25-01-2026

7501CMD303051250036 MD

PHYSICS

1)
As the switch S is closed at t = 0 the ring B :

(1) Is attracted towards A

(2) Is repelled by A
(3) Is initially repelled and then attracted
(4) Is initially attracted and then repelled

2) An astronaut is in an all-metal chamber outside the space station when a solar storm results in the
deposit of a large positive charge on the station. Which statement is correct ?

(1) The astronaut must abandon the chamber immediately to avoid being electrocuted.
(2) The astronaut will be safe only if she is wearing a spacesuit made of nonconducting materials.
(3) The astronaut does not need to worry: the charge will remain on the outside surface.
The astronaut must abandon the chamber if the electric field on the outside surface becomes
(4)
greater than the breakdown field of air.

3) Two identically charged pith balls are suspended from the some point by two massless identical
threads density of each ball is ρ. If system is immersed in a medium of density σ, balls remain
undeflected, then the dielectric constant of medium is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Charge q2 of mass m revolves around a stationary charge q1 in a circular orbit of radius r. The
orbital periodic time of q2 would be:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Let ρ = ρ0r, be the charge density distribution for a solid sphere of radius R. Here ρ0 is a constant
and r is the distance from the centre of sphere. The magnitude of electric field inside, the sphere at
distance r from centre will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) 4 charges are placed at the corners of square in y - z plane as shown in figure. The net force on q

will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Find the dipole moment of given configuration if P = QR (where R is the radius of the circle and P
is magnitude of dipole moment) :-

(1) 3P
(2)
(3)
(4) 4P

8) Consider the following statement about electric dipole and select the correct ones :-
S1 : Electric dipole moment vector is directed from the negative charge to the positive charge.
S2 :The electric field of a dipole at point with position vector depends on as well as the angle
between and .

S3 : The electric dipole potential fall off as and not as

S4 : In a uniform electric field, the electric dipole experience no net forces but a torque .

(1) S2, S3 and S4

(2) S3 and S4
(3) S2 and S3
(4) All four

9) A conducting sphere with a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric conducting

spherical shell. The potential difference between the sphere and the shell is V. If the sphere is now
given a charge of – 3Q, the new potential difference between them is

(1) V
(2) 2 V
(3) 4 V
(4) –2 V

10) A straight current carrying wire carries current 100 A, as shown in figure. The magnitude of
magnetic field at point P which is at perpendicular distance from the wire if end A and
end B of the element subtend angle 30° and 60° at point P, as shown is :
(1) 5 × 10–6 T
(2) 2.5 × 10–6 T
(3) 2.5 × 10–5 T
(4) 8 × 105 T

11) In figure, infinite conducting rings each having current 'i' in the direction shown are placed
concentrically in the same plane as shown in the figure. The radius of rings are r, 2r, 4r, 8r......∞.
The magnetic field at the centre of rings will be :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Two identical short bar magnets, each having magnetic moment M, are placed a distance of 2d
apart with axes perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at a point
midway between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) A long wire bent as shown in the figure carries current I. If the radius of the semicircular portion

is a, the magnetic induction at the centre O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A wire carrying a current i is placed in a magnetic field in the form of the curve y = a sin 0

≤ x ≤ 2L. Force acting on the wire is :-

(1)

(2) iBLπ
(3) 2iBL
(4) Zero

15) A long straight wire, carrying current I, is bent at its midpoint to form an angle of 45º. Magnetic

field at point P, distance R from point of bending is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) Two wires are bent (shown as joint-circle) with radius r (in xy plane). The upper half has
resistance of 2RΩ and the lower half of RΩ. A current I is passed into circle as shown. The magnetic

field at centre is :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

17) A particle of mass m and charge q moving with velocity v < enters region-II normal to the
boundary as shown in the figure. Region-II has a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane

of paper. The particle will :

(1) Enter the region-III

(2) Not enter the region-III
(3) Complete circular motion in region-II
(4) Move undeflected in region-II

18) An electron orbiting around a nucleus has angular momentum L. The magnetic field produced by
the electron at the centre of the orbit can be expressed as :-

(1)
B=

(2)
B=

(3)
B=
 B=
(4)

19) In the following figure a wire bent in the form of a regular polygon of n sides is inscribed in a

circle of radius a. Net magnetic field at centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight
conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Potential of the point B in the circuit below is :-

(1) 5 V
(2) 7 V
(3) 8 V
(4) 10 V

22) Effective resistacne between point A and B for following network is-(each branch of resistance is

R)

(1)

(2)

(3) R

(4)

23) Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 and R3 connected to 3V battery. If the power
dissipated by the configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P1, P2 and P3 respectively.

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P1 > P3 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P3 > P2 > P1

24)

Three voltmeters are connected as shown.

A potential difference has been applied between A and B. On closing the switch S, readings of
voltmeters?
(1) V1 increases
(2) V1 decreases
(3) V2 and V3 both increase
(4) One of V2 and V3 increases and other decreases.

25) In the part of a circuit shown in Fig., the potential difference (VG – VH) between points G and H
will be :-

(1) 0 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 7 V
(4) 3 V

26) In the circuit shown find the current in branch AB of the circuit.

(1) 5A
(2) 0.5A

(3)

(4) Zero

27) In the diagram resistance between any two junctions is R. Equivalent resistance across terminals

A and B is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) n identical cells, each of emf e and internal resistance r, are joined in series to form a closed
circuit. One of the cell A is joined with reversed polarity. The potential difference across each cell
except A, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A time varying current i is passed through a resistance R as shown in figure. The total heat
generated in the resistance is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown is :-

(1)
A
(2)
A

(3)
A
(4) 2A

31) In figure an arrangement of three identical capacitors is shown along with a switch S and a
battery B. If the switch S is closed, then the ratio of the energy of the capacitors system in the final

steady state to the initial state is :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 4

32) Which one of the following pattern of electrostatic lines of force is not possible?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
between its plates is ‘d’. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the

dielectrics has dielectric constant k1 = 3 and thickness while the other one has dielectric constant

k2 = 6 and thickness . Capacitance of the capacitor is now

(1) 1.8 pF
(2) 45 pF
(3) 40.5 pF
(4) 20.25 pF

34) Three charged capacitors, C1 = 17µF, C2 = 34µF and C3=41µF and two open switches, S1 and S2
are assembled into a network with initial voltages and polarities, as shown. Final status of the
network is attained when the two switches, S1 and S2 are closed. The figure, the final charge on
capacitor C3 in mC, is closest to :

(1) zero
(2) 410
(3) 1200
(4) 3300

35) If the potential difference between the plates of a capacitor is increased by 20%, the energy
stored in the capacitor increased by exactly :-

(1) 20%
(2) 22%
(3) 40%
(4) 44%
36) The capacitance of the capacitor of plate area A1 and A2 (A1 < A2) at a distance d as shown :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In a given network, assuming capacitance of each capacitors equals to C then find the effective

capacitance between A and B:

(1) C

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Three plates A, B and C each of area 50 cm2 have separation 3mm between A and B and 6 mm
between B and C. The energy stored when the plates are full charged by a 12 volt battery is :

(1) 2 nJ
(2) 1.6 nJ
(3) 5 nJ
(4) 3.2 nJ
39) A conducting rod rotates with a constant angular velocity ‘ω’ about the axis which passes
through point ‘O’ and perpendicular to its length. A uniform magnetic field ‘B’ exists parallel to the
axis of the rotation. Then potential difference between the two ends of the rod is :

(1) 6Bωℓ2
(2) Bωℓ2
(3) 10Bωℓ2
(4) Zero

40) The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil, containing a condenser,

with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then :-

(1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive

(2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
(3) Both the plates will be positive
(4) Both the plates will be negative

41) A wire of length l m is moving at a speed of 2 ms–1 perpendicular to its length and a
homogeneous magnetic field of 0.5 T. The ends of the wire are joined to a circuit of resistance 6Ω.
The rate at which work is being done to keep the wire moving at constant speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1W

42) A conducting rod AB length ℓ = 1 m is moving at a velocity 4 m/s making an angle 30° with its
length. A uniform magnetic field of 2T exists in a direction perpendicular to the plane of motion.

