ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT PART 1 12.

A means of conveying message through body language, as

well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance
and aesthetic elements.
1. What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and
A. Verbal
controlling operations to reach objective efficiently and
B. Oral
effectively? C. Written
A. General Management D. Nonverbal
B. Engineering Management
C. Production Management 13. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and
D. Operations Management directing it toward a particular goal.
A. Suppression
2. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals B. Motivation
through other people, he must have a good __________. C. Praising
A. Interpersonal skills D. Unification
B. Communication skills
14. The following are considered as factors contributing to
C. Leadership
motivation except:
D. Decision- making skills
A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
3. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is C. Needs satisfaction
disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden agenda? D. Inferiority complex
A. Technical opinion conflict
B. Politics 15. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:
C. Ambiguous roles A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory
D. Managerial procedure conflict B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
4. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or D. Gagarin’s Theory
similar level of responsibility in the organization.
A. Monetary reward 16. It is a management function which involves influencing others
B. Promotion to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach
C. Demotion organizational goals.
D. Transfer A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
5. The movement from one position to another which has less C. Leading
pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a form of D. Commanding
punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position. 17. A person who occupies a higher position has power over
A. Separation persons in lower positions within the organization. This
B. Promotion describes:
C. Demotion A. Legitimate power
D. Transfer B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
6. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee. D. Reward power
A. Separation
B. Transfer 18. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody
C. Termination who follows orders or requests, it termed as:
D. Demotion A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
7. A process of sharing information through symbols, including C. Coercive power
words and message. D. Reward power
A. Counseling
B. Communication 19. When a person compels with orders through treats or
C. Hypnotism punishment.
D. Language A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
8. Function of communication that can be used for decision- C. Coercive power
making at various work levels in the organization. D. Reward power
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function 20. When a person can get compliance from another because the
C. Motivation Function latter would want to be identified with the former.
D. Control Function A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
9. A function of communication used as a means to motivate C. Coercive power
employees to commit themselves to the organizations D. Reward power
objectives.
A. Information Function 21. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:
B. Emotive Function A. A high level of personal drive
C. Motivation Function B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
D. Control Function C. Charisma
D. Greedy
10. Function of communication that deals when feelings are
repressed in the organization, employees are affected by 22. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational
anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance. objectives have been achieved and determining what
A. Information Function activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in
B. Emotive Function the future.
C. Motivation Function A. Planning
D. Control Function B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
11. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or D. Inspection
sight.
A. Verbal 23. A type of controlling when the management anticipates
B. Oral problems and prevents their occurrence.
C. Written A. Feed forward control
D. Nonverbal B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
24. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to 35. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be
improve efficiency is known as __________. concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or
A. Division of labor processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:
B. Segmentation A. Division of labor
C. Departmentalization B. Delegation of authority
D. Territorialization C. Departmentation
D. Span of control
25. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes
__________? 36. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating
A. Authority alternative using qualitative evaluation?
B. Responsibility A. Comparison technique
C. Accountability B. Intuition and subjective judgment
D. All of the above C. Rational technique
D. Analytical technique
26. What type of committee companies or corporations created
for a short term purpose only? 37. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing
A. Interim committee and activities to detect variances are made.
B. Temporary committee A. Feed forward control
C. Standing committee B. Preventive control
D. Ad hoc committee C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
27. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are
38. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a
accomplished?
completed activity, and in order that evaluation and steps for
A. Efficiency improvement are derived.
B. Effectiveness A. Feed forward control
C. Ability to manage B. Preventive control
D. Decision- making ability C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
28. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job
in 20 days. He is said to be __________ if he finished the job 39. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources
within the required period of 20 days to change those inputs in useful ways.
A. Efficient A. Operation
B. Effective B. Production
C. Construction
C. Reliable
D. Creation
D. Qualified
40. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling
29. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively.
project and still come out with the same output, he is said to A. Planning
be more __________. B. Operations management
A. Managerial skill C. Evaluation management
B. Economical D. Backboning
C. Effective
D. Efficient
41. A process of creating a set of product specifications
30. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will appropriate to the demands of the situation.
subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
person’s current knowledge of a subject?
C. Product planning
A. Interest test
D. Conceptualizing
B. Aptitude test
C. Performance test 42. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product,
D. Personality test translating this forecast into the demand it generates for
31. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training various production facilities, and arranging for the
and experience with classroom instruction in particular procurement of these facilities.
subject? A. Product Design
A. On-the-job training B. Blueprinting
B. Vestibule school C. Product planning
C. Apprenticeship program D. Conceptualizing
D. In-basket
43. The phase of production control involved in developing
timetables that specify how long each operation in the
32. What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee
production process takes.
lower level personnel involved in the project regardless of the
A. Plotting
personnel’s assignment in the organization? B. Scheduling
A. Top authority C. Timetable
B. Line authority D. Anticipating
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority 44. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation
through integration of all material acquisition, movement, and
33. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, storage activities in the firm.
he is using what type of authority? A. Work
A. Top authority B. Quality Control
B. Line authority C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority
45. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels
of reserve stocks of goods.
34. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager A. Work-Flow Layout
must be concerned with the determining the scope of words B. Quality Control
and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________. C. Inventory Control
A. Division of labor D. Purchasing and Materials Management
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation 46. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the
D. Span of control production system.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
47. Refers to the measurement of products or services against 59. Engineers can become good managers only through
standards set by the company. __________.
A. Work-Flow Layout A. Experience
B. Quality Control B. Taking master degree in management
C. Inventory Control C. Effective career planning
D. Purchasing and Materials Management D. Trainings
48. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the
60. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what
selling of goods and services.
A. Advertisement will you do?
B. Commercial A. Develop new talents
C. Marketing B. Acquire new values
D. Sales C. Broaden your point of view
D. All of the above
49. The four P’s of marketing are the following except:
A. Product 61. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely
B. Price problem he finds difficult to acquire?
C. Promotion A. Learning to trust others
D. Publicity B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
50. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to
D. All of the above
satisfy a specified need.
A. Product
B. Price 62. What management functions refers to the process of
C. Promotion anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their likely
D. Place impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired
outcomes and goals?
51. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for A. Planning
the purchase or use of the product, idea, or service. B. Leading
A. Product C. Controlling
B. Price D. Organizing
C. Promotion
D. Place 63. What refers to the establishing interrelationships between
people and things in such a way that human and materials
52. An important factor for a company to locate in places where
resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of
they can be easily reached by their customers.
A. Product the company?
B. Price A. Planning
C. Promotion B. Leading
D. Place C. Controlling
D. Organizing
53. Defined as communicating information between seller and
potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior. 64. What management function involves selecting candidates and
A. Product training personnel?
B. Price A. Organizing
C. Promotion B. Staffing
D. Place C. Motivating
D. Controlling
54. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass
media for the purpose of informing or persuading people
about particular products, services, beliefs, or action. 65. What management function involves orienting personnel in
A. Advertising the most effective way and channeling resources?
B. Publicity A. Directing
C. Sales promotion B. Planning
D. Personal selling C. Organizing
D. Leading
55. The promotional tool that publishes news or information
about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is 66. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan
not paid for by the sponsor. and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to
A. Advertising take corrective action. This action refers to what management
B. Publicity
function?
C. Sales promotion
A. Organizing
D. Personal selling
B. Planning
56. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product C. Controlling
or service. D. Staffing
A. Advertising
B. Publicity 67. What refers to management function which is to encourage
C. Sales promotion others to follow the example set for them, with great
D. Personal selling commitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
57. Management is: B. Motivating
A. An art C. Controlling
B. Both science and art D. Leading
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science 68. What refers to a principal function of lower management
which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and
58. Engineering is: enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A. An art A. Directing
B. Both science and art B. Motivating
C. A science C. Staffing
D. Neither art nor science D. Controlling
69. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that 81. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
are used on a predefined set of inputs to produce a A. Lower management level
predefined set of outputs? B. Middle management level
A. Project Management C. Top management level
B. Engineering Management D. Lowest management level
C. Management
D. Planning 82. What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk
70. 14. Which is NOT an element of project management B. Time consuming and cost ineffective
process? C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making
A. Data and information D. All of the above
B. Research and development
C. Decision making 83. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is
D. Implementation and action most likely to
A. Set goals
71. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager? B. Determine the resources needed
A. Leadership C. Set a standard
B. Charisma D. Develop strategies and tactics
C. Communication skill
D. Knowledge 84. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating
alternative using quantitative evaluation?
72. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective A. Rational and analytical techniques
means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage B. Intuition and subjective judgment
of its development? C. Comparison in number technique
A. R & D model D. Cost analysis
B. Project feasibility
C. Life cycle model 85. What is the major activity of the project office?
D. All of the above A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
73. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for C. Overall project management support
information technology project? D. Project management via internet
A. Morris model
86. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year.
B. Waterfall model
These are mostly undertaken by middle and top
C. Incremental release model
management.
D. Prototype model A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
74. In project management, “R & D” stands for: C. Standing Plans
A. Retail Distribution D. Single-Use Plans
B. Research and Development
C. Repair and Develop 87. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on
D. Reduce and Deduce managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
A. Short-range plans
75. In project management O & M stands for: B. Long-range plans
A. Operation and Manpower C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
B. Operation and Maintenance
C. Operation and Management
88. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in
D. Operation and Mission
making decisions about recurring situations or function.
A. Policies
76. A project management must be very good in which of the B. Procedures
following skills? C. Guidelines
A. Communication skills D. Rules
B. Human relationship skills
C. Leadership skills 89. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be
D. All of the above taken in a given situation.
A. Policies
77. Project integration management involves which of the B. Procedures
following processes? C. Guidelines
D. Rules
A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
90. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain
C. Integrated change control action.
D. Quality planning A. Policies
B. Procedures
78. Project quality management involves all of the following C. Guidelines
processes except: D. Rules
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance 91. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his
C. Quality Control customers are served efficiently and effectively?
D. Quality feature A. Area manager
B. Sales manager
79. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, C. Functional manager
D. Project manager
present, and projected information on internal operations and
external intelligence for use in decision-making?
92. What is the major activity of the project support office?
A. Electronic Data Processing Systems A. Administrative support for projects
B. Management Information System B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Central Processing System C. Overall project management support
D. Data Management System D. Project management via the internet

80. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity? 93. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program
A. Intermediate planning and is sometimes prepared to support a program.
B. Strategic planning A. Project
C. Operational planning B. Budget
D. Direct planning C. Program
D. Financial Statement
94. A management function which refers to the structuring of 6. Defined as the management function that determines human
resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and develops human
efficient and effective manner. resources for jobs created by an organization.
A. Organizing C. Supervising A. Resourcing
B. Planning D. Structure B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
95. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an D. Staffing
organization.
A. Organizing C. Supervising 7. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to
B. Planning D. Structure the current capabilities of the organization.
A. Forecasting
96. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone B. Control
engaged in one functional activity, such as engineering or C. Programming
marketing, is grouped into one unit. D. Recruitment
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization 8. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs
C. Matrix Organization to personnel objectives and goals.
D. Divisible Organization A. Forecasting
B. Control
97. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms C. Programming
especially “single business firms where key activities revolve D. Recruitment
around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.
A. Functional Organization 9. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and
B. Product or Market Organization evaluating their success.
C. Matrix Organization A. Forecasting
D. Divisible Organization B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
98. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that D. Recruitment
brings together all those involved with a certain type of
product or customer. 10. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant
A. Functional Organization positions in the company so that those who are best suited to
B. Product or Market Organization serve the company may be selected.
C. Matrix Organization A. Forecasting
D. Divisible Organization B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
99. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product
lines in several related industries. 11. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available
A. Functional Organization than individuals most likely to succeed on the job.
B. Product or Market Organization A. Forecasting
C. Matrix Organization B. Evaluation and Control
D. Divisible Organization C. Selection
D. Training
100. An organizational structure in which each employee reports
both a functional or division manager and to a project or 12. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with
group manager. the necessary information about the company and will be
A. Functional Organization introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
B. Product or Market Organization workers.
C. Matrix Organization A. Performance Appraisal
D. Divisible Organization B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards
ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT PART 2
13. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve
performance on the present job.
1. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do A. Performance Appraisal
and then see that they do it. B. Induction and Orientation
A. Line authority C. Training and Development
B. Staff authority D. Monetary Rewards
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority 14. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher
pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a
2. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior. reward for competence and ambition.
A. Line authority A. Monetary reward
B. Staff authority B. Promotion
C. Functional authority C. Demotion
D. Head authority D. Transfer

3. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in 15. What is an important tool for the design and implementation
that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the of the project’s work content?
organization. A. Linear responsibility chart
A. Line authority B. Gantt chart
B. Staff authority C. Life cycle model
C. Functional authority D. Project design chart
D. Head authority
16. What chart summarizes the relationships between project
4. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project
limited life. element?
A. Ad hoc committee A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Standing committee B. Matrix responsibility chart
C. Sinking committee C. Responsibility interface matrix
D. Midget committee D. All of the above
5. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing
basis. 17. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule,
A. Ad hoc committee monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only
B. Standing committee one time factor per activity?
C. Sinking committee A. Forecasting
D. Midget committee B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation
18. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are 29. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that
relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated. each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and
A. Short-range plans perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
B. Long-range plans A. Functional organization
C. Standing Plans B. Territorial organization
D. Single-Use Plans C. Process organization
D. Product organization
19. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain
activity and explains where the required funds will come from. 30. What type of organization structure in which each project is
A. Project assigned to a single organizational unit and the various
B. Budget functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
C. Program A. Functional organization
D. Financial Statement B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
20. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities. D. Product organization
A. Project
B. Budget 31. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for
C. Program balancing the use of human resources and skills?
D. Financial Statement A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
21. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an C. Process organization
organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its D. Product organization
purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in
terms of products, services and markets? 32. In which type of organization where the structure can lead to
A. Corporate mission a “dual boss” phenomenon?
A. Functional organization
B. Corporate vision
B. Matrix organization
C. Corporate character
C. Process organization
D. Corporate identity D. Product organization

22. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others

to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives? 33. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?
A. Power A. Rapid reaction organization
B. Leadership B. Adaptation to changing environment
C. Teamwork C. State-of-the-art technology
D. Charisma D. Better utilization of resources

