Concept: The core concept is that the length of the pendulum changes with
Formula: fn = f1 + (n–1)d temperature due to linear thermal expansion, which in turn affects the pendulum's time period
Calculation: because the time period depends on the square root of its length.

n56 = n + 55 b ⇒ 3n = n + 55 × 4 ⇒ n = 110
Final answer: (1)

14) Relevant Formulas: The time period of a simple pendulum: Length expansion

with temperature: New time period:

Step-by-Step Calculation: Using for small , we find:

15) Change in time period:

Tips and Tricks: Use the binomial approximation for small thermal
expansions to simplify the expression.

Common Mistakes: Forgetting to apply the square root when substituting the expanded Both d1 and d2 increase in size.
length into the time period formula or ignoring the linear approximation for small expansions.

23) 1. Question Explanation:

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options without the factor are incorrect because the Assessing the validity of two statements: (i) A freely lying heated rod develops no thermal
time period depends on the square root of the length, so the change is half of the relative stress; (i) Heating the rod increases its length.
change in length. Answers missing the original time period or mixing up factors of and 2. Concept Based:
are incorrect. Thermal stress arises when a material's expansion or contraction is restricted. A free rod can
expand without constraint, preventing stress development. Heating typically causes materials
to expand, increasing length.
3. Formula Used:
21) [Link] Explanation: Thermal Stress (σ) = Young's Modulus (E) x Coefficient of Thermal Expansion (a) x
A rod is suspended from a frame with a gap between it and the floor. The system is heated Temperature Change (AT).
uniformly. We need to determine under what conditions the rod may touch the floor. 4. Calculation:
Assertion: A free rod expands upon heating without stress.
2. Concept: Thermal Expansion in solids. Reason: Heating generally increases a material's length.
Answer:
3. Explanation: Option 2-Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason does not explain the assertion.
- Rod Expansion: The rod will expand according to its coefficient of linear expansion (αrod).
- Frame Expansion: The frame also expands but at a different rate depending on its own
coefficient of expansion (αframe). 24)
If the rod's expansion is greater than that of the frame, it may eventually touch the floor. If the
frame expands more, the gap will remain or even increase.
If the rod's coefficient of thermal expansion (αrod) is greater than that of the frame (αframe), the β = 10 log , 60 = 10 log
rod may touch the floor.

Answer: Option 2 (If αrod > αframe, then the rod may touch the floor.) β = 10 log

= 10 log 8 + 10 log = 30 log 2 + 60 = 69 dB.

22) (1) Asking About:
We need to determine what happens to the sizes of two holes (d1 > d2) in a metal sheet when it
is heated. 25)
(2) Concept:
Generated by Allie
• Thermal Expansion: When a metal sheet is heated, it expands uniformly in all directions.
• The holes in the sheet behave as if they were solid material expanding outward.
Problem Statement: The question asks us to evaluate two statements about waves: first,
• This means the diameter of each hole increases just as if the hole were made of the same
whether sound waves transfer both energy and momentum, and second, whether both
material as the sheet.
transverse and longitudinal waves can propagate in solids. We need to determine whether
(3) Formula: The expansion of the hole follows the formula:
these statements are correct or incorrect.
where:
• d = change in diameter Underlying Concept: Sound waves are mechanical waves that carry energy through a
• d = initial diameter medium by particle oscillations. Momentum can also be transferred because waves exert
• = coefficient of linear expansion of the metal pressure on objects (acoustic radiation pressure). In solids, particles can oscillate in different
• T = temperature change ways because of the fixed structure and restoring forces, allowing both longitudinal (particles
(4) Calculation/ Explanation: move parallel to wave direction) and transverse waves (particles move perpendicular to wave
• Since both holes are part of the same metal sheet they expand proportionally to their direction) to propagate.
original sizes.
• Because d1 > d2, the expansion of the larger hole will be greater in absolute terms, but both Tips and Tricks: Remember that gases and liquids typically support only longitudinal waves,
will still increase in size. but solids can support both transverse and longitudinal waves due to their rigidity.
(5) Final Answer:

12
Both holes increase in size as the metal sheet expands. Common Mistakes: Assuming sound waves only transfer energy and not momentum, or
(6) Correct Option:2 thinking transverse waves cannot propagate in solids.
 Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers stating that either sound waves do not transfer
momentum or that solids support only one wave type ignore the physical properties of wave
propagation and the elastic nature of solids.
32) NCERT Pg. # 369 (15.4)
Frequency remains constant so if speed becomes double then wavelength also becomes
double.

26)
33) Answer (1)
When two waves having same amplitude and wavelength moving in opposite direction are
superposed to each other then stationary wave will be produced.

34) Frequency is property of source.

T = 100 newton
35)

I = ρVA2ω2 = 2π2ρVA2f2

27) 36)

Dotted shape shows pulse position after a short time interval. Direction of the velocities are x = ω2x ⇒ ω = 1
decided according to direction of displacements of the particles.
at x = 1.5 slope is +ve x = 1.5 पर ढाल धनामक है ।
at x = 2.5 slope is –ve x = 2.5 पर ढाल ऋणामक है ।

37)
28)
nC = 2nO
ω = 2πf = 1000π

ℓC =

29) 38)
Δϕ = 90°

39)

30)

⇒ 40)

Conceptual.
31)

47)
41) Kinetic energy K = mv2 = ma2ω2 cos2ωt
Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach
= mω2a2 (1 + cos 2ωt) Common name of given structure.
Hence, kinetic energy varies periodically with double the frequency of S.H.M. i.e. 2f
Key Concept:
Format Name of Radical + Suffix.
42) ΔI = I αΔT
= 60 × 1.2 × 10–5 × (27 – 15) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
= 60 × 1.2 × 12 × 10–5 cm
= 0.00864 cm

⇒ Here functional group is having suffix ketone.

43) ⇒ Here alkyl group are –CH2 – CH3 and –CH3. and –CH3.
⇒ Hence its name is "ethyl" and "methyl".
Celsius scale ranges from 0°C to 100°C Fahrenheit scale ranges from 32°F to 212°F Kelvin ∴ its common name is ethyl methyl Ketone.
scale ranges from 273.15 K to 373.15 K unknown scale ranges from x to y.
Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.
44) Question Explanation:
When the temperature of a material decreases, its dimensions also decrease.

Concept:
This question based on Linear Thermal Expansion. 48)
Mathematical Calculation:
The change in length (ΔL) is given by: Conceptual.
ΔL = α × L0 × ΔT
Where:
49)
A. ΔL = Change in length
Conceptual.
B. α = Coefficient of linear expansion n (11 × 10–6 /°C)
C. L0 = Original length (10 cm)
D. ΔT= Change in temperature (19°C – 20°C = –1 °C) 50)
Substituting the values: Conceptual.
ΔL = (11 × 10–6/°C) × (10 cm) × (–1°C) ΔL = –11 × 10–5 cm
The negative sign indicates a decrease in length.
51)
Hence,
Option (3) is correct : 11 × 10–5 cm shorter Conceptual.

45) a = –ω x
2

52) Acc. to CIP Rule : The priority of atoms

Phase difference between displacement and acceleration is π.
are : Br > Cl > CH3 > H

CHEMISTRY

Clockwise rotation (R) configuration

46) Iso group → If – CH3 group attached at 2nd last carbon

13
53)
Conceptual. 63)

Conceptual.
54)

Conceptual. 64)

Conceptual.

65)

Conceptual.
55)

66)
56)
Conceptual.
Conceptual.

67)

Module Ex-2, [Link] 10

57)
No. of carbons in PCC = 3
68)

Conceptual.

69) Bond angle & bond length remains same in conformations. But dihedral angle changes.