Then-

(1) VA – VB = 8V
(2) VA – VB = 4V
(3) VB – VA = 8V
(4) VB – VA = 4V

43)

The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in Fig. :-

The variation of induced emf with time would be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A bar magnet with its north (N) and south (S) poles as shown below is initially moving to the left,
along the axis of, and away from a circular conducting loop A current I is induced in the loop, with
"a" the acceleration of the magnet due to this current. As seen from the magnet looking in the

direction of the loop.

(1) I runs clockwise and "a" points to the left

(2) I runs counterclockwise and "a" points to the right
(3) I runs clockwise and "a" points to the right;
(4) I runs counterclokwise and "a" point to the left

45) Two uniform solid sphere of equal radii R but mass M and 4M have a centre separation 6R. The
two spheres are held fixed. A projectile of mass 'm' is projected from the surface of the sphere of
mass M directly towards the centre of the second heavy sphere, then minimum speed of the
projectile so that it reaches the surface of the second sphere will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Black P > Red P > White P, order is not correct for :-

(1) Thermodynamic stability

(2) Density
(3) Melting point
(4) Reactivity

2) Find out the similarities between I2Cl6 and Al2Cl6:-

(1) Both have 3C - 4e– bond

(2) Both have sp3- hybridization for the central atom
(3) Both are non polar
(4) Both (1) & (3)

3) Assertion : Mostly reaction of fluorine is exothermic.

Reason : Due to small size and stronger bond formed by it with other elements.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

4) Statement-I : Noble gases have very low boiling point.

Statement-II : Noble gases have weak dispersion force.

(1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both, Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both, Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

5) In which of the following reaction hydridisation of central atom is not change

(1) PCl5 + 5H2O

 SF4 + 4H2O
(2)

(3) XeF6 + 6H2O

(4) SiCl4 + 4H2O

6) Degree of Hydrolysis of solution of KCN is (Given Ka = 1.6 × 10–9)

(1) 2.5 × 10–3

(2) 2.5 × 10–2
(3) 2.5 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–5

7) Phenolphthalein does not act as an indicator for the titration between :-

(1) KOH and H2SO4

(2) NaOH and CH3COOH
(3) Oxalic acid and KMnO4
(4) Ba(OH)2 and HCl

8) In the following

Species behaving as Bronsted – lowry acid are:-

(1) (A), (D)

(2) (A), (C)
(3) (B), (C)
(4) (B), (D)

9) The acid ionisation of hydrated zinc ions is

[Zn(H2O)6]2+(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ [Zn(H2O)5OH]+(aq) + H3O+(aq)
and Ka is 1.25 × 10–10. The pH of 0.8 M aqueous solution of ZnCl2 is [log 2 = 0.3]

(1) 4.0
(2) 4.7
(3) 5.0
(4) 5.3

10) A precipitate will be obtained on mixing equal volume of which of the following solutions, if Ksp =
1.8 × 10–10?

(1) 10–4 M [Ag+] and 10–4 M [Cl–]

(2) 10–5 M [Ag+] and 10–5 M [Cl–]
(3) 10–6 M [Ag+] and 10–6 M [Cl–]
(4) 10–10 M [Ag+] and 10–4 M [Cl–]

11)

It is found that 0.1 (M) solution of three sodium salts NaA, NaB and NaC have pH 8, 9 and 11
respectively. Therefore the order of acidic strengths of HA, HB and HC are

(1) HA > HB > HC

(2) HB > HA > HC
(3) HB > HC > HA
(4) HA > HC > HB

12) Using the Gibb’s free energy change, ΔGo = + 63.3 kJ for the following reaction

The Ksp of Ag2CO3 in water at 25oC is (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)

(1) 3.2 × 20-26

(2) 8.0 × 10-12
(3) 2.9 × 10-3
(4) 7.9 × 10-2

13) Which of the following has maximum pH?

–16 2
(1) H2O at 0°C (Kw = 10 M )
(2) 0.1M NH4Cl (at 25°C)
(3) 0.1M CH3COONH4 (at 25°C) [Given : ]
0.1 M CH3COOH (at 25°C)
(4)

14) The solubility of Ag2CO3 in water is 5520 μg/L. Ksp of Ag2CO3 is (Ag = 108)

(1) 4.0 × 10–10

(2) 8.0 × 10–15
(3) 3.2 × 10–14
(4) 1.6 × 10–11

15) Let the solubilities of AgCl in H2O, 0.01M CaCl2, 0.01M NaCl and 0.05M AgNO3 be S1, S2, S3 and
S4 respectively. what is the correct relationship between these quantities ?

(1) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4

(2) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4
(3) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4
(4) S1 > S3 > S4 > S2
16) A solution is 0.1 M in Cl- and 0.001 M in CrO42-. Solid AgNO3 is gradually added to it. Assuming
that the addition does not change in volume and and
.
Select correct statement from the following:

(1) AgCl will precipitate first as the amount of Ag+ needed to precipitate is low.
(2) AgCl precipitate first because its Ksp is high
+
(3) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first because the amount of Ag needed is low.
(4) Ag2CrO4 precipitate first as its Ksp is low.

17) Solid is gradually dissolved in a solution. At what concentration

of Ba2+ will be a precipitate begin to form ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Assertion A: The amphoteric nature of water is explained by using Lewis acid/base concept.
Reason R: Water acts as an acid with NH3 and as a base with H2S.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

19) How many among the following aqueous solution can act as a buffer solution.
(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COONa + 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M Borax solution
(4) 100 mL of 1 M H3PO4 + 150 mL of 1 M NaOH
(5) 100 mL of 0.1 M NH4Cl + 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

20) Which of the following statement is correct for an aqueous solution of CH3COOH with
concentration 5 × 10–2 M and having Ka = 2 × 10–5 (log 2 = 0.3)

(1) Its pH = 3.0

(2) If equal moles of NaOH are added then pH =7
(3) It acts as acidic buffer if NaCl is added
(4) It acts as basic buffer on adding NaOH
21) The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt A(OH)2 (mol. wt. 192.3) is 19.23 g/ litre at 300 K. The pH
of its saturated solution assuming 80% ionisation at 300 K is :

(1) 1.0970
(2) 12.9030
(3) 13.2041
(4) 12.0000

22) What is the minimum pH required to prevent the precipitation of ZnS in a solution that is 0.01 M
ZnCl2 and saturated with 0.10 M H2S ?
[Given : Ksp = 10–21, ]

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

–5
23) A weak acid of dissociation constant 10 is being titrated with aqueous NaOH solution. The pH
at the point of one-third neutralization of the acid will be:

(1) 5 + log 2 – log 3

(2) 5 – log 2
(3) 5 – log 3
(4) 5 – log 6

24) Calculate pH of 0.05M potassium hydrogen phthalate, KHC8H4O4.

