06-07-2025

6001CMD30303325001P MD

PHYSICS

1) A clock hung on a wall has marks instead of numbers on its dial. On the opposite wall there is a
mirror, and the image of the clock in the mirror if read, indicates the time as 8.20. What is the time
in the clock.

(1) 3 : 40
(2) 4 : 40
(3) 5 : 20
(4) 4 : 20

2)

In the shown figure what is the value of deviation?

(1) 40°
(2) 140°
(3) 80°
(4) None of these

3) Two plane are placed as shown. Calculate position of first two images from mirror M2 :-

(1) 30, 60
(2) 20, 30
(3) 10, 30
(4) 10, 20

4) If a plane mirror is rotated by an angle 8° without changing the direction of incident ray then
reflected ray is rotated by :-
(1) 2°
(2) 4°
(3) 8°
(4) 16°

5) In the phenomenon of reflection of light which of the following is changed ?

(1) Frequency
(2) Speed
(3) Wavelength
(4) Intensity

6) Two plane mirror inclined to each other produce five images of an object placed between them at
a symmetrical position. If the angle between them is reduced by 30°, then find the number of
images formed in the two mirror.

(1) 6
(2) 11
(3) 8
(4) 9

7) A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface of water, the radius of the
circle in centimetre is :-

12 × 3 ×
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A person is in a room whose ceiling and two adjacent walls are mirror srufaced. How many
images are formed?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

9) A ray of light is incident at 50° on the middle of one of the two mirrors arranged at an angle of
60° between them. The ray then touches the second mirror, get reflected back to the first mirror,
making an angle of incidence of

(1) 50°
(2) 60°
(3) 70°
(4) 80°

10) If an object moves towards a plane mirror with a speed υ at an angle θ to the perpendicular to
the plane of the mirror, find the relative velocity between the object and the image

(1) υ
(2) 2 υ
(3) 2υ cos θ
(4) 2υ sin θ

11) A square wire of side 1 cm is placed perpendicular to the principle axis of a concave mirror of
focal length 15 cm at a distance of 20 cm. The area enclosed by the image of the wire is :-

(1) 4 cm2
(2) 6 cm2
(3) 2 cm2
(4) 9 cm2

12) A 2.0 cm tall object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. What is
the size and nature of the image :-

(1) 4 cm, real

(2) 4 cm, virtual
(3) 1.0 cm, real
(4) None of these

13)
A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water (μ = 4/3). The focal length of mirror
in water will be :-

(1) f
(2) (4/3)f
(3) (3/4)f
(4) (7/3)f

14) In a concave mirror experiment, an object is placed at a distance x1 from the focus and the image
is formed at a distance x2 from the focus. The focal length of the mirror would be

(1) x1x2
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) An object 5 cm tall is placed at a distance 10 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30
cm. What is the nature and size of the image ?

(1) Real, 3 cm
(2) Virtual, 7.5 cm
(3) Virtual, 3 cm
(4) Real, 7.5 cm

16) The minimum distance between the object and its real image for concave mirror is :–

(1) f
(2) 2f
(3) 4f
(4) Zero

17) A concave mirror having the focal length 15 cm, forms an image having twice of the linear
dimensions of the object. If the image is virtual, then the position of the object will be:

(1) 7.5 cm
(2) 22.5 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 30 cm

18) When a ray is refracted from one medium into another medium, the wavelength changes from
6000 Å to 4000 Å. The critical angle for a ray from second medium will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for :-

(1) Red
(2) Green
(3) Yellow
(4) Violet

20) Apparent depth from upper surface is -

(1) 18 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 20 cm

21) When a ray of light enters a medium of refractive index µ, it is observed that the angle of
refraction is half the angle of incidence then angle of incidence is

(1) 2 cos-1(µ/2)
(2) cos-1(µ/2)
(3) 2 cos-1(µ)
(4) 2 sin-1(µ/2)

22) For a glass prism µ = the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism. The
angle of the prism is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

23) Figure shows the graph of angle of deviation δ versus angle of incidence i for a light ray striking
a prism. The prism angle is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

24) What is the value of d for which emergent rays are also parallel :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 60 cm

25) A point object is moving towards a concave mirror of focal length 25cm. When it is at a distance
of 20cm from the mirror, its velocity is 5cm/sec. Find velocity of image at that instant :-

(1) 10 cm/sec
(2) 125 cm/sec
(3) 25 cm/sec
(4) 5 cm/sec

26) Focal length and power of a plane mirror is :-

(1) Very less, Very large

(2) Infinite, Infinite
(3) Zero, Infinite
(4) Infinite, Zero

27) Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined together in three different ways as shown in fig.
The ratio of the focal lengths in three cases will be-
(1) 2 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2
(4) 2 : 1 : 1

28) A thin lens is made with a material having refractive index μ = 1.5 . Both the sides are convex. It
is dipped in water (μ = 1.33) . It will behave like

(1) A convergent lens

(2) A divergent lens
(3) A rectangular slab
(4) A prism

29) A bubble in glass slab (μ = 1.5) when viewed from one side appears at 5 cm and 2cm from other
side, then thickness of slab is:-

(1) 3.75 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 10.5 cm.
(4) 2.5 cm

30) A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum

deviation which of the following is true ?

(1) PQ is horizontal
(2) QR is horizontal
(3) RS is horizontal
(4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal.

31) A glass lens is placed in a medium in which it is found to behave like a glass plate Refractive
index of medium will be :-

(1) Greater than the refractive index of glass

(2) Smaller than the refractive index of glass
(3) Equal to refractive index of glass
(4) No case will be possible from above

32) Dispersive powers of lens of an achromatic combination are 0.02 & 0.03 and this combination
behaves like a concave lens of focal length of 30 cm. Then focal length of each lens of combination
will be :-

(1) –10cm, 15cm

(2) –5cm, 20cm
(3) –15cm, 5cm
(4) –30cm, 5cm

33) An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact has a power of +2D. The convex lens
has power +5D. What is the ratio of the dispersive powers of the convergent and divergent lenses?

