11-01-2026

9610WMD802296250015 MD

PHYSICS

1) In figure, wires P1Q1 and P2Q2, both are moving towards right with speed 5 cm/sec. Resistance of

each wire is 2Ω. Then current through 19Ω resistor is :-

(1) 0
(2) 0.1 mA
(3) 0.2 mA
(4) 0.3 mA

2) A transformer is used to light a 110 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is
2 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately :-

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 10%
(4) 30%

3) The magnetic field in a coil of 100 turns and 40 square cm area is increased from 1 Tesla to 6
Tesla in 2 second. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the coil. The e.m.f. generated in it is:

(1) 104 V
(2) 1.2 V
(3) 1.0 V
(4) 10–2 V

4) Suppose a long rectangular loop width w is moving along the x-direction with its left arm in
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the loop (see figure). The resistance of the loop is zero
and it has an inductance L. At time, t = 0, its left arm passes the origin, O.

If for t ≥ 0, the current in the loop is I and the

distance of its left arm from the origin is x, then I versus x graph will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two small circular coils are made of copper wires of same length In the first coil the number of
turns is 3n and radius is r. In the second coil number of turns is n and radius is 3r the ratio of self
inductances of the coils will be :–

(1) 9 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 9

6) The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete a circuit. If at a certain instant the
current i is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 103 A/s then VB – VA is :-

(1) 5 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 15 V
(4) 20 V

7) In which of the follwing circuits is the current maximum just after the switch S is closed :-

(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) Both (ii) and (iii)

8) The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate of 10–2 m/s. A constant and uniform magnetic
field of induction 10–3 Wb/m2 acts perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil when
the induced e.m.f. in the coil is 1μV, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A conducting rod rotates with a constant angular velocity ‘ω’ about the axis which passes through
point ‘O’ and perpendicular to its length. A uniform magnetic field ‘B’ exists parallel to the axis of
the rotation. Then potential difference between the two ends of the rod is :

(1) 6Bωℓ2
(2) Bωℓ2
(3) 10Bωℓ2
(4) Zero

10) The mutual inductance between a primary and secondary circuits is 0.5 H. The resistance of the
primary and the secondary circuits are 20Ω and 5Ω respectively. To generate a current of 0.4 A in
the secondary, current in the primary must be changed at the rate of :-

(1) 4.0 A/s

(2) 1.6 A/s
(3) 16.0 A/s
(4) 8.0 A/s

11) A cylindrical frame of volume 1 mm3 placed at the centre of square loop of side 100 cm, carrying
a current of 1A then magnetic potential energy stored inside the frame :-

(1) 16 × 10–8 J
(2) 16 × 10–17 J
(3) 16 × 10–21 J

(4)

12)

A coil has an inductance of 5 henrys and a resistance of 20 ohms. If a 100 volt emf is applied, what
energy stored in the magnetic field after the current has built up to maximum current?

(1) 62.5 joules

(2) 82.5 joules
(3) 50 joules
(4) none of these

13) Statement-1 : When a magnet is made to fall freely through a closed coil, its acceleration is
always less than acceleration due to gravity.
and
Statement-2 : Current induced in the coil opposes the motion of the magnet, as per Lenz's law.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

14) Two concentric circular coils, one of small radius r1 and the other of large radius r2, such that r1
<< r2, are placed coaxially with centres coinciding. Obtain the mutual inductance of the
arrangement.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If two ends of an ideal rope are pulled with forces of equal magnitude of 100 N in opposite
direction, the tension at the center of the rope must be

(1) 200 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 0 N

16) A block of mass 10 kg is hold on a vertical wall of lift which is going upward with acceleration of
2 m/s2. Find minimum value of F so that we can hold the block w.r.t. lift. Friction coffecient between

block & wall of lift is 0.5 :-

(1) 40 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 240 N
(4) 60 N

17) Three blocks A, B, C of mass 2kg, 3kg, 5kg are placed on a frictionless incline as shown in figure.
Force F of magnitude 150 N is applied on block 'C' as shown. Find tension in string 1(T1) :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 40 N

18) In the system shown in figure, the ground is frictionless, the blocks have mass m and 2 m and
the string connecting them is massless. If you accelerate the system to the right, as shown, the
tension is the same everywhere throughout the string connecting the masses because

(1) The string is massless

(2) The ground is frictionless
(3) The ratio of the masses is 2 : 1
(4) The acceleration of the system is non-zero.
19) Find value of frictional force acting on block A:-

(1) 50 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 30 N

20) The figure shows the position time (X - t) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4
kg. The magnitude of change in momentum at each peak is:-

(1) 0.2 Ns
(2) 0.4 Ns
(3) 0.8 Ns
(4) 1.6 Ns

21) A string of negligible mass going over a clamped pulley of mass m supports a block of M = 3m as

shown in the figure. The force on the pulley by the clamp is given by

(1) Mg
(2) mg
(3) ( ) mg
(4) 5 mg
22) A light unstretchable string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m1

and m2. If the acceleration of the system is , then the ratio of the masses is :

(1) 9 : 7
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 5 : 3
(4) 8 : 1

23) In the given figure the coefficient of friction between the two blocks is μ, and all other surface is

smooth. Find the minimum value of F which will prevent slipping?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Constitutional (P) Stereoisomers that are not mirror image isomer

Isomers that havesame constitutionbut differ in the arrangement of

(B) Stereoisomers (Q)
their atoms in space

(C) Enantiomers (R) Isomers that differ in the order in which their atoms are connected