(1) 2.94
(2) 5.44
(3) 4.19
(4) 2.50

25) A sample containing 1 mol KHC2O4.H2C2O4 is titrated with different reagent select correct
statement :

(1) 1 mole of KOH are used

(2) 3 moles of Ba(OH)2 are used
(3) 4/5 mole of KMnO4 are used in alkaline medium
(4) 2/3 mole of K2Cr2O7 are used in acidic medium

26) In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase the temperature,
which of the following is true?
(1) ΔE = W ≠ 0, q = 0
(2) ΔE = W = q ≠ 0
(3) ΔE = 0, W = q ≠ 0
(4) W = 0, ΔE = q ≠ 0

27) Heat absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is :

(1) 107 π J
(2) 106 π J
(3) 102 π J
(4) 104 π J

28) The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure, P, is 75 J K-1 mol-1. When 1.0 kJ of heat is
supplied to 100 g of water which is free to expand, the increase in temperature of water is

(1) 1.2 K
(2) 2.4 K
(3) 4.8 K
(4) 6.6 K

29) For one mole of an ideal gas, which of these statements must be true?
(a) U and H each depends only on temperature.
(b) Compressibility factor Z is not equal to 1.
(c) Cp,m. –CV,m = R (Cm : molar heat capacity)
(d) dU = CVdT for any process.

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)

30) The following reaction is at equilibrium at 298K.

2NO(0.00001 bar) + Cl2(g, 0.01 bar)
⇌ 2NOCl (g, 0.01 bar)
ΔGº for the reaction is :-

(1) –45.65 kJ
(2) –28.53 kJ
(3) –22.83 kJ
(4) –57.06 kJ

31) Calculate ΔfHº (in kJ/mol) for Cr2O3 from the ΔrGº and the Sº values provided at 27ºC
4Cr(s)+3O2(g) → 2Cr2O3(s) ;
ΔrGº = – 2093.4 kJ/mol Sº (J/K mol) :
Sº(Cr, s) =24 ; Sº (O2, g) =205 ;
Sº (Cr2O3, s) = 81

(1) –2258.1 kJ/mol

(2) –1129.05 kJ/mol
(3) – 964.35 kJ/mol
(4) None of these

32) The molar heat capacities of Iodine vapour and solid are 7.8 and 14 cal/mol respectively if
enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is
6096 cal/mole at 200ºC, then what is ΔU (internal energy change) at 250ºC in cal/mol :-

(1) 5360
(2) 4740
(3) 6406
(4) None of these

33) Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) decomposes according to the equation

From the following data calculate the value of Kp at 400 K for the above reaction, ΔH° = –196.0 KJ
ΔS° = 125.65 J/K [Given : 100.15 = 1.41]

(1) 1.4 × 1032

(2) 1.4 × 10–32
(3) 1.4 × 103
(4) 1.3 × 1015

34) What is the minimum pH necessary to cause a precipitate of Pb(OH)2 (Ksp = 1.2 × 10–5) to form in
a 0.12 M Pb(NO3)2 solution?

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 8
(4) 5

35) Solid Na2SO4 is slowly added to a solution which is 0.020 M in Ba(NO3)2 and 0.020 M in Pb(NO3)2.
Assume that there is no increase in volume on adding Na2SO4. There preferential precipitation take
space. What is the concentration of Ba2+ when PbSO4 starts to precipitate ? [Ksp (BaSO4) = 1.0 × 10–10
and Ksp (PbSO4) = 1.6 × 10–8]

(1) 5.0 × 10–9 M

(2) 8.0 × 10–7 M
(3) 1.25 × 10–4 M
(4) 1.95 × 10–8 M

36) Calculated the amount of (NH4)2SO4 in gram which must be added to 500 ml 0.2 M NH4OH to
obtained a solution of pH = 8.7. (Kb for NH4OH = 10–5) molar mass of (NH4)2SO4 = 132

(1) 13.2
(2) 6.6
(3) 26.4
(4) 15.7

37) Which of the following statements is/are correct-

(a) pH of water increases with decreases in temperature
(b) The value of KW may increase or decrease with increases in temperature
(c) pH of Na2CO3 solution is more than 7
(d) Ka for an acid is equal to inverse of Kb for its conjugate base

(1) a, b
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, c
(4) None

38) 10 ml. of a solution contains 0.1 M NH4Cl + 0.01M NH4OH. Which addition would not change
the pH of solution :–

(1) Adding 1 ml. water

(2) Adding 5 ml. of 0.1 M NH4Cl
(3) Adding 5 ml. of 0.1 M NH4OH
(4) Adding 10 ml. of 0.1 M NH4Cl

39)

What will happen if the pH of the solution of 0.001 M Mg(NO3)2 solution is adjusted to pH = 9
(KspMg(OH)2 = 8.9 × 10–12)

(1) ppt will take place

(2) ppt will not take place
(3) Solution will be saturated
(4) None of these

40) 2 mole of He gas are expanded from 1 litre to (2 litre , 1 atm) in a single step adiabatic process
then ratio of final temperature to initial temperature is-

(1)

(2) 22/3
(3)

(4)

41) A B C

P-Nitroaniline
Identify A

(1) Acetanilide
(2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Aniline
(4) Acetophenone

42) In following reaction main product will be :-

products

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which one of the following is correct?

(1) Fibrous and Globular protein are secondary structure of proteins.

(2) The tertiary structure of proteins represents overall folding of the polypeptide chains.
The main forces which destabilise the secondary & tertiary structures of proteins are hydrogen
(3)
bonds, disulphide linkages, van der waals and electrostatic forces of attraction.
The spatial arrangement of sub–units with respect to each other is known as primary structure
(4)
of protein.

44) A sample of 0.4 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl's method. The
ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. The residual acid required 60 mL of 0.5 M
NaOH for neutralisation. Percentage composition of nitrogen in the organic compound is :

(1) 56%
(2) 28%
(3) 70%
(4) 62%

45) In the Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of NaOH and Br2 used
per mole of amine produced are :

(1) One moles of NaOH and one mole of Br2

(2) Four mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2
(3) Four moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2
(4) Two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2

BIOLOGY

1) Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of :

(1) Budding
(2) Apomixis
(3) Sporulation
(4) Somatic hybridization

2) In the embryos of a typical dicot and grass, true homologous structures are :

(1) Epicotyl and Hypocotyl

(2) Cotyledon and Scutellum
(3) Plumule and Radicle
(4) Coleoptile and Coleorrhiza

3) Endosperm is completely consumed by developing embryo in the seed of :

(1) Orchid
(2) Wheat
(3) Rice
(4) Coconut
4) Homogamy, Heterostyly, Dichogamy, Bisexuality, Protogyny, Cleistogamy, Chasmogamy, Self
sterility.
How many are the adaption for self-pollination ?

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 5

5) Match the column I & II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Tallest flower (i) Yucca

B Pronuba moth ii Calotropis

C Blastophaga wasp iii Ficus carica (fig)

D Pollinium iv Amorphophallus
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

6) Identify the parts labelled from the given diagram

(1) A – Cotyledon, B – Endosperm, C – Shoot apical meristem, D – Root tip, E – Hypocotyl root axis
(2) A – Endosperm, B – Cotyledon, C - Hypocotyl root axis, D – Root tip, E - Shoot apical meristem
(3) A - Hypocotyl root axis, B - Shoot apical meristem, C – Endosperm, D – Cotyledon, E – Root tip
(4) A - Shoot apical meristem, B - Hypocotyl root axis, C – Endosperm, D – Cotyledon, E - Root tip

7) Choose the correct option from the following statements.

I. Apomixis is form of asexual reproduction which mimics sexual reproduction.
II. In Apomixis seeds embryo develop either from diploid egg cell or from cells of nucellus.
III. Seeds collected from hybrids plant maintain hybrid character for a longer times.
IV. In Apomixis, there is segregation of characters.

(1) All are correct

(2) All are incorrect
(3) Only I and II are correct
(4) Only II and IV are correct

8) The functional megaspore undergoes

(1) 2 meiotic division to form mature embryo sac

(2) 3 mitotic division to form mature embryo sac
(3) 2 mitotic division to form mature embryo sac
(4) 3 meiotic division to form mature embryo sac

9) If diploid chromosomes number in a flowering plant is 12, then which one of the following will
have only 6 chromosomes ?