70) Conceptual
58)
5,6-Diethyl-2-methyl dec-4-ene
71)

59) 1π bond contain 2e–

Conceptual.
72)

60) Conceptual.

Conceptual.
73)

61) Conceptual.

Conceptual.
74) Concept: Members of homologous series have same functional group and different
molecular masses.
62)
Soln/Explanation:
Conceptual.

→ 2°C → 3
→ 3°C → 5
→ 4°C → 1
* & have different functional groups. They are not members of same
homologous series.
* R–OH is alcohol and R–O–R' is ether. 83)

→ Optical isomer having atleast two chiral carbon and it is optically inactive due to presence of
75) symmetry element POS/COS are called as Meso compound.
→ Here net rotation is zero since rotation caused by one chiral carbon is equal and opposite to
Conceptual. rotation caused by another chiral carbon. It is also called as internal compensation.
→ Equimolar mixture of enantiomers is called as Bacemic mixture. Bacemic mixture so
optically inactive due to rotation caused by one molecule is equal & opposite to the rotation
76)
caused by another molecule. It is called as External compensation.
Theory
84) A. Question Explanation:
We need to identify the number of heteroatoms in the given structure.
77)

Conceptual. B. Given Data

78)
,
CH3 - NH - C2H5 & (CH3)3N
Secondary amine tertiary amine C. Concept:
Both are functional isomer. Heteroatoms are atoms other than carbon present in ring of an organic compound.

D. Answer Explanation:
In the given structure, we can see one oxygen atom. This is the heteroatom present in the
79) compound.

Conceptual. E. Final Answer:

Option (1)
80)
85)
Conceptual.
Conceptual.

81) 86) Question Explanation :

are both position & meta isomers. The question asks what is the common name of the following structure.

Concept :
This question is based on Common naming of hydrocarbon derivatives.

Solution :
Common name of hydrocarbon derivaties is given by using name of radical and suffix of
functional group.
82)
→ 1°C → 7
14 This compound have allyl radical and bromide as F4. So common name will allyl bromide.
 Hence, 91) NCERT Pg. No - 161
Option (4) is correct : Allyl bromide

92) NCERT Pg. No - 155

87)

Conceptual. 93) NCERT Pg. No -156

88) 94) NCERT Pg. No - 156

Alkyl halide do not show F.G. isomerism

95) NCERT Pg. No - 162

89)
96) NCERT Pg. No - 154
Fact.

97) NCERT Pg. No - 159

90)

Explaining the Question :- Identify the compound that do not show geometrical isomerism 98) NCERT Pg. No - 157
[G-I]
Concept:- conditions for G.I. 99) NCERT Pg. No - 164
Solution :- For G.I. across >C = <
Here atom/group of atom attached to double bonded carbon [Restricted atom must be
different] 100) NCERT Pg. No - 156

101) NCERT Pg. No - 160

102) NCERT Pg. No - 155,158,159

103) NCERT Pg. No - 154

104) NCERT Pg. No - 159

105) NCERT Pg. No - 161

106) NCERT Pg. No - 159

107) NCERT Pg. No - 164

108) NCERT Pg. No - 154

Final Answer :- 1

109) NCERT Pg. No - 154, 155, 157, 162

BOTANY

110) NCERT Pg. No - 160 129) NCERT Pg. No - 158

111) NCERT Pg. No - 158 130) Less than 7%

112) NCERT Pg. No - 157 131) NCERT Pg. No - 164

113) Allen module - 160 132) NCERT Pg. No -156

114) NCERT Pg. No -159 133) NCERT Pg. No -156

115) NCERT Pg. No -158 134) NCERT Pg. No -159

116) NCERT Pg. No -156 135) NCERT Pg. No -157

117) NCERT Pg. No - 155 ZOOLOGY

118) NCERT Pg. No - 156 136) NCERT, Pg. # 47, Para-4.2.11

119) NCERT Pg. No - 156 137) Allen module.

