09-07-2025

6001CMD30303325001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2).
The angle of minimum deviation is :-

(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 90° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A

2) In a laboratory four convex lenses L1, L2, L3, and L4 of focal lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8cm respectively
are available. Two of these lenses form a telescope of length 10cm and magnifying power 4. The
objective and eye lenses are

(1) L2, L3
(2) L1, L4
(3) L3, L2
(4) L4, L1

3) Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) and (ii) as shown in the figure. Let
be the focal length of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii),
respectively Choose the correct statement from the following:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) A small telescope has objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5 cm. What
is the maximum magnifying power of the telescope?

(1) 28
(2) 32
(3) 39.3
(4) 33.6

6) The magnifying power of telescope for normal adjustment is 50 and the separation between the
two lenses is 204 cm then the focal length of both lenses are

(1) f0 = 50 cm fe = 4 cm
(2) f0 =100 cm fe = 4 cm
(3) f0 = 200 cm fe = 4 cm
(4) f0 = 4 cm fe = 200 cm

7) A telescope consist of an objective lens of focal length 30 cm and eye lens of focal length 2.5 cm.
If the distant object subtends an angle of 0.5° at objective then the angular width of the final image
formed at infinite is :

(1) 3°
(2) 6°
(3) 1.5°
(4) 0.5°

8) An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact has a power of +2D. The convex lens
has power +5D. What is the ratio of the dispersive powers of the convergent and divergent lenses?

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 3 : 5
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 5 : 3

9) Two lenses of focal length + 10 cm and - 15 cm when put in contact behave like a convex lens.
They will have zero longitudinal chromatic aberration if their dispersive powers are in the ratio

(1) + 3/2
(2) + 2/3
(3) – 3/2
(4) –2/3
10) The focal length of field achromatic combination of a telescope is 90 cm. The dispersive powers
of lenses are 0.024 and 0.036 respectively. Their focal lengths will be

(1) 30 cm and 60 cm
(2) 45 cm and 90 cm
(3) 15 cm and 45 cm
(4) 30 cm and –45 cm

11) For the two position of a single conversing lens we are getting image at the screen. What is focal

length of lens :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 25 cm

12) A biconvex lens of radius of curvature 20 m and of refractive index , is kept at 60 m in front of a

point object 'O'. There is water is other side of lens as given diagram. (R. I. of water µw = ). The
distance between object and its final image will be :-

(1) 80 m
(2) 140 m
(3) 160 m
(4) 60 m

13) A doctor advises a patient to use spectacles with a convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact
with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. What is the power of the resultant combination–

(1) 1.5 D
(2) –1.5 D
(3) 6.5 D
(4) –6.5 D

14) Two lenses of power +10 D and –5 D are placed in contact. Where should an object be held from
the lens, so as a obtain a virtual image of magnification 2 ?

(1) 5 cm
(2) –5 m
(3) 10 cm
(4) –10 cm

15) As shown in figure, a convergent lens is placed inside a cell filed with liquid. The lens has focal
length +20 cm when in air, and its material has refractive index 1.50. If the liquid has refractive

index 1.60, the focal length of the system :-

(1) +80 cm
(2) –80 cm
(3) –24 cm
(4) –100 cm

16) If parallel light is going back parallel as shown in the diagram with help of concave mirror of
focal length 12 cm placed at a distance of 60 cm from the lens, what is the focal length of the lens:

(1) 13cm
(2) 36cm
(3) 38cm
(4) 24cm

17) A double convex lens is made of glass which has its refractive index 1.55 for violet rays and 1.50
for red rays. If the focal length for violet rays is 20 cm, the focal length for red rays will be :-

(1) 9 cm
(2) 18 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 20.66 cm

18) A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along
the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as
a parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be :-
(1) 25
(2) 15
(3) 50
(4) 30

19) If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure :-

(1) No image will be formed by the remaining portion of the lens

(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens

20) An object placed 10 cm in front of a lens has an image 20 cm behind the lens. What is the power
of the lens (in dioptre) ?

(1) 1.5
(2) 3.0
(3) –5.0
(4) +15.0

21) What should be the value of distance d so that final image is formed on the object itself. (focal

lengths of the lenses are written on the lenses).

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) None of these

22) A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. For a point object

placed on its axis, the number of images formed are

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

23) The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens is

(1) 1.5 f
(2) 2 f
(3) 2.5 f
(4) 4 f

24)

Radius of curvature is R. Value of x is :-

(1)

(2) µ2R

(3)

(4) µ1R

25)

What is the size of image :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 10 cm

26)

Radius of the glass sphere is 10 cm and CO = 4 cm. Find apparent depth of sphere.
(1) 4 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 7 cm

27) After refraction through the curved surface the image of the converging beam is formed at :-

(1) x = 40 cm
(2) x = 40/3 cm
(3) x = – 40/3 cm
(4) x = 20 cm

28) A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is
combined with another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces
dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be :-

(1) 4°
(2) 6°
(3) 8°
(4) 10°

29) A thin Prism P1 with angle 4° and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin Prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without
deviation. The angle of Prism P2 is :

(1) 5.33°
(2) 4°
(3) 3°
(4) 2.6°

30) A thin prism P1 with angle 4o & refractive index 1.54 is combined with another prism P2 of
refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of prism P2 is :-
(1) 5.33o
(2) 4o
(3) 2.6o
(4) 3o

31) A prism has a refractive index and refracting angle 90°. Find the minimum deviation

produced by the prism :-

(1) 40°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 49°

32) A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one face of a prism of angle 30°. The emergent ray
of light makes an angle of 30° with incident ray. The angle made by emergent ray with second face
of prism will be:-

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) 30°

33) A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface of water, the radius of the
circle in centimeter is:

12×3×
(1)

(2)

12×3×
(3)

(4)
34) A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface at an angle i, it emerges finally parallel to

the surface of water, then the value of μg would be :-

(1) (4/3) sin i

(2) 1/sin i
(3) 4/3
(4) 1

35) Find the position of the final image after two successive reflection, taking the first reflection on

M1.

(1) Final image is 40 cm left from pole of M2 mirror.

(2) Final image is 30 cm left from pole of M2 mirror.
(3) Final image is 20 cm left from pole of M2 mirror.
(4) Final image is 10 cm left from pole of M2 mirror.

36) An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when
viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm)
of the slab is :-

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 10

37) A coin is placed bottom of a filled tank with water at a distance of 40 cm. If a person want to see

the coin from air than what will be the normal shift of a coin :-

(1) 30
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) None of these
38) The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of
prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum
deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water (μ = 4/3). The focal length of the
mirror in water will be

(1) f

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) What is the time taken (in seconds), to cross a glass of thickness 4 mm and µ = 3, by light ?