Stereoisomers that are related as an object and its non

(D) Diastereoisomers (S)
superimposable mirror image
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(4) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
2)
The molecules represented by the above two structures are :

(1) identical
(2) enantiomers
(3) diastereomers
(4) epimers

3) In which of the following compound have plane of symmetry ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Number of chiral-C present in CH3-(CHOH)5-CH3 ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

5) d-Tartaric acid and Meso tartaric acid are-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Not isomers
(4) Geometrical isomers

6) Configurations of the two centres in the following molecule are :

(1) (2R, 3S)

(2) (2R, 3R)
(3) (2S, 3S)
(4) (2S, 3R)

7) What is relation between following compounds

and

(1) positional isomers

(2) chain isomers
(3) optical isomers
(4) metamers

8) In which compound cis-trans nomenclature cannot be used :

(1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH
(2) C6H5–CH=CH–C6H5
(3) C6H5–CH=CHD

(4)

9) Compare dipole moment of the following and select correct one

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All

10) GI is shown by :

(1)

(2) CH3CH=C=CHCH3

(3)

(4) CH3CH=C=C=CH2

11) Which of the following is a pair of metamers

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) For compound, which statement is correct

(1) If (A) and (B) have same molecular formula then compound never show geometrical isomerism.
(2) If (A) and (B) have same molecular formula then compound always show geometrical isomerism.
If (A) and (B) have same molecular formula then compound may or may not show geometrical
(3)
isomerism.
(4) None of the above

13) Which cannot show tautomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The order of acidic strength of the hydrogen atom (Hα, Hβ, Hγ) in the given molecule is :

(1) Hγ > Hα > Hβ

(2) Hγ > Hβ > Hα
(3) Hα > Hβ > Hγ
(4) Hβ > Hα > Hγ

15) Arrange the following in decreasing order of acidic strength:

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > IV > III > I
(4) IV > II > III > I

16) Consider the following carbanions :

Correct decreasing order of stability is :

(1) II > III > IV > I

(2) III > IV > I > II
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

17) The order of the –I effect orbitals in :

(1) sp3 > sp2 > sp

(2) sp2 > sp3 > sp
(3) sp > sp2 > sp3
(4) sp3 > sp > sp2

18) The number of electron present in the valence shell of carbon of carbanion bearing –ve charge

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 4

19) Arrange the following in the stability order :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3
(4) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4
20) Which among the given acid has lowest pKa value

(1) Chloroacetic acid

(2) Bromoacetic acid
(3) Nitroacetic acid
(4) Cyanoacetic acid

21) Acetic acid is considered as resonance hybrid

Which of the following order is correct for the stability of four contributing structure :

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) I > IV > III > II

22) The correct order of decreasing basic strengths of x, y and z is :

(1) x > y > z

(2) x > z > y
(3) y > x > z
(4) y > z > x

BIOLOGY

1) Arrange the following in correct order of sequence for DNA finger-printing-

(a) Blotting (b) Hybridization
(c) Gel Electrophorosis (d) Autoradiography

(1) c, a, d, b
(2) a, c, d, b
(3) b, c, a, d
(4) c, a, b, d

2) The sequence of events mentioned below are symbolized by alphabets. Choose the correct answer
where the alphabets are matched with the processes:
 A–Replication, B–Transformation,
(1)
C–Transcription, D–Translation
A–Reverse transcription, B–Translation,
(2)
C–Transcription, D–Replication
A–Replication, B–Transcription,
(3)
C–Translation, D–Tranduction
A–Reverse transcription, B–Replication,
(4)
C–Transcription, D–Translation

3) Which of the following is a wrong statement?

(1) Histone proteins are rich in basic amino acids.

(2) Positively charged DNA is wrapped around negatively charged histone octamer.
The nucleosomes in a chromatin are seen as 'beads-on-string' structure when viewed under
(3)
electron microscope (EM).
(4) In DNA, the distance between two consecutive base pairs in 0.34 nm.

4) Match the following and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Cistron (I) Transcription unit
B. Exon (II) Non-coding part
C. Intron (III) Coding part
D. Monocistronic (IV) Prokaryotes
E. Polycistronic (V) Eukaryotes
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V E-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-V, E-VI
(4) A-V, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-II

5) Which of the RNAs are involved in protein synthesis?

(1) rRNA and mRNA only

(2) mRNA and tRNA only
(3) rRNA and tRNA only
(4) mRNA, rRNA and tRNA

6) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

(A) DNA is more stable and less reactive than RNA due to the presence of deoxyribose sugar.
(B) Uridine consists of uracil and ribose sugar.
(C) RNA is the genetic material in most of bacteria.
(D) The base sequence of only one strand of DNA can be determined if the base sequence of RNA is
known.
(1) A and B only
(2) A, B, and C only
(3) B, C, and D only
(4) A and D only

7) The essential life processes such as metabolism, splicing, and translation evolved around-

(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Protein
(4) Lipid

8) Select the pair of incorrect matches.

