ASCENT MEDICAL ACADEMY

Course : SR-1 NEET Date :05-02-2025

Time : 3 Hrs GRAND TEST-35 Max. Marks : 720
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PHYSICS
     
1. For two vectors A and B, A  B  A  B then it is possible that :
   
1) A  0 2) B  0 3) A  B 4) All of the above
 
2. Several particles m1 , m2  are at r1 , r2 ,  respectivelly. Then,

Statement-1: Ix  I y  Iz  2  m0 ri2
  
Statement-2:  mi  rr  rcm   0 where rcm

is the position vector of centre of mass of the particles:

1) Both true 2) Both false 3) 1 true 2 false 4) 1 false 2 true
3. For an ideal liquid :
1) B   2) B  0 3)   0 4) Both 1 and 3

4. Four particles are moving with velocitys (m/s) 2iˆ,3 ˆj , 5kˆ and  iˆ  ˆj  . Their rms speed is:

1) 10m / s 2) 5 / 2m / s 3) zero 4) None of the above.

5. Assertion : There is no potential difference between any two points on the surface of a conductor.
Reason: Conductor has no tangential component of electric field on its surface.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
6. Maximum acceleration of a train in which a box lying on its floor remains stationary, will be
(Static friction coefficient between box and train’s floor is 0.2):
1) 1.5m / s 2 2) 2m / s 2 3) 4m / s 2 4) Zero
7. The variation of impedence of an ac circuit (having one of the element) with frequency of source
is given for different elements. Choose the incorrect plot.

1) 2) 3) 4)
8. Consider the following statements :
a) Zener diode is fabricated by lightly doped p-n junction
 b) After breakdown of Zener diode the current in the circuit is limited by external resistance
Choose the correct statement(s).
1) (a) only 2) (b) only 3) Both (a) and (b) 4) Neither (a) and (b)
9. Incorrect statement among the following is :
1) Gauss’s law is useful in calculating electric field when system has some symmetry
2) Gaussian surface can pass through a continuous charge distribution
3) Gauss’s law is based on inverse square dependence of electric field on distance
4) In situation when surface is so chosen that some charges are outside and some inside, electric
field (whose flux appears on left side of Gauss’s equation) is only due to the charges inside the
closed surface
10. Light of frequency 1.9 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. If
the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photocurrent becomes:
1) quadrupled 2) doubled 3) halved 4) zero
11. A particle moves in a straight line such that is displacement time graph is a straight line inclined
at an angle of 45 with the time axis. The particle is undergoing:
1) uniform velocity 2) uniform acceleration 3) variable velocity 4) variable acceleration
12. The magnifying power of a telescope is M . If the focal length of the eyepiece is halved, the
magnifying power will become:
1) M / 2 2) 4 M 3) M / 4 4) None of these
13. An ideal gas undergoes an state change according to P  V diagram. What is the value of Vx ?

1) V0 / 2 2) V0 3) 2V0 4) V0 / 4
14. How much work has to be done to transfer a charge of 3 C across two points having a potential
difference of 10 V ?
1) -30 A 2) 30 A 3) -30 J 4) 30 J
15. Which one of the following light is completely polarised, when light is incident at polarising
angle ?
1) Refracted light 2) Reflected light 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Calculate the current i in the given figure.
 1) 1.7 A 2) 3.7 A 3) 1.3 A 4) 1 A
17. A bus travelling with a speed of 30m / s is braked and it slows down with uniform retardation. It
covers a distance of 90 m as its velocity reduces to 24m / s . If the bus continues to slow down
with the same rate. after what further distance will it be brought to stop ?
1) 24.5 m 2) 25 m 3) 160 m 4) 200 m
18. If a source is transmitting electromagnetic wave of frequency 8.2 10 6 Hz . then wavelength of the
electromagnetic waves transmitted from the source will be:
1) 36.5 m 2) 40.8 m 3) 50 m 4) 53.4 m
19. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given by B y  4  107 sin 10 4 x  528  1012 t  . The

wavelength of the electromagnetic wave is:

1) 6.28  10 4 m 2) 5.78  10 3 m 3) 6.3  10 4 m 4) 2.5  10 7 m
20. A body is released from the top of an incline of height h ,
1) its KE at the bottom of the incline depends on angle of incline.
2) its KE at the bottom will depends on angle of incline only if the incline is not smooth
3) its KE of bottom of the incline will not depend on angle of incline irrespective of whether
incline is smooth or rough.
4) Cannot say unless mass is given
21. The radius of the earth is 6400km and g  10m / s2 . angular speed of the earth so that there is
weightlessness at the surface of earth:
1) 1/ 80 rad / s 2) 1/ 400  rad / s 3) 1/ 800 rad / s 4) 1/1600  rad / s

