21-12-2025

1015CMD303055250047 MD

PHYSICS

1) Three particles of equal mass m are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ.
They are moving in a circle in influence of their mutual gravitational interaction. Then their time
period of revolution is directly proportional to :-

(1) ℓ1/2
(2) ℓ-1/2
(3) ℓ3/2
(4) ℓ–3/2

2) In case of a solid sphere, where is its gravitational potential minimum ?

(1) At the centre of the sphere

(2) At the surface of the sphere
(3) At infinity
(4) At mid-point between the centre and surface of the sphere

3) Assertion (A) : There is no effect of rotation of earth on acceleration due to gravity at poles.
Reason (R) : Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

4) Two frictionless tunnels AB and AC are dug inside the earth as shown in the figure. A is at R/2
distance from centre of earth along the line connecting centre and B. A particle of mass m1 is
projected along AB another particle of mass m2 is projected along AC such that both escape. Then
ratio of their minimum velocities, so that the particle escapes the gravitational field of earth (assume
tunnel to be small & their is no loss of energy of particle during its collision with tunnel)

(1) 1:1
(2) 2:1
(3) 1:2
(4) None of these
5) A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth . The mass of the satellite is very
small compared to the mass of earth :

(1) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth
The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction but its
(2)
magnitude remains constant
(3) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time
(4) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude

6) A particle is projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed
equal to one fourth of escape velocity. What is the maximum height attained by it from the surface of
the earth ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

7) A solid sphere of uniform density and radius R applies a gravitational force of attraction equal to
F1 on a particle of mass m placed at a distance 2R from the centre of the sphere. A spherical cavity
of radius R/2 is now made in the sphere as shown in the figure. The sphere with the cavity now

applies gravitational force F2 on the same particle. The ratio F1/F2 is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If the mass of planet is 10% less than that of the earth and radius is 20% greater than that of the
earth the acceleration due to gravity on the planet will be :

(1) 5/8 times that on the surface of the earth

(2) 3/4 times that on the surface of earth
(3) 1/2 times that on the surface of earth
(4) 9/10 times that on the surface of earth

9) Six point masses of mass m each are at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side ℓ. The force on
any one of the masses is given by , then find x + y –z. (Take : x < y < z)

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 5

10) A particle moving in a plane is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude that is always
perpendicular to the velocity of the particle Pick out the correct statement from the following –
S1 : Acceleration is constant
S2 : Kinetic energy is constant
S3 : Velocity is constant
S4 : The Particle moves in a circular path.

(1) only S4
(2) S3 and S4
(3) S2 and S4
(4) All are true

11) A pendulum bob has a speed of 3ms–1 at its lowest position. The pendulum is 0.5 m long. The
speed of the bob when the length makes an angle of 60° to the vertical, is :-

(1) 3ms–1

(2)

(3)

(4) 2ms–1

12) A coin placed on rotating table just slips if it is placed at a distance 4r from the centre. If we
double the angular velocity of the table, then the coin will just slip when it is away from the centre at
a distance equal to :

(1) 4r
(2) 2r
(3) r
(4) r/4

13) The speed of a particle moving in a circle of radius r = 4m varies with time as v = 2t2. (t in
second, v in m/s). Find radial and tangential acceleration at t = 2 second (in m/s2)

(1) 32 & 8
(2) 34 & 16
(3) 8 & 16
(4) 16 & 8
14) A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments which fly off with velocities 27 : 1. The ratio of
radius of fragments :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

15) A circular plate of diameter a is kept in contact with a square plate of edge a as shown in figure.
The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The centre of mass of the

composite system will be :-

(1) Inside the circular plate

(2) Inside the square plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

16) The center of mass of a non-uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length varies as λ =

(where k is a constant and x is the distance measured from one end) is at the following distance
from the same end.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A cart of mass M is tied to one end of a massless rope of length 10m. The other end of the rope is

in the hands of a man of mass . The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. If the man
pulls the cart by the rope then find the distance the man will slip on the horizontal surface before
the man & the cart will meet each other.

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4) None of these
18) Two identical balls moving with a speed of 6 m/s in opposite direction, collides. If for collision,

; the speed of each ball after collision will be :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 1 m/s

19) A body of mass 5 kg strikes another body of mass 2.5 kg initially at rest. The bodies after
collision coalesce and begin to move as a whole with a kinetic energy of 5 J. The kinetic energy of
the first body before collision is :-

(1) 7.5 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 2.5 J
(4) 10 J

20) Assertion (A) :- In case of bullet fired from gun, the ratio of kinetic energy of gun and bullet is
equal to ratio of mass of bullet and gun.
Reason (R) :- In firing of bullet from gun, total momentum is conserved.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

21) Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The
length of the boat is 3.0 m and weighs 100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and sits
with him. If the boat is in still water the centre of mass of the system shifts by :-

(1) zero
(2) 0.75 m
(3) 3.0 m
(4) 2.3 m

22) y = 5 sin (2t + π/4)m. Find maximum velocity in SHM.

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

23) Phase difference between position of max. KE and max. PE is :-

(1) 0
(2) π/2
(3) π
(4) 3π/2

24) On suspending a mass M from a spring the period of oscillations is T it is cut into n equal

segment on suspending the mass M from one of the segments the time period become then the
value of n will be :-

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None

25) In both figures shown below is a tunnel along the diameter of earth. In first, a particle is
released from A and it oscillates with time period T1. In second figure, same particle is released from
point B and it oscillates with time period T2 then [O is centre of earth] :-

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 < T2
(3) T1 = 2T2
(4) T1 = T2

26) A particle is executing S.H.M. along a straight line. The graph showing the variation of kinetic,
potential and total energy K, U and T respectively with displacement is -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) A simple pendulum of length 1m is allowed to oscillate with amplitude 2°. It collides elastically

with a wall inclined at 1° to the vertical. Its time period will be (use g = π2) :-

(1) 2/3 sec

(2) 4/3 sec
(3) 2 sec
(4) None of these

28) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations :

and

.
Their amplitudes are in the ratio of :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) None of the above

29) According to Newton, propagation of sound in gas is ....... process and according to Laplace it is
......... process :-

(1) Adiabatic, Isothermal

(2) Adiabatic, Adiabatic
(3) Isothermal, Adiabatic
(4) Isothermal, Isothermal

30) Two sound waves travel in the same direction in a medium. The amplitude of each wave is A and
the phase difference between the two waves is 120°.
The resultant amplitude will be :-

(1)
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) A

31) A steel wire 0.72 m long has a mass of 5.0 × 10–3 kg. If the wire is under tension of 60 N, what is
the speed of the transverse waves on the wire ?