(1) 4 × 10–11
(2) 2 × 10–11
(3) 16 × 10–11
(4) 8 × 10–10

41) A light ray is incident at an angle of 45° on one face of a glass slab of thickness 10 cm and
refractive index 3/2 calculate the lateral shift produced (Given sin 28° = 0.471, cos 28° = 0.88,
sin17° = 0.29)

(1) 0.33 m
(2) 0.45 cm
(3) 0.033 m
(4) 0.045 m

42) A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the
lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is:-

(1) +20D
(2) +5D
(3) infinity
(4) +2D

43) A 4.5 cm needle is placed perpendicular to principal axis 12 cm away from a convex mirror of
focal length 15 cm. Find the location of the image and the magnification.
(1)
5.5cm,
6.7cm,
(2)

(3)
5.5cm,
6.7cm,
(4)

44) Radius of curvature of concave mirror is 30 cm. Position of image will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A microscope has an objective of focal length 1.5cm and an eye-piece of focal length 2.5cm. If
the distance between objective and eye-piece is 25cm, what is the approximate value of
magnification produced for relaxed eye ?

(1) 75
(2) 110
(3) 140
(4) 25

CHEMISTRY

1) The unit of rate of reaction and rate constant are same for

(1) Third order reaction

(2) Second order reaction
(3) First order reaction
(4) Zero order reaction
2) Differential form of the rate equation is :

which statement about the above equation is wrong?

(1) Order with respect to P is one

(2) Total order of the reaction is two
(3) Order with respect to each of Q and R is 0.5
(4) Unit of specific reaction rate is mol L–1s–1

3) For the chemical reaction – = k[A]2, the unit for rate constant is :-

(1) time
(2) minute–1
(3) s–1 mol–1 litre+1
(4) minute–1 mol–1 litre–1

4) It is observed for the reaction

2A + B → Product, that
The order of the reaction is two with respect to A and zero with respect to B. If the concentration of
each species is increased four times. Then rate becomes :-

(1) 64 times
(2) 16 times
(3) 256 times
(4) 4 times

5) The rate law for any gaseous reaction is K[A] [B]2. If the volume of container becomes thrice of
initial volume suddenly then rate of reaction will be how many times then initial rate?

(1) 9 times

(2)
times
(3) 27 times

(4)
times

6) Which is false about rate constant :-

(1) It's value depends on temperature

(2) It's value changes when catalyst is introduced in the reaction
(3) It's value does not depends on concentration
(4) Decreases on increasing temperature

7) For the single step reaction : A + 2B → product,

The differential rate equation is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The half life period of a first order reaction is 55 days. How much time it will take to go upto
99.9% completion :-

(1) 550 days

(2) 350 days
(3) 275 days
(4) 175 days

9) The rate constant for a first order reaction whose half life is 480 sec:

(1) 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1

(2) 1.44 × sec–1
(3) 0.72 × 10–3 sec–1
(4) 2.88 × 10–3 sec–1

10) Which of the following expressions is correct for zero order and first order reactions respectively
(where a is initial concentration) ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) Half life of first order reaction is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) 99% completion of a first order reaction takes place in 32 min. The time taken in 99.9%
completion of the reaction will be :-
(1) 48 min
(2) 52 min
(3) 56 min
(4) 44 min

13)

For a first order reaction value of rate constant (k) is 1.386 s–1. Time required for 75% completion of
reaction is :

(1) 0.50 sec

(2) 0.75 sec
(3) 1.00 sec
(4) 2.50 sec

14) For a reaction, activation energy and the rate constant at 200K is The rate
constant at 400K will be-
[Given : gas constant ]

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Out of the following which is zeroth order reaction?

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order reaction is :-
(a is initial concentration of reactant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ak

17) For the reaction , the order of reaction is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

18) For a given reaction, the overall enthalpy change is +100 kJ/mol and activation energy of the
reverse reaction is +200 kJ/mol. The activation energy for the forward reaction would be :-

(1) +300 kJ/mol

(2) +200 kJ/mol
(3) +0.100 kJ/mol
(4) +100 kJ/mol

19) The activation energy for forward and backward reaction in case of a chemical reaction are 30.5
and 40.5 kJ/mol respectively. The reation is

(1) Endothermic
(2) Exothermic
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither exothermic nor endothermic

20) What is the threshold energy of a reaction (R → P) is represented diagram ?

(1) 50
(2) 18
(3) 32
(4) 20

21) The reaction of A2 and B2 follows the equation

A2(g) + B2(g) → 2AB(g)

exp. [A2] [B2] R.O.R.

1 0.10 0.10 2.5 × 10–4

2 0.20 0.10 5 × 10–4

3 0.20 0.20 10 × 10–4

Find rate flow :

0
(1) r = k[A]1 [B]
0
(2) r = k[A] [B]1
(3) r = k[A]1 [B]1
 0
(4) r = k[A]2 [B]

22) The hypothetical reaction

P2 + Q2 → 2PQ
follows mechanism is given below :-
(i) P2 ⇌ P + P (fast)
(ii) P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
(iii) P + Q → PQ (fast)
order of reaction is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 0

23) Which of these does not influence the rate of reaction?

(1) Nature of the reactants

(2) Concentration of the reactants
(3) Temperature of the reaction
(4) Molecularity of the reaction

24) The half life of radioisotope is 2 hrs after 8 hrs the remaining amount of radioisotope is 0.02 g.
Find initial mass.

(1) 0.2 g
(2) 0.3 g
(3) 0.16 g
(4) 0.32 g

25) For an elementary reaction

A + B → C + D the molecularity is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Unpredictable

26) 93.75% of a first order reaction was found to complete in 20 min when will 50% of the same
reaction complete.

(1) 5 min
(2) 10 min
(3) 6.33 min
(4) 2 min

27) In a zero-order reaction for every 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become :

(1) 256 times

(2) 512 times
(3) 64 times
(4) 128 times

28) Consider the plots, given below, for the types of reaction : nA → B + C

Here plots respecitvely correspond to the reaction order :

(1) 0, 1, 2
(2) 1, 2, 0
(3) 1, 0, 2
(4) None of these

29) The rate constant of nth order has unit :

(1) litre1–n mol1–n sec–1

(2) mol1–n litren–1 sec–1
(3)
(4) mol1–n litren–1 sec

30) For Arrhenius equation when a graph is plotted between log K vs slope obtained is –0.5. The
activation energy is given by

(1) 5.9 cal

(2) 7.9 cal
(3) 1.2 cal
(4) 2.3 cal

31) The acidic hydrolysis of ester is –

(1) Psuedo Ist order reaction

(2) IInd order reaction
(3) Trimolecular reaction
(4) All of the above

32) The rate constant of the reaction is If the concentration of A is 5M,

then concentration of B after 20 min is:-
(1) 0.36 M
(2) 0.72 M
(3) 1.08 M
(4) 3.60 M

33) Consider the reaction : 2N2O4 ⇌ 4NO2.