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 3 : 5
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 5 : 3

34) If the lower half of the convex lens is covered with an opaque (non transparent & non refractive)
material then:-

(1) Image of half object is formed

(2) Image of whole object with half intensity is formed
(3) Image of whole object with one fourth intensity is formed
(4) No effect on image's position and intensity

35) Statement-1 : Keeping a point object fixed, if a plane mirror is moved, the image will also
move.
Statement-2 : In case of a plane mirror, distance of object and its image is equal from any point on
the mirror.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 if false, Statement-2 is true

36) A convex lens and a concave lens each having same focal length of 25 cm are put in contact to
form a combination. The power in diopters of the combination is -

(1) Zero
(2) + 4
(3) – 4
(4) ∞

37) If one face of a prism of prism angle 30° and µ = is silvered, the incident ray retraces its
initial path. The angle of incidence is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

38) A glass slab (μ = 1.5) of thickness 2 cm is placed on a spot. The shift of spot if it is viewed from
top

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) With a simple microscope if the lens is held at a distance d from the eye and the image is formed
at the least distance of distinct vision from the eye, then the magnifying power is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the
principal axis. The power of one part will be

(1) 0

(2)

(3) P

(4)

41) A glass convex lens (µg = 1.5) has a focal length of 8 cm when placed in air what would be the
focal length of the lens when it is immersed in water (µw = 1.33) :-

(1) 2 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 32 cm
42) An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m with a telescope of magnifying power of 20. To
the observer the tree appears as

(1) 20 times taller

(2) 20 times nearer
(3) 10 times taller
(4) 10 times nearer

43) The given equi-convex lens is broken into four parts and rearranged as shown. If the initial focal

length is f then after arrangement, the equivalent focal length is :-

(1) f
(2) f/2
(3) f/4
(4) 4f

44) A convex lens has a focal length f. It is cut into two parts along the dotted line as shown in the

figure. The focal length of each part will be :-

(1)

(2) f

(3)

(4) 2f

45) An object of size 3 cm is placed 14 cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 21 cm. Describe
the image produced by the lens.

(1) Virtual, erect, diminished

(2) Virtual, erect, enlarged
(3) Real, inverted, enlarged
(4) Real, inverted, diminished
 CHEMISTRY

1) For a reaction AB5 → AB + 4B The rate can be expressed in following terms

= K [AB5] ; = K1 [AB5].
So the correct relation between K and K1 is :

(1) K1 = K
(2) K1 = 2K
(3) K1 = 4K
(4) 2K1 = K

2) For a reversible reaction, , the rate of reaction is given by :-

(1) K1[A]
(2) – K2[B]
(3) K1[A] + K2[B]
(4) K1[A] – K2[B]

3) For the First order reaction, the half life is 5 minutes when [A] = 0.1M. If the concentration of [A]
becomes twice then half life becomes :-

(1) half
(2) double
(3) remains same
(4) 10 minutes

4) A reaction is 50% complete in 2 hours and 75% complete in 4 hours. The order of reaction is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

5) For the reaction,

2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(ℓ), the rate of disappearance of C2H6(g):

(1) equals the rate of disappearance of O2(g).

(2) is seven times the rate of disappearance of O2(g).
(3) is twice the rate of appearance of CO2(g).
(4) is on-third the rete of appearance of H2O(ℓ).

6) The rate constant for the reaction,

2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2
is 3 × 10–5 s–1. If the rate is 2.4 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1,
then the concentration of N2O5 (in mol L–1) is:

(1) 1.4
(2) 1.2
(3) 0.04
(4) 0.8

7) For a first order reaction A → P, the temperature (T) dependent rate constant (k) was found to

follow the equation log k = – (2000) + 6.0. The pre- exponential factor A and the activation energy
Ea, respectively, are:

(1) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 9.2 kJ mol–1

(2) 6.0 s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol–1
(3) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol–1
(4) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 38.3 kJ mol–1

8) A + B → C + D. If , then is:

(1) 2.5 × 10–4 mol l–1 s–1

(2) 5.0 × 10–4 mol l–1 s–1
(3) 2.5 × 10–3 mol l–1 s–1
(4) 1.0 × 10–3 mol l–1 s–1

9) The rate constant is numerically the same for three reactions of first, second and third order
respectively. Which one is true at a moment for rate of three reaction if concentration of reactant is
equal to 1M :-

(1) r1 = r2 = r3
(2) r1 > r2 > r3
(3) r1 < r2 < r3
(4) All of the above

10) Which of these factors affect the value of the specific rate constant for the reaction 2A(g) →B (g)
?
(I) Concentration
(II) Pressure
(III) Temperature

(1) I, II and III

(2) II and III only
(3) I and II only
(4) III only

11) For the following graphs,

Choose from the options given below, the correct one regarding order of reaction is :

(1) (b) zero order (c) and (e) First order

(2) (a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order
(3) (b) and (d) Zero order (e) First order
(4) (a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order

12) A2 + B2 2AB, R.O.R. = K [A]a [B]b

Initial [A2], M Initial [B2], M R.O.R (R) Ms-1

0.2 0.2 0.04

0.1 0.4 0.04
0.2 0.4 0.08

Order of reaction with respect to A2 and B2 are respectively.

(1) a = 1 b = 1
(2) a = 2 b = 0
(3) a = 2 b = 1
(4) a = 1 b = 2

13) Which of the following represents the expression for 3/4th life of first order reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The ratio of t3/4 and t1/2 of zero order reaction is :-

(1) 1/2
(2) 2
(3) 3/2
(4) 5/2

15) Radioactive sample (Z = 22) decreases 90% after 10 years. What will be the half life of sample

(1) 5 years
(2) 2 years
(3) 3 years
(4) 10 years

16) For the reaction 2A + 3B → 4C the rate of reaction may be represented as :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A first order reaction is 10% complete in 20 min. The time taken for 19% complete is -

(1) 30 min
(2) 50 min
(3) 45 min
(4) 40 min

18)

In a reaction, the rate expression is, the order of reaction is:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5/3
(4) zero

19) The rate of reaction between two atoms A and B is expressed as rate = K[A][B]2. On doubling the
concentration of both the reactants A and B, the reaction rate increases by:

(1) 4 times
(2) 3 times
(3) 8 times
(4) 6 times

20) The rate law for a reaction A + B → product is r = K [A]2[B]–1 then

which of the following statement is false :-

(1) If [B] is held constant while [A] is doubled, the rate of reaction will be quadrupled
(2) If [A] is held constant while [B] is reduced to one quarter, the rate will be quadrupled
(3) If [A] & [B] are both doubled, the rate of reaction will be quadrupled
(4) This is a first order reaction

21) For the reaction A + B → C + D, if the concentration of A is doubled without altering the
concentration of B, The rate gets doubled. If the concentration of B is increased by nine times
without altering the concentration of A, The rate gets tripled. The order of reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 1

22) For a hypothetical reaction aA + bB → Product, the rate law is, rate (r) = K[A]x[B]y then which of
the following relation is possible–

(1) a + b = x + y
(2) a + b > x + y
(3) a + b < x + y
(4) All of the above

23) A reaction proceeds in three stages. The first stage is slow and involves two molecules of
reactants. The second and third stage are fast. The overall order of the reaction is :