(1) Endosperm
(2) Leaf cells
(3) Cotyledons
(4) Synergids

10) In which type of flowers, stigma is rough and sticky?

(1) Insect pollinated

(2) Wind pollinated
(3) Water pollinated
(4) All of the above

11) Which is the correct sequence for embryogenesis in dicots ?

(1) Zygote → globular stage → Proembryo → Heart shaped embryo → Mature embryo
(2) Zygote → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Mature stage
(3) Zygote → Proembryo → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Mature embryo
(4) Zygote → Proembryo → Globular stage → Heart shaped embryo → Mature embryo

12) Match the columns and select the correct option:-

Column-I Column-II

i. Translator apparatus p. Salvia

ii. Coleoptile q. Fig

iii. Trap door mechanism r. Maize

iv. Turn pipe mechanism s. Calotropis

(1) i-s ; ii-r ; iii-p ; iv-q
(2) i-r ; ii-s ; iii-q ; iv-p
(3) i-s ; ii-r ; iii-q ; iv-p
(4) i-p ; ii-q ; iii-r ; iv-s

13) Polygonum type of embryo sac is :-

(1) 4-nucleated, 4-celled
(2) 7-nucleated, 8-celled
(3) 8-nucleated, 7-celled
(4) 8-nucleated, 6-celled

14) Perisperm is a :-

(1) Persistant nucellus in seed

(2) Remnant of integument
(3) Persistant endosperm
(4) Both (1) & (2)

15)

If the female parent bears bisexual flowers then in case of artificial hybridisations the step involved
are:-
(I) Bagging (II) Emasculation
(III) Rebagging (IV) Dusting

Their correct sequence is :-

(1) I-II-IV-III
(2) II-I-IV-III
(3) III-IV-II-I
(4) II-I-III-IV

16) Read the following five statements (A–E) and answer as asked next to them :-
(A) Xenogamy is the only type of pollination, which brings genetically different types of pollen grains
to the stigma
(B) The basal part of ovule is known as nucellus
(C) The number of ovules are many in papaya watermelon and orchids
(D) Stored pollen grains can be used in crop breeding programmes
(E) Generative cell is small and float in the cytoplsam of vegetative cell
How many of the above statements are wrong.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

17)
Identify A, B and C in given diagram of process of anther development in angiosperms:-

A B C

(1) Archesporial cell Epidermis Procambial strand

 Primary parietal Primary sporogenous
(2) Archesporial cell
cell cell

(3) Epidermis Archesporial cell Procambial strand

Primary sporogenous
(4) Epidermis Primary parietal cell
cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Which of the following is perennial but monocarpic plant ?

(1) Wheat
(2) Mango
(3) Bamboo
(4) Neem

19) Seed plants are all :-

(1) Dioecious
(2) Monoecious
(3) Homosporous
(4) Heterosporous

20) Pollen tube develops from :-

(1) Vegetative nucleus

(2) Vegetative cell
(3) Generative cell
(4) Male gametes

21) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
(B) Plant use two abiotic and one biotic agents to achieve pollination.
(C) Wind pollination is quite common in grasses.
(D) Pollinated by water is quite rare in flowering plant.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

22) In pedigree analysis symbol is used for :-

(1) Normal male
(2) 5 unaffected offsprings
(3) Sex unspecified
(4) Abortion

23) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of four characters according

to the category A, B and C :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) An affected male and a normal female have four children: two affected daughters and two
normal sons. Each of the affected daughters (and their normal husbands) produced affected sons
and affected daughters. The couple's normal sons married normal women and had all normal
children. What is the most likely mode of inheritance for this trait?

(1) Paternal inheritance

(2) Y linked recessive
(3) sex-linked dominant
(4) sex-linked recessive

25) Two genes A and B present on same chromosome show 40% crossing over, then what will be the
percentage of gamete (aB) for the plant having genotype AaBb (cis arrangement) :-

(1) 40%
(2) 20%
(3) 80%
(4) 10%

26) In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160
to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is :-

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.7

27) In a typical monohybrid cross, plants of which generation show 3:1 phenotype and 1:2:1
genotype-

(1) Parental generation

(2) First filial generation
(3) Second filial generation
(4) Third filial generation

28) If a plant produces Abcdde gamete then which law of inheritance will not be followed ?

(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Independent assortment
(4) (1) and (3) both

29) Contrasting trait in pea plant studied by Mendel is :-

(1) Seed shape – Round, wrinkled

(2) Pod shape – Axial, Terminal
(3) Flower colour – Green, Yellow
(4) Flower shape – Inflated, constricted

30) A female is heterozygous for two autosomal gene M and N and homozygous for r gene, then
what will be proportion of gamete having all dominant allele :-

(1) 1/8
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/16
(4) 0

31) In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the genotype
AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype

(1) AaBb
(2) aabb
(3) AABB
(4) aaBB

32) Which of the following characters in garden pea plant show incomplete dominance ?

(1) Flower colour

(2) Flower position
(3) Starch grain size
(4) Plant height

33) The crosses in which genders of the parents with respect to their genotypes are changed are
known as :
(1) Back crosses
(2) Random crosses
(3) Test crosses
(4) Reciprocal crosses

34) What is the phenotypic ratio in F2 progeny of a cross involving coat color in cattle ?

(1) 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

35) Choose correct statement :-

(1) Law of independent assortment hold true for the genes located on same chromosome
(2) All characters show complete dominance
(3) Genes on chromosomes regulating the characters are called phenotype
(4) Closely located genes generally assort together

36) Study the pedigree chart given below : What does it show ?

(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia

(2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
(3) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

37) In Morgan's experiment, what will be percentage of recombination in case of body colour and
eye colour ?

(1) 37.2%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 98.7%
(4) 27.3%

38) In the Punnet square given below, the genotype of the female parent and male parents

respectively:
(1) AABB, AaBb
(2) AaBB, AaBb
(3) aaBB, AaBb
(4) AAbb, AaBb

39) Choose correct combination of sex determination in males respectively-

(1) ZW, XO, XY, diploid

(2) XX, ZZ, XY, haploid
(3) ZZ, XO, XY, haploid
(4) XY, XY, XX, XXY

40) Select incorrect statement for ABO blood group :

(1) It is determined by three alleles present in a population of human

(2) It has four phenotype and six genotype
(3) It shows codominance, if genotype is IA IB
(4) Each individual has three alleles but its gamete contain only one allele.

41) Assertion - (A) : Sickle-cell anaemia is caused due to change of one amino acid in β–chain of
haemoglobin.
Reason - (R) : It is a point mutation and occurs due to change of a single base pair in DNA.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

42) How many given statements are correct?

(i) Turner's syndrome is an example of trisomy condition.
(ii) Polyploidy condition is often seen in animals.
(iii) Klinefelter's syndrome caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome in
male,
(iv) Klinefelter's male have underdeveloped breasts (gynaecomastia), sparse body hair,
mentally retarded and sterile.
(v) Turner's females are sterile as ovaries are rudmentary besides other features including lack
of other secondary sexual characters.
(vi) Klinefelter's syndrome is example of monosomy.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

43) A test cross enables us to -

(1) determine the viability of cross.
(2) distinguish between homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant.
(3) determine whether two species can interbreed or not.
(4) determine the similarities in the DNA of two species.

44) Dominant phenotype/trait is produced by :-

(1) Unmodified allele only

(2) Modified alleles only
(3) Both unmodified and equivalent modified alleles
(4) Every modified and unmodified allele.

45) Select the incorrect statement about thalassemia.

(1) It is an autosomal recessive disorder

(2) In α thalassemia, the production of α globin chain is affected
(3) β thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB on chromosome 11
(4) It is a qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functioning globin

46) Select the incorrect statement :-

Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign gene)
(1)
are known as transgenic animals.
Transgenic animals can not be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are
(2)
regulated.
Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute
(3)
to the developement of disease.
Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are
(4)
used on humans.