If – k and then

(1) 2k' = k
(2) k' = 2k
(3) k' = k

(4)
k=

34) A → B, ΔH = – 10 kJ mol–1, Ea = 50 kJ mol–1 then Ea of B → A will be :

(1) 40 kJ mol–1
(2) 50 kJ mol–1
(3) – 50 kJ mol–1
(4) 60 kJ mol–1

35) Molecularity of a reaction -

(1) Is always whole number

(2) Cannot be less than 2
(3) Can have a fractional value
(4) Can be zero

36) Which of the following explains the increase of the reaction rate by catalyst -

(1) Catalyst decreases the rate of backward reaction so that the rate of forward reaction increases
(2) Catalyst provides extra energy to reacting molecules so that they may reduce effective collisions
(3) Catalyst provides an alternative path of lower activation energy to the reactants
(4) Catalyst increases the number of collisions between the reacting molecules.

37) The plot of log k vs.1/T yields a straight line. The slope of the line would be equal to -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
38) Statement-I :- Order of the reaction is determined experimentally.
Statement-II :- A balanced chemical equation never gives a true picture of how a reaction takes
place except a reaction gets completed in one step.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

39) Assertion : Rate law is expression in which reaction rate is given in terms of molar
concentration of reactants with each term raised to some power, which may or may not be same as
the stoichiometric coefficient of the reacting species in a balanced chemical equation
Reason : Rate law is a experimental Law.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

40) In a reaction, the threshold energy is equal to -

(1) Activation energy

(2) Activation energy - normal energy of reactants
(3) Activation energy + normal energy of reactants
(4) Normal energy of reactants

41) In the following reaction, how is the rate of appearance of the underlined product related to the
rate of disappearance of the underlined reactant

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

42) Activation energy of a reaction is :-

(1) The energy released during the reaction

(2) The energy evolved when activated complex is formed.
(3) Minimum extra amount of energy needed to overcome the potential barrier of reaction
(4) The energy needed to form 1 mole of the product

43) The chemical reactions in which reactants require high amount of activation energy are
generally -
(1) Slow
(2) Fast
(3) Instantaneous
(4) Spontaneous

44) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A): A reaction can have zero activation energy
Reasons (R) : The minimum extra amount of
energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is
called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

45) Order of reaction can be :-

(1) Zero
(2) Fraction
(3) Whole number
(4) All the above

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is not an example of population ?

(1) All the crows in an area

(2) All [Link] in a culture plate
(3) Tree in forest
(4) All the lotus plants in a pond

2) In this equation K represent:

(1) Carrying capacity

(2) Environmental resistance
(3) Rate of change in population density
(4) Intrinsic rate of growth

3) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately ________.

(1) 190 billion tons

(2) 160 billion tons
(3) 170 billion tons
(4) 150 billion tons

4) Choose incorrect statement from the following :-

(a) GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem.
(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not sun.
(c) Detritus food chain may be connected to grazing food chain
(d) In grazing food chain, size of organism commonly decreases at higher level.

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) c only
(4) d only

5) Which of the following pyramid is generally suitable for the biomass in a sea ecosystem ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Decomposition rate will be slower if the detritus is rich in :-

(1) Sugars
(2) Lignin
(3) Water soluble substance
(4) Nitrogen

7) Major conduit of energy in land and aquatic ecosystem respectively is ________.

(1) GFC, DFC

(2) PFC, GFC
(3) DFC, GFC
(4) GFC, GFC

8) Which of the following is correct ?

(A) Organism placed on second trophic level are carnivores, and are called secondary consumers.
(B) Detritus food chain begins from death of organism.
(C) Members of grazing food chain can also be the members of detritus food chain.
(D) Ecosystem are exempt of second law of thermodynamics.

(1) B, C, D
(2) A and D
(3) B and C
(4) A, B, C, D

9) The given ecological pyramid represents pyramid of energy in the ecosystem. What must be the
amount of energy present at x, y and z :

(1) X = 50,000 J, Y = 5000 J, Z = 5 J

(2) X = 50,00,000 J, Y = 5000 J, Z = 5 J
(3) X = 5,00,000 J, Y = 5000 J, Z = 5 J
(4) X = 5,000 J, Y = 50000 J, Z = 5 J

10) Match the following :-

A B C D E

(1) Herbivores Detritus Litter Cyclic Linear

(2) Secondary producer Decomposition Litter Linear Cyclic

(3) Tertiary consumer Duff GFC Cyclic Linear

(4) Bacteria Predation Fungi Linear Linear

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Energy transfer from one trophic level to another trophic level in a food chain is :-

(1) 1%
(2) 10%
(3) 2%
(4) 20%
12) Limitation of ecological pyramids is/are :-

(1) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
(2) It assumes a simple food chain, it does not accomodate a food web
(3) Saprophytes are not given any place
(4) All of the above

13) Read the following statements and find the correct answer for A,B,C & D respectively :-
(A) Decomposers break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like CO2, H2O and
nutrient and the process is called....A...
(B) Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark and flowers, dead remain of animals including fecal
matter constitute....B....
(C) Detritivores break down detritus into smaller particles this process is called.....C....
(D) By the process of ....D.... water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts.

A B C D

1 Fragmentation Detritus Decomposition Leaching

2 Decomposition Detritus Fragmentation Leaching

3 Decomposition Detritus Leaching Fragmentation

4 Decomposition Leaching Detritus Fragmentation

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14)

In deep sea hydrothermal ecosystems, producers are:-

(1) Chemoautotrophs
(2) Chemoheterotrophs
(3) Photoautotrophs
(4) Photoheterotrophs

15) Which of the following is not a function of ecosystem?

(1) Energy Flow

(2) Productivity
(3) Stratification
(4) Decomposition

16) Leaching is one of the important step of decomposition. During leaching, which of the following
nutrient go down into the soil horizon ?
(1) Water soluble inorganic substance only
(2) Water insoluble inorganic substances only
(3) Water soluble organic substances only
(4) Detritus

17) Logistic growth and exponential growth formula are respectively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Association in which the fitness of one species is singificantly lower in the presence of another
species known as :

(1) Competition
(2) Amensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Predation

19) In logistic growth, a population growing in a habitat with limited resources shows initially a
...A... , followed by phase of ...B... then ...C... and finally an ...D... , when the population density
reaches the carrying capacity.
Select correct option and make the sentence a correct sense.

A B C D

1 Lag phase Acceleration Deceleration Asymptote

2 Acceleration Deceleration Asymptote Lag phase

3 Deceleration Lag phase Acceleration Asymptote

4 Asymptote Acceleration Deceleration Lag phase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which of the following are correctly matched pair?