(1) 186 m/s

(2) × 93 m/s
(3) 93 m/s
(4) 45 m/s

32) Transverse wave of same frequency are generated in two steel wires A and B. The diameter of A
is twice of B and the tension in A is half that in B. The ratio of velocities of waves in A and B is –

(1)
(2) 1 : 2
(3)
(4)

33) A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string in the positive x-direction at a speed of 10
cm/s. The wavelength of the wave is 0.5 m and its amplitude is 10 cm. At a particular time t, the
snap shot of the wave is shown in figure. The velocity of P when its displacement is 5 cm is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Polarising angle for water is 53°4'. If light is incident at this angle on the surface of water and
reflected, the angle of refraction is :-

(1) 53°4'
(2) 126°56'
(3) 36°56'
(4) 30°4'

35)

What can be the largest distance of an image of a real object from a convex mirror of radius of
curvature is
20 cm ?
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) Infinity
(4) Zero

36) A point object is moving on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm towards
the mirror. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror, its velocity is 64 cm/sec. What is the
velocity of the image at that instant -

(1) 5 cm/sec.
(2) 12 cm/sec
(3) 4 cm/sec
(4) 9 cm/sec

37) A point object is placed at a distance of 10 cm and its real image is formed at a distance of 20 cm
from a concave mirror. If the object is moved by 0.2 cm towards the mirror, the image will shift by
about.

(1) 0.4 cm away from the mirror

(2) 0.4 cm towards the mirror
(3) 0.8 cm away from the mirror
(4) 0.8 cm towards the mirror

38) Radius of curvature of concave mirror is 30 cm. Position of image will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A concave shaving mirror has a radius of curvature of 35.0 cm. It is positioned so that the (up
right) image of man's face is 2.5 times the size of the face. How far is the mirror from the face ?

(1) 5.25 cm
(2) 21.0 cm
(3) 10.5 cm
(4) 42 cm

40) An object AB is placed on the axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. End A of the object
is at 30 cm from the mirror. Find the length of the image. If length of object is 5 cm.

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm

41) The root mean square speed of oxygen molecules at a certain absolute temperature is v. If the
temperature is doubled, and oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen, then the new r.m.s. speed
will be-

(1) 2v
(2)
(3) v
(4)

42) the r.m.s. speed of a group of 7 gas molecules having velocity (6, 4, 0, –2, 2, –4, 6) m/s is :

(1) 1.5 m/s

(2) 3.4 m/s
(3) 9 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

43) The amount of heat required to convert 10 g ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C.

(1) 5000 cal

(2) 7160 cal
(3) 6160 cal
(4) 8160 cal

44) During an experiment an ideal gas obeys an addition equation of state P2V = constant the initial
temperature and volume of gas are T and V respectively. When it expands to volume 2V, then its
temperature will be :

(1) T
(2)
(3) 2T
(4)

45) Which one of the following graph is correct at constant pressure :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of following is minimum basic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

2)

Compare acidic strength

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

3)

Correct order of acidic strength of following compound is :-

(1) I > III > IV > II

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II

4) Which of following compounds will show tautomerism ?

(a) (b) (c)

(1) a,b
(2) a,c
(3) b,c
(4) a,b,c
5)

Which of the following compound is most basic?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which of following orders is correct for heat of

hydrogenation of these compounds ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > I > II

7) Most stable Alkene is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) Which one of the following statements is not correct for electrophile :

(1) Electron deficient species are electrophile

(2) Electrophiles are Lewis acids
(3) All + ive charged species are electrophile
(4) AlCl3 and SO3 are electrophiles

9) Assertion : p-Nitrophenol is a stronger acid than o-Nitrophenol.

Reason : Intramolecular hydrogen bonding makes the o-isomer weaker than p-isomer.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) Assertion : CN– ion is an ambident nucleophile.

Reason : Nucleophiles are electron rich species.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

11) If we consider four resonating structure for formic acid. Then structure II corresponds to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The correct statement regarding –CCl3 group is :-

(1) m-directing, deactivating due to reverse hyperconjugation

(2) m-directing, deactivating due to –M effect
(3) o, p-directing, activating due to hyperconjugation
(4) o, p-directing, activating due to +M-effect

13) The correct order of decreasing basic nature of the following bases is

(1) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > NH3

(2) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > NH3
(3) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3
(4) NH3 > CH3NH2 > (CH3)NH > (CH3)3N

14) Most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The most stable carbanion among the following is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) Which statement is correct for following compound :-

(1) I & II are aromatic

(2) I & II are antiaromatic
(3) I is aromatic and II is antiaromatic
(4) I is non-aromatic and II is anti-aromatic

17) Match List-I with List-II and identify correct option.

List-I List-II

Colourless in
(P) aqueous (i) Cu2+, Fe3+
medium

(Q) μ = 5.9 BM (ii) Ti+3, Cu2+

Coloured in
(R) aqueous (iii) Fe3+, Mn2+
medium

(S) μ = 1.7 BM (iv) Zn2+, Sc3+

(1) (P) → (iii), Q → (iv), (R) → (i), S → (ii)
(2) (P) → (iv), Q → (iii), (R) → (i), S → (ii)
(3) (P) → (ii), Q → (iii), (R) → (iv), S → (i)
(4) (P) → (i), Q → (ii), (R) → (iii), S → (iv)

18) Many transition metals form intersitial compounds. The characteristics of these interstitial
compounds are :
(I) They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals
(II) They are very hard
(III) They retain metallic conductivity
(IV) They are chemically more reactive than the pure metals

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, III
(3) II, IV
(4) Only IV

19) Identify the incorrect statement.

2– 2–
(1) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO4 and Cr2O7 are not the same
(2) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+(d6) in water.
The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their
(3)
ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped
(4)
inside the crystal lattices of metals.

20) Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) Mn2O7 is a covalent yellow oil

–3
(2) V2O5 reacts with alkali to give VO4 salts.
–2
(3) All Cr-O bonds in Cr2O7 are not identical
(4) KMnO4 is isostructural with KClO4

21) Assertion : Cu can liberate hydrogen from acids.

Reason : Copper has positive electrode potential. (E° M+2/M)

(1) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is not true but reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

22) Statement-I : Zero and negative oxidation state of d-block metal ion are not possible in their
complex compound.
Statement-II : Low oxidation state of metal ions are found when a complex compound has ligands
capable of π-acceptor character in addition to σ-bonding.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both correct.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

23) In Borax bead test characterstic colour appears due to formation of–

(1) Metaborate of transition metals

(2) Sodium Metaborate
(3) Boron oxide
(4) Boric anhydride

24) Group 13 elements show +1 and +3 oxidation states. Relative stability of +3 oxidation state may
be given as

(1) Tl3+ > In3+ > Ga3+ > Al3+ > B3+
(2) B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > Tl3+
(3) Al3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+ > B3+
(4) B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+

25) Which of the following is only well characterized compound of Bi in +5 oxidation state ?

(1) BiI5
(2) BiF5
(3) BiCl5
(4) BiBr5

26) Select the incorrect statement regarding allotropes of carbon -

Diamond has is crystalline lattice while graphite has layered structure and layers are held by H-
(1)
bond.
(2) In diamond carbon has sp3 hybridisation while in graphite carbon has sp2 hybridisation
(3) Diamond is used as an abrasive for sharpening hard tools
(4) Thermodynamically graphite is most stable allotrope.