47) In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified
organisms for public use is :-

(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
(4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)

48) The proteins encoded by the gene cryIAC and cryII Ab controls the a , that of cryI Ab controls
____ :-

(1) a-corn borer, b-cotton boll worms

(2) a-mosquito, b-corn borer
(3) a-cotton boll worms, b-corn borer
(4) a-cotton boll worms, b-beetle

49) The technique which is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patient is :-
(1) Serum analysis
(2) Urine analysis
(3) PCR
(4) Widal test

50) Transgenic animal that produce useful biological products can be created by the introduction of
the portion of DNA (or genes) which codes for a particular product such as human protein (α–1-
antitrypsin) used to treat:-

(1) Sickle cell anaemia

(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Emphysema
(4) Polio

51) Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing

(1) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(2) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
(3) transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(4) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

52) Read the following statements about insulin and choose the option that correctly fills the blank X
and Y:- (a) Insulin consist of two short polypeptide chains : Chain A and B that are linked together by
__X__ bonds
(b) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called __Y__.

X Y

(1) Disulphide E-peptide

(2) Hydrogen C-peptide

(3) Disulphide C-peptide

(4) Hydrogen E-peptide

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Which of the following is best vector for plant and animal cells respectively :-

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Rosie

(2) Pseudomonas putida, Microinjection
(3) Gene gun, Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens, Retroviruses

54) A divalent cation usually used to make the host cell competent, is :
(1) Ca2+
(2) Mg2+
(3) Zn2+
(4) Mn2+

55) In the given diagram plant is protected from :-

(1) Nematode
(2) Fungi
(3) Bacteria
(4) Virus

56) Mark the incorrect statement regarding land mark events in biotechnology

An American company got patent right on basmati rice through US Patent and Trademark
(1)
Office in 1997
(2) Introduction of human alpha-lactalbumin gene was done in cow Rosie in 1997
(3) Eli Lilly produced Humulin in 1983
(4) The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1997 to a girl with adenosine deaminase deficiency

57) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Each restriction endonuclease functions by ‘inspecting’ the length of a DNA sequence
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of the so called
(2)
molecular scissors
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with the
(3)
enzyme Restriction endonuclease
(4) Gel electrophoresis can also be used for checking the progress of restriction digestion.

58) Total restriction endonucleases isolated till date are:

(1) 9000 from 230 strains

(2) 230 from 900 strains
(3) 930 from 220 strains
(4) 900 from 230 strains

59) Given below is the figure of one of the most commonly used bioreactor.
In this, flat bladed impeller helps in :-

(1) Maintaining the pH of medium

(2) Stirring the liquid medium
(3) Regulating temperature of medium
(4) Both (1) & (3)

60) For increasing the food production, which biotechnological application is applied :
(a) Agro-chemical based agriculture
(b) Organic agriculture
(c) Genetically engineered crop based agriculture

(1) a, b and c
(2) only a
(3) only c
(4) a and c only

61) Read the following statements :-

(a) Nematode resistant plant is developed by novel strategy based on process of RNA interference
(RNAi).
(b) RNAi is eukaryotic cellular defence mechanism.
(c) RNAi involves silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA.
(d) Transgenic host expressing two non-complementary RNAs that initiated RNAi.
Choose correct option :-

(1) only a, b
(2) only b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

62) Which of the following technique is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction ?

(1) Polymerase chain reaction

(2) ELISA
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Recombinant DNA technique

63) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

(1) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(2) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

64) Identify the steps that are involved in PCR and choose the correct option.
I. denaturation II. annealing
III. extension IV. down stream processing

(1) II, IV and III

(2) I, IV and II
(3) I, II and III
(4) I, III and IV

65) Flavr savr tomato is developed by using an antisense gene that inhibits

(1) cell division

(2) ripening
(3) reproduction
(4) flowering

66) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as :-

(1) Natural genetic engineer of plant

(2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(4) Symbiotic plant

67) Which statement is true for Taq-polymerase enzyme?

(1) It is a type of RNA polymerase which is isolated from a bacteria

(2) It is a DNA polymerase, which remain active during the high temperature
(3) RNA polymerase, which is used in DNA finger printing
(4) DNA polymerase which is used in gel electrophoresis

68) Competent host cell is required for transformation with rDNA. Following processes are used to
make the host cell competent except :-

(1) Treating them with specific concentration of divalent ion like Ca++
By incubating the cells with rDNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42ºC & then
(2)
putting back on ice
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(4) Both (1) & (2)
69) Which suspect would you charge with the crime?

(1) Both suspect 1 & 2

(2) Only suspect 1
(3) Only suspect 2
(4) Neither suspect 1 nor suspect 2

70) BamH I site is present at :-

(1) ampR gene

(2) tetR gene
(3) Ori
(4) rop

71) Polymerase chain reaction employs ?

(1) RNA Primers and DNA ligase

(2) DNA ligase only
(3) DNA polymerase only
(4) DNA primers and DNA polymerase

72) Bioreactors are useful in :-

(1) Separation and purification of a product

(2) Microinjection
(3) Processing of large volume of culture
(4) Isolation of genetic material

73) What is the advantage of a sparged stirred-tank bioreactor over a simple stirred-tank bioreactor
?

(1) It allows even mixing of the culture

(2) Separation and purification of the product
(3) Temperature and pH control systems are attached
(4) Increases surface area for oxygen transfer

74) In a vector which of the following is helpful in selection of transformants :

(1) Restriction site

(2) Ori site
(3) Selectable marker
(4) Rop site

75) Given below is a typical agarose gel in which electrophoresis had occurred.

In this agarose gel -

(1) Lane - 1 shows migration of digested DNA fragments

(2) Only Lane - 3 shows migration of digested DNA fragments
(3) Lane - 2 to 4 shows migration of digested set of DNA fragments
(4) Wells are always placed towards positive electrode during electrophoresis

76) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of [Link] cloning vector pBR 322 and select the correct

option.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) In vector pBR-322 the 'Rop' codes for the :-

(1) Antibiotic resistance genes

(2) Proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid
(3) Bam HI
(4) β-galactosidase
78) Purified DNA ultimately precipitate out after the addition of chilled ethanol. This DNA that
separate out can be removed by

(1) Electrophoresis
(2) Downstream processing
(3) PCR
(4) Spooling

79) The DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been
isolated from :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Plant
(3) Nematode
(4) Fungus

80) Which one of the following is a not essential feature of a cloning vector ?

(1) Origin of replication

(2) Selectable marker
(3) Pathogenic genes
(4) Cloning sites

81) Which is not true about PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) ?

(1) PCR can amplify very small amount of DNA

(2) It can be used to detect HIV in suspects
(3) Only RNA can be used as primer
(4) Use of thermostable DNA polymerase

82) 'Transgenic' plants are produced by :-

(1) Inducing gene mutation

(2) Arresting spindle fibre formation
(3) Deleting sex chromosomes
(4) Introducing foreign genes

83) How many copies of DNA sample are produced in PCR-technique after 6 cycle ?

(1) 64
(2) 32
(3) 128
(4) 16

84) Read the following sentences.

(a) In elution the separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece
(b) [Link] cloning vector pBR-322 has several restriction sites, an ori, antibiotic resistance genes and
rop.
(c) The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.
(d) Competent bacterial cells take up the plasmid.

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Except d, all are correct
(3) Only d is correct
(4) All are correct

85) Which is responsible for controlling the copy number of linked DNA in a plasmid ?