(A) Copepods on marine fishes – Parasitism
(B) Cow mild grazing on grass – Mutualism
(C) Barnacle and whale – Commensalism
(D) Sparrow feeding on seed – Amensalism
(E) Pronuba and Yucca plant – Mutualism

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) B, C, D and E
(3) A, C, D and E
(4) A, C and E

21) 'Niche' of an organism includes :-

(1) A distinct functional role in the ecological system

(2) Diversity in the resources it utilises
(3) Defined range of conditions that it can tolerate
(4) All of the above

22) Below two statements are given

Statement-I :- An individual may have birth and death but a population has birth rates and death
rate.
Statement-II :- The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

23) Choose incorrect match from given population growth curve :-

(1)

(2) B → Carrying capacity

(3) C → More realistic curve

(4)

24) A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250,
average mortality 240, immigration 20, emigration 30. The net increase in population is:

(1) 05
(2) Zero
(3) 10
(4) 15

25) Assertion : The shape of the age pyramids reflects the growth status of the population.
Reason : Upright pyramid shows population is declining.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Assertion (A) :– Population size for any species is not a static parameter.
Reason (R) :– Population size keep changing with the time depending on various factors including
food availability, predation pressure, and reduced weather.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) Assertion : No population of any species in nature, has at its disposal unlimited resources to
permit exponential growth.
Reason : In S-shaped growth form, the population become abruptly crash after attaining a peak
value.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

28) Mark True (T) and False (F) for the given statements.
Statement I : The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs 'sexual deceit' to get pollination done by a
species of bumble bee.
Statement II : Pacific Salmon fish and Bamboo breed only once in their lifetime.

(1) Statement I is true and statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false and statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true and statement II is true
(4) Statement I is false and statement II is false

29) Refer the given table that summarizes the interactions between two organisms (organism 1 and
organism 2). Identify the types of interaction (A, B and C) and select the correct answer.

Effects on Organism 2
 No
Benefit Harm
Effect
Effects
Mutua-
on Benefit Predation B
lism
Organ-
Com- Amen-
ism Harm A
petition salism
1
No
Commen-salism C –
Effect
(i) A can be either predation or parasitism.
(ii) B can be amensalism.
(iii) C can be amensalism.
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii)

30) If a pond have 100 Lotus plants in it, through reproduction 40 new plants are added in a year,
than find out birth rate of Lotus plant ?

(1) 0.2 offspring per lotus per year

(2) 0.3 offspring per lotus per year
(3) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year
(4) 0.5 offspring per lotus per year

31) Assertion : Fig tree and fig wasp show mutualism.

Reason : Fig wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence and fig tree provides suitable egg-laying sites.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

32) Assertion : Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on ability
of the predator to control prey.
Reason : Predators help in maintaining species diversity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
33)

(1) A - Representing mutualism

(2) B - Showing Gause competitive exclusion principle
(3) C - showing resources partitioning
(4) D - showing commensalism

34) Which adaptation of parasite do not help to sustain their life in host body ?

(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organ

(2) Presence of adhesive organ or suckers to cling the host
(3) Loss of digestive system
(4) Low reproductive capacity

35) The interaction is detrimental to both the species, in

(1) Predation
(2) Commensalism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Competition

36) Co-evolution can be seen in which type of interaction?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Both 1 and 3

37) On removing superior species, range of distribution of inferior species become expanded. This is
called as :-

(1) Competitive exclusion

(2) Competitive release
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Interference competition

38) Interactions between Cuckoo and crow is an example of :-

(1) Hyper parasitism

(2) Brood parasitism
(3) Holo parasite
(4) Hemi parasite

39) Assertion : Cuscuta is a parasitic plant that is commonly found growing on hedge plants.
Reason : It lost its chlorophyll, leaves and derive its nutrition from host plant.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) Sum total of biotic and abiotic factors that do not allow a population to achieve its maximum
biotic potential is:

(1)
Represented by
(2) Called carrying capacity
(3) Known as environmental resistance
Represented as
(4)

41) The term ecosystem was coined by ____.

(1) Odum
(2) Tansley
(3) [Link]
(4) Warming

42) NPP is equal to

(1) GPP + R
(2) GPP – R
(3) GPP × R
(4)

43) Which of the following pyramid is always upright?

(1) Energy
(2) Biomass
(3) Number
(4) All of these

44) The functional aspect of ecosystem can be explained in terms of

(1) Productivity
(2) Decomposition and energy flow
(3) Nutrient cycling
(4) All of these

45) Rate of biomass production is expressed interms of ______

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

46) Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

(1) Vitamin D
(2) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin B12
(4) Vitamin E

47) Assertion :- Large holes are present in 'swiss cheese'.

Reason :- Large amount of CO2 is produced by Propionibacterium sharmanii.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

48) Assertion :- The type of the gas produced depends upon the microbes and the organic
substrates they utilise.
Reason :- Biogas contains only one gas produced by the microbial activity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

49) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: Antibiotics have helped us in controlling infectious diseases like Diphtheria,
Whooping cough and Pneumonia.
Statement B: Lactic acid bacteria is involved in formation of curd.
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

50)

The given figure shows the sewage treatment with few steps are marked as 1, 2, 3, and 4. In which
of the following options, correct word for all the four numbers (1, 2, 3 and 4) are indicated.

(1) 1 - Large aeration tanks, 2 - Chemical agitation, 3 - High, 4 - Anaerobic

(2) 1 - Large aeration tanks, 2 - Mechanical agitation, 3 - Low, 4 - Anaerobic
(3) 1 - Large aeration tanks, 2 - Chemical agitation, 3 - Low, 4 - Aerobic
(4) 1 - Large aeration tanks, 2 - Mechanical agitation, 3 - High, 4 - Anaerobic

51) Which one is not used as biocontrol agent?

(1) Trichoderma
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Baculoviruses
(4) Cyanobacteria

52) The ladybird beetle and dragonflies are useful to get rid of _______ and ______ respectively.

(1) Caterpillars and mosquitoes

(2) Mosquitoes and fruit borer
(3) Mosquitoes and aphids
(4) Aphids and mosquitoes

53) The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of

(1) IPM
(2) IARI and KVIC
(3) IRRI
(4) ICAR

54) Bottled juice are clarified by use of :-

(1) Streptokinase
(2) Cyclosporin A
(3) Pectinases, Proteases
(4) Pectin, Protein
55) Commercial extraction of penicillin was done by

(1) Alexander Fleming

(2) Ernest Chain
(3) Howard Florey
(4) More than one option is correct

56) What is the key difference between primary and secondary sewage treatment?

(1) Primary treatment is biological treatment and secondary is physical treatment of sewage.
Primary treatment has activated sludge whereas secondary has supernatant which form
(2)
effluent.
(3) Primary treatment involve aeration tanks, secondary involved filtration and sedimentation.
(4) Primary treatment is physical removal of particles and secondary is biological treatment.

57) Which of the following pair represents microbes used as biofertilisers in paddy field?

(1) Rhizobium and streptococcus

(2) Azotobacter and Glomus
(3) Anabaena and Nostoc
(4) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus

58) The depth of concrete tank of biogas plant in which bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung
is fed is

(1) 10-12 meters

(2) 10-12 feet
(3) 10-15 meters
(4) 10-15 feet

59) The small amount of curd added to the fresh milk to convert it into curd is called

(1) starter
(2) inoculum
(3) implant
(4) both (1) and (2)

60) Trichoderma species are ___A___, ___B___ that are very common in the ___C___ ecosystems.

(1) A–Symbiotic, B–Fungi, C–Root

(2) A–Free living, B–Bacteria, C–Shoot
(3) A–Colonial, B–Algae, C–Root
(4) A–Free living, B–Fungi, C–Root

61) IPM stands for :-

(1) Integrated parasite management.