(1) first order

(2) second order
(3) third order
(4) zero order

24)

The hypothetical reaction P2 + Q2 → 2PQ follows the mechanism as given below :

P2 ⇋ 2P (fast)
P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
P + Q → PQ (fast)
The order of the over all reaction is :

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 0

25) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Unit of rate of disappearance is Ms–1
(2) Unit of rate of reaction is Ms–1
(3) Unit of rate constant k depends upon order
(4) Unit of k for first order reaction is Ms–1

26) 75% of a first order reaction was found to complete in 32 min. When will 50% of the same
reaction complete :

(1) 24 min
(2) 16 min
(3) 8 min
(4) 4 min

27) The rate constant of nth order reaction has units :–

(1) Litre1–n mol1–n sec–1

(2) Mol1–n litre1–n sec
(3) Mol1–n litren–1 sec–1
(4) Sec–1

28) A + 2B → Product
K = 1.25 Moly.L–[Link]–1
the order of reaction is-

(1) y
(2) 1–y
(3) y–1
(4) None

29) Which of the following is example of pseudo first order reaction :-

(1) Hydrolysis of ester in acidic medium

(2) Inversion of cane sugar
(3) Decomposition of NH3
(4) Both (1) & (2)

30) Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order reaction is :-
(a is initial concentration of reactant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ak
31) For a zero order reaction half life is 40 s then find out time for 87.5% completion :-

(1) 60 s
(2) 70 s
(3) 80 s
(4) 90 s

32) 99% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes when 99.9% of the reaction
will complete :-

(1) 50 min
(2) 46 min
(3) 48 min
(4) 49 min

33) Select the correct option for 1st order reaction 2A → product having rate constant of reaction
1.386×10–2 min.

(1) Time required for 75% completion of reaction is 100 min.

(2) Time required for 99.9% completion of reaction is 250 min.
(3) Rate of decomposition of reactant at concentration 0.1 M is 1.386 × 10–3 M/min.
(4) Rate of decomposition of reactant at concentration 0.1 M is 1.386 × 10–3M/ sec.

34) The half-life period of a first order reaction is l0 minutes. The time required for the
concentration of the reactant to change from 0.08 M to 0.02 M is:

(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 30 min
(4) 40 min

35) Select the correct diagram for an endothermic reaction that proceeds through two steps, with
the second step is rate determining:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) Consider the Arrhenius equation given below and mark the correct option.

Rate constant increases exponentially with increasing activation energy and decreasing
(1)
temperature
Rate constant decreases exponentially with increasing activation energy and decreasing
(2)
temperature
Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasing activation energy and decreasing
(3)
temperature
Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasing activation energy and increasing
(4)
temperature

37) Relationship between threshold energy, activation energy and energy possessed by reacting
species is

(1) threshold energy = activation energy + energy possessed by reacting species

(2) threshold energy = activation energy – energy possessed by reacting species
(3) activation energy = threshold energy – energy possessed by reacting species
(4) activation energy = threshold energy + energy possessed by reacting species

38) (a) T1 < T2

(b) By increasing temperature fraction of molecules containing most probable kinetic energy
increases.
(c) By increasing temperature value of most probable kinetic energy increases.
(d) Area under curve remains constant since total probability must be one at all time.
Correct -

(1) a, c, d
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, c
(4) a, d
39) The first order rate constant k is related to temp. as log k = 15.0 –(106/T) Which of the following
pair of value is correct?

(1) A = 1015 and E = 1.9 × 104 KJ

(2) A = 10–15 and E = 40 KJ
(3) A = 1015 and E = 40 KJ
(4) A = 10–15 and E = 1.9 × 104 KJ

40) The activation energy for the forward reaction A → B is 60 kJ mol–1 and enthalpy change is –20 kJ
mol–1. The activation energy for the reverse reaction is

(1) 40 kJ mol–1
(2) 60 kJ mol–1
(3) 80 kJ mol–1
(4) 20 kJ mol–1

41) The plot of ink versus 1/T is linear with a slope of :-

(1) –Ea/R
(2) Ea/R
(3) Ea/2.303 R
(4) –Ea/2.303 R

42) In the reaction A + 2B 6C + 2D, if the initial rate = 2.6×10–2 M sec–[Link] will be the

initial value of ?

(1) 8.5 × 10–2 M sec–1

(2)
(3) 5.2 × 10–2 M sec–1
(4) 7.5 × 10–2 M sec–1

43) In a zero order reaction half life is 100 sec. After how much time 7/8 fraction of reactant will be
reacted?

(1) 300 sec.

(2) 200 sec.
(3) 175 sec.
(4) 25 sec.

44) If a substance with half-life 3 days is taken at other place in 12 days. What amount of substance
is left now?

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/8
(3) 1/16
(4) 1/32

45) In the respect of the equation k = Ae–E /RT is chemical kinetic, which one of the following
a

statement is correct ?

(1) k is equilibrium constant

(2) A is adsorption factor
(3) Ea is energy of activation
(4) R is Rydberg constant

BIOLOGY

1) Select the correct rout for the passape of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

2) Mark the false statement with respect to frog -

(1) Frog is ureotelic

(2) Bidder's canal is present in kidney and transport sperms.
(3) In female frog the ovaries are structurally and functionally associated with kidneys.
(4) Fertilisation is external.

3) Tadpole larva of frog excretes ....(a).... while adult frog excretes ....(b)...., a and b in given
statement are -

(1) (a) Ammonia ; (b) Ammonia

(2) (a) Ammonia ; (b) Urea
(3) (a) Urea ; (b) Uric acid
(4) (a) NH3 ; (b) Guanine

4)

How many ova laying at a time by mature female frog?

(1) 2500-3000
(2) 3000-4000
(3) 4000-5000
(4) 6000-7000

5) In frogs, testes are attached to kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum known as

(1) Pericardium
(2) Mesorchium
(3) Urinogenital duct
(4) Vasa efferentia

6) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Frogs help maintain ecological balance.
Reason (R): Frogs serve as an important link in the food chain and food web in the ecosystem.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) is True but (R) is False

(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

7) The thin-walled urinary bladder in frog is present:

(1) Ventral to the rectum which does not open in the cloaca.
(2) Ventral to the rectum which also opens in the cloaca.
(3) Dorsal to the rectum which does not open in the cloaca
(4) Dorsal to the rectum which also opens in the cloaca.

8) Which of the following sense organs in frogs are not well organised but found as cellular
aggregations around the nerve endings?