22. An engine uses 30 A of current and the resistance offered is 15 . Calculate the power consumed
by the engine (in HP).
1) 18 2) 19 3) 17 4) 13500
23. S I: To hear different beats, difference of frequencies of two sources should be less than 10.
SII: More the number of beats more is the confusion.
1) Both statement are true 2) Both statement are false
3) S I is true but SII is false 4) S I is false but SII is true
24. A straight wire carrying current 21 is turned into a circular loop. If the magnitude of mgnetic
moment associated with it is M , the length of wire will be:
 4 M 2M M 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
I 1 l Ml
25. Four silicon diodes are connected as shown in figure. Assume the diode to be ideal. The current
through the resistance R is:

1) 0.2 A 2) 0.1 A 3) 0.3 A 4) 0.5 A

26. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nuclues are respectively 1.00734amu,1.00874amu and
4. 00154 amu . The binding energy of helium nuclues is:
1) 14.2 MeV 2) 10.46 MeV 3) 28.4 MeV 4) None of these
27. A body of mass m and charge Q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released.
The KE. attained by the body after moving a distances is:
1) QEs2 2) QE 2 S 3) QEs 4) Q 2 Es
28. In order to establish an instantaneous displacement current of 1 mA in the space between the
plates of 2  F parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference need to apply is:
1) 200Vs 1 2) 800Vs 1 3) 300Vs 1 4) 500Vs 1
29. The reading of the ammeter as per the give29

1) 1/ 8 A 2)  3 / 4  A 3) 1/ 2 A 4) 2 A

30. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.2 cm . There are 50 divisions on its circular scale. The minimum
thickness of an object that can be measured by this screw gauge is:
1) 0.004 cm 2) 0.04 cm 3) 0.020 cm 4) 0.002 cm
31. A charge particle moving with velocity 3  105 m / s enters in a magnetic field of 0.3 T , at an
angle of 30  . The radius of curvature of its path will be:  m  1.67  10 27 kg, q  1.6  10 19 C  .

1) 0.5 cm 2) 0.2 m 3) 0.02 m 4) None of these

32. Two waves represented by y  asin t  kx  and y  asin t  kx  2 / 3 are superposed will be

the amplitude of the resultant wave is:

1) a 2) a 2 3) 2a 4) a1/3
33. A copper rod of length 0.19 m is moving parallel to a long wire with a uniform velocity of
10m / s . The long wire carrier 5 A current and is perpendicular to the rod. The ends of the rod are
at distances 0.01 m and 0.2 m from the wire. The emf induced in the rod will be:
1) 10  V 2) 20  V 3) 30  V 4) 40  V
34. What are diamensions of E / B ?
1)  LT 1  2)  LT 3  3)  MLT 2  4)  M 1 L2T 1 

35. The x and y -coordinates of the particle at any time are x  5t  2t 2 and y  10t respectively,
where x and y are in metre and t in second. The acceleration of the aprticle at t  2 is:
1) 0 2) 5ms 2 3) 4ms 2 4) 8ms 2
36. Calculate the effective capacitances between the points a and b in the given figure.

1) 6  F 2) 12  F 3) 18  F 4) 24  F
37. A object falls freely from the top of a tower and during the last second of its fall, it falls through
30 m . Find the height of tower.
1) 60 m 2) 61.25 m 3) 50 m 4) 50.25 m
38. A car of mass 5000 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to 30m / s in 10 s . Calculate its
acceleration
1) 3m / s 2 2) 1m / s 2 3) 2m / s 2 4) None of these
39. An electron changes its position from orbit n  1 to n  3 of an atom. The wavelength of the
emitted radiations is ( R  Rydberg’s constant)
16 12 9 7
1) 2) 3) 4)
3R 11R 8R 6R
40. A body executes SHM with amplitude A and time period T , when the displacement from the
equilibrium position is half the amplitude, what fractions of the total energy are kinetic and
potential?
1) 75% of E and 25% of E 2) 60% of E and 28% of E
3) 25% of E and 30% of E 4) 85% of E and 40% of E
41. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system ?
1) Temperature 2) Pressure 3) mass 4) Density
42. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length another coil
of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the
magnetic induction at their centres will be:
1) 2 :1 2) 1: 4 3) 4 :1 4) 1: 2
43. If a medium has a critical angle for total internal reflection from the medium to vacuum as 60 ,
what is the velocity of light in the medium ?
1) 0.5  108 m / s 2) 2 2 108 m / s 3) 1.5 3 108 m / s 4) 0.2  108 m / s
44. A rectangular coil is 20 turns and area of cross section 25cm 2 has a resistance of 100 . If a
magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of coil changes at a rate of 1000T / s , the
current in the coil is:
1) 1 A 2) 50 A 3) 0.5 A 4) 5 A
45. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 m . Both of them carry 1 A of current in the same
direction. The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is:
1) 2  10 7 N / m 2) 8  10 7 N / m 3) 4  10 7 N / m 4) None of these
 Sr-1 CHEMISTRY 05-02-2025
46. Statement I: The E 0M value of copper is negative  0.34V  .
 2
/M 
Statement II : Copper (s) has high heat of atomisation and low enthalpy of hydration of Cu 2 .
1) Both SI and SII are incorrect 2) S I is correct but SII is incorrect
3) SI is incorrect but S II is correct 4) Both SI and S II are correct.
47. Match the Column I with Column II and mark the correct option :
Column I Column II
A. XeF6 1. sp 3d 3 -distorted octahedral
B. XeO3 2. sp3d 2  Square planer
C. XeOF4 3. sp3 - Pyramidal
D. XeF4 4. sp 3d 2  Square pyramidal
1) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
48. Assertion (A): Transition metals are good catalysts.
Reason (R): V2O 5 or Pt is used in the preparation of H 2SO 4 by contact process
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct exaplanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of  A