27) The correct decresing order of first ionization enthalpy of Pb, Sn and Ge is

(1) Ge > Sn > Pb

(2) Pb > Sn > Ge
(3) Sn > Pb > Ge
(4) Ge > Pb > Sn

28) The correct decreasing order of reducing character for the following :
NH3, PH3, ASH3, SbH3, BiH3

(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(2) BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(3) BiH3 > NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(4) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > BiH3 > SbH3

29)

Which of the following has maximum energy :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) is angular momentum in.............orbit of He+

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Infinite

32) Energy required for the process is :

He+(g) —→ He+2(g) + e–
The ionisation energy for the H-atom in the ground state is 2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1

(1) 9.12 × 10–18 J

(2) 8.72 × 10–18 J
(3) 4.72 × 10–20 J
(4) 7.82 × 10–16 J

33) How fast is an electron moving if it has a wavelength equal to the distance it travels in one
second ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Which of the following statements is not correct for an electron that has the quantum numbers n
= 4 and m = 2 :–

The electron may have the quantum number s = +

(1)

(2) The electron may have the quantum number l = 2.

(3) The electron may have the quantum number l = 3.
(4) The electron may have the quantum number l = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.

35) Arrange the orbitals of H–atom in the increasing order of their energy
3px, 2s, 4dxy, 3s, 4pz, 3py, 4s

(1) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s < 4pz < 4dxy
(2) 2s < 3s = 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy
(3) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy
(4) 2s < 3px = 3p4 < 3s < 4s = 4pz < 4dxy

36) A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength λ and re-emits the same energy into two photons of
wavelength λ1 and λ2 as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Following figure shows some energy levels of an atom. If the transition E3 to E1 gives emission of
ultraviolet radiation, which of the following transitions could give infrared radiation :-

(1) E4 to E3
(2) E3 to E1
(3) E4 to E2
(4) E2 to E1
38) What is the maximum wavelength line in the lymen series of He+ ion

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

39) How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms :-

(1) 0.02
(2) 3.125×10–2
(3) 1.25×10–2
(4) 2.5×10–2

40) The hydrated salt Na2SO4. nH2O undergoes 55.9% loss in weight on heating and becomes
anhydrous. The value of n will be ?

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 10

41) 4 mL CH4 is completely burnt. If remaining unreacted O2 is 6 mL, then how many millilitres of O2
were taken originally?

(1) 8 mL
(2) 10 mL
(3) 14 mL
(4) 20 mL

42) Match column I with column II for the oxidation states of the central atom.

Column I Column II

A. Cr2O72– 1. +5

B. MnO4– 2. +7

C. VO3– 3. +3

D. FeF63– 4. +6
Correct match will be:
(1) A → 4, B → 3, C → 1, D → 2
(2) A → 4, B → 2, C → 1, D → 3
(3) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1
(4) A → 4, B → 3, C → 2, D → 1
43) The sum of oxidation state of terminal carbon atoms in C3O2 (carbon suboxide) is :-

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) +6

44) In the reaction I2 + KI → Kl3 which is oxidised and reduced respectively :

–
(1) I is oxidised, I2 is reduced
–
(2) I is reduced, I2 is oxidised
–
(3) I and I2 both are reduced
–
(4) I and I2 both are oxidised

45) For the given redox reaction

MnO4–+ C2O4–2+H+→ Mn+2+CO2+H2O
Correct coefficients of MnO4–, C2O4–2, H+ for the balanced reaction are respectively :

(1) 2, 5 & 16
(2) 16, 5 & 2
(3) 5, 16 & 2
(4) 2, 16 & 5

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following pair of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes ?

(1) Nucellus and antipodal cells

(2) Egg nucleus and megaspore mother cell
(3) Megaspore and nucellus
(4) Synergid and antipodal cell

2) In a tetramerous flower with six stamens, 30 pollen mother cells are present in each
microsporangium then how many pollen grains will be produced by this flower?

(1) 120
(2) 2400
(3) 480
(4) 2880

3) Which of following tissue is a potential pollen mother cell ?

(1) Sporogenous tissue

(2) Parietal cell
(3) Tapetum
(4) Pollen

4) A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule is shown in the following [Link]

labelled structures [A], [B] and [C] of given figure :-

[A] Micropyle
(1) [B] Filiform apparatus
[C] Nucellus
[A] Micropyle
(2) [B] Embryo
[C] Nucellus
[A] Stigma
(3) [B] Embryo
[C] Nucellus
[A] Micropyle
(4) [B] Nucellus
[C] Embryo-sac

5) Both male and female flowers are present on the different plants in:-

(1) Maize and papaya

(2) Castor and papaya
(3) Maize and castor
(4) Papaya and datepalm

6) If the pollen is of the wrong type, the pistil rejects the pollen by preventing :-

(1) Pollen grains germination in anther

(2) Pollen grains germination on stigma
(3) Pollen tube growth in the style
(4) Both (2) and (3)

7) Some species of __(A)___ and __(B)___ have evolved a special mechanism to produce seed without
fertilization called __(C)___. What are A, B and C respectively ?

(1) A - Asteraceae : B - Grasses ; C - Apomixis

(2) A - Asteraceae : B - Legume ; C - Apomixis
(3) A - Asteraceae : B - Grasses ; C - Parthenocarpy
(4) A - Asteraceae : B - Legume ; C - Parthenogenesis

8)
Given below is the diagrammatic view of a typical dicot embryo. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C
and D and select the right option about them :-

Part- [A] Part- [B] Part- [C] Part- [D]

(1) Radicle Plumule Cotyledons Root cap

(2) Plumule Cotyledons Root cap Radicle

(3) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle Root cap

(4) Radicle Cotyledons Plumule Root cap

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Vallisneria is a ___(A)___ plant and pollination in it occurs by ___(B)____. What is A and B

respectively ?

(1) A-Monoecious ; B-Water

(2) A-Dioecious ; B-Wind
(3) A-Dioecious ; B-Water
(4) A-Monoecious ; B-Wind

10) Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) Wind pollination is quite common in grasses.
(b) Female flowers remain submerged in water in sea grasses.
(c) Male and female flowers are present on same plant in papaya.
(d) Triploid primary endosperm nucleus is the resultant of syngamy.
(e) Coleoptile and coleorhiza are present in monocot embryos only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) a, b and c only

(2) c, d and e only
(3) b, c and d only
(4) a, b and e only

11) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce
nectar.
Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated
flowers.
In the of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

12) Identify the correct description about the given figure :

(1) Wind pollinated plant showing compact inflorescence and well exposed stamens.
(2) Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
(3) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy
(4) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy.

13) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

14)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
:
(a) A multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium is found in michelia
(b) Pollen robbers consume pollen or nector without bringing pollination.
(c) The transformation of ovules into seed and ovary into fruit proceed simultaneously

(d) The pollen grain represent the male gametophyte.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b and d

15) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the
incorrect ones only.
(A) Angiospermic reproductive processes such as pollination and fertilization are independent of
water, seed formation is more dependable.
(B) There is no relationship between number of ovules in an ovary and the number of seeds present
in a fruit.
(C) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction. (D) If hybrids are
made into apomicts then there is segregation of hybrid characters in the progeny.

(1) Statements B, C and D.

(2) Statements B and D.
(3) Statements A, C and D.
(4) Statements B and C.

16) Assertion (A) :- Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
Reason (R) :- This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to developing embryosac.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) & (R) both are incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

17) Which of the following is an outbreeding device ?

a. If pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised.
b. If the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that pollen cannot come in contact
with the stigma of the same flower.
c. Self-incompatibility which prevents self-pollen (from the same plant) from fertilising the ovules by
inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
d. Production of the unisexual flower.