(2) Internal pest management.
(3) Internal pest mission.
(4) Integrated pest management.

62) Fill up the blanks.

I. Ethanol is produced by .....A..... .
II. Large scale production of beverages in industries is done in very large vessels called ...B.... .
III. Penicillin is discovered by ....C.... .
IV. LAB checks disease causing microbes in ....D.... .
A to D in the above statements refers to

(1) A-virus, B-fermentors, C-Alexander Fleming, D-intestine

(2) A-yeast, B-Fermentors, C-Alexander Fleming, D-stomach
(3) A-bacteria, B-fermentors, C-S Waksman, D-chest
(4) A-bacteria, B-fermentors, C-S Waksman, D-liver

63) The Puffed up appearance of dough is due to-

(1) Growth of LAB

(2) Production of O2 and ethonol
(3) Production of CO2
(4) Growth of yeast monascus

64) Identify the parts labelled A,B & C w.r.t., biogas plant.

A B C

Dung
1) Gas Sludge
water

Gas
2) Gas Digester
holder

Gas Dung
3) Sludge
holder water

Gas Dung
4) Digester
holder water
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) __(A)__ enzyme is used to remove clots from the blood vessels of patients who have undergone
__(B)__ leading to heart attack.

B-Myocardial
(1) A-Streptokinase
infarction

(2) A-Lipases B-Arteriosclerosis

B-Myocardial
(3) A-Amylases
infarction

(4) A-Pectinases B-Atherosclerosis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Given below diagram represents colonies of -

(1) Fungi
(2) Viruses
(3) Bacteria
(4) Bacteriophages

67) Given below is a diagramatic representation of female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B,

C and D : Find out incorrect one :-

(1) There is functional connection between C and kidney.

(2) B is small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and ova to the exterior.
(3) D is one pair arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
(4) A is thin walled urinary bladder is present ventral to rectum which also opens in cloaca.
68) Which of the following act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol ?

(1) Cyclosporin-A
(2) Statins
(3) Penicillin
(4) Streptokinase

69) During the peak summer and winter the frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect them from
extreme heat and cold. This is called as

(1) Summer sleep (aestivation) and winter sleep (hibernation)

(2) Summer sleep (hibernation) and winter sleep (aestivation)
(3) Summer sleep (diapause) and winter sleep (suspend)
(4) Summer sleep (dormancy) and winter sleep (diapause)

70)

Renal portal vein carries blood to

(1) Liver
(2) Kidney
(3) Heart directly
(4) Brain

71) Adult frog is :-

(1) Uricotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Ammonotelic
(4) Guanotelic

72) Male frogs can croak because of the presence of _______

(1) Larger in size

(2) Larger sound box
(3) Stronger
(4) Vocal sacs

73) Name the blank space A, B, C given in the following table :-

Microbes name Commercial product

A Lactic acid

B Cyclosporin-A

Penicillium notatum C
 A-Monascus, B-Trichoderma,
(1)
C-Penicillin
A-Trichoderma, B-Statins,
(2)
C-Penicillin
A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma,
(3)
C-Penicillin
A-Lactobacillus, B-Monascus,
(4)
C-Penicillin

74) Which of the following is incorrect for Rana ?

(1) Sexes are separate

(2) Fertilization is external
(3) Are oviparous and development is indirect
(4) Lacks cloaca

75)

A mature female frog can lay

(1) 2500 to 3000 ova

(2) 25 to 30 ova
(3) 250 to 300 ova
(4) 125 to 130 ova

76)

Fertilised eggs of frog develop into

(1) Adult frogs

(2) Tadpoles
(3) Nymph
(4) Both (1) and (2)

77) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

78) Which of the following bacteria was associated with discovery of penicillin ?

(1) Propionibacterium
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Streptococcus
(4) Staphylococcus
79) Sinus venosus occurs on

(1) Dorsal side of heart and contain mixed blood

(2) Ventral side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(3) Dorsal side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(4) Ventral side of heart and contain mixed blood

80) Number of cranial nerves found in frog :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 20
(4) 24

81) Alcoholic beverages are produced by

(1) Clostridium
(2) Monascus
(3) Penicillium
(4) Saccharomyces

82) Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in :

(1) Male frog

(2) Human males
(3) Human female
(4) Frog’s both males and females

83) In male frog, vasa efferentia enter the kidney and open into

(1) Ureter
(2) Urino genital duct
(3) Cloaca
(4) Bidder’s Canal

84) Bacillus thruringiensis has been used in the preparation of

(1) Bioinsecticide
(2) Bioherbicide
(3) Biofertilizers
(4) Bioweapons

85) Common features of frog is

(1) Show Camouflage

(2) Show Hibernation
(3) Poikilotherms
(4) All of these

86) In frog, the colour of ventral side of body is generally

(1) Olive green

(2) Pale yellow
(3) Dark red
(4) Plant green

87) Bt toxin is produced by a:

(1) Fungus
(2) Bacterium
(3) Virus
(4) Protozoan

88) Which of the following sense organs are not just cellular aggregation around nerve endings but
are well organised :

(1) Sensory papillae

(2) Taste buds and nasal epithelium
(3) Eyes and internal ears
(4) None of these

89) Which part gets reduced in the alimentary canal of frog due to its carnivorous nature :

(1) Oesophagus
(2) Intestine
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Cloaca

90) In gobar gas, what is present in maximum amount

(1) Methane
(2) H2
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) H2S
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 4 2 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 2 2 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 1 3 4 1 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 2 4 1 3 2 1 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 4 3 1 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 2 4 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 4 1 4 2 2 3 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) μ =
∵ μ = cot (A/2)

∴ cot (A/2) =

⇒ cos (A/2) = sin

⇒ 90° – A/2 =
⇒ δm = 180° – 2A

2)

3)

4)

5)

=
= 33.6

6) m = f0 = 50
fe
f0 = 50 fe
Length = f0 + fe = 204
50 fe + fe = 204
fe = 4 cm
f0 = 200 cm

7)

8) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
To find ratio of dispersive power of convex to concave lens.
Concept:
Dispersive power is inversely related with power of lens, power of combination, power of lens.
Format:

Calculation:

Option: (2)

i = 45°
Option: (2)

9) Question Explanation :
To find the ration of depersive power of two lenses of given focal lengths.
Concept :
Chromatic Aberation of Lens

Formula :
For Aehromatism

Solution/Calculation :
Given f1 = + 10, f2 = –15

Answer : 2
Level : Easy

10) = = ⇒ f1 =

=
 f2 = –45 cm f1 = 30 cm

11)

= 15 cm

12)

= =

=– +

v = 180 m v= = 80 cm
Distance = 60 + 80 = 140 cm

13) f1 = 40 cm, f2 = –25 cm

power of resultant combination

P = P1 + P2 =
P = 2.5 – 4 = – 1.5 D

14)

Here, P1 = 10 D and P2 = –5 D
Therefore, power of the combined lens is
P = P1 + P2 = +10 +(–5) = +5 D

Now, magnification, m =

Here, m = 2 and = 0.2m = 20 cm

∴
⇒ u = –10 cm

15)
⇒ R = 20 × 2 × (1.5–1) = 20 cm

⇒ ⇒ feq = –100 cm
16)

17)

fr = 22 cm

18) ⇒ 0=
d = 15 cm

19) Since aperture of lens reduces so brightness will reduce but their will be no effect on size
of image.