(1) Ori
(2) Selectable marker
(3) Cloning site
(4) Restriction endonuclease

86) There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI what does "R" letter stand for :

(1) Restriction Enzyme

(2) Species
(3) Genus
(4) Name of bacterial strain

87) During gel electrophoresis for visualization of DNA fragments acted upon by restriction
endonuclease enzyme they are stained by :-

(1) Green dye

(2) Acetocarmine
(3) Ethidium bromide
(4) Janus green

88) Primers used in PCR are :-

(1) Chemically synthesised dinucleotide

(2) Chemically synthesised oligonucleotide
(3) Natural oligonucleotide
(4) Natural polymer

89) In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of :-

(1) Size
(2) Volume
(3) Positive charge of DNA
(4) Both charge and volume

90) Restriction enzyme breaks :-

(1) Hydrogen bond
(2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Sugar phosphate back bone linkage.
(4) All bonds in DNA
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 1 2 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 1 4 4 1 2 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 3 4 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 4 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 4 3 3 1 2 4 3 3 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 4 1 1 4 3 4 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 4 2 4 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 1 4 1 4 3 2 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Apply lenz law.

2) Electric field due to charged or uncharged conducter inside it is zero.

3) T sinθ = F0
T cosθ = mg

tanθ =

F0 = mg tanθ .....(i)
In medium

= mg tanθ .......(ii)
from (i) & (ii)

K=

4) We have,

5) Qinclosed =

= ρ 4π

=
Qinclosed = ρ0πr4
Now, applying Gauss theorm :-

6) E1 = E2 =
Net Ex = 2E1 cos θ
and due to other charges net
Ey = 2E1 sinθ

∴ E=

7)
∴ P1 =Q
=
= 2P + 2P = 4P

8) An electric dipole is a pair of equal and opposite charges q and –q separated by some
distance 2a. Its dipole moment vector has magnitude 2qa and is in the direction of the
dipole axis from –q to q.
The electric field due to a dipole at a point p is

The electric dipole potential falls off at large distance, as not as , characteristic of the
potential due to a single charge.
In uniform electric field , a dipole experience a torque given by but
experience no net force.

9) Before

After

V' = = –2V

10) B = (sinθ1 + sinθ2)

=
11) B =

B=

B=

B=

12) At point P net magnetic field

where and

13)

B1 = (due to semicircular part)

B2 = (due to parallel parts of currents)

These two fields are at right angles to each other. Hence, resultant field,

B=

14)
xeff = 2L
so F = IB Xeff
F = 2IBL
Hence option (3)

15)
16)

Bcenter =

⇒ Bcenter =

17) given

so R < ℓ
so The particle will not enter in region III.

18)

L =mvr = ⇒v=
Magnetic field produced by electron at centre of orbit

B=

B=

19) Magnetic field at the centre due to one side

B1 = , where r = a cos θ

So B1 =
Hence net magnetic field

Bnet =

20)
FAB = iℓB (Attractive)

FAB = i(L). (←) = (←)

FBC ( ) and FAD (↓) ⇒ cancels each other
FCD = iℓB (Repulsive)

FCD = i(L) (→) = (→)

⇒ Fnet = – =

21) Explain the Question : Asking about potential B as shown in figure.

Concept : This question is based on KVL

Solution :

Apply KVL
0 – 2 × 2 + 20 –1 × 2 – 2 × 2 = VB
VB = 10 V
Final Answer : Option (4)

22)

23)
(Req)3 = 1.5Ω
 {∵ V = 3 volt}

24) When S is open

Reading of V1 would equal to potential difference across AB while V2 and V3 will show no
deflection as connected across point B
(short-circuit)
when S is closed

Now reading of all voltameters would be equal to potential difference across AB.
So potential difference across V2 and V3 will increase while reading of V1 will remain same.

25) KCL at y
Iy = 1 + 3 = 4A
KCL at x 2 + IH = Iy ⇒ IH = 4 – 2
VA – iR = VB
applying KVL along G × H
VG – 2(4) + 3 – 2(2) + (1)(2) = VH

26)

=0
x – 20 + 2x – 40 + x = 0
4x = 60
x = 15 V

27) ≡
 ≡

28)

e=e–V=e–

e=

29) Total heat produced

=
=

30) The circuit can be redrawn as follows.

Resistance across AB

RAB = Ω
Total resistance of circuit

RT = 2 + Ω
Current through ammeter

i= A

31) Explain Question:

We have to calculate ratio of energy of the capacitor in final steady state.
(When key is closed) to the initial state (When key is open).

Concept:
Energy stored in capacitors.

Solution:

Final answer: Option (2)

32) Answer

33) C′ = = =

C′ = 40.5 PF

34) C3 become short after closing S1 and S2.

35)

and

∴ = 44%

36) As shown in figure, electric field between the two plates is pertendicular to the surface of

the conductor. Effective area of capacitor will be A1.

As

or

37)

Explain Question:
Asking about the effective capacitance between A and B.

Concept:
Combination of capacitances

Solution:
Now, rearranging the circuit.

Due to balanced bridge condition, the capacitance between X & Y will be removed.
therefor

CAB = C
 Final answer: option (1)

38) Given circuit is equivalent to

and
Effective capacity

Ceq = C1 + C2
Hence, energy stored

U=

= = 1.6 × 10–9 J
= 1.6 nJ

39)

Effective length of the loop = 2R

perpendicular component of velocity to effective length vsinθ
e=

e = B2R v sin θ

40) By the movement of both the magnets, current will be anticlockwise, as seen from left side.
i.e, plate 1 will be positive and 2 will be negative.
 41) Rate of work =

42) The emf induced across the rod AB is e = Bv⊥ ℓ

Here v⊥ = v sin 30° = component of velocity perpendicular to length

= e = Bvℓ sin 30° = (2) (4) (1) =4V

The free electrons of the rod shift towards right due to the fore . Thus, the left side of
the rod is at higher potential. or VA – VB = 4V

43)

44) Induced emf will oppose motion of magnet.

45)

For neutral point

F1 = F2

x = 2R
A/c to COME
EA = EN

=0+

⇒ V=

CHEMISTRY

46)
Reactivity

47)

Both (1) & (3)

48) Explain Question: Question is asking about assertion and reason and their relationship
with each other?

Concept: This question is based on Exothermic process, General reaction.

Solution: Mostly reaction of fluorine is exothermic because fluorine has very high electron
gain enthalpy due to small size which results in release of energy during bond formation so
assertion and reason both are true and reason explains assertion.

Final Answer (1)

49) NCERT Pg. # 207

Noble gas being monoatomic have number interatomic forces except weak dispersion force
and therefore, they are liquified at very low temperature. Hence they have low boiling pt.

50)

Explanation – The question asks you to identify the chemical reaction where the central
atom's hybridization state remains unchanged from reactants to products.

Concept (Hybridization & Hydrolysis reaction)

PCl5 (sp3d) + 5H2O → H3PO4 (sp3) + 5HCl (Hybridization change)

SF4 (sp3d) + 4H2O → H2SO3 (sp3) + 4HF (Hybridization change)

XeF6 (sp3d3) + 6H2O → XeO3 (sp3) + 6HF (Hybridization change)

SiCl4 (sp3) + 4H2O → Si(OH)4 (sp3) + 4HCl (No hybridization change)

Final Answer – Option(4)

51)

2.5 × 10–2

52)

Oxalic acid and KMnO4

53) According to bronsted lowry concept, proton donor act as acid.

54) [H+] or [H3O+]

= =10–5
∴ pH = 5

55)

10–4 M [Ag+] and 10–4 M [Cl–]

56)

HA > HB > HC

57)

8.0 × 10-12

58)

H2O at 0°C (Kw = 10–16M2)

59) Solubility, S =
Ksp = 4S3 = 4 × (2 × 10–5)3 = 3.2 × 10–14

60)

S1 > S3 > S2 > S4

61)

AgCl will precipitate first as the amount of Ag+ needed to precipitate is low.