23. What describes how to determine the number of service units 34. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
A. Dual accountability of personnel
that will minimize both customer’s waiting time and cost of
B. Conflicts between project and functional managers
service?
C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
A. Queuing theory D. Inefficient use of specialist
B. Network model
C. Sampling theory 35. Which one is an advantage projectized organization?
D. Simulation A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Good project schedule and cost control
24. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and C. Single point for customer contact
solve problems in situations involving limited or partial D. Rapid reaction time possible
information about the decision environment?
A. Sampling theory 36. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
B. Linear programming A. Uncertain technical direction
C. Decision theory B. Inefficient use of specialist
C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments
D. Simulation
D. Slower work flow
25. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations 37. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
are statistically determined to be used for a number of A. Efficient use of technical personnel
processes, such as quality control and marketing research? B. Rapid reaction time possible
A. Sampling theory C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
B. Linear programming D. Good technology transfer between projects
C. Statistical decision theory
D. Simulation 38. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?
A. Weak customer interface
26. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his B. Weak project authority
human resources. What refers to the need of the employees C. Inefficient use of specialist
for food, drinks, and rest? D. Slower work flow
A. Physiological need
39. In what type of organization where a project manager is held
B. Security need
responsible for completion of the project and is often
C. Esteem need assigned a budget?
D. Self – actualization need A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
27. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to C. Projectized organization
improve performance on the present job? D. Project coordinated organization
A. Training
B. Development 40. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the
C. Vestibule following is not a criterion?
D. Specialized courses A. Finance and accounting
B. Customer relation
28. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many C. Location
repetitions of some standard activities? D. Technology
A. Benchmark job technique
B. Parametric technique 41. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when
C. Modular technique selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?
D. Non- modular technique A. Overhead cost
B. Type of technology used
C. Location of the project
D. Level of uncertainty in projects
42. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager 53. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb
often use his __________ to reach a compromise solution. the risk in the project?
A. Leadership A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time
B. Tradeoff analysis skill in schedule
C. Authority B. Use a different technology
D. Decision-making skill C. Use a different supplier
D. Buying insurance
43. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed
successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and 54. Buying insurance is a form of:
stakeholder satisfaction? A. Risk elimination
A. Functional manager B. Risk reduction
B. Project manager C. Risk sharing
C. Chief engineer D. Risk absorption
D. Department supervisor
55. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the
44. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences?
monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing A. Reliability management
three time estimate for each activity? B. Risk management
A. Forecasting C. Quality assurance management
B. Critical path method D. Project assurance management
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation 56. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk
assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and
45. For a project manager to have an effective means of benefits of alternative projects or policies?
identifying and communicating the planned activities and their A. Risk management
interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of B. Risk-benefit analysis
the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What C. Benefit management
does CPM stands for? D. Uncertainty analysis
A. Critical plan method
B. Critical path method 57. What is measured by the amount of resources that a
C. Critical project method manager can allocate without the need to get an approval
D. Coordinated plan method from his or her manager?
A. Responsibility
46. For a project manager to have an efficient means of B. Leadership
identifying and communicating the planned activities and their C. Authority
interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of D. Tradeoff skill
the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What
does Pert stands for? 58. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that
A. Project evaluation review technique the organization will achieve its objectives?
B. Program evaluation review technique A. Goal
C. Path evaluation review technique B. Strategy
D. Program execution review technique C. Program
D. Plan
47. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral
component of project management? 59. When there is a degradation of service provided by the
A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-
monitoring and controlling project. charge:
B. They illustrate the inter-dependencies of all tasks A. Lacks leadership skill
C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion B. Has inadequate control
dares as well as the probability that the project will be completed C. Has poor organization
by a specific date D. Has no proper planning
D. All of the above
60. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of
48. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year? the relevance of available information to the problem at
A. 1957 hand?
B. 1958 A. Statistical confidence
C. 1959 B. Tolerance
D. 1960 C. Incompleteness of the data
D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem
49. In what year was PERT developed?
A. 1957 61. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC.
B. 1958 What does the acronym SMEAC stands for?
C. 1959 A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
D. 1960 B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
50. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
stages to be performed in sequence?
A. 3 62. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for
B. 4 administration, which is the appropriate question will the
C. 5 manager ask?
D. 6 A. What do we need to get it done?
B. What are we aiming to do?
51. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using C. How are we going to do it?
Morris model? D. What is the operation environment?
A. Planning and design
B. Feasibility 63. In project management, what is usually the first step
C. Production underlying in the process of performing a project?
D. Turnover and startup A. Select appropriate performance measures
B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
52. Risk management is: C. Identify a need for a product or service
A. Risk avoidance D. Develop a technological concept
B. Controlling risk
C. To gain opportunities 64. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a
D. All of the above product or service is identified, what is usually the next step?
A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
B. Develop a budget
C. Develop a schedule
D. Develop the technological concept
65. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a 76. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit
project? where new products or parts are tested for workability.
A. Select appropriate performance measures A. Research
B. Implement a plan B. Design and Development
C. Monitor and control the project C. Testing
D. Evaluate project success D. Manufacturing

66. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project 77. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in
management, laws on project management are developed. charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for
One of which is “A careless planned project will take the product.
__________ times longer to complete than expected”. A. Research
A. Three B. Design and Development
B. Four C. Testing
C. Two D. Manufacturing
D. Two and a half
78. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly
67. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief in charge of the construction personnel or may have
engineer is under the __________. responsibility for the quality of the construction process.
A. Finance manager A. Construction
B. Manufacturing manager B. Sales
C. General manager C. Consulting
D. Marketing manager D. Government