(1) Ribozyme- nucleic acid

(2) tRNA- Adapter molecule
(3) Amino acid acceptor end- mRNA
(4) Stop codon- no tRNA

9) Beta-galactosidase enzyme is primarily responsible for:-

(1) Synthesis of glycosidic bond

(2) Breakdown of glycosidic bond
(3) Synthesis of galactose
(4) Breakdown of galactose

10) Genomes of how many of the following organisms are also sequenced apart from the human
genome?
Caenorhabditis elegans, Drosophila, Rice, Arabidopsis

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

11) Fredrick Sanger is known for:-

(1) Developing the method for sequencing of DNA

(2) Developing the method for sequencing of lipid
(3) Developing the method for sequencing of carbohydrates
(4) Both (1) and (3)

12) Both DNA and RNA are believed to be characterised by following :

(a) both are composed of Nucleotides
(b) both contain same group of N-bases
(c) both are present only in nucleus
(d) both are synthesized in complementary manner
How many statements are true?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All

13) Which one is correctly matched :

(1) RNA polymerase → splicing

(2) snRNA → spliceosome
(3) Okazaki fragment → transcription
(4) Cistron → non coding part

14) Match column I with column II and find the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Monoploidy (1) 2n – 1

(B) Monosomy (2) 2n + 1

(C) Nullisomy (3) 2n + 2

(D) Trisomy (4) 2n – 2

(E) Tetrasomy (5) x

(6) 3x
(1) (A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)
(2) (A)–(5), B–(2), (C)–(4), (D)–(1), (E)–(3)
(3) (A)–(6), B–(5), (C)–(3), (D)–(4), (E)–(2)
(4) (A)–(2), B–(1), (C)–(3), (D)–(6), (E)–(5)

15) Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II

(a) Histone (i) Loosely packed chromatin

(b) Nucleosomes (ii) DNA wrapped around histone octamer

(c) Euchromatin (iii) Tightly packed chromatin

(d) Heterochromatin (iv) Positive charged basic protein

(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
16) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix
Statement II: In a typical nucleus, some region of chromatin are loosely packed are referred to as
euchromatin.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

17) In salamander AAG codon code for Lysine. In Sea Urchin same codon ( AAG) code for :-

(1) Lysine
(2) Leucine
(3) Therionine
(4) Histidine

18) E. coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only
lactose as the source of energy because:

(1) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells

(2) They cannot synthesise functional beta-galactosidase
(3) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilise lactose
(4) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell

19) Study the lists and find the correct match.

List-I List-II
Site for binding of RNA
(a) Splicing (i)
polymerase
(b) Capping (ii) Removal of introns
Methyl guanosine
(c) Tailing (iii)
triphosphate
(d) Promoter (iv) Adenylate residues
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a- iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

20) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only:
(a) DNA fingerprinting is used in forensic science
(b) DNA fingerprinting can be used for determining population and genetic diversities
(c) VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as microsatellite
(d) VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statement (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Statement (a), (b) and (d)
(4) Statement (c) and (d)

21)

Which of the following is related to degeneracy of genetic code ?

(1) Some amino acids coded by only one codon.

(2) One codon coding for only one amino acid.
(3) One amino acid coded by more than one codon.
(4) One codon coding for many amino acids.

22) Unwinding of DNA double helix during replication is carried out by :-

(1) ATP dependent DNA topoisomerase enzyme

(2) ATP independent DNA helicase enzyme
(3) ATP independent DNA topoisomerase enzyme
(4) ATP dependent DNA helicase enzyme

23) What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA ?
3'ATGCATGCATGCATG5' ↔ TEMPLATE STRAND
5' TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING STRAND

(1) 3' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5'

(2) 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'
(3) 3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'
(4) 5' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3'

24) Which of the following cross gives 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio ?

(1) AABb × AABB

(2) AaBBCcDDEE × AaBBCcDDEE
(3) AaBB × AaBB
(4) aaBBCc × AAbbCc

25) Alleles are :-

(1) Slightly variable forms of genes present on same locus of homologous chromosomes.
(2) Slightly varible form of genes present on same chromosome.
(3) Similar genes present at different locus of homologus chromosomes.
(4) Slightly different form of genes present on same locus of non homologous chromosomes.

26) Which of the following trait is only express in homozygous condition -

(a) Yellow seed colour
(b) Green pod colour
(c) Inflated pod shape
(d) Terminal flower position
(e) Yellow pod colour

(1) c, d & e
(2) a, b & c
(3) a, b, c, d & e
(4) d & e only

27) Mendel's work remain unrecognised till 1900 due to all except :-

(1) His work could not be widely publicised

(2) His work was not supported with required data
(3) He could not provide any proof for existence of factors
(4) His concept of genes as stable and discrete units was not accepted by his contemporaries

28) Assertion (A) : The segregation of alleles is a random process and so there is a 50% chance of a
gamete containing either allele.
Reason (R) : By the process of mitosis, the alleles of the parental pair separates from each other &
only one allele is transmitted to a gamete.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

29) ln human being brown eye colour is dominant over blue eye colour. What will be the genotype of
brown eyed parents, if they have blue eyed child?

(1) BB × bb
(2) Bb × bb
(3) Bb × Bb
(4) BB × Bb

30) Identify the correct match from the column I,II and III :-

Column–I Column–II Column–III

(1) Monohybrid cross (a) Tt×tt (i) 9:3:3:1

(2) Dihybrid cross (b) Tt×TT (ii) 3:1

(3) Test cross (c) TT×tt (iii) 1:1

(4) Back (out) cross (d) RRYY × rryy (iv) All tall
(1) 1-a-ii, 2-d-i, 3-c-iv, 4-b-iii
(2) 1-b-iii, 2-a-i, 3-c-ii, 4-d-iv
(3) 1-c-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-b-iii, 4-a-i
(4) 1-c- ii, 2- d- i, 3-a-iii, 4-b-iv

31) Which of the following is true for progenies of F4 generation of monohybrid cross ?