49. Statement I: Actinide form relatively less stable complexes as compared to lanthanoids.
Statement II : Actinoids can utilise their 5 f -orbitals along with 6d orbitals in bonding but
lanthanoids do not use their 4 f orbital for bonding.
1) Both SI and S II are incorrect 2) SI is correct but S II is incorrect
3) S I is incorrect but SII is correct 4) Both SI and SII are correct.
50 What is freezing point of solution containing 8.1 g of HBr in 100 g of water? (Assuming the acid
to be 90% ionised and K b for water  1.86Kkgmol1 ) :

1) 0.35 C 2) 1.35 C 3) 2.35 C 4) 3.53 C

51. Point out the correct decreasing order of pK b values of following amines :

C2 H5 NH2 , C6 H5 NHCH3 ,  C2 H5 2 NH, C6 H5 NH 2

1)  C2 H5  2 NH  C2 H5 NH2  C6 H5 NHCH3  C6 H5 NH2

2)  C6 H5  2 NH  C6 H5 NHCH3  C6 H5 NH 2  C2 H5 NH 2

3) C6 H5 NH 2  C6 H5 NHCH3  C2 H5 NH 2   C2 H5 2 NH

4) C2 H5 NH 2   C2 H5 2 NH  C6 H5 NHCH3  C6 H5 NH2

52. S I: Ionic radii of Ta and Nb are same.

SII : The lanthanide contraction decreases the sizes with the increases in atomic number.
 1) Both SI and SII are incorrect 2) S I is correct but SII is incorrect
3) SI is incorrect but S II is correct 4) Both S I and S II are correct.
53. The correct statements among I to III are :
I. Valence bond theory can not explain the colour exhibited by transition metal.
II. Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively the magnetic properties of transition metal
complexes.
III. Valence bond theory can not distinguish ligands as weak and strong field ones.
1) II and III only 2) I, II, III only 3) I and II only 4) I and III only
54. A: The green manganate is diamagnetic but the purple permanganate is paramagnetic in nature.
R: MnO 4 2 contains one unpaired electron while in MnO 4 contains all paired electron.

1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of  A

2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
55. Consider the following bromides :

The correct order of SN 1 reactivity is :

1) C  B  A 2) A  B  C 3) B  C  A 4) B  A  C
56. If the magnetic moment of the complex CrCl3  6H 2O is 3.83B.M ., the CFSE value for the
complex will be (At. No. Cr = 24):
1) -0.4 2) -0.8 3) -1.2 4) -1.6
57. The reaction, X  product, follows first order kinetics. In 40 minutes, the concentration of X
changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M , then the rate of reaction when concentration of X is 0.01 M is :
1) 1.73 104 M / min 2) 2.4 105 M / min 3) 3.47 104 M / min 4) 1.73 105 M / min
58. One mole of a symmertical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of a carbonyl compound
having a molecular mass of 58 u . The alkene is :
1) 2, 3-dimethyl butene-1 2) Hexene-2 3) Hexene-3 4) Butene-2
d  P 2
59. The rate law of the reaction A  2 B  product is given by  K  A  B  . If A is taken in
dt
large excess, the order of the reaction will be :
1) Zero 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
60. Propylbenzene reacts with bromine in presence of light or heat to give

1) 2)
 3) 4)
61. One of the common alcohol used for the formation of cyclic ketal of carbonyl group :
1) Glycol 2) Ethanol 3) 1,3-proponediamine 4) Glycerol
62. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction, A  B  C  D is 100 . If the initial
concentrations of all the four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in
molL1 ) will be:
1) 0.818 2) 1.818 3) 1.182 4) 0.182

63. In the following sequence of reaction, .The product C is :

1) C6 H 5COOH 2) C6 H 5CH 3 3) C6 H 5CH 2OH 4) C6 H 5CHO
64. Compounds A and C in the following reaction are:

1) identical 2) positional isomers 3) functional isomers 4) optical isomers

65. For the hypothetical reactions, the equilibrium constant (K) values are given :
A  B; K1  2; B  C ; K 2  4; C  D; K 3  3

The equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction A  D is:

1) 48 2) 6 3) 24 4) 12
66. 40 mL of 0.1 M ammonium hydroxide is mixed with 20 mL of 0.1 M HCI . What is the pH of
the mixture : ( pK b of ammonia solution is 4.74)
1) 4.74 2) 2.26 3) 9.26 4) 5
67. How many electron can be filled in all the orbitals with n  l  5 :
1) 8 2) 18 3) 10 4) 2
68. Iodoform test is given by :
1) ethanol 2) ethanol 3) 2-pentanone 4) All of these
69. Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of fluorine is less than that of chlorine due to:
1) Bigger size of 2 p orbital of flourine. 2) Smaller size of fluorine atom
3) Smaller size of chlorine atom 4) High ionisation enthalpy of fluorine
70. Among the following statements, Which one is not correct?
1) Colour of Yb3 ion is pink. 2) La 3 ion is paramagnetic.
3) Ce4 has f 0 configuration. 4) Lu 3 had f 14 configuration.
71. Which of the following compounds gives blood red colouration when its Lassaigne’s extract is
treated with alkali and ferric chloride :
 1) Benzamide 2) Diphenyl sulphide 3) Phenylhydrazine 4) Thiourea
72. Correct order of bond angle for the following is :
1) BCl3  NH 3  PCl3 2) NH 3  BCl3  PCl3 3) PCl3  NH 3  BCl3 4) PCl3  BCl3  NH 3

73. The vant Hoff factor for K 3  Fe  CN 6  , if it is 75% dissociated:

1) 3.5 2) 4.0 3) 3.25 4) 3.75

74. Which of the following would exert maximum osmotic pressure :
1) Decinormal aluminium sulphate 2) Decinormal barium chloride
3) Decinormal sodium chloride 4) Decinormal KCl solution
75. What is the pH of solution after mixing 100 ml of A having pH 3 and 100 ml of B having pH 5 :
1) 2.28 2) 3.28 3) 4 4) 3
LiAlH PCl AIC KOH
76. In the reaction, CH3COOH   A   B 4
 C . The product C is :
5

1) acetaldehyde 2) acetylene 3) ethylene 4) acetyl chloride

77. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism :
3  
1)  Co  en 3  2)  Co  en 2 Cl 2  3)  Co  NH 3 3 Cl3  4)  Co  en  NH 3 2 Cl2 

78. Assertion: pH of 107 MHCl is less than 7 at 25 C .

Reason: At very low concentration of HCl, contribution of H  from water is considerable.
1) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the A.
2) Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the A.
3) Assertion is true but the reason is false. 4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

79. on dehydration with conc. H 2SO 4 at 160 C predominantly forms :

1) 2) 3) 4)
80. Identify Y in the sequence CH3COONH 4 
 X P
O

Y 2 5

1) CH 3CH 2CONH 2 2) CH3CN 3) CH 3COOH 4)  CH3CO 2 O

81. Aniline is a set of reaction yielded a product D .

NaNO2 CuCN H2 HNO2
C6 H5 NH 2 
HCl
 A   B 
Ni
 C  D

The structure of the product D would be :

1) C6 H 5CH 2OH 2) C6 H 5CH 2 NH 2 3) C6 H5 NHOH 4) C6 H 5 NHCH 2CH 3
82. Arrange the following compounds in the order of decreasing acidity:
 1) II  IV  I  III 2) I  II  III  IV 3) III  I  II  IV 4) IV  III  I  II
83. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following :
 2 4 4
1)  Cu  NH 3 4  2)  Ni  CN 4  3)  Fe  CN 6  4)  CoCl6 

84. The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is :

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

1) (I)  (II)  (III)  (IV) 2) (II)  (I)  (III)  (IV)
3) (II)  (I)  (IV)  (III) 4) (IV)  (II)  (I)  (III)
85. Which of the following compounds will give significant amount of meta-product during
mononitration reaction :

1) 2) 3) 4)
86. Given,
C(oraphita)  O 2  g   CO 2  g  ;  r H  393.5kJmol 1
1
H 2  g   O 2  g   H 2O  l  ;  r H   285.8kJmol 1
2
CO 2  g   2H 2O  l   CH 4  g   2O 2  g  ;  r H   890.3kJmol 1

Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of  r H  at 298K for the reaction,

C(graphite)  2H 2  g   CH 4  g  will be :

1) 78.8kJmol1 2) 144.0kJmol1 3) 74.8kJmol1 4) 144.0kJmol1

87. The species in which the N -atom is in a state of sp hybridisation is:
1) NO 2 2) NO3 3) NO 2 4) NO 2
88. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes from 300 K to 310 K . Activation
energy of such a reaction will be ( R  8.314JK 1mol1 and log2  0.301 )
1) 53.6kJmol1 2) 48.6kJmol1 3) 58.5kJmol1 4) 60.5kJmol1
89. The order of stability of the following carbocations is:

 
I. CH 2  CH  C H 2 II. CH 3  CH 2  C H 2 III.
1) III  II  I 2) II  III  I 3) I  II  III 4) III  I  II
z
90. Consider the following reaction, xMnO4 +yC2 O42  zH   xMn 2  2yCO2  H 2O
2
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively:
1) 5, 2 and 16 2) 2,5 and 8 3) 2,5 and 16 4) 5,2 and 8
 BOTANY
91. Select the correct Match:
A) Power house of I. Protein modification cell
B) Photosynthesis II. Excretion and osmoregulation
C) Contractile III. Chloroplast vacuole
D) GolgiApparatus IV. Mitochondria
1) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II 2) (A)-III, (B)-II, (C)-II, (D)-IV
3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-III, (D)-I 4) (A)-I, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-II
92. Green revolution succeded due to
1) Improved crop varieties 2) Better management practices
3) Use of agrochemicals 4) All of the above
93. Which one of the following is correct match:
1) Terminalized chiasmata –Pachytene
2) Exchange of segments of -Zygotene chromatids
3) Synapsis of homologous -Diakinesis chromosomes
4) Appearance of chiasmata –Diplotene
94. Which one of the following statement is correct
1) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only in the heart
2) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present in the brain and heart
3) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present in stomach and heart
4) Cardiac muscle is voluntary
95. Select the incorrect option for meselson and stahl experiment
a. Use of radioactive P b. Use of radioactive S
c. Use of NH 4Cl and CsCl d. Involvement of E. coli
1) Only a 2) a , b 3) a, b, d 4) c, d
96. Assertion A: True coelom are character of all triploblastic animal.
Reason R: In triploblastic animal mesoderm is present.
1) A is true but R is false 2) A is false but R is true
3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A .
97. Select the correct match
A. Zygomorphic - Type of symmetry B. Actinomorphic - Type of symmetry
C. Reticulate - Type of placentation D. Valvate - Type of inflorescence
1) A, B, C 2) A, B , D 3) A, B 4) A, D
98. Select the correct option for Gulmohar
 a. Zygomorphic b. Imbricate Aestivation C. Superior ovary
d. Compositae family e. Monocarpellary gynoecium
1) a, b, c, d 2) a, b, c, e 3) b, c, d 4) All
99. Select the correct match for cockroach
A. Testis 4 th to 6 th abdominal segments B. Ovary 2 th to 6 th abdominal segments
C. Anal cerci-10 0 th segment D. Spermatheca 6 th segment
1) Only A, B, D 2) Only A , B, C 3) All 4) Only B, C, D
100. The grinding region and incision region are present upon which structure in cockroach
1) Mandible 2) Labrum 3) Antennae 4) Compound eye
101. Select the correct statement for given type of cross Rr-Pink flower, RR - Red flower, rr - white
flower TT - Tall plant, Tt - Tall plant, tt - Dwarf plant TTRr  Ttrr
a. The percentage of tall plants are 100 b. The percentage of pink flower are 50
c. The percentage of red flower 25 d. The percentage of white flower are 25
e. The percentage of dwarf plant are zero
1) a, b, e 2) Only a , b 3) Only b, c, e 4) b, c, d, e
102. In the given diagram select the connective tissue

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four

103. Select the correct option for Ulothrix
a. Isogamous b. Gametes non flagellated but similar in size
c. Green algae d. Stored food is starch e. Filamentous
1) a, c, d, e 2) a, b, c, d 3) Only a, b, c, e 4) All
104. Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.
1) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the medulla.
2) Loop of henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
3) Juxta medullary nephrons out number the cortical nephrons.
4) juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
105. Assertion (A) : Juxta GlomerularApparatus (JG1) plays an important role in regulation of
glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
Reason (R):A fall in GFR can activate the J.G. cells to release renin which can stimulate the
glomerular blood flow and there by bringing the GFR to normal level.
 1) Both  A and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of  A

2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of  A

3) (A) is True but (R) is False 4) (A) is False but (R) is True.
106. Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of  A

107. Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin
proteins.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
1) A, C and D only 2) C and D only 3) A, B and C only 4) B and C only
108. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L , blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL :
1) 50 beats per minute 2) 75 beats per minute
3) 100 beats per minute 4) 125 beats per minute
109. List I List II
A. Pwave I. Heart muscles are electrically silent
B. QRS complex II. Depolarisation of ventricles
C. Twave III. Depolarisation of atria
D. T-P gap IV. Repolarisation of venticles.
1) A  III , B  II , C  IV , D  I 2) A  II, B  III, C  I, D  IV
3) A  IV, B  II, C  I, D  III 4) A  I, B  III, C  IV, D  II
110. Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.
1) Succinic acid  Malic acid 2) Succinyl-CoA  Succinic acid
3) Isocitrate   -ketoglutaric acid 4) Malic acid  Oxaloacetic acid
111. In glycolysis, the conversion of 1, 3-bisphospho glyceric Acid to 3-phosphoglyceric Acid is:
1) Energy yielding process 2) Energy utilising process
3) Phosphorylation process 4) Isomerisation process
112. Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
A. Light B. Chlorophyll C. CO2 D. ATP E. NADPH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B, C and D only 2) C, D and E only 3) D and E only 4) A, B and C only
113. The photochemical phase of photosynthesis include:
A. Oxygen release B. Formation of NADPH C. Use of ATP
D. Water splitting E. Carboxylation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) C and E only 2) A, B and D only 3) B, C and E only 4) A,B,C and D only
114. Statement I: In C3 plants, some O2 binds to RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased.
Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath
cells do not show photorespiration.
1) Both S I and S II are false 2) SI is true but SII is false
3) S I is false but SII is true 4) Both S I and SII are true
115. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus.
This phenomenon may be called as :
1) Development 2) Senescence 3) Differentiation 4) Dedifferentiation
116. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps ?
1) A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 10% cross over
2) A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 100% cross over
3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over
4) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over
117. The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be
understood from a diagram called:
1) Punch square 2) Punnett square 3) Net square 4) Bullet square
118. In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
1) 75% 2) 25% 3) 100% 4) 50%
119. List I List II
A. Heroin I. Effect on cardiovascular system
B. Marijuana II. Slow down body function
C. Cocaine III. Painkiller
D. Morphine IV. Interfere with transport of dopamine
1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
 3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
120. List I List II
A. Typhoid I. Fungus
B. Leishmaniasis II. Nematode
C. Ringworm III. Protozoa
D. Filariasis IV. Bacteria
1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
121. List-I List-II
A. B-Lymphocytes I. Passive immunity
B. Interferons II. Cell mediated immunity
C. T-Lymphocytes III. Produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens
D. Colostrum IV. Innate immunity
1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III 2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
122. Assertion (A) : Some human organs like liver, kidney fail to function normally and
transplantation is the only remedy to enable the patient to live a normal life.
Reason ( R ): Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before undertaking any
transplant and patient has to take immunosuppressant there after.
1) Both  A and  R  are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is True but (R) is False 4) (A) is False but (R) is True.
123. Statement I : Aphids and mosquitoes are natural pests.
Statement II : Lady bird and dragonflies are natural pests controllers.
1) Both SI and SII are incorrect 2) SI is correct but S II is incorrect
3) S I is incorrect but SII is correct 4) Both SI and SII are correct
124. ’The integration of natural science and organisms cells, parts there of, and molecular analogues
for products and services’. Above given sentence is
1) Definition of bioinformatics 2) Definition of biotechnology
3) Special method of tissue culture 4) Special method for hybridization
125. Statement I: The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and
starts producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called lactation.
Statement II : The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum.
1) Both SI and SII are incorrect 2) SI is correct but SII is incorrect
3) SI is incorrect but SII is correct 4) Both SI and SII are correct
126. Select the correct Match:
A) Ribosome I. Major site for synthesis of lipid
B) Gram Negative II. Absent in Animal cell and Gram positive
C) Large central III. Type of Bacteria vacuole
D) SER IV. Site of protein synthesis
1) (A)-I, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-II 2) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
3) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-III, (D)-IV 4) (A)-II, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I
127. The 70 S ribosome is present in
a) Mycoplasma b) Trypanosoma c) Marchantia d) Frog e) Albugo
1) Only a, b 2) Only a, b, c 3) Only a, b, d 4) All
128. A scientist found a organism in a place. This organism O2 release through photosynthesis. This
organism are may be member of which kingdom.
a) Monera b) Protista c) Plantae d) Fungi e) Animalia
1) only c 2) only a,c 3) only a,b,c 4) All
129. Select the correct statement between Adenine and Uracil
a. Both are heterocyclic compound
b. In both number of nitrogen atom are same
c. In uracil number of nitrogen atom are greater than adenine
d. Both are a type of Base e. Both are present in DNA and RNA
1) a, c, d 2) a, d 3) a , b, d 4) a, d, e
130. In karyokinesis which stages are included
a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase
1) Only a, b, c 2) Only b, c, d 3) All 4) Only a, c, d
131. Special vascularised structure called are used by most of the aquatic arthropods
Fill in the blank in given sentence
1) Lungs (pulmonary respiration) 2) Gills (Branchial respiration)
3) Tracheal tubes 4) Moist cuticle
132. Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent evolution :
List-I List-II
A. Lemur I. Flying phalanger
B. Bobcat II. Numbat
C. Anteater III. Spotted cuscus
D. Flying squirrels IV. Tasmanian tiger cat
1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
133. List-I List-II
A. Living fossil I. Elongated canine teeth
B. Connecting Link II. Vermiform Appendix
C. Vestigial Organ III. Echidna
D. Atavism IV. Latimeria
1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
134. Assuming Hardy Weinberg’s Principle, in certain population the frequencies of three genotype
are as follows:

What is likely frequency of ’ A ’ and ’ a ’ alleles?