(1) a,b and c

(2) b,c and d
(3) a,c and d
(4) a,b,c and d

18) Read the following statements carefully :-

(i) Flowers are morphological and embryological marvel and site of sexual reproduction
(ii) Anthers are attached to the distil end of the filament of stamen
(iii) Androecium and gynoecium are essential whorl's of the flower
(iv) The number and length of stamens are variable in flowers of different species.
How many above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

19) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-

(A) The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of antipodal cell
(B) The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC)
(C) PEC develops into embryo
(D) Endosperm development proceed embryo development
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

20) Floral formula of family Solanaceae is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Tomato, Ashwagandha, Petunia, Asparagus, Tobacco, Tulip, Gloriosa, Lupin, Indigofera,
Mustard. How many of them are member of family Solanaceae ?

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five

22) Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to formation of false septum in :-

(1) Tomato and lemon

(2) Dianthus and primrose
(3) Mustard and Argemone
(4) Sunflower and Marigold

23) When we make a cross between AABBCcDd with AABBCcDd then find out the phenotypic ratio
we obtained in next generation ?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
24) About genotype Rr select out the incorrect statement

(1) Allelic gene pair

(2) They control common character
(3) They share common locus
(4) can be present on non homologous chromosome

25) In pea plant, genotype (Bb) shows -

(1) Round seed with large sized starch grain

(2) Round seed with intermediate sized starch grain
(3) Round seed with small sized starch grain
(4) Wrinkled seed with small sized starch

26) New combinations are formed due to :

(1) Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis

(2) Random fusion of gametes
(3) Crossing over
(4) All of the above

27) Mendel's work remain unrecognised till 1900 due to all except :-

(1) His work could not be widely publicised

(2) His work was not supported with required data
(3) He could not provide any proof for existence of factors
(4) His concept of genes as stable and discrete units was not accepted by his contemporaries

28) A true - breeding line is one that :-

(1) Have undergone continuous self pollination

(2) Have undergone continuous cross pollination
(3) Shows stable trait inheritance & expression for several generations
(4) (1) & (3) both

29) Which of the following conclusions of Mendel can not be explained by monohybrid cross ?

(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Independent assortment
(4) All the above

30) Which contributed to Mendel's success ?

I. Selection of pea plant.
II. Knowledge of history.
III. One character at one time.
IV. His statistical knowledge
Choose the correct option

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) II and III
(3) I, III and IV
(4) IV, III and II

31) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour

32) Assertion :- Genes are the units of inheritance.

Reason :- They contain the information that is required to express a particular trait in an organism.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

33) Find out the correct match from column I, II and III of following table :-

Type of Type of
Cross type
genotypes phenotypes

(A) Monohybrid (I) 9 (1) 8

(B) Dihybrid (II) 27 (2) 4

(C) Trihybrid (III) 3 (3) 2

(1) A – III – 3, B – I – 2, C – II – 1
(2) A – II – 1, B – III – 2, C – I – 3
(3) A – I – 2, B – III – 1, C – II – 3
(4) A – III – 3, B – II – 1, C – I – 2

34) Assertion: In his experiment of garden pea plant, Mendel self-pollinated the tall F1 plant and
found that in F2 generation some of the offsprings were dwarf. The characters not seen in the F1
generation were now expressed.
Reason: Parent contains two alleles during gamete formation. The factors or alleles of a pair
segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
35) Children in a family have blood types O, B, AB and B what are the genotypes of their parents ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Study of family history about inheritance of a particular trait in several generations of a family
called

(1) Phylogeny
(2) Ontogeny
(3) Pedigree analysis
(4) Cladistics

37) Read the following statements -

(a) It produces disorder in females more often than in males
(b) All female offsprings will exhibit disorder, if father possesses the same
(c) Is not transmitted to son if mother does not exhibit disorder
Which of the following gene will have the above stated features?

(1) Sex-linked recessive gene

(2) Sex-linked dominant gene
(3) Autosomal dominant gene
(4) Autosomal recessive gene

38) Cross over value (COV) of gene A and B is 5% while COV of genes B and C is 15% the possible
sequence of these genes on chromosome is :-

(1) A-B-C
(2) C-A-B
(3) B-C-A
(4) Both (1) & (2)

39) Following pedigree chart shows.

(1) Character is carried by Y-chromosome

(2) Character is sex-linked recessive
(3) Character is sex-linked dominant
(4) Character is cytoplasmic

40) Given pedigree chart show which type of inheritance :-

(1) X-linked recessive
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

41) Find out the genotype of father and mother in the given pedigree chart :-

Mother Father

(1) AA AA

(2) Aa Aa

(3) AA aa

(4) aa Aa
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Given below is the pedigree of Sickle cell anaemia in a family :-

In this the genotype of both the parents of generation I will be :-

(1) AA & Aa
(2) AA & aa
(3) Aa and Aa
(4) Aa and aa

43) If both parent's are carrier for albinism and having blood group AB, what are the chances of
offspring having normal pigmentation & AB blood group:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) In a family father is colourblind and mother is homozygous normal. What will be chances of
colourblindness in son :

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

45) A husband and wife have normal vision, although both of their fathers are red green colourblind,
which is inherited as an x-linked recessive trait. What is the probability that their first child will be:
(a) A normal son
(b) A carrier daughter
(c) A colourblind son
(d) A colourblind daughter

a b c d

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) A boy is colour blind. His sister is normal and non carrier :-
(i) What are the chances that both his parents are normal ?
(ii) What are the chances of mother being carrier?
(iii) What are the chances of his younger brother being colour blind ?

(1) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-100%

(2) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-50%
(3) (i)-50%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-50%
(4) (i)-100%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-100%

47) The milk of Rosie cow contained human specific protein known as :-

(1) Alpha lactalbumin

(2) Beta lactalbumin
(3) Insulin
(4) α-1-antitrypsin

48)

Earlier insulin obtained killing cattles & pigs to treat diabetic patient but it is not successful method.

(1) Very less amount of insulin obtained from animals.

(2) Insulin obtained from animals inactive after administration into human body.
(3) Some diabetic patient show allergy or hypersensetivity reaction.
(4) Insulin obtained from animal how only A polypeptide not B.

49) Assertion : Unless one cuts the vector and the source DNA with the same restriction enzyme,
the recombinant vector molecule cannot be created.
Reason : When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the
complementary of 'sticky ends'.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

50) Assertion :- DNA fragments can be forced to move towards the anode under the electric field
through a matrix.
Reason :- The most commonly used matrix is agarose which is a natural polymer extracted from sea
weeds.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

51) Assertion (A) : Origin of replication is an essential part of a vector.

Reason (R) : Ori is responsible for initiating replication of vector.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

52) Statement-I : Thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated from Thermus aquaticus.

Statement-II : Taq DNA polymerase is inactive at high temperature(72°).

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

53) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(a) RNA interference (i) ADA deficiency (t) Kill insects

Bacillus Gene silencing Hereditary

(b) (ii) (u)
thuringiensis mechanism disease

First clinical gene Heat stable DNA

(c) (iii) (v)
therapy enzyme amplification

insecticidal
(d) Taq polymerase (iv) protein (w) Cellular defence
production
(1) a-ii-w, b-iii-t, c-iv-u, d-i-v
(2) a-iii-v, b-iv-w, c-ii-u, d-i-t
(3) a-ii-w, b-iv-t, c-i-u, d-iii-v
(4) a-ii-w, b-iv-t, c-iii-u, d-i-v

54) On the rocky sea coasts of Scotland, the larger and competitively superior branacle
Balanus dominates the intertidal areas and excludes the smaller barnacle Chathamalus from that
zone. Which kind of interaction is being depicted by this example?

