1.

Developmental psychology is primarily concerned with:

a) Treating psychological disorders in children.
b) Understanding change over time
c) Analyzing adult personality traits.
d) Studying only cognitive processes.

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of developmental change?

a) Orderly
b) Random
c) Cumulative
d) Directional

3. The difference between development and growth is that development includes:

a) Only quantitative changes.
b) Only biological changes.
c) Both qualitative and quantitative changes
d) Only changes in height and weight.

4. The three major processes (domains) of development are:

a) Physical, mental, and social.
b) Biological, cognitive, and socio-emotional
c) Familial, educational, and cultural.
d) Continuous, discontinuous, and stable.

5. The "Sources of Development" question primarily involves the debate between:

a) Continuity and Discontinuity.
b) Nature and Nurture
c) Activity and Passivity.
d) Stability and Plasticity.

6. A researcher who believes development occurs in a series of distinct, abrupt stages

subscribes to the concept of:
a) Continuous development.
b) Discontinuous development
c) Quantitative change.
d) Normative development.

7. The concept of plasticity refers to:

a) The degree to which development is influenced by genetics.
b) The extent to which development can be changed by experience
 c) The stability of individual differences over time.
d) The passive role of the child in their development.

8. A "sensitive period" in development is best described as a time when:

a) It is impossible for a particular skill to develop.
b) It is easiest to learn a particular skill
c) Development is entirely determined by biology.
d) An individual is completely passive in their learning.

9. In the "Active/Passive Question," an active child is one who:

a) Is shaped entirely by their environment.
b) Makes sense of their world and determines their own learning
c) Only learns through classical conditioning.
d) Has a genetic predisposition for passivity.

10. The comment, "It's just a phase. She'll grow out of it," most directly relates to the
question of:
a) Sources of Development.
b) Individual Differences.
c) Continuity vs. Discontinuity
d) Active/Passive Child.

Bonus – Lecture 1a:

11. The concept of "fit" in developmental psychology often refers to the match between:
a) A child's temperament and their environment
b) Parental income and neighborhood quality.
c) The size of a child's brain and their cognitive abilities.
d) A theory and a hypothesis.

Lecture 1b: Theoretical Frameworks

12. A theory is defined as a set of concepts and propositions designed to:

a) Prove a hypothesis correct.
b) Organize, describe, and explain observations
c) List all possible behaviors.
d) Summarize research data.

13. According to the Biological & Maturation Framework, development is primarily

driven by:
 a) Environmental rewards and punishments.
b) The child's active construction of knowledge.
c) The organism's biological heritage
d) Cultural context and tools.

14. Freud's Psychosexual Theory and Erikson's Psychosocial Theory are both classified
under which major framework?
a) Environmental & Learning
b) Constructivist
c) Biological & Maturation
d) Cultural-Context

15. Which theorist is associated with Behaviourism and Classical Conditioning?

a) B.F. Skinner
b) Albert Bandura
c) Jean Piaget
d) John Watson

16. B.F. Skinner's Operant-Learning Theory emphasizes how development is shaped by:
a) Unconscious conflicts.
b) Rewards and punishments
c) Cognitive schemas.
d) Cultural tools.

17. The Constructivist Framework proposes that children:

a) Are passive recipients of environmental influence.
b) Have an active role in constructing their own knowledge
c) Are driven solely by biological maturation.
d) Learn only through observing others.

18. Jean Piaget's Cognitive Developmental Theory is a prime example of the:

a) Environmental & Learning Framework.
b) Cultural-Context Framework.
c) Constructivist Framework
d) Biological & Maturation Framework.

19. Vygotsky's Sociocultural Theory, which emphasizes the role of culture in

development, falls under the:
a) Constructivist Framework.
b) Cultural-Context Framework
 c) Environmental & Learning Framework.
d) Developmental Systems Framework.

20. Bronfenbrenner's Ecological Systems Theory, which looks at multiple environmental

systems, is part of the:
a) Constructivist Framework.
b) Cultural-Context Framework.
c) Developmental Systems Framework
d) Biological & Maturation Framework.

21. The "Goodness of Fit Model" proposed by Eccles suggests that development is
optimized when:
a) There is a match between the child's characteristics and their environment

b) Parents use consistent punishment.

c) Children are genetically identical.
d) Culture is the primary influence.

Bonus – Lecture 1b:

22. A theory that suggests development is a result of the dynamic and continuous
interaction between all levels of the developing system (from biological to cultural) is most
aligned with:
a) Behaviourism.
b) Dynamic Systems Theory
c) Psychoanalytic Theory.
d) Social Cognitive Theory.