1) 53% and 47% 2) 40% and 60% 3) 50% and 50% 4) 30% and 70%
135. The flowers of Amorphophallus provide safe place for the pollinator to lay eggs. This is an
example of:
1) Amensalism 2) Anemophily 3) Floral reward 4) Commensalism
 ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide :
1) Trypsin 2) Chitin 3) Inulin 4) Starch
137 Assertion (A) : In Biotechnology for transfer of desired alien DNA into host cell only living
organism are used as a vector.
Reason (R) : In Biotechnology for transfer of desired Alien DNA into host cell we used plasmid,
Bacteriophage, Disarmed pathogen and gene gun
1) A is true but R is false 2) A is false but R is true
3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A .
138. However when there are situations where an organisms is endangered or threatened (organism
facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future) and needs urgent measures to
save it from extinction then what is the desirable approach :
1) Ex situ conservation 2) In situ conservation
3) Off site conservation 4) More than one option is correct
139. An Individual has certain attributes. These attributes are :
a. Death b. Birth c. Death rate d. Birth rate e. Sex ratio
1) a, b 2) c, d, e 3) Only e 4) Only c, d
140. Statement I: IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
space children.
Statement II : Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or Relaxin-prolactin
combinations is another contraceptive method used by the females.
1) Both S I and S II are incorrect 2) SI is correct but S II is incorrect
3) SI is incorrect but SII is correct 4) Both S I and S II are correct
141. Statement I: In prokaryotes such as [Link] though they do not have a defined nucleus the DNA is
not scattered throughout the cell.
Statement II : The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by proteins.
1) Both SI and S II are incorrect 2) S I is correct but S II is incorrect
3) SI is incorrect but S II is correct 4) Both S I and SII are correct
142. Radioisotope P32 and S35 used in:
1) Hershey - Chase experiment 2) Griffith experiment
3) Franklin Stahl experiment 4) Matthew Meselson experiment
143. Select the correct match:
A. Chlamydiasis I. Curable STIs
B. Hepatitis-B II. Non curable STIs
 C. ICSI III. ART
D. Vasectomy IV. Surgical process
1) A  IV, B  I, C  II, D  III 2) A  III , B  I , C  II , D  IV
3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
144. Select the correct match:
A. Secretin I. Gastro-Intestinal tract
B. Estrogen II. Pituitary
C. Cortisol III. Adrenal gland
D. PRL IV. Ovary
1) A  I , B  II , C  III , D  IV 2) A  I , B  IV , C  III , D  II
3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
145. Which of the following is not a secondary metabolite?
1) Codeine 2) Abrin 3) Anthocyanin 4) Glycerol
146. Select the correct Match:
A) RBC I. Round and Biconcave
B) WBC II. Amoeboid
C) Nerve cell III. Branched and long
D) Columnar IV. Long and Narrow epithelial cells
1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV 2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I 4) (A)-III, (B)-II, (C)-II, (D)-IV
147. Which of the following is a type of taxa:
1) Insecta 2) Monera 3) Potato 4) All
148. Statement I: Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and inhibits secretion of HCl and pepsinogen.
Statement II : GIP stimulates gastric secretion and motility.
1) Both S I and SII are incorrect 2) S I is correct but SII is incorrect
3) S I is incorrect but SII is correct 4) Both S I and S II are correct
149. Which is the correct statement about mutualism :
1) One species is harmed and other is unaffected
2) Both species are benefitted
3) One species is benefitted and other is neither benefitted nor harmed
4) One species is harmed and other is partially benefitted.
150. Which of the following is/are aquatic mammals
1) Whales 2) Seals 3) Sea cows 4) All
151. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?
1) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
 2) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote.
3) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
4) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
152. Which one of the following is incorrect match
1) Crop fields- Man made ecosystem 2) Aquarium- Man made ecosystem
3) Grassland and desert- Terrestrial ecosystem 4) Phytoplankton - Consumers
153. Which kind of meristem is/are free of virus
1) Apical 2) Axillary 3) Only apical 4) Both 1 and 2
154. Statement I: Most of the industrialised nations are rich financially but poor in biodiversity and
traditional knowledge.
Statement II : Traditional knowledge related to bio-resources can be exploited to develop modern
applications and can also be used to save time, effort and expenditure during their
commercialisation.
1) Both SI and SII are incorrect 2) S I is correct but S II is incorrect
3) SI is incorrect but S II is correct 4) Both S I and SII are correct
155. Select the incorrect match for human neural system
1) Multipolar neuron - Cerebral cortex 2) Bipolar neuron - Retina of eye
3) Unipolar neuron - Usually in the embryonic stage
4) Unmyelinated nerve - Schwann cells absent fibre
156. Underground stems of some plants such as _____etc. Spread to new niches and when older parts
die new plants are formed. Fill in the blanks in the given sentence
1) Mango 2) Pistia 3) Grass and strawberry 4) Eichhornia
157. The example of organ of perennation
a) Potato b) Ginger c) Turmeric d) Zaminkand (e) Colocasia
1) Only a, b, c, e. 2) Only b, c, d, e 3) All 4) Only a, c, d, e
158. Select The correct option for given diagram

a. Family fabaceae b. Aerial modification of root c. Modification for storage of food

d. Underground modification of root e. Botanical name of plant Brassica oleraceae
1) c, d, e 2) a, c, d, e 3) b, c, e 4) c, d
159. Select the extinct animals
a. Rhynia b. Triceratops c. Passenger pigeon d. Stellar sea cow e. Brachiosaurus
1) b, c, d, e 2) Only a, b, c, d 3) Only b, d, e 4) All
160. In the given diagram select the viviparous animal