(1) Predator
(2) Parasitism
(3) Commensalism
(4) Competition

55)

In equation = rN ; here K is defined by :-

(1) Maximum population density achievable under available resources

(2) Carrying capacity of habitat
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Maximum intrinsic rate of growth

56) When the population density reaches the carrying capacity that stage is called as :-

(1) Exponential phase

(2) Acceleration phase
(3) Deceleration phase
(4) Asymptote phase

57) Read the following curve. What indicates 'b'.

(1)
Carrying capacity,
Exponential growth,
(2)

(3) Logistic growth,

(4)
Logistic growth,

58) Match the column-I & column-II and choose the correct combination :-

Column-I Column-II

a Camouflaged 1 Acacia

b Poisonous 2 Calotropis

c Thorns 3 Monarch Butterfly

d Cardiac glycosides 4 Frogs

(1) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(3) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(4) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

59)
Which type of interaction is shown by above graph ?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Amensalism

60) Assertion : Five closely related species of Warblers avoid competition by resource partitioning.
Reason : Species facing competition could avoid competition by choosing different times for feeding
or different foraging patterns.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

61) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of three examples according
to the type of species (A,B,C) they give out :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Assertion : When a new habitat is just being colonized, immigration may contribute more
significantly to population growth than birth rates.
Reason : Under normal conditions, births and deaths are the most important factors
influencing population density.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

63)

A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not, like :-

(a) birth (b) birth rate

(c) death rate (d) sex ratio
(1) a and d only
(2) a and b only
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d only

64) Match the following

(a) Breeding once in life (i) Mammals

(b) Breeding several time in life (ii) Oysters

(c) Large number of small size offspring (iii) Most of birds

(d) Small number of large size offspring (iv) Salmon fish

(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

65) Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth and exponential growth curve desribed by the following equation
and graph, Select the correct one respectively :-

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)

66) Statement-I :- A population with limited resources show initially a lag phase, followed by
phases of deceleration and acceleration and finally an asymptote, when the population density
reaches the carrying capacity.
Statement-II :- No population of any species in nature has at its disposal unlimited resources to
permit logistic growth.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

67) The Prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in the early 1920's, caused havoc by spreading
rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland because -

(1) There was no competitor

(2) Due to less intra specific competition
(3) Absence of its natural predator
(4) High availability of nutrient

68) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Visiting flamingoes and resident fishes in south american

1. Mutualism a. (+, -) i.
lakes

Starfish Pisaster and invertebrates in american pacific

2. Competition b. (+, 0) ii.
coast

3. Predation c. (+, +) iii. Cattle egret birds and cattle

4. Commensalism d. (-, -) iv. Lichens

(1) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - iii, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - i
(4) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - b - ii, 4 - a - iii

69) Identify the correct match from the coloumn I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Plant pollinator
1 Predation a i +, –
relation

2 Commensalism b Cuckoo & Crow ii +, 0

Biological control
3 Mutualism c iii +, +
method

Sea-anemone &
4 Parasitism d iv +, –
clown fish
(1) 1-b-i, 2-a-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv
(2) 4-a-ii, 2-b-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-d-i
(3) 1-c-i, 3-a-iii, 2-d-ii, 4-b-iv
(4) 1-c-i, 3-a-iii, 2-b-iv, 4-d-ii

70) Assertion : Predation, Parasitism, commensalism share a common characteristic - the

interacting species live closely together.
Reason : Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of
the prey to regulate predator population.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

71) A) (B)

(C) (D)
Select the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A – Representing mutualism

(2) B – Showing Gause competitive exclusion principle
(3) C – showing resources partitioning
(4) D – showing parasitism

72) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) (a) Mutualism

(ii) (b) Competition

(iii) (c) Allelopathy

 (iv) (d) Predation

(e) Commensalism
(1) (i) → e, (ii) → d, (iii) → b, (iv) → a
(2) (i) → e, (ii) → b, (iii) → d, (iv) → a
(3) (i) → c, (ii) → d, (iii) → a, (iv) → b
(4) (i) → c, (ii) → b, (iii) → d, (iv) → a

73) Which one of the following is most appropriately defined ?

(1) Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
(2) Predator is an organism that catches, kills & eats other organisms for food.
(3) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and kill it.
(4) Female Anopheles mosquito is considered as parasite

74) Which statement is incorrect regarding predator ?

(1) Predators act as conduits for energy transfer across trophic level
(2) Predators keep prey population under control
(3) Predators maintain species diversity in a community
(4) Predators over exploits its prey

75) Read the following statements about ecological interactions and choose the option that contains
only the correct statements.
A. In predation, the predator benefits while the prey is harmed, and predators help maintain species
diversity.
B. In competition, both interacting species benefit equally as they share resources.
C. In parasitism, the parasite benefits and often evolves host-specific adaptations, while the host is
harmed.
D. ln commensalism, one species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
E. In mutualism, both species benefit and may co-evolve to enhance the interaction.

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D, E
(3) B,C,D,E
(4) A, B, D, E

76) Statement-1: Predators play an important role in maintaining species diversity in a community,
by reducing the intensity of competition among competing prey species.
Statement-2: In nature, if a predator overexploits its prey, both prey and predator populations may
become extinct.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct

77) Read the following statements regarding structural features of a community:

A. Species diversity increases as we move from the equator toward the poles due to cooler and more
stable climatic conditions.
B. A community is often named after the species with the highest population - known as the
dominant species.
C. Stratification refers to the vertical distribution of different plant species within a community,
forming distinct layers.
D. Stratification is a functional component of an ecosystem, involved in nutrient cycling and energy
flow.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Only B and C are correct

(2) Only A and B are correct
(3) Only C and D are correct
(4) Only A and D are correct

78) Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

Predators not only transfer energy to higher trophic levels but also help maintain species
(1)
diversity by reducing the intensity of competition among prey species.
According to Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle, two closely related species competing for
(2)
the same resources can coexist indefinitely even when resources are limiting.
In brood parasitism, parasitic birds like koel lay eggs in the nest of host species, and the host
(3)
incubates them often without detecting the foreign eggs.
In commensalism, one species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited as seen
(4)
in orchids growing epiphytically on mango branches.

79) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Exponential growth of a population results in a sigmoid curve, because unlimited resources are
available.
B. Logistic growth occurs when resources are finite, and the population stabilises at the carrying
capacity (K).
C. The intrinsic rate of natural increase (r) depends on both birth rate and death rate.
D. Amensalism is an interaction where one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B and C only

80) Match the following bones with their appropriate joints :-

A B
 Cartilagenous
a Knee joint (i)
joint

b Intervertebral disc (ii) Fibrous joint

c Cranial bones (iii) Hinge joint

d Radius and ulna (iv) Pivot joint

(1) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
(2) a-iii b-i c-iv d-ii
(3) a-iii b-i c-ii d-iv
(4) a-iii b-ii c-i d-iv

81)

Match column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Zygomatic bone (a) Coxal bone

Long slender bone with two

(ii) Mandible (b)
curvatures

(iii) Clavicle (c) Cheek bone

(iv) Patella (d) Lower jaw

(v) Ilium (e) Sessamoid bone

(1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-e, (v)-a
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-e, (iv)-a, (v)-c
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-e, (v)-a
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-e, (iv)-c, (v)-a

82) In the following point which is not correctly matched ?