(1) 50 % Pure and 50 % Hybrid

(2) 75 % Pure and 25 % Hybrid
(3) 87.5 % Pure and 12.5 % Hybrid
(4) 12.5 % Pure and 87.5 % Hybrid

32) In a dihybrid cross in garden pea plants, 1024 plants were obtained in F2 generation. How many
plants will show dominant trait for both characters ?

(1) 218
(2) 324
(3) 960
(4) 576

33) Which is not always true for genes in diploid organisms ?

(1) They occur in pairs

(2) They segregate at the time of gamete formation
(3) Only one of each pair is transmitted to a gamete
(4) One pair segregates independently of another pair

34) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product, when :-

(1) More than one gene influence the same phenotype.

(2) More than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
(3) More than one genotype is influenced by the same gene.
(4) More than one allele are there for a character.

35) In the Inheritance of flower colours in dog flower plant, the F1 had a phenotype that :-

(1) Resembles both of the parents

(2) Did not resembles either of the two parents
(3) Resembles with only one parent
(4) (1) and (3)

36) Which of the following is not related to sickle cell anaemia ?

(1) Codominance
(2) Autosomal recessive trait
(3) Pleiotropy
(4) Multiple allelism
37) Which of the following point is correct regarding polygenic inheritance?

(1) In a polygenic trait, the phenotype reflects the contribution of each dominant allele.
(2) Types of genotype = (2n + 1).

(3)
Types of phenotype = .
(4) Intensity of dominant trait decreases with increase in number of dominant alleles.

38) In grasshopper :-
(a) Total number of chromosomes are same in both and
(b) Two types of gametes are formed by male
(c) Female heterogamety is present

(1) a, b & c are correct

(2) a & c are correct
(3) a & c are incorrect
(4) a & b are incorrect

39) α-thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes __'A'__ and __'B'__ on chromosome __'C'__
of each parent.

(1) A = HBA1, B = HBB2, C =16

(2) A = HBA1, B = HBA2, C = 16
(3) A = HBA1, B = HBA2, C = 23
(4) A = HBA1, B = HBB2, C = 23

40) Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using codes below the lists:

List-I List-II
(Character of man) (Examples)

(A) Sex-linked (i) Baldness

(B) Sex-influenced (ii) AIDS

(C) Sex-limited (iii) Down's syndrome

(iv) Haemophilia

(v) Beard in man

Correct option is:
(1) A = iv, B = i, C = v
(2) A = v, B = iii, C = ii
(3) A = v, B = i, C = iii
(4) A = iv, B = iii, C = ii

41) A boy is colour blind, his sister is normal and non-carrier.

(i) What are the chances that both his parents are normal?
(ii) What are the chances of mother being carrier?
(iii) What are the chances of his younger brother being colour blind?

(1) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-100%

(2) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-50%
(3) (i)-50%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-100%
(4) (i)-100%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-100%

42)
This pedigree shows which of the following disease ?

(1) Sickle-cell anaemia

(2) Haemophilia
(3) Turner's syndrome
(4) Myotonic dystrophy

43)

Identify the type of given karyotype diagram:-

(1) Turner's Syndrome

(2) Down's Syndrome
(3) Edward's Syndrome
(4) Klinefelter's Syndrome

44) Statement I : Male honey bee do not have father thus can not have sons.
Statement II : Male grasshopper has two x-chromosome besides the autosomes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

45)

Read the following statements about hybridization technique of Mendel and select the correct
statement :-
(A) Emasculation of both male and female parents is required.
(B) Emasculation of only male parent is required.
(C) Emasculation of female parent is required.
(D) Emasculation is not necessary.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 4 1 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23
A. 4 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
A. 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 1 3 1 3 3
Q. 44 45
A. 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 2 2 4 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : Find current through 19Ω resistor.

Concept : This question is based on e = vBℓ.

Solution :

e = Bvℓ =

e = 2mV = i(R + r) i =
Final Answer : (2)

2) Explaining : Find efficiency.

Concept : This question is based on %.

Solution : =
Final Answer : (2)

3) Explaining : Find emf.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

= –100 × × (40 × 10–4) cosθ

⇒
Final Answer : (3)

4) Explaining : Suppose a long rectangular loop width w is moving along the x-direction with
its left arm in magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the loop (see figure). The resistance
of the loop is zero and it has an inductance L. At time, t = 0, its left arm passes the origin, O.

If for t ≥ 0, the current in the loop is I and the distance

of its left arm from the origin is x, then I versus x graph will be Concept : This question is
based on KVL.
Solution :
⇒
= +ve slope

x = ut ⇒

= +ve slope
Final Answer : (2)

5) Explaining : Find ratio of self inductances.

Concept : This question is based on L ∝ N2r.

Solution : L =
L ∝ N2r

Final Answer : (2)

6) Explaining : The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete a circuit. If at a

certain instant the current i is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 103 A/s then VB – VA is :-

Concept : This question is based on KVL.

Solution : By using Kirchhoff's voltage law

VA – i R + E + L = VB ⇒ VB – VA = 15 volt.
Final Answer : (3)

7) Explaining : Find current at t = 0.

Concept : This question is based on I = .