62)

63)

A is false but R is true

64)

Conceptual

65)
Its pH = 3.0

66)

Ans. 3

67) Ksp = [Zn2+][S2–]

[S2–] = = 10–19

for

10–20 = = [H+] = 0.1

or pH = 1

68) pH = pKa + log

69)

(Answer 4.19)

70)

2/3 mole of K2Cr2O7 are used in acidic medium

71)

ΔE = W ≠ 0, q = 0

72)
Magnitude of work done = Area under P–V curve

= πr2 = π ×
=

=
ΔU = 0 (for cyclic process) ΔU = q + W
73)

(Answer 2.4 K)

74)

(a), (c) and (d)

75) ΔG° = – RTℓnK

= (108)
= – 8.314 × 298 × 8 × 2.3/1000 = – 45.65 kJ

76)

ΔrGº = ΔrHº – T × ΔrSº

ΔrSº = 2 × 81 – 4 × 24 – 3 × 205 J/mol
∴ ΔrHº = – 2258.1 kJ/mol
ΔrHº = 2 × ΔfHº (Cr2O3, s)

∴ ΔrHº (Cr2O3, s) = –
= – 1129.05 kJ/mol

77)

I2(s) → I2(g)
ΔH2 = ΔH1 + ΔCP(T2 – T1)
ΔCP = CP(I2, g) – CP (I2, s) = – 6.2 cal/mole
ΔH2 = 6096 – 6.2(50) = 5786 cal/mole
ΔH = ΔU + 1 × 2 × 523
5786 = ΔU + 1 × 2 × 523
ΔU = 5786 – 1046 = 4740 cal

78)

1.4 × 1032

79) To precipitate
[Pb2+][OH–]2 ≥ Ksp
[OH–]Min =

80)

1.25 × 10–4 M

81)

Conceptual

82)

Conceptual

83)

Question Explanation : Identify the addition that maintains a constant pH in a buffer.

Concept: Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for basic buffers.
Solution: The mixture of NH4OH (a weak base) and NH4Cl (its conjugate acid salt) forms a
basic buffer solution. The pH of this buffer is determined by its pOH , given by the Henderson-

Hasselbalch equation: , where n represents the number of moles of

each component. Because the pOH depends on the molar ratio of the salt to the base rather
than their absolute concentrations, adding 1 ml of water (dilution) will change the volume but
not the number of moles of salt or base. Since the ratio remains constant, the pH
stays unchanged. Conversely, adding more or as suggested in options 2,3 , and 4
will alter this ratio and thus shift the pH .
Final Answer: Option (1)

84)

[Mg+2] [OH–]2 = [10–3] [10–5]2

Ksp > [Mg+2] [OH–]2
pH = 9 pOH = 5.

85)
3T2 – 3T1 = – T2
4T2 = 3T1
86)

87) In alkaline medium

–
OH group is converted into
which directs the electrophile at its ortho position

88)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which among the given statements about protein
structures is correct. It involves understanding different levels of protein structure and their
characteristics.

Underlying Concept: Proteins have multiple levels of structural organization: primary,

secondary, tertiary, and quaternary. The primary structure is the amino acid sequence. The
secondary structure includes local arrangements like alpha-helices and beta-sheets. The
tertiary structure refers to the overall 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain. The quaternary
structure describes the spatial arrangement of multiple polypeptide subunits. Correct
identification of these structural levels is key to understanding protein function.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: - Primary: sequence - Secondary: local folding (helices, sheets) -
Tertiary: overall 3D shape - Quaternary: arrangement of multiple subunits Also, fibrous and
globular describe types of proteins, not structural levels.

Common Mistakes: Confusing fibrous and globular proteins as types of structural levels.
Misidentifying the spatial arrangement of subunits (which is quaternary) as primary structure.
Misunderstanding forces that stabilize structures.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 1) 'Fibrous and Globular protein are secondary
structure of proteins.' is incorrect because fibrous and globular refer to protein types, not
secondary structure. 2) 'The main forces which destabilise the secondary & tertiary structures
of proteins are hydrogen bonds, disulphide linkages, van der waals and electrostatic forces of
attraction.' is wrong because these forces stabilize (not destabilize) protein structures. 3) 'The
spatial arrangement of sub-units with respect to each other is known as primary structure of
 protein.' is false; this describes quaternary structure, not primary.

89)

Explaining the Question :-

Question ask to estimate Percentage composition of nitrogen in 0.4 g organic compound using
Kjeldahl's method using given data.
Concept:- Kjeldahl's method
Solution :-
Given Data: Mass of organic compound = 0.4 g, Ammonia (NH3) evolved is absorbed in 50 ml
of 0.5 M H2SO4, Residual acid requires 60 ml of 0.5 M NaOH for neutralization.
Moles of H2SO4 = Molarity × Volume (L) = 0.5 × 50/1000 = 0.025 moles
Moles of NaOH used = 0.5 × 60/1000 = 0.03 moles
Residual H2SO4 = 0.03/2 = 0.015 moles
Reacted H2SO4 = Initial H2SO4 – Residual H2SO4 = 0.025 – 0.015 = 0.01 moles
Moles of NH3 = 0.01 × 2 = 0.02 moles, Mass of N = 0.02 × 14 = 0.28 g
%N = (Mass of N/Mass of compound) × 100 = (0.40.28) × 100 = 70%
Final Answer :- Option 3

90)

+ Br2 + 4NaOH —→ R–NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O

Four mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2 used for per mole of amine prouced.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg.#22

92) NCERT Pg.#14

93) NCERT Pg.#20

94) NCERT Pg.#12, 13

95)

A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

96)
A – Endosperm, B – Cotyledon, C - Hypocotyl root axis, D – Root tip, E - Shoot apical meristem

97) NCERT Page No: 27, 28

98)

3 mitotic division to form mature embryo sac

99)

Synergids

100)

Wind pollinated

101)

Zygote → Proembryo → Globular stage → Heart shaped embryo → Mature embryo

102)

i-s ; ii-r ; iii-q ; iv-p

103) NCERT-XII Pg. # 27, para-2.2.2

104) NCERT-XII Pg. # 36, para-2.4.3

105)

II-I-IV-III

106)

Conceptual

107)

Conceptual

108)

Explain Question : The question is asking which of the given plants is perennial but
monocarpic.
Concept : This question is based on A Fascinating Organ Of Angiosperms.

Solution : Bamboo is a perennial plant (lives for many years) but monocarpic (flowers once
and dies).

Final Answer : option (3)

109)

Explain Question: Question asking about characteristic features of Seed plants.

Concept: Seed plant -Gymnosperm and Angiosperm

Solution:

All seed plants (including gymnosperms and angiosperms) are heterosporous, meaning they
produce two distinct types of spores: microspores (male spores) and megaspores (female
spores).

Final answer: 4

110)

Vegetative cell

111) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 28, 29

112)

5 unaffected offsprings

113)

Conceptual

114)

sex-linked dominant

115)

(Answer 20%)

116)

(Answer 0.6)
117) NCERT Pg.# 72,74

118) NCERT Pg.# 75

119) NCERT Pg.# 70

120)

Conceptual

121)

aabb

122) NCERT XIIth Pg.#78

123)

Reciprocal crosses

124)

1:2:1

125)

Closely located genes generally assort together

126)

Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait

127)

(Answer 1.3%)

128)

aaBB, AaBb

129)

ZZ, XO, XY, haploid

130)

Each individual has three alleles but its gamete contain only one allele.

131)

Assertion and reason both are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

132)

Conceptual

133)

Explain Question : A test cross enables us to.