(1) Long bone → Femur, humerus

(2) Elbow joint → Hinge
(3) Number of vertebrochondral ribs → 6
(4) No movement is present → Ball and socket

83) Number of bones in cranium, face, hyoid and middle ear are respectively :-

(1) 14, 8, 1 and 3

(2) 8, 14, 1 and 6
(3) 3, 8, 14 and 1
(4) 14, 8, 3 and 1

84) How many bones in the following are unpaired? Sternum, Maxilla, Mandible, Hyoid, Carpals,
Patella, Malleus, Frontal
(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

85)

In scapula, just below the __A__, a cavity called __B__ is located, which articulate with head of
__C__.
Identify the A, B & C.

(1) A-Coracoid process, B-Acetabulum, C-Femur

(2) A-Coranoid process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(3) A-Acromion process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(4) A-Spinous process, B-Acetabulum, C-Tibia

86) Assertion :- In vertebral column, each vertebrae has central hollow portion through which
spinal cord passes.
Reason :- Joint between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column is cartilagenous joint.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

87) Statement-I : Osteoporosis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by the degeneration of

the articular cartilage and proliferation of new bones.
Statement-II : In gout disorder inflammation of the joints occurs due to accumulation of uric acid
crystals.
Select the correct option from the following :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

88)

Which one is a primary sex organ?

(1) Scrotum
(2) Penis
(3) Testis
(4) Prostate

89) Humans are :

(1) Sexually reproducing and viviparous
(2) Sexually reproducing and oviparous
(3) Sexually reproducing and ovo-viviparous
(4) Asexually reproducing

90) Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ in female ?

(1) Oviduct
(2) Ovary
(3) Uterus
(4) Vagina
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 1 1 2 4 1 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 1 1 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 3 4 1 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 2 1 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 1 4 4 4 1 3 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 4 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 1 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 4 1 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

V=

T=

2)

A. Potential outside (r ≥ R):

A. Potential inside (r ≤ R):

A. Since gravitational potential is always negative, the minimum occurs where V is most negative.

B. At r = R (surface): V =

C. At r = 0 (center): V =

D. Since the most negative value is at the center.

3)

Effective gravity formula:

g' = g – Rω2 cos2 λ
At poles: λ = 90° ⇒ cos 90° = 0
g' = g – Rω2 0 = g
thus, gravity is unaffected at poles. Rotation is about polar axis, so the centrifugal effect is
zero. Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason explains the assertion.

4) Escape velocity is independent of direction, results are same by conservation of energy.

5)

• Gravitational Force: Acts as a central force, always directed towards the center of the
Earth.
• Angular Momentum Conservation: in the absence of external torque, both the magnitude
and direction of angular momentum remain constant.
• Total Mechanical Energy: Remains constant in an elliptical orbit.
• Linear Momentum: Changes in both magnitude and direction due to varying speed.

6) From COME :-

h=

7)
Force on the particle due to whole sphere

mass of section M ∝ R3

force on the particle due to section

force on the particle due to remaining

8)

9)

Fres = 2F1cos 60° + 2F2 cos 30° + F3

x = 1, y = 3, z = 4
∴x+y–z =1+3–4=0

10)
s1 : acceleration changing in direction
s2 : particle is in uniform circular motion so speed is constant and hence
KE is constant
s3 : velocity changing its direction
s4: so path is circular
11)

here h = ℓ – ℓ cos 60° =

COME
k1 + u1 = k2 + u2

u2 = v2 + gl

= 2 m/s

12)
Since ω is double thus,

, r′ = r

13) Linear speed at t = 2,

v = (2)2 × 2 = 8 m/s

14)

M1V1 = M2V2

15)
Msquare ∝ a2

Since a2 is greater than , the square plate has more mass.

Thus, the center of mass of the system will be closer to the square plate, inside the square
plate.

16)

Given λ = ⇒ dm = dx.
Total mass:

xcm =

17)

20 = 3x

18)

By using conservation of momentum

u1 = 6 m/s ; u2 = –6 m/s

V2 = 2 m/s
V1 = –V2 = –2 m/s

19)

Momentum of combine body after collision

Pf = =
 K.E. of first body before collision :

= 7.5 J

20)

Momentum of gun (PG) is equal to the momentum of bullet (Pb)

P G = Pb

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

21) Since Fext = 0

so centre of mass of system will not shift.

22) Vmax = ωA = 10 m/s

23) Max KE at mean position.

Max. PE at extreme position.

24) 1. Explanation:

A spring is cut into equal parts; the spring constant changes and so does the time period.

2. Concept:

Time period . Cutting into n parts makes k'= nk.

3. Solution:
Original time period:

After cutting into n parts:

Given :

Thus:
n=3
4. Final answer: Option (3)
25) Time period of oscillation is independent of the distance of the point from the centre of
earth.

In both cases

26) K = K (A2 – x2)

P= Kx2

T= KA2

27)

28) Question is Asking About:

The question provides two equations representing simple harmonic motions and asks for the
ratio of their anplitude.

Concept:
S.H.M.

Formula:

y = A sin(wt + ϕ)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

​y1 =

y2 =
y2 =
Such that A1 = 10

A2 = 10
1:1

Hence, option (4) is correct.

Level : Medium

29)

According to newton propagation of sound in gas is isothermal and according to laplace it is

adiabatic.

30) Concept : Interference of Wave

Formula : Resultant Amplitude =

A1 → Amplitude of 1st wave

A2 → Amplitude of 2nd wave

ϕ → Phase difference

Calculation :

Given A1 = A , A2 = A , ϕ = 120°

Resultant Amplitude = =A

Final Answer : (4) A

31) Here, µ = m/L = 5.0 × 10–3 kg/0.72 m

= 6.9 × 10–3 kg/m
T = 60 N

Thus,

32)

33) vP = ω vwave =

vP = T=
vP = T=

vP = , T = 5 sec
vP = m/s

vP =

34)
= 90° – 53°4' = 36°56'.

35)

When u = ∞
then v = f = 10 cm

36)
= 4 cm/s

37)
dv = –(mT)2 du

38)

Question Explanation : Find position of image in concave mirror as per given figure.

Concept : This question is based on mirror formula

Formula :
Visual Aid :

Solution :

|v| = cm
Final Answer : option (1)

39) f = R/2 by formula

u=

40)

Explain Question:
An object AB of length 5 cm is placed along the principal axis of a concave mirror. The nearer
end A is 30 cm from the mirror. We have to find the length of the image.
Concept:
We have to use the mirror formula:

Magnification of s spherical mirror:

Solution:
For end A (nearer end):

For end B (object length = 5 cm, so B is at 35 cm):

Image length:
Length
Final answer: option (1)

41)

42)
 43) Question Explanation:
We need to find the total heat needed to convert 10 g of ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C,
including phase changes and heating.
Concept : This question is based on Heat Transfer in Phase Changes.
Formula : Q = m(Lf + cΔT + Lv)
where :
Lf = 80cal / g (latent heat of fusion)
c = 1cal /g°C (specific heat)
Lv = 540cal/g (latent heat of vaporization)
Calculation:
Q = 10(80 + 100 + 540)
Q = 10 × 720 = 7160 cal
Final Answer : Option (2) : 7160 cal

44)

P2V = const.
PV = μRT

× v = const.