68. What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and 79. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the
formal lines of authority called? company’s customers to meet their needs, especially those
A. Organization chart that require technical expertise.
B. Authority chart A. Construction
C. Policy chart B. Government
D. Control chart C. Consulting
D. Sales
69. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing
alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the 80. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as
demands of the situations? consultant of any individual or organization requiring his
A. Sampling theory services.
B. Alternative-analysis A. Construction
C. Problem-solving B. Sales
D. Decision-making C. Consulting
D. Government
70. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know
how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, 81. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find
materials, equipment and all other resources including employment in the government performing any of the various
money? tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities
A. Engineering management of various institutions, public or private.
B. Engineering technology A. Construction
C. Technical manger B. Sales
D. General management C. Government
D. Consulting
71. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning,
organizing, leading, and controlling an organization’s 82. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets
resources to achieve its mission and objectives. employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of
A. Management engineering courses.
B. Planning A. Teaching
C. Organizing B. Government
D. Supervision C. Management
D. Consulting
72. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the
ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, 83. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to
machinery, and money.” manage groups of people performing specific tasks. A.
A. Engineering Management Teaching B. Government C. Management D. Consulting
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization 84. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative
D. Engineering Club courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of
the situation.
73. The following are considered as functions of an engineer A. Decision Making
except B. Engineering Management
A. Testing C. Initiative
B. Construction D. Problem solving
C. Sales
D. Physical Education 85. The first step in Decision making process is to
A. Analyze environment
74. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in B. Diagnose problem
the process of learning about nature and codifying this C. Make a choice
knowledge into usable theories. D. Articulate problem or opportunity
A. Research
B. Design and Development 86. The last step in decision making process is to
C. Testing A. Analyze environment
D. Manufacturing B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
75. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the D. Evaluate and adapt decision results
activity of turning a product concept to a finished physical
term. 87. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and
A. Research subjective judgment.
B. Manufacturing A. Quantitative evaluation
C. Testing B. Qualitative evaluation
D. Design and Development C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation
88. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a 100. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one
group classified as rational and analytical. year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these
A. Quantitative evaluation planes.
B. Qualitative evaluation A. Short-range plans
C. Relative evaluation B. Long-range plans
D. Subjective evaluation C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
89. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating
future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics
to achieve organizational objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

90. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the

organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and
using resources to achieve those goals.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

91. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of

planning.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

92. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that

subunits can make with allocated resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

93. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

94. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can

best be accomplished on time with available resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

95. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

96. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing

and controlling an organization’s marketing activities related
to particular marketing strategy.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

97. This is a written document that states the quantity of output

a company must produce in broad terms and by product
family.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

98. It is a document that summarizes the current financial

situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and
recommends a direction for financial activities.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

99. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of

a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and
based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan
ANSWER KEY 61. D
62. A
63. D
PART 1
64. B
65. A
1. D
66. C
2. A
67. D
3. B
68. B
4. D
69. A
5. C
70. B
6. A
71. A
7. B
72. C
8. A
73. B
9. C
74. B
10. B
75. B
11. A
76. D
12. D
77. D
13. B
78. D
14. D
79. B
15. D
80. A
16. C
81. C
17. A
82. A
18. D
83. A
19. C
84. A
20. B
85. C
21. D
86. B
22. D
87. C
23. A
88. A
24. C
89. B
25. D
90. D
26. D
91. C
27. B
92. A
28. B
93. A
29. D
94. A
30. C
95. D
31. C
96. A
32. D
97. A
33. C
98. B
34. A
99. B
35. C
100. C
36. B
37. C
38. D PART 2
39. A
40. B 1. A
41. A 2. B
42. C 3. C
43. B 4. A
44. D 5. B
45. C 6. D
46. A 7. A
47. B 8. C
48. C 9. B
49. D 10. D
50. A 11. C
51. B 12. B
52. D 13. C
53. C 14. B
54. A 15. A
55. B 16. D
56. D 17. B
57. A 18. D
58. C 19. B
59. C 20. C
60. D 21. A
22. A
23. A 88. A
24. C 89. B
25. A 90. C
26. A 91. C
27. A 92. B
28. A 93. B
29. A 94. A
30. D 95. A
31. B 96. A
32. B 97. C
33. A 98. B
34. D 99. D
35. A 100. A
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. C
41. C
42. B
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. B
51. B
52. B
53. A
54. C
55. B
56. B
57. C
58. B
59. B
60. B
61. C
62. A
63. C
64. A
65. D
66. A
67. C
68. A
69. D
70. A
71. A
72. A
73. D
74. A
75. D
76. C
77. D
78. A
79. D
80. C
81. C
82. A
83. C
84. A
85. B
86. D
87. B