(1) Sensory papilla and eyes

(2) Eyes and Internal ears
(3) Nasal epithelium and taste buds
(4) Internal ears and sensory papilla

9) During hibernation frog respires through-

(1) Skin only

(2) Lungs only
(3) Both
(4) None

10) For capturing the prey frog uses its :-

(1) Lips
(2) Teeth
(3) Tongue
(4) Hand

11) Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given figure of male reproductive system of frog.
 A–Fat bodies, B–Testis, C–Ureters,
(1)
D–Vasa efferentia, E–Kidney
A–Nephrons, B–Testis, C–Ureters,
(2)
D–Villi, E–Kidney
A–Vasa efferentia, B–Testis, C–Adrenal gland,
(3)
D–Fat bodies, E–Kidney
(4) A–Mesorchium, B–Testis, C–Adrenal gland, D–Fat bodies, E–Kidney

12) Select the correct statement –

(1) Acetobacter aceti produces citric acid

(2) Methanogens are found in aerobic conditions
(3) Cyclosporin-A is produced by a fungus
(4) Streptokinase produced by a fungus is used as a clot buster

13) Free living fungi use as biological control agent :-

(1) Trichoderma
(2) Azospirillum
(3) Azobacter
(4) All of the above

14) Read the following statements :

A. Large holes in swiss cheese are due to production of CO2.

B. Bacteria is used for commercial production of ethanol.
C. Streptokinase produced by the yeast Streptococcus.
D. Statin produced by yeast.

How many above statements are correct :

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4
15) A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result it

(1) Drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom

(2) An increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
(3) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen
(4) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms

16) Sewage water can be purified by -

(1) Aquatic plant

(2) Micro organism
(3) Penicillin
(4) Fishes

17) Identify the incorrect statement regarding Rana tigrina:

(1) Forebrain includes olfactory lobes.

(2) Midbrain includes optic lobes.
(3) Hindbrain consists of cerebellum and medulla oblongata.
(4) There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves.

18) Biogas contains

(1) 30% – 40% methane

(2) 50% – 70% CO2
(3) 50% – 70% methane
(4) 10% – 20% methane

19) What does ‘P’ indicate in the following diagrammatic representation?

(1) Dung and vegetable waste only.

(2) Dung and water mainly
(3) Vegetable and human excreta only
(4) All of these

20) The puff ed-up dough of dosa and idli is due to _____.
(1) Fermentation by bacteria and production of O2.
(2) Hydrolysis by bacteria and production of CO2.
(3) Fermentation by bacteria and production of CO2.
(4) Hydrolysis by bacteria and production of O2.

21) The chemical substances produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of
other microbes are called __________.

(1) Toddy
(2) Lactic acid
(3) Antibiotics
(4) Statins

22) LAB is commonly called ?

(1) Lactic acid bacteria

(2) Lactobacillus lactis bacteria
(3) Lactobacillus bacteria
(4) Lactobacillus acidophiles bacteria

23) Match the organic acids with their source microbes –

Organic acids Microbes

A Butyric Acid i Acetobacter

B Citric Acid ii Clostridium

C Acetic Acid iii Aspergillus

D Lactic Acid iv Lactobacillus

(1) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(4) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–v

24) Lactic acid bacteria are useful in–

(1) Increasing nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12

(2) Conversion of curd into milk
(3) Producing acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk protein
(4) Both (1) and (3)

25) The fungal symbiont in the mycorrhizal associations -

(a) absorbs phosphorus from soil
(b) provides resistance to stem-born pathogens
(c) provides tolerance to salinity & drought.
(d) Causes an overall increase in growth of plant
The correct statements is / are -

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (c) & (d)
(3) (a), (b) & (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

26) Choose the correct option with regard to statement A and B.

A: Microbes are present everywhere on earth.
B: They cannot live in thermal vents where temperature is as high as 100°C.

(1) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

(2) Statements A and B are correct
(3) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(4) Statements A and B are incorrect

27) (A): Cyclosporin A is immuno supressive medicine.

(R): It stimulates activation of T-cells and prevents rejections.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true / Both A and R are false

28) Assertion : Methanogens are commonly found in the anaerobic sludge.

Reason : Methanogens are also found in rumen part of cattle.

If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion.
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

29) The alcoholic drinks which are produced without distillation & with distillation of fermented
broth respectively are :-

(1) Wine, Beer

(2) Brandy, Beer
(3) Whisky, Rum
(4) Wine, Whisky

30) Flocs are :

(1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria only

(2) Masses of anaerobic bacteria & fungi
(3) Masses of aerobic microbes and fungal filaments
(4) Masses of cyanobacteria

31) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) type question

A - New antibiotics are required to be discovered constantly
R - Pathogenic microorganism usually develop resistant to present antibiotics

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

32) During sewage treatment, bacterial flocs are allowed to sediment is called as

(1) Activated sludge

(2) Primary sludge
(3) Aerobic sludge
(4) Primary effluent

33) Lactobacillus bacteria convert milk into curd. Select the correct statements about this bacterium
(a) It is heterotrophic
(b) It increases the content of vitamin B12 in curd
(c) It fixes nitrogen in leguminous plants

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) & (b)
(4) Both (b) & (c)

34) IPM stands for

(1) Indian Pollution Management

(2) Institute of Pest Management
(3) Integrated Pest Management
(4) Institute of Pollution Management

35) Assertion (A) : Integrated pest management programme involves harmonious application of
'various controls' to ensure minimum environmental pollution and proper maintenance of ecological
balance.
Reason (R) : Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation to A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation to A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

36)
Secondary treatment of sewage -

(1) Removes grit and large pieces of organic metals

(2) Involves shedding, churning, filtration and sedimentation
(3) Does not require aeration
(4) Involves microbial digestion of organic matter

37) Find the correct statement(s).

(A) Flocs are anaerobic in nature
(B) Activated sludge is obtained during primary treatment of sewage.
(C) Flocs are digested anaerobically to yield biogas.
(D) Sewage contains large amount of organic matter and microbes

(1) A & D
(2) C & D
(3) Only D
(4) A, B & D

38) The Roquefort cheese is ripened by which microbe for a particular flavour?