45)

P = const.

= const.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explain Question : The given compound is minimum basic.

Concept : This question is based on Basicity = Localised lone pair > Delocalised lone pair.
Solution :

Given compounds Remark

 lone pair localized, moderately basic.

1.

lone pair delocalized into aromatic ring through

resonance (reduces basicity).
2.

nitrogen lone pair not involved in ring π-system;

still basic, but less than aliphatic amines.
3.

aliphatic secondary amine; lone pair completely

available, hence highly basic.
4.

Final answer : 2

47) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about acidic strength compassion.

Concept :

This question is based on

Solution :

Ka = d > c > a > b

Final Answer :
Option (3)

48) Question Explanation:

Correct order of acidic strength of given compounds.

Acidic strength ∝ Ka ∝
Solution:
 (I) (II)
Ortho effect

(III) (IV)
H-effect +I
Final Answer (2)

49)

Ncert-Class 11th,Part-2, [Link]: 273 Edition-2023-24

acidic active H-atoms are present in compound (a) and (b).

50)

Explain Question : The given compound is most basic.

Concept : This question is based on Basicity = Localised lone pair > Delocalised lone pair.
Solution :

Given compounds Remark

lone pair is conjugated with benzene ring →

significantly less basic than aliphatic amines.

lone pair delocalized into C=O (strong resonance

stabilization) → very weak base.
2

nitrogen is on an sp³ carbon (CH₂), lone pair is

localized and behaves like an aliphatic primary
amine; resonance with the ring is not possible →
most basic among these.
3
 lone pair is part of the aromaticity → very weakly
basic.

Final answer : 3

51)

Explain Question: The correct order of heat of hydrogenation of the given compounds.

Concept: Heat of HYDROGENATION [HOH] ∝

→ stability of Alkene ∝ Resonance ∝ Number of α- H.

Solution:

Given compounds Remark

α - H ⇒ 10

α-H⇒4

α-H⇒6

∴ stability of Alkene :- (I) > (III) > (II)

order of HOH is :- (II) > (III) > (I)
Final answer: 3

52) Explain the question : Identify which alkene is the most stable.
Concept : This question is based on stability of alkene, hyperconjugation.
Solution : Generally, stability of alkene ∝ Number of (α-H)

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Final answer : 1

53) ⊕NH4 and H3O⊕ are not electrophile.

54)
Intramolecular H-Bonding

55)

Question Explanation : Given statement

Concept : This question is based on Nucleophile city.

Solution :
Assertion: ion is an ambident nucleophile. because C and N both behave as a
nucleophile but at a time only are atom is dobehave as e-pair donor is called as ambidented
nucleophile.
Reason: Nucleophiles are electron rich species.
–ve/ℓ.p. have species are called as nucleophile Both statement are True but not explanation.
Final Answer : option (2)

56)

Explain Question : Structure II corresponds.

Concept : Stativity of R.S.

Solution : Stativity of R.S.

 Final Answer : option (3)

57)

–CCl3 is meta directing and deactivating group due to reverse hyperconjugation.

58) It is pkb value based.

59)

60) –NO2 is –M group, which stabilise benzyl carbanion.

61) sp3 hybridised N atom makes (I), non-aromatic.

62) Question Explanation: Matching metal ions with their color and magnetic properties (μs
).
Concept: Color and Magnetic Moment of d-block Ions.
Solution:
0
A. Colorless ions (P) →d (Sc3+) or d10 (Zn2+). →(iv)
B. Coloured ions (R) →d1−9 (Fe3+,Cu2+). →(i)
C. μs​=5.9 BM (Q) →n=5 (Fe3+,Mn2+). →(iii)
D. μs​=1.7 BM (S) →n=1 (Ti3+,Cu2+). →(ii)

Final Answer: (P)→(iv),Q→(iii),(R)→(i),S→(ii).

63) Solution: Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms (H,C,N,B) are trapped in
the lattice of transition metals.

A. (I) They have high melting points. (Correct)

B. (II) They are very hard. (Correct)
C. (III) They retain metallic conductivity. (Correct)
D. (IV) They are chemically very inert/unreactive. (Incorrect) Final Answer: I, II, III.

64)

Solution: Cr in CrO₄²⁻ and Cr₂O₇²⁻ both have oxidation state +6, so statement 1 is incorrect.
 Other statements are correct.
Final Answer: Option 1

65)

Mn2O7 green oil

66)

Due to +ve E° Value Cu Can't displace H+ from acids.

67) Solution:

A. Statement I: Zero and negative oxidation states are possible (e.g., Ni(CO)4​, [Fe(CO)4]2–​.
(Incorrect) .
B. Statement II: Low oxidation states of metal ions are stabilized by π-acceptor ligands (like
CO,CN−) which form π-bonds in addition to σ-bonds (synergic effect). (Correct)

Final Answer: Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

68)

When you heat borax (Na2B4O7⋅10H2O) in a loop, it forms a glassy bead of sodium metaborate
(NaBO2) and boric anhydride (B2O3):
Na2B4O7⋅10H2O → 2NaBO2 + B2O3 + 10H2O
The boric anhydride then dissolves metal oxides, forming metaborates of the transition metal,
which are responsible for the observed colors. For example, with cobalt oxide (CoO):
CoO + B2O3 → Co(BO2)2 (Cobalt metaborate - blue color)

Answer : Option (1) is correct.

69)

Asking for : The stability order of the +3 oxidation state for Group 13 elements.

Concept : Inert pair effect destabilizes higher oxidation states down the group.

Solution/Explanation : The +3 state is most stable for lighter Group 13 elements (B, Al).

Down the group (Ga, In, Tl), the inert pair effect increasingly favors the +1 state, thus
decreasing the stability of the +3 state.

Therefore, the stability order decreases as follows : B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > Tl3+.

Answer : Option : 2

70) Explanation:
While bismuth can theoretically exist in a +5 oxidation state, due to the "inert pair effect", it
only forms a stable compound in that state with fluorine, which is BiF5.
Answer: Option-2

71) NCERT 11th Page-325-327

72) NCERT, class 11th, part-1, Pg No: 323, Edition -2022-23

73) Explain Question: Arrange Group 15 hydrides in decreasing reducing nature.

Concept: Thermal stability and bond strength
Solution: Down the group, M–H bond weakens and hydrides become stronger reducing
agents. Hence, BiH₃ is the strongest reducer.
Final Answer: Option (2)

74)

Based on fact

75) The Aufbau principle states that electrons fill orbitals starting from the lowest energy level
to higher energy levels. In orbital diagrams, this means that electrons should fill orbitals from
left to right and then pair up with opposite spins.