Lecture 1c: Research Strategies

23. The three main goals of developmental psychology are to:

a) Observe, question, and conclude.
b) Describe, explain, and optimize development
c) Hypothesize, test, and publish.
d) Nature, nurture, and their interaction.

24. The first step of the scientific method is to:

a) Formulate a hypothesis.
b) Develop a method.
 c) Choose a question to be answered
d) Draw a conclusion.

25. A good scientific theory should be:

a) Unfalsifiable and complex.
b) Parsimonious and falsifiable
c) Based on a single case study.
d) Proven true beyond doubt.

26. Objectivity in the scientific method means that:

a) The results should support the researcher's beliefs.
b) Scientific knowledge should not be distorted by the investigator's
preconceptions
c) Only observable behaviors should be studied.
d) The researcher must be a neutral participant.

27. If a measuring instrument yields consistent results over time, it is said to have high:
a) Validity.
b) Reliability
c) Replicability.
d) Objectivity.

28. Research designed to solve practical problems is known as:

a) Basic research.
b) Action research.
c) Applied research
d) Experimental research.

29. Observing children on a playground without interfering is an example of:

a) A controlled observation.
b) A self-report method.
c) A quasi-experiment.
d) A naturalistic observation

30. In an experiment, the variable that the researcher manipulates is called the:
a) Dependent variable.
b) Confounding variable.
c) Independent variable
d) Control variable.
 31. A major disadvantage of longitudinal research designs is:
a) Cohort effects.
b) The inability to study change over time.
c) Practice effects and attrition
d) Being less time-consuming than other methods.

32. In a cross-sectional design, researchers study:

a) The same participants over a period of time.
b) Participants from different age groups at the same time
c) Only one individual in depth.
d) The effects of a single gene.

33. Cohort effects are a particular problem for which research design?
a) Longitudinal
b) Cross-sectional
c) Experimental
d) Case Study.

Bonus – Lecture 1c:

34. A researcher measures the impact of a natural disaster on children's anxiety levels. This
is an example of a:
a) Controlled experiment.
b) Quasi-experiment
c) Naturalistic observation.
d) Structured interview.

35. A threadlike structure in the nucleus of a cell that contains DNA is called a:
a) Gene.
b) Chromosome
c) Zygote.
d) Gamete.

36. Human somatic cells contain how many chromosomes?

a) 23
b) 46
c) 22 pairs
d) 92

37. The process of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and egg) is called:
a) Mitosis.
 b) Meiosis
c) Zygotation.
d) Fertilization.

38. If an individual has two different alleles for a particular gene, they are:
a) Homozygous.
b) Heterozygous
c) Polygenic.
d) Dominant.

39. Most human traits, such as height and intelligence, are:

a) Determined by a single gene.
b) Polygenic
c) Examples of complete dominance.
d) Unaffected by the environment.

40. The concept that genetic factors influence what environments an individual will
seek out is known as:
a) Passive gene–environment relation.
b) Evocative gene–environment relation.
c) Active gene–environment relation (niche-picking)
d) Phenotypic plasticity.

41. When a child’s genetically influenced behavior elicits responses from others, it is an
example of a(n) ______ gene–environment relation.
a) Passive
b) Evocative
c) Active
d) Additive

42. Canalization refers to the idea that:

a) All traits are easily influenced by the environment.
b) Certain traits are strongly buffered against environmental influences
c) Genes and environment make separate contributions.
d) Heritability estimates are always accurate.

43. The field of behaviour genetics aims to:

a) Discover new genes.
b) Understand how genes and environment combine to produce individual
differences
 c) Prove that nature is more important than nurture.
d) Study only environmental influences.

44. Heritability estimates range from:

a) −1 to +1.
b) 0 to 100.
c) 0 to 1
d) 1 to 10.

45. A heritability estimate of 0.8 for a trait suggests that:

a) The trait is 80% determined by the environment.
b) 80% of the variation in the trait in a population is due to genetic variation
c) The trait is not influenced by genes at all.
d) The trait will be the same in all individuals.

46. A major limitation of heritability studies is that they often assume an ______ model,
whereas in reality, genes and environment ______.
a) Interactionist; are separate.
b) Additive; interact
c) Interactive; are additive.
d) Environmental; are deterministic.

Bonus – Lecture 2:
47. The example of PKU (a genetic disorder that can be prevented by a special diet) best
demonstrates:
a) High heritability.
b) The additive model of G-E effects.
c) The interactive nature of genes and environment
d) Complete genetic determinism.