(1) LAB
(2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3) An alga
(4) A fungus

39) Antibiotics have greatly improved our capacity to treat the following deadly diseases, except

(1) Whooping cough

(2) Thalassemia
(3) Tuberculosis
(4) Diphtheria

40) Some microbes like A and B can be cultured in nutrient medium to form colonies and
that can be observed with naked eyes too. Here A and B respectively are

(1) Protozoa and viroids

(2) Viruses and bacteria
(3) Bacteria and fungi
(4) Fungi and prions

41) Select the correct group of organism related to household products :-

(1) Trichoderma polysporum, Streptococcus, Baculovirus

(2) Streptococcus, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Azospirillum
(3) Trichoderma, Lactobacillus, Methanogens
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae, lactobacillus, propionibacterium sharmanii
42) Baculoviruses are-

(1) Species specific, narrow spectrum insecticide

(2) Species specific, broad spectrum insecticide
(3) Non-specific, narrow spectrum insecticide
(4) Non-specific, broad spectrum insecticide

43) Maximum percentage of alcohol present in the product of yeast fermentation :

(1) Brandy
(2) Gin
(3) Rum
(4) Wine

44) Which of the following serve as biofertilizer in paddy fields?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Yeast
(3) Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)
(4) Fungi

45) Passage of effluents into oxidation tank is for :-

(1) Primary treatment

(2) Secondary treatment
(3) Tertiary treatment
(4) Both (1) and (2)

46) Which of the following option give the correct categorisation of examples according to the type
of species Interaction (A, B, C) :-

A B C
Mutualism Parasitism Commensalism

1 Barnacle & Whale Loranthus & Mango Yucca plant & Pronuba Moth

2 Leech on Cattle Orchid & Bee Pilot fish & shark

3 Fig Tree & Wasp Viscum & Oak Clown fish & Sea Anemone

4 Sucker fish & Shark Lichen Ticks on Dog

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) In a + – inter specific interaction :-

(1) Efficient species may be prudent

(2) Both the species may exhibit co-evolution
(3) One species may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of the other species
(4) All of these are correct

48) Organisms like frogs and insects are crytically coloured to :-

(1) Attract the females

(2) Convey the message
(3) Kill the host
(4) Be prevented from predators

49) A wasp pollinating_________flower is an example of_________.

(1) Orchid, symbiosis

(2) Orchid, competition
(3) Fig, mutualism
(4) Fig, commensalism

50) Association between whale and barnacles is :-

(1) Symbiosis
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Predation

51) Which of the following plant has lost its leaves and chlorophyll in the course of evolution :-

(1) Orchid
(2) Cuscuta
(3) Fig tree
(4) CAM plants

52) Lichen is :-

(1) Symbiotic relations of fungi with photosynthesis algae

(2) Symbiotic relations among fungi and higher plants
(3) Mutual relations of Fungi with Blue Green Algae
(4) (1) and (3) Both

53) They may reduce survival, growth and reproduction of other organisms and reduce its
population density. They might render organisms more vulnerable to predation by making it
physically weak. They are :-

(1) Predater
(2) Parasite
(3) Amensal
(4) Commensal

54) Mac Arthur's observation regarding warblers, indicated :

(1) Tendency of organisms to avoid competition

(2) Extinction of inferior species during competition
(3) Predation by a stronger organism
(4) Inhibition of growth of an organism by another organism

55) Which among the following represents commensalism interaction?

(1) Plasmodium living in human RBCs

(2) Tick birds helping rhino to get rid of leeches.
(3) Orchid plant living on a mango tree
(4) Hermit crab and sea anemone

56) Which adaptation of parasite does not help to sustain their life in host body ?

(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organ

(2) Loss of digestive system
(3) Low reproductive capacity
(4) Presence of adhesive organ or suckers to cling on the host

57)

Choose the correct match :-

(a) Co-evolution - endoparasite and host
(b) mutualism - relation of egret bird and cattle
(c) sexual deceit - shown by Opuntia plant
(d) Connell's elegant field experiment - competitive exclusion

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, d

58) Mycorrhizae relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants is ?

(1) Parasitic relationship

(2) Saprophytic relationship
(3) Symbiotic relationship
(4) Epiphytic relationship

59) Which one of the following is most appropriately defined ?

(1) Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
(2) Predator is an organism that catches and kills & eat other organism for food.
(3) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it.
(4) Host is an organism which provides food to another organism.

60) Connell's elegant field experiment was performed on sea coast of which country ?

(1) Australia
(2) Scotland
(3) Galapogos
(4) America

61) Monarch butterfly escapes from predators due to:-

(1) Foul smell

(2) Bitter taste/distastful
(3) Colour combination
(4) Rough skin

62) Exponential population growth is represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

63)
The above graph indicates ___ with relation to population

(1) Growth curve with limited resources

(2) Exponential growth
(3) Arithmetical ·growth
(4) Decelerating growth

64) Exponential growth or geometric growth is represented by :-

(1) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]

(2)

(3)

(4)

65) In logistic growth Here, represents :-

(1) Carrying capacity

(2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(3) Environmental resistance
(4) Biotic potential and environmental resistance

66) Birth rate = B, Death rate = D, Emigration = E and Immigration = I.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Population is increasing (i) B+I=D+E

(b) Population is decreasing (ii) B+I<D+E

(c) Population is stable (iii) B+I>D+E

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

67) In an exponential growth equation , r represents-

(1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

(2) (b – d)
(3) Birth rate
(4) Both (1) and (2)

68) Which the following show inverted pyramid of number ?

(1) Tree ecosystem

(2) Pond ecosystem
(3) Grassland ecosystem
(4) Lake ecosystem

69) Which of the following are the best examples of man-made ecosystems.
(1) Forest & Lake
(2) Crop fields & Aquarium
(3) Crop fields & Dessert
(4) Aquarium & estruary

70) Which of the following is not a Abiotic factor of Pond ecosystem?

(1) Water
(2) Inorganic & Organic substances
(3) Soil
(4) Phytoplanks

71) If a single plant species is removed from a food web then most likely :-

(1) Dependent herbivoures will have to find new food resources

(2) Carnivores will be eliminated from that zone
(3) Other plants will produce enough food for herbivores
(4) An animal species will fill the unoccupied space

72) If producer is a large tree that supports a number of herbivorous animals which are further
attacked by ectoparasites, the pyramid of number shall be:-

(1) Inverted
(2) Upright
(3) Irregular
(4) Spindle shaped

73) The number of primary producers within a specified area would be maximum in :-

(1) Grassland ecosystem

(2) Forest ecosystem
(3) Pond ecosystem
(4) Deserts

74) Which statements is false ?

(1) Plants are producer

(2) Succession and evolution was parallel process at the primitive earth.
(3) Energy flow is the structural attributes of biotic community.
(4) Earthworm is detrivores

75) Source of energy in an ecosystem is :-

(1) Sun
(2) ATP
(3) Sugar made by plant
(4) Green plant

76) In most ecosystem :-

(1) Primary producers are more numerous than primary consumers

(2) Primary consumers have higher biomass than primary producers
(3) Secondary consumers have higher biomass than primary producers
(4) Primary consumers least depend on primary producers

77) Plant → Insect → P → Snake → Hawk

In above given food chain identify "P" ?