Solution : At t = 0 current through L is zero so it acts as open circuit. The given figures can
be redrawn as follows.
Hence i2 > i3 > i1.
Final Answer : (2)

8) Explaining : The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate of 10–2 m/s. A constant and
uniform magnetic field of induction 10–3 Wb/m2 acts perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The
radius of the coil when the induced e.m.f. in the coil is 1μV, is :-

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

9) Explaining : A conducting rod rotates with a constant angular velocity ‘ω’ about the axis
which passes through point ‘O’ and perpendicular to its length. A uniform magnetic field ‘B’
exists parallel to the axis of the rotation. Then potential difference between the two ends of the

rod is : Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

ΔV = 6Bωℓ2
Final Answer : (1)

10) Explaining : Find M.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

I2R2 =
 4.0 A/s
Final Answer : (1)

11) Explaining : Find magnetic energy.

Concept : This question is based on Volume.

Solution : Bcentre =

⇒U=

= =
Final Answer : (4)

12) Explaining : Find energy stored.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : ∵ I =

I= = 5A

u= LI2

u = × 5 × 25
u = 62.5 J
Final Answer : (1)

13) Explaining : Statement-1 : When a magnet is made to fall freely through a closed coil, its
acceleration is always less than acceleration due to gravity.
and
Statement-2 : Current induced in the coil opposes the motion of the magnet, as per Lenz's
law.
Concept : This question is based on a < g.
Solution : Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Final Answer : (1)

14) Explaining : Find mutual inductance.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : Let a current I2 flow through the outer circular coil. The field at the centre of the
 coil is B2 = μI2/2r2. Since, the other co-axially placed coil has a very
small radius. B2 may be considered constant over it's cross-sectional area. Hence,

Thus,

⇒
Final Answer : (1)

15)

Question Explanation: The problem asks for the tension at the centre of an ideal rope when
pulled from both ends with equal forces of 100 N in opposite direction.
Concept : This question is based on Newton Law of Motion.
Solution:

The acceleration of rope will be zero

∴ tension must be equal at each point of rope to have zero acceleration.
∴ tension at mid point = 100 N
TC = 100 N

Final Answer: Option (2)

16)

Explain the question : A block is held on a vertical wall of lift which is going upward. It is
asked to find minimum value of F for which block does not slip.
Concept : This question is based on Pseudo force.
Solution :

for equilibrium of block with respect to lift

N=F
μN = mg + ma
0.5F = 10 × 10 + 10 × 2
F = 120 × 2
F = 240 N

Final answer : option (3)

17)

Question Explanation:
In this question three blocks are connected with strings and placed on inclined plane as shown
in figure and it is asked to find tension (T1).

Concept:
This question is based on Newton's laws.

Solution:
Considering all three blocks together as system
Where M = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 Kg

Fnet = Ma
150 – Mgsin30° = 10 a

= 10 m/s2
Now considering block A as system
T1 = mgsin30° = MAa

T1 – MAgsin30° = 2 × a

T1 = 2 × 10 + 2 × 10 ×
T1 = 30 N

Final Answer: option (2)

18) Question Explanation: The question asks why the tension is the same everywhere
throughout the string connecting the masses when the system is accelerated to the right to the
right ; given that the string connected them is masses.

Concept: This question is based on Newton's laws, String constraint

Solution: If string is massless then tension will be same at each point of string.
In an ideal string, the tension is uniform throughout its length if the string itself has negligible
mass. This is a fundamental assumption in many physics problems involving strings and
pulleys

Final Answer: Option (1)

19) Explain Question:

Two blocks are connected with strive and pulley. If in asked frictional force on A.

Concept:
Friction force

Solution:
Maximum friction available at block A
F = μMAg
= 0.6 × 5 × 10 = 30 N
Applied force F= MBg
= 2 × 10 = 20 N
Since applied force is Less than maximum frication force so frictional force acting = 20 N

Final answer : Option (2)

20) Explaining : To find change in momentum from x – t graph.

Concept : Slope of x – t graph gives velocity.
Solution :

Just after 2 sec, vf = slope = = –1

Just before 2 sec, vi = 1

= 0.8
Final Answer : (3)

21) Explaining : To find force on pulley.

Concept : This question is based on FBD and vector addition.
Solution : Forces on the pulley are
 F= =( )g
Final Answer : (4)

22) Explaining : To find ratio of masses over pulley having certain acceleration.
Concept : This question is based on Fnet = ma.
Solution :

⇒
Final Answer : (1)

23) Explaining : To find force to prevent slipping.

Concept : This question is based on friction & pseudo force.
Solution :

For the block not to slip Fmax ≥ m1g

Final Answer : (1)

CHEMISTRY

24)

(A) Constitutional → (R) Isomers that differ in the order in which their atoms are connected
(B) Stereoisomers → (Q) Isomers that have same constitution but differ in the arrangement of
their atoms in space
(C) Enantiomers → (S) Stereoisomers that are related as an object and its non superimposable
mirror image
(D) Diastereoisomers → (P) Stereoisomers that are not mirror image isomer
25)

26)
∴ POS is Present

27)
No. of chiral carbon = 5

28)

29)

30) Priority of cyanide > Aldehyde

31) For cis-trans nomenclature one group should be common on both sp2 carbon.

32)

Direction of dipole moment is from less EN atom to mere EN atom.

EN order
F > Cl > sp carbon > sp2 carbon > sp3 carbon

33)

(1)
2sp3 carbon have 2 different group in a ring so it show G.I
(2) CH3–CH=C=CH CH3
Even no of double bond
Different group at terminal carbon will show optical isomer

(3) will not show GI

3
Minimum two sp carbon having different group are required so show G.I
(4) CH3–CH=C=C=CH2 will not show G.I
34)

Different alkyl group present at polyvalent functional group sites.