Lecture 3: Prenatal Development

48. The prenatal period begins at:

a) Birth.
b) Implantation.
c) Conception
d) The fetal period.
49. The correct order of the three prenatal periods is:
a) Embryonic, Germinal, Fetal.
b) Fetal, Embryonic, Germinal.
c) Germinal, Embryonic, Fetal
d) Germinal, Fetal, Embryonic.

50. The zygote travels to the uterus and becomes a blastocyst during the:
a) Period of the fetus.
b) Period of the embryo.
c) Germinal period
d) Second trimester.

51. During the embryonic period, the inner cell mass differentiates into three layers.
Which layer becomes the nervous system and skin?
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Trophoblast

52. The principle of growth that proceeds from the head downward is called:
a) Proximodistal.
b) Cephalocaudal
c) Mass-to-specific.
d) Differentiation.

53. The period of the fetus is characterized by:

a) Formation of major organs.
b) Implantation.
c) Rapid growth and refinement of organ systems
d) Cleavage of the zygote.

54. The DeCasper and Spence (1986) study showed:

a) The effects of teratogens.
b) Fetal learning
c) The rooting reflex.
d) Embryonic heart formation.

55. A teratogen is:

a) A genetic disorder.
b) Any environmental agent that can harm a developing embryo or fetus
 c) A type of prenatal vitamin.
d) A cell in the blastocyst.

56. The impact of a teratogen depends critically on:

a) The mother’s hair color.
b) The timing of exposure
c) The sex of the doctor.
d) The season of the year.

57. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) is associated with:

a) Heavy maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy
b) Moderate caffeine intake.
c) Lack of folic acid.
d) Maternal exercise.

58. Which of the following is a general principle of teratogens?

a) The same defect is always caused by the same teratogen.
b) The effects are independent of genetic susceptibility.
c) A variety of effects can result from a single teratogen
d) The postnatal environment cannot mitigate the effects.

Bonus – Lecture 3:
59. The structure that allows for the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the mother
and the developing organism is the:
a) Amnion.
b) Umbilical cord.
c) Placenta
d) Neural tube.

Lecture 4a: Brain Development

60. The brain’s left hemisphere is typically specialized for:

a) Spatial abilities.
b) Language
c) Emotional responses.
d) Face perception.

61. The formation of the neural tube is known as:

a) Neurogenesis.
 b) Neurulation
c) Myelination.
d) Synaptogenesis.

62. The birth of new neurons is called:

a) Neurulation.
b) Myelination.
c) Neurogenesis
d) Circuit formation.

63. The process of forming connections between neurons is called:

a) Neurulation.
b) Circuit formation
c) Myelination.
d) Neurogenesis.

64. The fatty substance that insulates axons and speeds neural transmission is called:
a) Serotonin.
b) Myelin
c) Dopamine.
d) A synapse.

65. The process of “pruning” in brain development refers to the:

a) Elimination of unused synapses
b) Growth of new dendrites.
c) Formation of the neural tube.
d) Increase in brain weight.

66. Experience-expectant development relies on:

a) Unique, individual experiences.
b) The overproduction and then pruning of synapses in response to common
experiences
c) Learning to play the violin.
d) Genetic instructions alone.

67. The “Wild Boy of Aveyron” case illustrates the concept of a ______ for language
development.
a) Critical period
b) Sensitive period
 c) Myelination period
d) Neurogenesis period.

68. Experience-dependent development involves:

a) The pruning of synapses that everyone expects to have.
b) The formation of new synapses based on an individual’s unique experiences

c) The innate, pre-wired knowledge of the world.

d) The maturation of the visual cortex.

Bonus – Lecture 4a:

69. The part of the limbic system that is crucial for the formation of new memories is the:
a) Amygdala.
b) Hippocampus
c) Cerebellum.
d) Frontal lobe.

70. Piaget’s theory is considered a ________ theory because he believed children

construct knowledge through action.
a) Behaviourist
b) Psychoanalytic
c) Constructivist
d) Maturationist

71. According to Piaget, a schema is a:

a) Chemical in the brain.
b) Mental structure that represents and organizes knowledge
c) Type of logical operation.
d) Stage of moral development.

72. When a child uses an existing schema to understand a new object or event, it is
called:
a) Accommodation.
b) Equilibration.
c) Assimilation
d) Operation.

73. Piaget’s Sensorimotor stage occurs from:

a) 2–7 years.
b) Birth to 2 years
 c) 7–12 years.
d) 12+ years.

74. The major developmental achievement of the Sensorimotor stage is:

a) Abstract thought.
b) Object permanence
c) Conservation.
d) Egocentrism.