(1) Frog
(2) Cobra
(3) Fox
(4) Lion

78) Rate of increase in energy content or biomass by heterotroph per unit time and area is called –

(1) Gross 1° productivity

(2) Net 1° productivity
(3) Community productivity
(4) 2° productivity

79) If the phytoplanktons are removed from ocean then

(1) Provide more space to Algae growth

(2) Producers can grow easily
(3) Food chain will be affected
(4) Dissoloved oxygen will increase

80) For which activities detritivores are required

(1) Humification and Mineralisation

(2) Fragmentation
(3) Catabolism
(4) Leaching

81) The humus content of grassland soil for example may be 600 tonnes per acre, compared with
only 50 tonnes per acre for forest soils.
Which one of the following should be the best possible reason for such high amount of humus in
grassland soils ?

(1) Absence of aerobic bacteria and abundance of fungi.

(2) Fast humification and slow mineralisation.
(3) Extremely acidic and anaerobic habitat.
(4) Extremely slow catabolism and complete absence of moisture.

82) The light wavelength in which photosynthesis can occur is called :-

(1) ISR
(2) PCR
(3) PAR
(4) MRI

83) How much amount of total incident solar radiation is captured by plants for photosynthesis :-

(1) 1 – 5 %
(2) 2 – 10 %
(3) 50%
(4) 98 %

84) Total amount of energy trapped by green plants during photosynthesis is called :-

(1) GPP
(2) NPP
(3) Standing state
(4) Standing crop

85) The food chain in which microbes breakdown energy rich Compounds synthesized by producers
is called :-

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Predator food chain
(3) Parasitic food chain
(4) Detritus food chain

86) Nepenthes (Insectivors plant) is a:-

(1) Producer
(2) Consumer
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Omnivors

87) above pyramid represent.

(1) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of biomass

(2) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of number
(3) Pyramid of tree ecosystem on the basis of number
(4) Pyramid of energy
88)
What does above pyramid represent ?

(1) Biomass – Tree ecosystem

(2) Biomass – Grass land ecosystem
(3) Number – Tree ecosystem
(4) Biomass – Lake ecosystem

89) Which of the following is an example of primary consumer.

(1) Grass
(2) Phytoplankton
(3) Rabbit
(4) Both 1 and 2 above

90) In which ecosystem pyramid are always upright ?

(1) Tree ecosystem

(2) Ocean
(3) Grass land ecosystem
(4) All of the above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 2 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 1 4 4 1 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 4 1 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 4 3 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 1 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 4 3 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 2 3 1 4 1 2 4 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 1 4 3 3 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

3 : 40

2)

δ = 180 – 2i
= 180– 2× 70
=40

3)

10, 30

4)

5)

Intensity

6)

θ = 60°
If angle is reduced by 30°
θ = 60° – 30° = 30°

n = 12 – 1 = 11
7)

8)

Solution : 7

9)

Solution 70°

10)

Sol: 2υ cos θ

11)

Solution : 9 cm2

12)
According to New Cartesian sign convention,
Object distance u = – 15 cm
Focal length of a concave lens, f = – 10 cm
Height of the object ho = 2.0 cm

According to mirror formula,

⇒ v = – 30 cm.
This image is formed 30 cm from the mirror on the same side of the object. It is a real image.
Magnification of the mirror,

m=

⇒ ⇒ h1 = – 4 cm.
Negative sign shows that image is inverted. The image is real, inverted, of size 4 cm at a
distance 30 cm in front of the mirror.

13) Focal length of mirror doesn't depend on medium.

14) Newton's formula f2 = x1x2
Given u = (f + x1) and u = (f + x2), v = (f + x2)

the focal length

On solving, we get f2 = x1x2 or

15)

16)

For an object placed at centre of curvature the image forms on itself.

17) Since, image is virtual v is +ve.

f = –15, u = ?

m = 2 = ; v = 2u
Applying mirror formula, we get;

or

- or u = 7.5 cm

18)

Solution :

19)

⇒ violet

20) dapp =

21)

Solution: 2 cos-1(µ/2)
22)

Solution : 60°

23)

Solution : 45°

24)

A QUESTION EXPLANATION: to find the distance d between the lenses such that the
emergent rays from the second lens are also parallel

B CONCEPT

Convex Lens and Parallel Beam: A parallel beam of light entering a convex lens converges at
its focal point.

Parallel Beam from Second Lens. For the light emerging from the second lens to be parallel,
the light converging from the first lens must effectively be at the focal point of the second lens

The distance d between the two lenses is the sum of the focal length of the first lens and the
focal length of the second lens.

C FORMULA: not required

D CALCULATION: d=11+12

d = 10 cm + 20cm

d = 30 cm

E ANSWER: option 3. 30 cm

F QUESTION LEVEL: Easy

25)

Solution : 125 cm/sec

26)

Solution : Infinite, Zero

27)

Solution : 1 : 1 : 1

28)
A convergent lens

29)

Solution : 10.5 cm

30) for minimum deviation r1 = r2

so QR must be parallel to base of prism

31)

Equal to refractive index of glass

32) ..... (1)

..... (2)
By solving equation (1) & (2)
f1 = –10 cm, f2 = +15 cm

33) Total Power = +2D

Convex lens Power = +5D = P1
PT = P1 + P2
2D = 5D + P2
P2 = –3D

34) No change in focal length, half part of lens can make complete image but with half
intensity

35)

Statement-1 if false, Statement-2 is true

36)

Solution: Zero
 37)

Solution: 45°

38)

39)

40)

Solution : P

41)

Solution : 32 cm

42)

Angular magnification of telescope is 20. So tree appears to the observer is 20 times nearer.

43)

Solution : f/2

44)

45)

Virtual, erect, diminished

CHEMISTRY

46)

concept :- rate Law

Solution :- rate expression

- 4K = k1 ⇒ k1 = 4k
Option :- 3
47)

Concept:

A. For a reversible reaction, the net rate is the difference between the forward and reverse
rates.

B. The forward rate is given by k₁[A].

C. The reverse rate is given by k₂[B].

D. The net rate is: Rate = Forward Rate - Reverse Rate

Mathematical Calculation:

A. Forward rate: Rateforward = k₁[A]

B. Reverse rate: Ratereverse = k₂[B]

C. Net rate: Ratenet = Rateforward - Ratereverse

D. Ratenet = k₁[A] - k₂[B]

Final Answer:

The rate of the reaction is given by k₁[A] - k₂[B].

Correct Option: (4)

Question Level:

Easy

48) for 1st order

t1/2 is independent of [A]

49) As t75% = 2 × t50%, the order of the reaction is one, A is a first order reaction.