1) Two 2) One 3) Three 4) Five

161. A: In Ecosystem Net primary productivity is less than gross primary productivity
R: Gross primary productivity minus photosynthesis losses is the net primary productivity
1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is true but (R) is false 3) (A) is false but (R) is true
4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
162. Which one of the following is the correct match
1) Making RNA from RNA- Transcription 2) Making RNA to DNA - Reverse transcription
3) Making DNA to DNA – Translation 4) Making RNA to Protein- Replication
163. Select the correct match:
A. Lactose I.  -galactosidase
B. Francois Jacob II. Geneticist
C. Release factor III. Termination of Translation
D. Jacque monod IV. Biochemist
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
164. Select the correct match :
A. UUG I. Leucine
B. GUA II. Proline
C. CAU III. Histidine
D. CCA IV. Valine
1) A  I , B  II , C  III , D  IV 2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
3) A  I, B  IV, C  III, D  II 4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
165 Assertion (A) : In plants growth is measured by a variety of parameter.
Reason ( R ) : In plants growth is measured by increase in fresh weight, dry weight, length, area,
volume, and cell number.
 1) A is true but R is false 2) A is false but R is true
3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A .
166. Select the incorrect match
1) Milk producing glands – Camel
2) Able to maintain a constant - Vulture body temperature
3) Skin with placoid scales – Frog 4) Mouth is located ventrally - Dog fish
167. Select the animal in which the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm
and endoderm.
Sycon, Gorgonia, Ascaris, Anopheles, Wuchereria, Limulus, Pheretima, Antedon
1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five
168. In the given examples select the plants in which gametophytes are multicellular but not
dominating stage.
Spirogyra, Gracilaria, Sphagnum, Marchantia, Selaginella, Adiantum, Equisetum, Volvox
1) Five 2) Four 3) Three 4) Two
169. Select the tissue / cells which are made up of parenchyma
a. Mesophyll b. Medullary rays in dicot stem
c. Cortical layer in dicot stem d. Epidermal cells e. Hypodermis in monocot stem
1) a, b, c, d 2) a, b, c, e 3) a, b, d, e 4) Only a, b, d
170. Select the correct match :
a) Plankton i) Float passively in water current.
b) Protozoans ii) Primitive relative of animal
c) Spore of slime moulds iii) True walls
d) Dikaryotic cell iv) Two nuclei per cell
1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) 4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
171. Select the incorrect option for the given diagram

1) Non living 2) Involved in water transport

3) Component of simple tissue 4) Component of complex tissue
172. Select the correct option for prophase I
a. Splitting of centromere b. Movements of chromatids towards pole
c. Formation of chaismata d. Crossing over e. Synapsis
1) c, d, e 2) b, c, d, e 3) Only d, e 4) a, c, d, e
173. In many cultures, tracts of forest were set a side, and all the trees and wildlife within were
venerated and given total protection. The above given sentence are related with
1) Zoological parks 2) Tissue culture 3) Sacred groves 4) Seed bank
174. The number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the
time period under consideration
1) Emigration 2) Immigration 3) Natality 4) Mortality
175. Which one of the following hormones though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by
the master gland :
1) Prolactin 2) Melanocyte stimulating hormone 3) Oxytocin 4) Luteinising hormone
176. Select the correct match
A. Mesophyll I. Parenchyma
B. Ring arrangement of vascular bundle II. Dicot stem
C. Sclerenchymatous III. Hypodermis of monocot stem
D. Palisade parenchyma IV. Adaxially placed
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
177. Which of the following statement is correct for nodes of Ranvier of a nerve :
1) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous 2) Neurilemma is discontinuous
3) Myelin sheath is discontinuous 4) Covered by myelin sheath
178. Select the correct ascending order for biodiversity in Amazonian rain forests
1) Reptiles < Mammals < Birds < Fishes 2) Mammals < Birds < Reptiles < Fishes
3) Birds < Reptiles < Mammals < Fishes 4) Reptiles < Mammals < Fishes < Birds
179. In mendel dihybrid experiment which genotype shows yellow round phenotype
a. RRYY b. RrYY c. RRYy d. rrYy e. RrYy
1) Only a , b, c 2) Only b, c, d 3) a, b, c, e 4) b, c, d, e
180. Statement I: During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of the
ovum and induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms.
Statement II : The secretion of the acrosome help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum
through the zona pellucida and the plasma membrane.
1) Both S I and S II are incorrect 2) SI is correct but SII is incorrect
3) S I is incorrect but S II is correct 4) Both SI and S II are correct