120) NCERT Pg. No - 161 138) NCERT- Pg # 53

121) NCERT Pg. No - 160 139) Ncert page 55.

122) Allen module-92 140) [NCERT Pg. 49-54]

123) NCERT Pg. No - 81 141)

Explain Question : Identify the four fundamental characteristics of a chordate, labeled A, B,

124) NCERT Pg. No - 157
C, and D in the provided diagram.

125) NCERT Pg. No - 156 Concept : Chordata - fundamental character

Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

126) ETS gives 11ATP for each Krebs cycle
A. (A) – The structure lying dorsally is the Nerve cord.
127) NCERT Pg. No - 158
B. (B) – The rod-like structure beneath the nerve cord is the Notochord.
128) NCERT Pg. No - 160

15 C. (C) – The vertical openings in the pharynx are Gill slits.

 D. (D) – The tail region extending beyond the anus is the Post-anal part. 152) Mollusca, Echinodermata, Aschelminthes are not segmented.

So, the correct sequence is: A → Nerve cord, B → Notochord, C → Gill Slits, D → Post anal part 153)

Final answer : option (2) Conceptual

142) 154)

Mesoderm on both sides. This is because true body cavity is lined by mesoderm. So on both Having organ system level of organization
sides i.e., towards body wall as well as towards gut wall, this space is enclosed by the layers of
mesoderm.
155) NCERT - XI Pg.# 53

143)
156)
Explain Question : Which statement is incorrect about annelids?
Concept : Based on phylum Annelida All the above
Explanation : The incorrect option is 1 . Triploblastic, metamerically segmented and
pseudocoelomates → They are true coelomates, not pseudocoelomates. 157)
Pseudocoelomate types of body cavity present in Aschelminthes.
a-3, b-1, c-2

144) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53, Ist - Para

158)

145) Neophron, Pteropus

NCERT, Pg. # 53
159) NCERT Pg.#53, Para-4.2.7

146) NCERT-XII, Pg # 50
160) NCERT Pg. # 57

147)
161) NCERT XIth (E) Pg.#49
Conceptual

162)
148)
NCERT(XI) Pg # 50
The animal placed in the wrong habitat is Ctenoplana - Fresh water.
Solution: Ctenoplana is a genus of comb jellies (phylum Ctenophora), and all known comb
jellies are exclusively marine organisms. 163) NCERT XIth Pg.#46, Last Para

149) NCERT-XI, Page#48 164)

Protonephridia or flame cells

150) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 58, 60

165) NCERT XI, Page # 54, Figure-4.15

151) Corvus

166) 175) NCERT, Pg. # 52

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Pinctada, commonly known as the pearl oyster, is a genus of bivalve mollusks known for 176) NCERT, Pg. # 49, [Link]
producing pearls. These oysters live in marine environments and are significant in the pearl
industry. The production of pearls in Pinctada is a natural defense mechanism to encase
177)
irritants, and these pearls are harvested for their commercial value in jewelry.
Aschelminthis

178) NCERT XIth Pg.#49, Para-1

167)

NCERT, Pg. # 49 179) NCERT Pg.#54

168) NCERT Page No. # 48 180)

Saccoglossus is nonchordate.
Cephalochordata
169) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

170) Chelone

171) NCERT Page No. # 44,

feather like gills present in mothusea.

172)

A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4

173)

(i)-a; (ii)-b; (iii)-c; (iv)-d

174)

Explanation:
Here's how the clues match with Amphibians:

A. Body divided into head and trunk – Amphibians have a distinct head and trunk region (some
also have a tail).
B. Skin is moist without scales – This is a key characteristic of amphibians. Their skin is smooth,
moist, and used for respiration (along with lungs).
C. Heart is three-chambered – Amphibians have a three-chambered heart (2 atria and 1
ventricle), which is typical of this class.

So, the only class that fits all the given traits is amphibia.
The correct answer is 3. Amphibian

16