50)
51)

r= = 3 × 10–5 × [N2O5]
⇒ 2.4 × 10–5 = 3 × 10–5 × [N2O5]
⇒ [N2O5] = 0.8

52)

log k = log A –

Þ A = 106 s–1 ; = 2000

Ea = = 38.3 kJ/mol

53) (1) A + 2B → C + D

54)

r1 = r2 = r3

55)

III only

56)

(a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order

57)

a=1b=1

58)

59)

Conceptual

60)
3 years

61)

62)

40 min

63)

Conceptual

64)

8 times

65)

r = k[A]2[B]–1
If [A] & [B] are doubled
r' = k[2A]2[2B]–1
r' = 2r

66) Rate = K[A]α [B]β ....(a)

α β
2 × Rate = K[2A] [B] .... (b)
3 × Rate = K|A]α [9B]β ....(c)
From equation (a) and (b) α = 1

From equation (a) and (c)

Order α + β =

67)

All of the above

68)

second order

69)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to determine the overall order of a reaction
based on the given reaction mechanism involving multiple steps, including a fast equilibrium
and a slow rate-determining step.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves the concept of reaction mechanisms and how to
determine the overall reaction order from the rate-determining step. It also uses the idea of a
pre-equilibrium approximation to express the concentration of an intermediate species in
terms of the reactants.

Relevant Formulas: The key formulas are: 1. Equilibrium constant for the fast step:

2. Concentration of intermediate: 3. Rate law for the slow step:

Combining these gives: where .

Step-by-Step Calculation: Starting with the slow step as rate-determining, the rate law is:

The intermediate P concentration is from the fast equilibrium step:

Substituting [P] into the rate expression:

Therefore, the overall order is with respect to and 1 with respect to , totaling 1.5.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the slow step controls the rate and intermediates formed in
fast equilibrium can be related back to initial reactants using equilibrium constants. Partial
orders can add up to non-integer overall orders.

Common Mistakes: Ignoring the pre-equilibrium step and treating the intermediate
concentration as independent; not taking the square root when expressing the intermediate
concentration; assuming the overall order equals the stoichiometric coefficients of the
reaction.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers like 2 or 1 assume all species appear directly
in the rate law without considering the pre-equilibrium step. An order of 0 would suggest no
dependence on reactants, which contradicts the mechanism.

70)

Unit of k for first order reaction is Ms–1

71)

16 min

72) Question Explanation:

We are asked to find the units of the rate constant (k) for an n order reaction.
th
Given:
Order of reaction = n

Concept:
For an nth order reaction:

Calculation:

Find units of k =
Correct option: (3)

73)

1–y

74)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which among the given chemical reactions is an
example of a pseudo first order reaction. In simpler terms, it wants to identify reactions that
appear to follow first order kinetics despite involving more than one reactant, because the
concentration of one reactant remains effectively constant.

Underlying Concept: A pseudo first order reaction involves two or more reactants, but one
reactant is present in large excess such that its concentration doesn't change significantly
during the reaction. This makes the rate appear to depend on only one reactant, simplifying
the kinetics to first order.

Relevant Formulas: The rate law for a reaction with two reactants A and B is usually:

If B is in large excess, , so: where . This is a

pseudo first order rate law.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that when the solvent or catalyst is in large excess, it can be
treated as constant, simplifying the rate expression.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all reactions with multiple reactants must have higher order
kinetics and not recognizing when one reactant's concentration is effectively constant.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Decomposition of NH₃ on hot Pt surface is zero order
and does not fit the definition of pseudo first order; so it's not an example. The problem
focuses on kinetics appearing first order due to excess reactant, which does not apply to zero
order reactions.
75) x = kt
a = kt For completion (x = a)

t=

76)

1. Question Explanation:

The question asks us to calculate the time required for a zero-order reaction to reach 87.5%
completion, given its half-life.

2. Given Data:

A. Half-life (t1/2) = 40 seconds

B. Percentage completion = 87.5%

3. Concept:

A. The rate constant (k) for a zero-order reaction is related to the half-life by the equation:
t1/2 = [A]0 / 2k, where [A]0 is the initial concentration.

B. For a zero-order reaction: [A] = [A]₀ - kt, where [A] is the concentration at time t.

4. Mathematical Calculation:

A. t1/2 = [A]0/2k ; therefore k = [A]0/80

A. [A]t = [A]0 - kt

B. 0.125[A]0 = [A]0 - [A]0t/80

C. t/80 = 1 - 0.125

D. t/80 = 0.875

E. t = 80 0.875 = 70.

5. Final Answer:

The time for 87.5% completion is 70 seconds.

6. Question Level: Easy

77)

48 min

78)

79)

t1/2 =

80)

81)

Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasing activation energy and increasing
temperature

82)

threshold energy = activation energy + energy possessed by reacting species

83) NCERT Pg # 112 (2013)

84)

A = 1015 and E = 1.9 × 104 KJ

85)
 60 kJ mol–1

86)

–Ea/R

87)

5.2 × 10–2 M sec–1

88)

89)

T = t1/2 × n

∴ n= =4

90)

R is Rydberg constant

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 118

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 83

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 83

94)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 120

95) Testes in frog are elongated or avoid light yellow body, attached to upper part of kidney by
double fold of peritoneum called ‘mesorchium’.
 96)

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)Both (A) and (R) are True
and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

97)

Ventral to the rectum which also opens in the cloaca.

98)

Nasal epithelium and taste buds

99) NCERT Pg. # 112,113,114 Para # 3,4,5 and 9

100)

Tongue

101)

A–Vasa efferentia, B–Testis, C–Adrenal gland, D–Fat bodies, E–Kidney

102) NEW NCERT 12 Pg-153

103) New NCERT Page # 157,150

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 181, 182, 183

105) Concept : This question examines the effects of organic pollution, specifically from
sewage, on a lake ecosystem. It touches on eutrophication, oxygen depletion, and the impact
on aquatic life.

Explanation:

A. Eutrophication: The sewage also introduces nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus into the
lake. These nutrients can trigger excessive growth of algae (algal bloom). While initially, this
might seem like increased production, the algal bloom eventually dies.

Final Answer : option (3). Death of fish due to lack of oxygen

106)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks which option among aquatic plants, microorganisms,
penicillin, and fishes is used to purify sewage water.

Underlying Concept: Sewage water contains organic waste and pollutants that need to be
treated before it can be safely released into the environment. Microorganisms such as bacteria
decompose biodegradable organic matter in sewage through biological processes, effectively
purifying the water. This process is commonly used in sewage treatment plants.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that microorganisms are widely used in biodegradation and
waste treatment processes.