20)

P=

21) Explain Question:

An object is placed 10 cm left of a convex lens ( f = 10 cm), followed by a concave lens (f =
–20cm). Find distance d for image at object position.
Concept:
For image on object, final image distance = object distance. Use lens formula: 1/f = 1/v –1/u
Formula:
For Lens 1: 1/v1 = 1/f1+1/u1
For Lens 2: 1/v2 = 1/f2+1/u2
For object-image coincidence: v2 = – (d + 10).
Calculation:
u1 = – 10cm, f1 = 10 cm
1/v1 = 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5 → v1 = 5cm
u2 = (d - 5) (distance from concave lens).
For final image to return to object:
1/f2 = 1/v2 – 1/u2
1/(–20) = 1/(–d –10) –1/(d –5)
Solving gives d = 10cm
Final Answer: 10 cm (Option 1).
22)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many images are formed when a point object is
placed on the optic axis of a convex lens made up of three different materials. Each material
section of the lens can produce its own image due to differences in refractive indices.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concept of refraction and focal length in
lenses. The Lens-Maker's formula shows that the focal length of a lens depends on the
refractive index of the material. When a lens is made of multiple materials, each part has a
different refractive index, leading to multiple focal points and thus multiple images.

Relevant Formulas: The Lens-Maker's formula is given by: \[ \frac{1}{f} = (\mu - 1)

\left[\frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}\right], \] where is the focal length, is the refractive
index of the material, and and are the radii of curvature of the lens surfaces.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that each material behaves like an individual lens section with its
own focal length, contributing to multiple images instead of just one.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the lens behaves as a single material lens and forms only one
image is a common mistake. Forgetting that multiple focal lengths can lead to multiple image
formation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like 1 image or more than 3 images are
incorrect because the problem states the lens is composed of three different materials, so
exactly three images will form-not fewer or more.

23)

24) Explanation:
To find out the value of 'x' as per given ray diagram in refraction by curved surface or radius
=R

Concept:
Refraction by curved surfaces

Formula
visual aid

Solution:
Given μ1 = μ1, μ2 =μ2
R = +R, u = -x v = +R

Calculation:

⇒x=
Correct option: (3)

25) =

– =

= + =
v = – 90 cm

m= =

hi = 4 × ×
= 8 cm

26)

v = – 5cm

27)

⇒
⇒ v = 40 cm
28)

δNet = 0
(µ – 1)A + (µ' – 1)A' = 0
(1.42 – 1)10 + (1.7 – 1)A' = 0

Prism angle A' = 6°

29)

(1.54 – 1)4 = (1.72 – 1)A

0.54 × 4 = 0.72 × A
A = 3º

30) A2 (1.72 – 1) = (1.54 – 1)4°

A2 = 3°

31) For the minimum angle of deviation produced by the prism, i = e and r1 = r2 = r, Prism
formula :
r1 + r2 = A then, r = 45° (since A = 90°), Apply Snell’s law for the 1st interface,

[Link] i = µ.sin r ⇒ sin i = i = 60,

Then,
δmin = (i – r) + (e – r) = (60 – 45) + (60 – 45),
δmin = 30°.

32)
δ = i1 + i2 – A
30° = 60° + i2 – 30°
Means, emergent ray goes along the normal & it will make angle with the second face of the
prism is θ = 90° – 0° = 90°
i2 = 0°

33) r =

=
r=

34)

Apply snell's law

µgsin i = sin 90°

35)

(i) Reflection on M1 mirror.

(ii) Reflection on M2 mirror.

36)

.....(i)

.....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
ℓ = (5+3)μ= 12cm

37)

38)

39) Focal length of the mirror remain unchanged.

40) glass thickness = 4 mm

and μ = 3 (given)

∵ Time = =
Time = =

Time = = 4 × 10–11 second

41) Lateral shift =

but μ =
sin r =0.471
r= 28°

∴ shift =

42)

43) f = +15 cm, h1 = 4.5 cm, u = –12 cm

v= = 6.7 cm

m= =

44)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks to find the position of the image formed by a concave
mirror when given its radius of curvature and the position of an object placed in front of it.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves the reflection of light rays by a concave mirror.
The key concepts are the radius of curvature, focal length, and the mirror formula which
relates object distance, image distance, and focal length for spherical mirrors.

Relevant Formulas: Mirror formula: where is the focal length, the object
distance, and the image distance. Also, , where is the radius of curvature.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Given radius of curvature (negative sign because it

is a concave mirror). 2. Calculate focal length: . 3. Object distance
 (positive because the object is in front of the mirror). 4. Use the mirror formula: .

5. Rearranging: . 6. Therefore, . The negative

sign indicates the image is real and formed on the same side as the object. The magnitude is
.

Tips and Tricks: Always remember the sign convention for concave mirrors: radius and focal
length are negative if the mirror's reflecting surface is towards the object. Use fractions
carefully for quicker calculation.

Common Mistakes: Mistaking the sign of radius of curvature or focal length. Forgetting that
object distance in front of the mirror is positive and the image distance may be negative
indicating real image formation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options with incorrect values do not satisfy the mirror
equation with the given parameters. If the image distance is positive, it would indicate a
virtual image which is not the case here based on the calculation.

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Question Explanation:
The question asks in which reaction order the units of the rate of reaction and the rate
constant are the same.

Concept:
Zero - order reaction
Explanation:

A. Rate of reaction: The rate of reaction is typically expressed in units of concentration

per unit time (e.g., M/s or mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹).

B. Rate constant (k): The units of the rate constant depend on the overall order of the
reaction.

A. For a zero-order reaction, the rate law is: rate = k[A]⁰ = k. Therefore, the units of
k are the same as the rate, which is concentration/time.

Final Answer Option (4)

The units of the rate of reaction and the rate constant are the same for a zero-order reaction.

47)

Unit of specific reaction rate is mol L–1s–1

48)

1. Question Explanation:

The question asks us to determine the units of the rate constant (k) for a given rate law.

2. Given Data:

A. Rate law: -d[A]/dt = k[A]²

3. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Let's use mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ for the rate and mol L⁻¹ for concentration:

A. mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ = k (mol L⁻¹)²

B. Solve for k:

A. k = (mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹) / (mol L⁻¹)²

B. k = mol⁻¹ L s⁻¹

5. Final Answer:
 The units for the rate constant are s⁻¹ mol⁻¹ L (or s⁻¹ mol⁻¹ litre). The equivalent in minutes
would be minute⁻¹ mol⁻¹ L.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: s⁻¹ mol⁻¹ litre⁺¹

6. Question Level: Easy

49)
0
rate r = k[A]2 [B]
0
r' = k[4A]2 [4B]
or, r' = 16 k [A]2
or r' = 16 r

50)

Question Explanation:
The question asks us to determine how the rate of a gaseous reaction changes when the
volume of the container is tripled, given the rate law.