They are not isomer, they are member of homologous series.

35) If A and B have same molecular C3H7 then

It will not show GI but

It will show GI

36) Tautomerism is shown when α-H is present

37)

acidic strength ∝ stability of conjugate base (anion) EN/size ∝ resonance ∝

For Hγ = ⊝ve will be in resonance with 2'O' atom
For Hα = No +I effect
For Hβ = +I effect of CH3
Order Hγ > Hα > Hβ

38) acidic strength ∝

Due to intramolecular Hydrogen bonding, hydrogen is not easily donated by o-nitrophenol

Order : II > IV > III > I

39) stability of carbanion ∝

Order II > III > IV > I

40) –I effect ∝ % s-character

41)

42) Stability of carbanion ∝

Order : I > II > IV > III

43)
 Lowest pKa, Acidic maximum.
Order of –I effect for
–Cl, –Br, –NO2 and –Cl
–NO2 > –CN > – Cl > –Br

44)

Stability order for resonating structure:

(1) Complete octet and neutral R.S
(2) Complete octet charged R.S.
(3) In complete Octet charged R.S. having +ve charge on less electronegative atom, –ve
charge on more electronegative atom.

45)
Order x > z > y

BIOLOGY

46) Explain Question: The question asks to arrange the correct order of sequence for DNA
finger-printing-
Concept: DNA Fingerprinting.
Solution: The correct order of sequence for DNA fingerprinting is:
(c) Gel Electrophoresis → (a) Blotting → (b) Hybridization → (d) Autoradiography.
Final answer: (4)

47) Explain Question : The question is asking: To identify which molecular process (like
replication, transcription, translation, etc.) occurs at each step in the given sequence — RNA →
DNA → DNA → mRNA → Polypeptide.
Concept : This question is based on Central Dogma.
Solution : The sequence is: RNA → DNA → DNA → mRNA → Polypeptide
RNA → DNA = Reverse transcription
DNA → DNA = Replication
DNA → mRNA = Transcription
mRNA → Polypeptide = Translation
 Final Answer : (4)

48) Solution : Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around positively charged histone
octamer.
Final Answer (2)

49)

Let's analyze each pair:

A. A. Cistron refers to a segment of DNA that codes for a polypeptide. This is best matched with
(1) Transcription unit.
B. B. Exon refers to the coding part of the gene that is retained in the mature RNA after splicing.
This matches with (Ill) Coding part.
C. C. lntron refers to the non-coding regions of the gene that are spliced out of the RNA before it
is translated. This matches with (11) Non-coding part.
D. D. Monocistronic refers to mRNA that codes for only one protein, and this is characteristic of
(V) Eukaryotes, as most eukaryotic mRNA is monocistronic.
E. E. Polycistronic refers to mRNA that can code for multiple proteins, and this is typical of (IV)
Prokaryotes, where operons allow for the expression of multiple genes from a single mRNA.

50)

In protein synthesis, the following RNAs are involved:

1. mRNA (messenger RNA): It carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosome, providing
the instructions for protein synthesis.
2. rRNA (ribosomal RNA): It is a structural component of ribosomes, the cellular machinery
responsible for protein synthesis. rRNA helps facilitate the binding of mRNA and tRNA during
translation.
3. tRNA (transfer RNA): It brings amino acids to the ribosome, where the mRNA sequence is
translated into a protein. tRNA reads the codons in mRNA and adds the corresponding amino
acids to the growing polypeptide chain.

51) (A) DNA is more stable and less reactive than RNA due to the presence of deoxyribose
sugar. correct. DNA contains deoxyribose, making it more stable and less reactive than RNA,
which contains ribose, making RNA more prone to hydrolysis.
(B) Uridine consists of uracil and ribose sugar. correct. Uridine is a ribonucleoside, which
means it's made up of a uracil molecule attached to a ribose ring.

52) The essential life processes such as metabolism, splicing, and translation are believed to
have evolved around RNA. This idea is supported by the RNA World Hypothesis.

53) Amino acid acceptor end - mRNA

This is incorrect. The amino acid acceptor end of tRNA refers to the region where the amino
acid is attached on the tRNA molecule, not mRNA. mRNA carries the genetic code and is read
by the ribosome during translation, but it doesn't directly interact with the amino acid
acceptor end of tRNA.
 54)

Beta-galactosidase is an enzyme that primarily catalyzes the breakdown of the glycosidic bond
between galactose and glucose in lactose (a disaccharide). This process is known as
hydrolysis, where the enzyme splits lactose into its two monosaccharides: glucose and
galactose.

55) 1. Caenorhabditis elegans (a roundworm): The genome of C. elegans was sequenced as

part of the model organism research, and its genome was completed before the human
genome project.
2. Drosophila (fruit fly}:The genome of Drosophila melanogaster was sequenced, and it has
been a key model organism for genetic studies.
3. Rice (Oryza sativa}:The genome of rice was sequenced as part of agricultural research to
understand and improve crop production.
4. Arabidopsis (a small flowering plant):The genome of Arabidopsis thaliana, a model organism
for plant biology, was also sequenced.

56)

Fredrick Sanger is best known for his groundbreaking contributions to the field of genetics,
specifically in the area of DNA sequencing. He developed the dideoxy chain termination
method, also known as the Sanger sequencing method, which became a widely used technique
for determining the nucleotide sequence of DNA.