Common Mistakes: Confusing penicillin (an antibiotic) with organisms that purify water, or
assuming fishes can clean sewage water effectively.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Aquatic plants and fishes may live in water but do not
biologically break down sewage organic matter efficiently. Penicillin is an antibiotic and does
not have a role in sewage purification.

107)

There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves.

108)

50% – 70% methane

109)

Dung and water mainly

110)

Fermentation by bacteria and production of CO2.

111) Ncert Page 182.

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

113) NEW NCERT 12 Pg-153

114) NEW NCERT 12 Pg-151

115)

(a), (c) & (d)

116)

Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

117)

(A) is true but (R) is false

118)

NCERT XII Page # 155

119)

NCERT XII Page # 152

120)

Masses of aerobic microbes and fungal filaments

121)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

122)

Activated sludge

123)

Both (a) & (b)

124)

Integrated Pest Management

125)

Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation to A

126)
Involves microbial digestion of organic matter

127)

C&D

128) NCERT page: 156

129) NCERT page: 152

130) NCERT page: 152

131) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 181

132)

NCERT Pg. No. # 187

133) Allen module

134)

OLD NCERT-XII, Pg. # 188

135)

OLD NCERT-XII, Pg. # 184

136)

Solution: 3

137)

All of these are correct

138) NCERT Pg. # 233

139) NCERT Pg. # 237

140) NCERT Pg. # 236

141) NCERT Pg. # 236

142)

(1) and (3) Both

143)

Parasite

144)

Tendency of organisms to avoid competition

145) NCERT-XII Page No. #235, 238

146) NCERT Pg # 235

147)

NCERT Pg # 234, 235

148)

Symbiotic relationship

149)

Predator is an organism that catches and kills & eat other organism for food.

150) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 335

151)

Bitter taste/distastful

152)

153)

Exponential growth
154)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which mathematical equation or expression

correctly represents exponential growth (also called geometric growth) in a population or
system. It provides several options and wants to identify the correct representation.

Underlying Concept: Exponential growth refers to a process where the quantity increases at
a rate proportional to its current size. In biology and other sciences, this models populations
that grow continuously without limiting factors. Geometric growth is similar but often refers to
discrete time steps. The key idea is that the rate of growth depends directly on the current
amount.

Relevant Formulas: The core formula for exponential growth is: \[ \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \]
where: - is the size of the population or quantity, - is time, - is the intrinsic growth rate (a
constant).
This expresses that the rate of change of with respect to time is proportional to itself.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that exponential growth involves multiplication or continuous
compounding, not simple addition or subtraction of births, deaths, immigrations, and
emigrations.

Common Mistakes: Mistaking linear population change models (which add or subtract
individuals) for exponential growth, which involves growth proportional to the existing
population.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The equation calculates

population size by adding births and immigration and subtracting deaths and emigration at
discrete intervals, representing linear growth, not exponential. It does not express growth as
proportional to the current population , so it is not exponential growth.

155)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to identify what the term represents in the
logistic growth equation of a population.

Underlying Concept: The core concept here is logistic population growth, which models how
populations grow in an environment with limited resources. The equation incorporates the
idea of a carrying capacity , which limits growth, and environmental resistance, which slows
growth as the population nears this limit.

Relevant Formulas: The logistic growth equation is given by:

\[ \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right) \]
where: - is the current population size, - is the intrinsic rate of natural increase, - is the
carrying capacity, - represents the environmental resistance that reduces growth as
approaches .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that in logistic growth, population growth rate decreases as
resources become limited, which is mathematically captured by the fraction .

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to confuse with carrying capacity itself or the
intrinsic growth rate . It is actually the factor representing environmental resistance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: - Carrying capacity is the maximum sustainable
population, not the fraction . - Intrinsic rate of natural increase describes how fast a
population can grow without constraints. - Biotic potential combined with environmental
resistance refers to the overall growth dynamics, not specifically to .

156)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to match different population trends-whether a

population is increasing, decreasing, or stable-with the correct mathematical relationship
involving birth rate (B), death rate (D), emigration (E), and immigration (I).

Underlying Concept: Population dynamics describe how populations change over time due to
births, deaths, immigration, and emigration. The overall population increases if more
individuals are added than lost, decreases if more are lost than added, and remains stable if
the additions and losses are equal.

Relevant Formulas: The key formula for population change is:

Where: - = Birth rate - = Death rate - = Immigration - = Emigration

Step-by-Step Calculation: By comparing with : - If , the population is

increasing. - If , the population is decreasing. - If , the population is
stable.
Hence, the matching is: (a) Population is increasing - (iii) (b) Population is
decreasing - (ii) (c) Population is stable - (i)

Tips and Tricks: Remember to always group additions together (birth + immigration) and
subtractions together (death + emigration) before comparing.

Common Mistakes: One common mistake is mixing the terms or forgetting to include
immigration and emigration alongside births and deaths when determining population change.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Any match where population increase aligns with
or population decrease aligns with is logically incorrect because it
would imply the population grows while losses exceed gains or shrinks while gains exceed
losses.

157)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what the variable 'r' represents in the equation
describing exponential population growth.

Underlying Concept: In biology, exponential population growth models how populations

increase under ideal conditions. The rate 'r' indicates how fast the population grows, factoring
in birth and death rates.

Relevant Formulas: The exponential growth equation is given by where: - is the

population size, - is the rate of change of the population, - is the intrinsic rate of natural
increase, calculated as , with being birth rate and death rate.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that 'intrinsic rate of natural increase' is often symbolized by ,
and it's calculated as birth rate minus death rate ( ).

Common Mistakes: Confusing 'r' with just birth rate or death rate alone; neglecting that it
represents the net difference between birth and death rates.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing only 'Birth rate' ignores death rate influence;
selecting only '(b - d)' without recognizing that it defines the intrinsic rate is incomplete;
hence, 'Both (1) and (2)' is correct since they describe the same concept.

158)

Tree ecosystem

159)

NCERT Page no 241

160)

NCERT Page no 245

161)

Dependent herbivoures will have to find new food resources

162)

Inverted

163)

Pond ecosystem

164)

Energy flow is the structural attributes of biotic community.

165)

Sun

166)

Primary producers are more numerous than primary consumers

167)

Frog

168)

2° productivity

169)

Food chain will affected

170)

Catabolism

171)

Fast humification and slow mineralisation.

172)

PAR

173)
1–5%

174)

GPP

175)

Detritus food chain

176)

Both (1) and (2)

177)

Pyramid of tree ecosystem on the basis of number

178) NCERT XIIth Pg.#248

179)

Rabbit

180)

Grass land ecosystem