Given Data:

A. Rate law: Rate = k[A][B]²

B. Volume change: Tripled (V₂ = 3V₁)

Concept:
For gaseous reactions, concentration is inversely proportional to volume. If the volume
increases, the concentration decreases.

Mathematical Calculation:
Let the initial concentrations be [A1]​ and [B1]​ when the volume is V1​.
Let the new concentrations be [A2]​ and [B2]​ when the volume is V2​=3V1​.
Since concentration is inversely proportional to volume, we have:

Initial rate, Rate1 =

New rate, Rate2 =

Substitute the new concentrations:

Rate2 =

Rate2 =

Rate2 =
 Rate2 =

Rate2 =

Therefore, the new rate is 1/27​ times the initial rate.

Final Answer:
The rate of the reaction will be (4) 1/27 times the initial rate

51)

Concept :- Rate constant

Solution :- Rate constant (k) depends on temperature & catalyst
From → D = A e–Ea/RT
Option :- 4
Decreases on increasing temperature

52)

53) = 55 × 10 = 550 days

54)

Question Explanation:
We have to find Half life of First order reaction.
Given t½ = 480 sec.
Concept:

t½ =
Solution:

K=
K = 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1
Final Answer:
Option 1

55)

56) NCERT Pg. # 76

57) k = = 0.1439 min–1

t= = 48 min
58)

1.00 sec

59)

60) Question Explanation: Identify when reaction rate is unaffected by reactant

concentration.
Concept : Zero order reaction occur at constant rate, often due to catalysis
Solution :
2NH3 → N2 + 3H2 is a classic zero order reaction because the surface of the catalyst gets
saturated making rate independent of [NH3]
Final Answer : option (1)

61) x = kt
a = kt For completion (x = a)

t=

62)

63) Explaining : The activation energy for forward reaction is asked when the overall
enthalpy change and activation energy of reverse reaction is given.
Concept : This Question is based on Collision theory.
Solution : ΔH = 100 KJ/mol Ea(f) = ?
Ea(b) = 200 KJ/mol
Ea(f) – Ea(b) = ΔH
Ea(f) = 100 + 200
= 300 KJ/mol
Final Answer : (1)

64) ΔH = (Ea)f – (Ea)b

= 30.5 – 40.5
= –10 (–ve) → shows exothermic

65)

Threshold energy = Activition energy + Energy possessed by reactents

= 32 + 18 = 50

66)

r = k[A]1 [B]1
67)

Conceptual

68)

Molecularity of the reaction​​

69)

A0 = At × 2n
= 0.02 × (2)4
= 0.32 g

70)

71) t93.75% = 4 t1/2

20 = 4 t50%
t50% = 5min

72)

512 times

73)

1, 0, 2

74)

mol1–n litren–1 sec–1

75)

2.3 cal

76)

B Given Data
The question provides information about the type of reaction: acidic hydrolysis of an ester. No
specific concentrations or rate constants are given.
C Concept
The hydrolysis of an ester in the presence of an acid catalyst proceeds through a mechanism
where water acts as one of the reactants. The acid acts as a catalyst and is regenerated at the
end of the reaction. Even though water is a reactant, if it is present in a large excess (as is
usually the case in aqueous solutions), its concentration remains practically constant
throughout the reaction.
The rate law for such a reaction would generally be:
Rate = k[Ester]m [constant]n = k'[Ester]m
where m, n, and p are the orders of the reaction with respect to the ester, water, and acid
catalyst, respectively, and k is the rate constant.
Since the acid acts as a catalyst, its concentration doesn't change during the reaction, so p=0.
Also, because water is usually in large excess, its concentration [Water] is considered
constant. Therefore, the rate law simplifies to:
Rate = k [Ester]m [Constant]n = k'[Ester]m
where k′=k[Constant]n is a new effective rate constant.
For the acidic hydrolysis of an ester, the reaction rate is experimentally found to be first order
with respect to the concentration of the ester (m=1).
D Mathematical CalculationBased on the concept explained above, and experimental
observations:
Rate=k′[Ester]1=k′[Ester]
This indicates that the reaction rate depends only on the first power of the ester concentration.
E Final Answer
The acidic hydrolysis of ester is a Psuedo Ist order reaction.
F Question Level
EASY

77)

0.72 M

78)

Question Explanation:
2N2O4 ⇌ 4NO2

k and
Concept:
Rate expression in terms of stoichiometric coefficient.
Solution:

r= =

⇒ r = × k = × k'
⇒ 2k = k'
Final Answer:
Option 2

79) Explanation
 Calculation of the ΔH (enthalpy change) by using of activation energy,
Given Data

A. Reaction: A → B
B. Enthalpy change: ΔH = -10 kJ/mol (exothermic)
C. Activation energy for forward reaction: Ea (forward) = 50 kJ/molo

Concept:
Activation energy

Solution:

A. Activation energy
B. (Ea) is the minimum energy required for a reaction to proceed.
C. The activation energy for the reverse reaction (B → A) is calculated using the relationship:
Ea(reverse) = Ea(forward) + lΔHI

Calculation:
Ea(reverse) = 50 + 10 = 60 kJ/mol
Answer option 4, (60 kJ mol-1 )

80)

Is always whole number

81) Explanation:
The question asks to identify the correct statement that explains how a catalyst increases the
rate of a chemical reaction.

Concept:
This concept based on Chemical Kinetics - Catalyst and Activation Energy

Solution:
A catalyst lowers the activation energy (Ea).
Reaction rate ∝ e-E /RT
a

When Ea decreases, e-E /RT increases leading to an increased reaction rate.

a

Correct option:
(3) Catalyst provides an alternative path of lower activation energy to the reactants

82)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what the slope of the straight line would be when you
plot the logarithm (base 10) of the rate constant k against the inverse of temperature (1/T).
Essentially, it is about understanding the relationship between reaction rate and temperature
using the Arrhenius equation.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is the Arrhenius equation, which describes how the
rate constant k of a chemical reaction depends on temperature T and activation energy Eₐ.
 When plotted as log k versus 1/T, the data forms a straight line whose slope relates directly to
the activation energy and gas constant R.

Relevant Formulas: Starting from the Arrhenius equation:

Taking the base-10 logarithm:

Where: - : rate constant - : pre-exponential factor - : activation energy - : universal gas

constant - : absolute temperature (Kelvin)

Step-by-Step Calculation: The slope of the line in the plot of log k vs. 1/T is the coefficient of
in the equation. From the formula,

Tips and Tricks: Remember that for natural logs (ln), the slope is , but for log base 10, it

becomes . Always check which logarithm is used to correctly interpret the slope.