A. He did not develop methods for sequencing lipids or carbohydrates.

57) Explanation : Asking about numbers of true statements from given statements
Concept : DNA /RNA (nuclic acid)
Solution : Statement a and & are correct
(a) DNA and RNA both are composed of nucleotide-True because nucleic acid is polymer of
nucleotides.
(b) Both are synthesized in complimentary manner - True because new strand has complement
sequence of template.
Answer : (2)

58) The correct answer is:

2. SnRNA → spliceosome
Explanation: • SnRNA → spliceosome: Small nuclear RNA (snRNA) is an essential component
of the spliceosome, which is responsible for splicing pre-mRNA (removing introns and joining
exons).
So, option 2 is the correct match.

59)

Question explanation: Match different chromosomal conditions (Column I) with their

chromosome number expressions (Column II).

Concept: polyploidy
 Solution: (A) Monoploidy → (5) x

(B) Monosomy → (1) 2n – 1

(C) Nullisomy → (4) 2n – 2

(D) Trisomy → (2) 2n + 1

(E) Tetrasomy → (3) 2n + 2

Final answer: (A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)

60) Solution : (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(a) Histone (iv) Positive charged basic protein

(b) Nucleosomes (ii) DNA wrapped around histone octamer

(c) Euchromatin (i) Loosely packed chromatin

(d) Heterochromatin (iii) Tightly packed chromatin

Final Answer : (4)

61) Solution : Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Final Answer : (4)

62) Solution : Lysine the genetic cods is applicable universally.

Final Answer : (1)

63) Solution : They cannot synthesise functional beta-galactosidase.

Final Answer : (2)

64) The correct answer is 1 - a-ii , b-iii, c-iv, d-i.

A. Splicing (a) refers to the removal of introns from pre-mRNA, so it matches with (ii).
B. Capping (b) involves adding a methyl guanosine triphosphate to the 5' end of the mRNA, so it
matches with (iii).
C. Tailing (c) refers to adding adenylate residues (poly-A tail) to the 3' end of the mRNA, so it
matches with (iv).
D. Promoter (d) is the site for the binding of RNA polymerase during transcription, so it matches
with (i).

Thus, option 1 is the correct match!

65)

The correct answer is 3. Statement (a), (b), and (d).

Explanation:
(a) DNA fingerprinting is used in forensics.
(b) It helps in determining population and genetic diversities.
(d) VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb.
 (c) is incorrect because VNTR is not a microsatellite.

66) Solution : One amino acid coded by more than one codon.
Final Answer : (3)

67) Solution : ATP dependent DNA helicase enzyme.

Final Answer : (4)

68) SOLUTION :- Given:

A. Template strand: 3' ATGCATGCATGCATG 5'

B. Coding strand: 5' TACGTACGTACGTAC 3'

mRNA Transcription:

A. The mRNA sequence is complementary to the template strand of DNA.

B. Replace thymine (T) with uracil (U) in the mRNA sequence.

Now, using the template strand (3' ATGCATGCATGCATG 5'):

The corresponding mRNA sequence will be:
5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'

69) Explain Question: The question asks that which of the given options gives 9:3:3:1 type of
phenotype.
Concept: Dihybrid cross (gamete formation)
Solution: 9:3:3:1 ratio is found in a dihybrid state. So, the correct answer is: 2.
AaBBCcDDEE × AaBBCcDDEE
Final answer: (2)

70) Explaining : Alleles are versions of a gene located on the same locus of homologous
chromosomes.
Concept : Genes on homologous chromosomes may vary slightly (alleles), yet control the same
trait.
Solution : Slight variations at the same locus of homologous chromosomes define alleles.
Final Answer : (1)

71) Solution : Terminal flower position and yellow pod colour :

There are recessive traits, so only expression homozygous condition other are dominant traits.
Final Answer : (4)

72) Explain Question : The question asks to determine the genotypes and phenotypes of the
F1 (first filial) generation and the F2 (second filial) generation.
Concept : This question is based on History of Mendel
Solution :
His work was not supported with required data because Mendel's work was meticulously
conducted and supported by extensive experimental data gathered from his pea plant
experiments. The issue was more about the lack of understanding and acceptance of his
quantitative approach by the scientific community at the time.
Final Answer : (2)

73) Asking about: This question is asking about the process of allele segregation during
gamete formation and whether the reason provided accurately explains the assertion.
Concept: The question involves the concepts of:
• Meiosis: The type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and egg cells).
• Law of Segregation: Mendel's law stating that allele pairs separate during gamete
formation, and each gamete receives only one allele from each pair.
Solution:
Assertion (A): This is true. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes (which carry the
alleles) separate randomly. This means there's an equal chance for a gamete to receive either
allele from the parental pair.
Reason (R): This is false. Mitosis is a type of cell division that produces identical copies of the
parent cell. It does not involve the separation of homologous chromosomes or the formation of
gametes. The separation of alleles occurs during meiosis, not mitosis.
Final Answer: (3)

74) Explain Question : The question is asking about the genotype of brown eyed parents, if
they have blue eyed child.
Concept : Monohybrid cross
Solution : Two brown-eyed parents can have a blue-eyed [Link], genotype of both parents =
Bb × Bb So, there's a 25% chance their child will have blue eyes (bb).
Final answer : (3)