Concept : This question is based on test cross = Crossing an individual showing dominant
phenotype with a homozygous recessive.
Explanation : Purpose: To find out whether the dominant phenotype individual is homozygous
dominant or heterozygous.
If all offspring show dominant trait → parent is homozygous dominant.
If 50% dominant & 50% recessive → parent is heterozygous.
Final answer : 2

134)

Both unmodified and equivalent modified alleles

135)

It is a qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functioning globin

136) Explanation :
The assertion asks to identify the incorrect statement about transgenic animals from the given
options.

Concept :
The concept based on transgenic animals.

Solution :
Statement-(2) is incorrect one because transgenic animals can be specifically designed to
allow the study of how genes are regulated.

Final Answer : (2)

137) Explanation :
Identify the Indian organization responsible for evaluating the safety of genetically modified
organisms for public use.
Concept :
The concept based on Ethical Issues.

Final Answer : (4)

138)

a-cotton boll worms, b-corn borer

139)

NCERT XII Page # 212

140) NCERT XII Pg # 183

141)

transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans

142) NCERT Pg. No. 182

143)

Agrobacterium tumefaciens, Retroviruses

144)

Explaining the Question : The question asks to identify the duvalent cation commonly used
to make a host cell competant for transformation

Concept : Competent host

Solution : Calcium (Ca2+) is the divalent cation most commonly used to make host cells
competent for DNA uptake in bacterial transformation

Final answer : Option (1)

145)

Question Explanation – The question is asking which type of pathogen the plant is protected
from in the given diagram.

Concept –BIOTECHNOLOGICAL APPLICATIONS IN AGRICULTURE

Solution – The plant is protected from nematode infection.

A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based on
the process of RNA interference (RNAi)

Final Answer – Option 1 (Nematode)

146)

NCERT XII [Link] 211

147)

Question Explanation: We must find the incorrect statement about tools used in
recombinant DNA technology.

Concept: Recombinant DNA technology

Solution: Statement 3 says that linking antibiotic-resistance gene with plasmid vector became
possible because of restriction endonuclease.

This is incorrect because cutting is done by restriction enzyme, but joining is done by DNA
ligase.

Final answer: Option 3

148) NCERT Pg # 195

149)

NCERT Pg. No. 174

150)

Conceptual

151)

Conceptual

152) NCERT Page No. # 212

153)

The correct answer is: 1. Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

Restriction endonucleases, often referred to as restriction enzymes, are fascinating proteins

 that slice DNA at particular recognition sequences, which we call restriction sites. These
enzymes are naturally occurring in bacteria, serving as a defense mechanism to protect
against invading foreign DNA, like that from viruses.

154)

I, II and III

155)

ripening

156) Question Explanation: The question asks what Agrobacterium tumefaciens is commonly
known as.

Concept: The question is based on biotechnology and genetic engineering in plants.

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil bacterium that causes crown gall disease in plants.
B. It naturally transfers a segment of its Ti plasmid (T-DNA) into the plant genome. Because of
this ability, it is called the natural genetic engineer of plants.

Final Answer: Option 1

157)

NCERT XII Pg # 173

158) NCERT XII Pg. # 170

159)

Question Explanation : Which suspect would you charge with the crime?
Explanation & Solution :
To determine the suspect, we need to compare the DNA bands in the "Crime scene sample"
column with the bands in the "Suspect-1" and "Suspect-2" columns.
Suspect-1: The banding pattern in Suspect-1 does not match the Crime scene sample. There
are several bands in the Crime scene sample that are missing in Suspect-1, and vice versa.
Suspect-2: The banding pattern in Suspect-2 perfectly matches the Crime scene sample.
Every band in the Crime scene sample is present in Suspect-2.
Therefore, only Suspect-2's DNA matches the crime scene sample.
The correct answer is 3. Only suspect 2.

160)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the location of the BamHI restriction site in
plasmid pBR322.
 Concept: Recombinant DNA – Plasmid

Solution: The correct answer is option 2

A. In pBR322, the BamHI recognition site is located within the tetracycline resistance
(tetR) gene. This allows selection of recombinants by inactivating tetR when foreign DNA
is inserted at this site.

Final Answer: Option 2

161)

Question Explanation: The question asks which components are used in Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR).

Concept: PCR

Solution: The correct answer is Option 4

PCR requires:

A. DNA primers → to initiate DNA synthesis

B. DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) → to extend the primers and form new strands

RNA primers and DNA ligase are not used in PCR.

Therefore, the correct combination is DNA primers and DNA polymerase.

Final Answer: Option 4

162)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the main utility of bioreactors.
Concept: The question is based on biotechnology and bioprocess engineering.
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Bioreactors are designed to provide controlled conditions (temperature, pH, oxygen, nutrients)
for the growth of microorganisms or cells.
B. Their primary use is in processing large volumes of culture for industrial production of
products like enzymes, vaccines, and antibodies.

​ Final Answer: Option 3

163) NCERT XII Pg # 174

164)

Question Explanation: The question asks which feature in a vector helps identify
 transformants (cells that have successfully taken up the vector).

Concept: Vector – Selectable marker

Solution: The correct answer is option 3

A. Selectable markers (e.g., antibiotic resistance genes) help in selection of transformants

by allowing only the transformed cells to survive on selective media.

Final Answer: Option 3

165)

NCERT-XII, Page # 198, Fig. 11.3

166) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 199

th
167) NCERT (XII ) Pg. # 199 (Para 11.4)

168) NCERT-XII, Page # 201 (11.3.1)

169)

Question Explanation: The question asks the source organism of Taq DNA polymerase used
in PCR.

Concept: PCR

Solution: The correct answer is Option 1

A. Taq polymerase is isolated from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which
survives in hot springs.
Its heat stability allows PCR to withstand high temperatures during DNA denaturation.

So, the correct organism category is Bacteria.

Final Answer: Option 1

170) NCERT Page # 199

171)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement regarding Polymerase Chain

Reaction (PCR).

Concept: PCR
 Solution: The correct answer is Option 3

A. PCR uses DNA primers, not RNA primers.

B. It amplifies even minute quantities of DNA and is used in disease detection like HIV. It
also uses thermostable DNA polymerase (e.g., Taq polymerase).

Final Answer: Option 3

172)

Explanation : Transgenic plants are plants that have been genetically modified by the
introduction of a foreign gene (a gene from another species or an artificially constructed gene)
into their genome. This is the defining characteristic of a transgenic organism.

Correct Answer : The correct answer is Option 4: Introducing foreign genes.

173)

each cycle of PCR, the number of DNA copies doubles.

If we start with one copy of DNA, after 6 cycles, the number of copies will be:
26 = 64

174) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about which of the following
statements about DNA elution, plasmid pBR322, downstream processing, and bacterial
competence are correct?
Concept:- Key Terms in Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
]
Solution :-All given statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct regarding DNA elution, pBR322
features, downstream processing, and bacterial
competence.
Final Answer :- (4) All are correct

175)

Conceptual

176)

Explaining the Question :-

The question is asking about There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI what does "R"
letter stand for
Concept:-
Restriction endonucleases
Solution :-
In the name EcoRI, the "R" stands for the name of the bacterial strain from which the enzyme
was isolated.
Breakdown of EcoRI:
E → Escherichia (Genus)
co → coli (species)
R → RY13, the strain of E. coli
I → Indicates it was first enzyme isolated from this strain
Final Answer :- (4)

177)

NCERT Page No. # 198

178)

Chemically synthesised oligonucleotide

179)

Question Explanation:
The question asks the basis on which DNA molecules are separated in gel electrophoresis.

Concept:
Principle of gel electrophoresis

Solution:
DNA molecules are separated based on their size (length) because DNA has a uniform
negative charge per unit length, so charge differences do not affect separation. Smaller
fragments move faster through the gel matrix.

Final Answer: Option 1

180) NCERT Page No. # 196

2nd Para 4th line statements.