Common Mistakes: Students sometimes forget the factor 2.303 when converting between
natural logarithms and common logarithms, leading them to use as the slope instead of

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options missing the 2.303 factor come from confusing
natural logarithm with base-10 logarithm. Similarly, positive signs in the slope are incorrect
because the slope must be negative due to the decreasing k with increasing 1/T.

83)

Question Explanation
The question presents two statements about the order of a reaction and the information
conveyed by a balanced chemical equation. We need to determine if each statement is correct
or incorrect.

Concept: Order of reaction.

Analysis:
Let's analyze each statement:

A. Statement I: "Order of the reaction is determined experimentally." This is correct. The order
of a reaction is determined from experimental data, not from the balanced chemical equation.
B. Statement II: "A balanced chemical equation never gives a true picture of how a reaction
takes place except a reaction gets completed in one step." This is also correct. Balanced
chemical equations only show the overall stoichiometry and not the reaction mechanism,
unless the reaction is elementary.

E: Final Answer

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Option (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

84) NCERT [Link].99

85)

Activation energy + normal energy of reactants

86)

Rate of Disappearance =

Rate of appearance =

Rate of reaction =

87)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking what 'activation energy' means in the context of
a chemical reaction. It provides multiple definitions and wants to identify the correct meaning
of activation energy.

Underlying Concept: Activation energy is the minimum amount of extra energy that reacting
molecules need to gain in order to overcome the energy barrier of the reaction. This energy
allows them to reach the transition state (activated complex) and proceed to form products.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that activation energy is not energy released during the reaction,
but energy that must be absorbed to initiate the reaction.

Common Mistakes: Confusing activation energy with the energy released or heat evolved
during a reaction. Also, some may wrongly think it's the energy required to produce products
rather than the energy needed to overcome the barrier.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like 'energy released during the reaction' or
'energy evolved when activated complex is formed' confuse energy output with the input
energy needed to start the reaction. The option about 'energy needed to form 1 mole of
product' refers to enthalpy changes, not activation energy.
 88)

Slow

89)

A is false but R is true

90)

All the above

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT(E) XIIth Pg.#227

92)

NCERT [Link] 231

93)

The correct answer is 3. 170 billion tons.

Explanation: The annual net primary productivity (NPP) of the entire biosphere is
estimated to be approximately 170 billion tons of organic matter. NPP represents the energy
captured by plants through photosynthesis, minus the energy they use for their own growth
and maintenance. This biomass forms the basis for supporting all other organisms in the
ecosystem.

94)

NCERT, Pg. # 210

95)

NCERT XII Pg No. 248, Fig. 14.4

96) NCERT Pg. # 244

97)

The correct answer is 3. DFC, GFC.

Explanation: In land ecosystems, the major conduit of energy is transferred through
Detritus Food Chains (DFC), which start with dead organic matter and decomposers. In
aquatic ecosystems, energy is primarily transferred through Grazing Food Chains (GFC),
which start with producers (like phytoplankton) that capture energy from sunlight.

98)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 246, 245

99) NCERT Pg.#249

100) NCERT XII Pg. # 177

101)

The correct answer is Option 2: 10%.

Explanation: According to the 10% energy transfer rule in ecosystems, only about 10% of the
energy from one trophic level is passed on to the next level. The remaining 90% is lost mainly
due to metabolic processes like respiration, movement, and heat production. This is why
energy decreases as you move up the trophic levels in a food chain.

102)

NCERT Pg. No. 248

103) NCERT Pg. # 207

104) NCERT XII Pg # 222 (E)

105) NCERT XII, Page # 242

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 243

107)

NCERT Pg. No. 230

108) NCERT Pg # 234

109)

NCERT Pg. No. 231

110)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 197,202

111)

NCERT XII Eng. Page No.221 िहदी पे ज # 242

112)

NCERT (XII) Pg. 227 & 228

113)

NCERT Pg # 230

114) A population has birth rates and death rates. The rates are expressed as change in
numbers (increase [or] decrease) with respect to members of the population.

In this case, the increase in population will be zero.

Growth of population

115) Question is Asking About:

Shape of age sex pyramid

Concept:
Age sex pyramid

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Assertion is correct: The shape of the pyramids reflects the growth status of the population-
(a) whether is is growing, (b) stable or (c) declining.
Reason is correct: Upright pyramid shows population is growing, because in upright
pyramid: pre reproductive age group are placed at base, which are more in numbers than
reproductive age group (placed middle in the upright pyramid). That's why the population will
grow in future.

Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Hence, option (1) is correct

116) NCERT XII, Pg. # 228

117) NCERT-XII, Page # 195

118)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 238, 232

119)

Question: Refer to the given table that summarizes the interactions between two
organisms (organism 1 and organism 2). Identify the types of interaction (A, B and C)
and select the correct answer.

Correct Answer : 4 (i) and (iii)

Explanation : A can be either predation or parasitism:

A. This is correct. A involves harm to one species and benefit on the other, which matches
both predation and parasitism.

C can be amensalism:

A. This is correct. C is amensalism:(where one species harms , and the other is unaffected).

120) NCERT, Pg # 191

121) NCERT Page No. # 237, 238 [E]

NCERT Page No. # 260, 261 [H]

122) NCERT Page No. # 233

123) Ncert Page 199.

124)

NCERT XII Pg.: 235

125) NCERT 12th class – [Link]. 197

126) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 200

127) NCERT Pg.# 235

128) NCERT Pg. # 200

129) NCERT XII Pg. # 236

130)

NCERT-XII Pg.# 231

131)

Tansley

132) GPP – R

133) Energy

134)

All of these

135)

136)

Vitamin B12

137)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

138)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 182

140)

1 - Large aeration tanks, 2 - Mechanical agitation, 3 - Low, 4 - Anaerobic

141)

Cyanobacteria
142) NCERT Pg : 187

143) NCERT Pg : 186

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 183

145) Commercial extraction of penicillin was done by Ernest chain and Howard florey.

146) NCERT - Pg. # 154 Microbes in sewage treatment.

147) NCERT Pg. No. # 158.

148)

10-15 feet

149)

both (1) and (2)

150)

NCERT XII Page # 157

151)

NCERT XII Page # 157

152) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 181-182

153) NCERT, Page no:181

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186

155) NCERT- Pg. # 153

156)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 150

157) Pg. No. 119 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

158) NCERT XII Pg.# 153

159) NCERT - XI, Pg. # 116

160)

Kidney

161) NCERT Pg # 118

162)

Vocal sacs

163)

A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma,
C-Penicillin

164)

Lacks cloaca

165)

2500 to 3000 ova

166)

Tadpoles

167) NCERT Pg. # 118

168)

NCERT XII Pg. # 182

169)

Dorsal side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood

170)

Number of cranial nerves found in frog 20

171) NCERT Pg. No. 183

172)

Male frog

173)

Bidder’s Canal

174) NCERT Pg. No. 187

175)

All of these

176)

Pale yellow

177)

Bacterium

178)

Eyes and internal ears

179) NEW NCERT XI Page no. 81 Para 7.2.2

180)

Methane