75)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks to match items from three columns related to genetic
crosses: Column I lists types of genetic crosses, Column II lists the parental genotypes
involved, and Column III lists the expected phenotypic ratios or outcomes. The task is to
correctly associate one item from each column that correspond to each other.
Underlying Concept: The core concept involves Mendelian genetics, specifically different
types of genetic crosses used to study inheritance patterns: monohybrid (one trait), dihybrid
(two traits), test cross (crossing to a homozygous recessive), and back cross (crossing a hybrid
with a parent strain). Each cross results in characteristic genotype and phenotype ratios.
Tips and Tricks: Associate common ratios to cross types: 3:1 with monohybrid, 9:3:3:1 with
dihybrid, 1:1 with test cross, and uniform dominant phenotype with back cross. This helps in
quickly matching the columns.
Common Mistakes: Confusing the phenotypic ratio of a test cross (1:1) with that of a
monohybrid cross (3:1). Mixing up parental genotypes can also cause errors.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options mismatch expected genotype crosses with
incorrect phenotypic ratios. For example, pairing TT×tt (a pure monohybrid cross) with 3:1
ratio is incorrect because TT×tt usually gives all heterozygous offspring, which are
phenotypically uniform.

76)

In a monohybrid cross, starting with true-breeding (pure) parents (P generation), the F1

generation is always 100% hybrid (heterozygous, Aa). With continuous self-crossing, the
proportion of hybrids reduces in each subsequent generation. The question asks about the F4
generation.
Explaining the Question :- Each generation follows the mendelian ratio when self-crossed:
F1 (Aa × Aa) →F2 (1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa) → 50% pure (AA & aa) and 50% hybrid (Aa)
F2 self-crossed → F3
(Pure AA × Pure AA → 100 % AA)
(Pure aa × Pure aa → 100 % aa)
(Hybrid Aa × Hybrid Aa → 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa → 50% pure, 50% hybrid)
Following the same process, in F4 generation:
87.5% will be pure (AA or aa)
12.5% will be hybrid (Aa)
Final Answer :- (3)

77) Solution : Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

9/16 → Dominant for both characters out of 1024 plants = 9/16 × 1024 = 576
Final Answer : (4)

78)

Explain Question : The question asks which statement is not always true for genes in diploid
organisms.
Concept : This question is based on Linkage
Explanation :Option 1 → Always true
Option 2 → Always true
Option 3 → Always true
Option 4 → Not always true (linked genes do not assort independently)
Final answer :4

79) Solution : In case more than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene, the
expression of gene depends on the gene product and production of particular phenotype from
this product, as it does on particular phenotype that we choose to examine.
Final answer : (2)

80)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the phenotype of the first filial (F1)
generation in a cross involving flower color in a dog flower (snapdragon) plant

Concept : This question is based on incomplete dominance.

Solution : "In a cross between true-breeding red-flowered and white-flowered plants of

snapdragon, the F1 hybrids were pink. This indicates incomplete dominance, where the F1
phenotype is intermediate and does not resemble either parent."

Final Answer : option (2)

81)
Explain Question : The question asks to identify which of the given genetic concepts is not
associated with sickle cell anaemia.
Concept : This question is based on sickle cell anaemia
Explanation : Sickle cell anaemia, however, is determined by a single gene with only two
alleles, the normal allele (HbA) and the sickle cell allele (HbS). Therefore, sickle cell anaemia
is not an example of multiple allelism.
Final answer : 4

82) Explain Question: The question wants to ask that which of the given points is correct
regarding polygenic inheritance.
Concept: Polygenic inheritance.
Solution: In a polygenic trait, the phenotype reflects the contribution of each dominant allele.
So, the correct answer is : 1.
Final answer: 1.

83)

Explain Question : The question asks to evaluate three statements about the sex
determination and chromosome complement in grasshoppers and determine which are true or
false.
Concept : This question is based on sex determination
Explanation :
(a) Total number of chromosomes are same in both ♂️ and ♀️ - Incorrect
Males have one less chromosome (no Y or second X)
So, total chromosome number differs
Female: 2A + XX
Male: 2A + XO
(c) Female heterogamety is present - Incorrect
In grasshoppers, male is heterogametic (XO)
Female is homogametic (XX)
Female heterogamety (ZW system) is seen in birds, not grasshoppers
Final answer : 3

84) Solution : A = HBA1, B = HBA2, C = 16

Final Answer : (2)

85) Solution : A = iv, B = i, C = v

Sex-linked — Haemophilia; Sex-influenced — Baldness; Sex-limited — Beard in man
Final Answer : (1)

86) Explain: Given: boy is colour blind. sister is normal and carrier.
Concept – This question based on X- linked recessive inheritance.
Solution:
(i) Mother father
c
(X X) (XY)
↓
Boy (XcY)
Both phenotypically normal (100%)
(ii) Colour blind son , mother have (XC) her genotype = XC X (carrier) (100% chances)
(iii) Carrier mother (XcX) and normal father (XY)

Son: 50% Normal ; 50% Colour blind

Final Answer : (2)

87) Explanation : identify which disease matches the pattern of inheritance.

Concept : Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Pedigree Analysis)
Solution : Both males and females are affected → NOT sex-linked
The disease skips a generation → suggests recessive
Unaffected parents producing affected children → autosomal recessive
Final answer : (1)

88) Solution : (XXY) Klinefelter's Syndrome

Final Answer : (4)

89) Solution : Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Male grasshopper only one x-chromosome besides the autosomes.
Final Answer : (2)

90) Solution : The gene responsible for phenylketonuria does not show polygenic inheritance.
Final Answer : (3)