75. The A-not-B error, where an infant searches for a hidden object in a previous
location (A) rather than its new location (B), demonstrates that object permanence
is:
a) Fully developed at birth.
b) Not related to memory.
c) Not fully complete initially
d) A result of operant conditioning.

76. Baillargeon’s “violation-of-expectation” research suggested that infants:

a) Have no understanding of physical laws.
b) May understand object permanence earlier than Piaget thought
c) Are entirely passive learners.
d) Cannot imitate others until 18 months.

77. In Piaget’s theory, the ability to mentally represent the world emerges in the ______
substage of the sensorimotor period.
a) Reflex Activity
b) Secondary Circular Reactions
c) Coordination of Secondary Circular Reactions
d) Beginning of Symbolic Representation

78. The concept of dual representation explains why young children have difficulty:
a) Understanding that a model can symbolize a real room
b) Recognizing themselves in a mirror.
c) Feeling embarrassed.
d) Reaching for a hidden object.

79. Deferred imitation, which involves imitating an action after a delay, requires:
a) Reflexes.
b) Mental representation
 c) Classical conditioning.
d) Stranger anxiety.

80. A major criticism of Piaget’s theory is that he:

a) Overestimated infants’ cognitive abilities.
b) Ignored social and cultural influences
c) Focused too much on continuous change.
d) Did not believe in stages.

Bonus – Lecture 4b:

81. Adele Diamond’s research on the A-not-B error suggested that its occurrence is
influenced by the infant’s developing:
a) Visual acuity.
b) Sense of smell.
c) Memory and ability to inhibit previous responses
d) Attachment style.

Lecture 4c & 5: Perception, Motor, and Social-Emotional Development

82. The visual preference method involves:

a) Presenting one stimulus until habituation occurs.
b) Measuring physiological responses to stress.
c) Presenting two stimuli and measuring attention to each
d) Interviewing parents about their infant’s preferences.

83. Newborns’ visual acuity is:

a) Better than adults’.
b) Around 20/20.
c) Poor (around 20/600)
d) Fully developed for color perception.

84. Research on face perception suggests that newborns:

a) Prefer to look at faces over other stimuli
b) Cannot see faces at all.
c) Prefer the faces of strangers over their mothers.
d) Have adult-like face perception skills.

85. Newborns show a listening preference for:

a) Pure tones over voices.
 b) Their mother’s voice over a stranger’s voice
c) A foreign language over their native language.
d) Adult-directed speech over “baby talk.”

86. The “visual cliff” experiment demonstrates that:

a) Infants have no depth perception.
b) The development of fear of heights is solely innate.
c) Perception and motor development are linked
d) Infants are not affected by social referencing.

87. The development of motor skills like crawling is driven by:

a) Maturation alone.
b) Experience alone.
c) The interaction of maturation and experience
d) Genetic factors only.

88. A feeling state involving physiological, cognitive, and situational components is the
definition of a(n):
a) Temperament.
b) Emotion
c) Attachment.
d) Schema.

89. Emotions like embarrassment, shame, and pride are known as:
a) Primary emotions.
b) Reflexive emotions.
c) Secondary emotions
d) Universal emotions.

90. Social referencing is when an infant:

a) Becomes attached to a caregiver.
b) Uses a caregiver’s emotional cues to interpret a situation
c) Recognizes themselves in a mirror.
d) Develops a sense of object permanence.

91. An individual’s characteristic way of emotionally responding to the environment is

called:
a) Attachment.
b) Emotion.
 c) Temperament
d) Self-concept.

92. The “Goodness of Fit” model refers to the match between a child’s ______ and their
______.
a) Genetics; prenatal environment
b) Temperament; environmental demands
c) Attachment style; parental income
d) Self-concept; motor skills.

93. According to Bowlby, attachment is considered:

a) A learned drive based on food.
b) A secondary emotion.
c) An innate need that promotes survival
d) Unimportant for long-term development.

94. Harlow’s experiments with monkeys demonstrated that attachment is based

primarily on:
a) Food.
b) Warmth and comfort
c) Classical conditioning.
d) Visual stimulation.

95. In Ainsworth’s “Strange Situation,” a child who uses the caregiver as a secure base
and is easily comforted is classified as:
a) Secure
b) Avoidant.
c) Resistant/Ambivalent.
d) Disorganized.

96. A child who shows confusion and disorientation in the Strange Situation is likely to
be classified as:
a) Secure.
b) Avoidant.
c) Resistant/Ambivalent.
d) Disorganized

Bonus – Lecture 4c/5:

97. The “Rouge Task” is used to assess an infant’s:
a) Visual acuity.
b) Self-recognition
c) Hearing ability.
d) Stranger anxiety.