76)

Given, L = h / 2π
Using L = n(h / 2π)
h / 2π = n(h / 2π) ⇒ n = 1

77) Ionisation energy of He⊕ ion = E∞ – E1

= 0 – (–2.18 × 10–18 × )
= 8.72 × 10–18 J

78) Wavelength of = Velocity of e-(ν)

∴λ=ν= or ν2 = and ν =

79)

For ℓ = 0, 1 then m = 2 not possible

80) In a single e– system energy of an orbital depends only upon value of n.

81)

82)

E4 → E3 is line of paschen series and it is IR radiation.

83)

Z = 2 n1 = 1 n2 = 2

λ=

84) 1 mole Mg3(PO4)2 contains → 8 mole oxygen atom

0.25 mol oxygen atom is in →

= 3.125 × 10–2 moles

85)

% Loss in weight =
Given:

18n = 79.378 + 10.06 n

n = 9.997 ≈ 10

86) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ)

(4 ml) (x ml)
⇒ x–8=6
⇒ x = 14 ml

87)

(NCERT-2017, Pg-259)
 88)
+2+2=+4
NCERT 23-24, Page No. # 245
Part-2, unit-7

89)

A. I– is oxidised
B. I2 is reduced

90) 2MnO4–+5C2O4–2+16H+→2Mn+2+10CO2+8H2O

BIOLOGY

91)

Nucellus, megaspore mother cell = 2n antipodal cell, egg nucleus, megaspore and synergids =
n

92)

Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate total pollen grains from a flower with
specified stamens and mother cells.
Concept: Microsporogenesis Calculation
Solution: A tetramerous flower with six stamens is considered. A typical stamen has four
microsporangia (pollen sacs).
Total microsporangia in the flower = 6 stamens×4 microsporangia/stamen = 24.
Each pollen mother cell (PMC) undergoes one meiotic division to produce four pollen grains.
Pollen grains produced per microsporangium = 30 PMCs × 4 pollen/PMC = 120.
Total pollen grains produced by the flower = 24 microsporangia × 120
pollen/microsporangium = 2880.
Final Answer : Option (4)

93) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 06

94)

NCERT XII pg.# 25(E), 26(H)

95) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the pair of plants from the given options where male and female
flowers are found on separate individual plants.

Concept :
This question is based on Pollination.
 Solution :
"Papaya and date palm are dioecious plants - the male and female flowers are present on
different plants."

Final answer : 4

96) NCERT XII, Page No. # 32(E), 33(H)

97) NCERT XIIth Pg.#38

98) NCERT XII Pg 35(E), 37(H)

99) NCERT XIIth Pg.#29

100) NCERT XIIth Pg. 29, 31, 34, 36 Para-2.2.3, 2.3, 2.4.2

101) NCERT-XII Pg # 12, 13

102) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

103) Question: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross-pollination.
Correct Answer: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:

A. Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers remain closed and do not expose reproductive parts. This
ensures autogamy (self-pollination) since no external agents can transfer pollen.
B. Statement II: Cleistogamy can be disadvantageous because it eliminates the possibility of
genetic variation through cross-pollination, which is essential for adaptability and evolution.

104) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 31

105)

Question Explanation: The question is asking which of the statements (A to D) are incorrect
based on plant reproduction concepts such as seed formation, apomixis, and ovule–seed
relationship.

Concept: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Solution:
(A) Angiospermic reproductive processes such as pollination and fertilization are independent
of water, seed formation is more dependable. correct
(B) There is no relationship between number of ovules in an ovary and the number of seeds
present in a fruit. incorrect because the number of seeds is directly related to the number of
ovules.
(C) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction. correct
(D) If hybrids are made into apomicts then there is segregation of hybrid characters in the
progeny. incorrect because apomixis fixes hybrid characters — no segregation occurs.

Final answer: (2)

106)

NCERT XII Pg No. # 19

107)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 15

108) NCERT-XII, Pg # 19-21

109) NCERT XII Pg 34(E), 35-37(H)

110) Question Explanation :

The question asks for the floral formula of the family Solanaceae, commonly known as the
potato family.

Concept:
This question is based on Solanaceae

Solution:
Br indicates the presence of bracts (sometimes absent in some membars.
⊕ indicates actinomorphic (radial) symmetry.

indicates a bisexual flower.

K(5) indicates 5 sepals, gamosepalous (fused).
C(5) indicates 5 petals, gamopetalous (fused).
A5 indicates 5 stamens, free.
G(2) indicates a bicarpellary (two carpels) ovary, syncarpous (fused), superior, with a
bilocularovary and axile placentation.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

111) NCERT XI, Pg. # 69

Tomato, Ashwagandha, Petunia, Tobacco are members of Solanaceae.

112) NCERT XI Pg.# 75, para [Link]

 113) Explain Question : When we cross AABBCcDd × AABBCcDd, what phenotypic ratio will
appear in the next generation?
Concept : Independent assortment in a multigene cross

Explanation : Independent assortment in a multigene cross

Only heterozygous gene pairs contribute to variation.

Genotypes:

A. AA × AA → all AA (no variation)

B. BB × BB → all BB (no variation)

C. Cc × Cc → genotype ratio: 1 CC : 2 Cc : 1 cc → phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1

D. Dd × Dd → genotype ratio: 1 DD : 2 Dd : 1 dd → phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1

Both C and D loci assort independently.

Only the two heterozygous loci (C and D) determine phenotypic [Link] the phenotypic
ratio =
(3 : 1) × (3 : 1) = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Final answer : Option (1)

114)

Explanation: Alleles of a gene pair,such as R and r, are located on homologous

chromosomes,not on non-homologous [Link], option 4 is incorrect.

The incorrect statement is 4: can be present on non homologous chromosome

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 78

116)

New combinations of alleles are formed due to:

1. Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis - This leads to random
distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes to gametes.
2. Random fusion of gametes -The combination of any two gametes (each with a unique
genetic combination) during fertilization creates new genetic combinations.
3. Crossing over -During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material,
leading to the formation of new allele combinations.

117)
Explain Question : The question asks to determine the genotypes and phenotypes of the F1
(first filial) generation and the F2 (second filial) generation.

Concept : This question is based on History of Mendel

Solution :
His work was not supported with required data because Mendel's work was meticulously
conducted and supported by extensive experimental data gathered from his pea plant
experiments. The issue was more about the lack of understanding and acceptance of his
quantitative approach by the scientific community at the time.

Final Answer : option (2)

118)

Explain Question : The question asks what defines a true-breeding line in genetics.
Concept : This question is based on true-breeding line
Explanation : Option 1 → Correct (continuous self-pollination)
Option 3 → Correct (stable trait expression)
Final answer : 4

119)

Explain Question : The question is asking which of Mendel's principles of inheritance cannot
be demonstrated by studying a monohybrid cross, which involves tracking the inheritance of a
single trait.

Concept : This question is based on monohybrid cross.

Solution :
Independent Assortment describes the independent inheritance of two or more different traits
and requires a dihybrid cross (or polyhybrid cross) to observe and demonstrate.

Final Answer : option (3)

120)

Question Explanation : identify which factors helped Mendel succeed in his pea plant
experiments.

Concept : Mendelian Genetics – Reasons for Mendel’s Success

Solution : Selection of pea plant (Pisum sativum)

– many clear contrasting traits, short life cycle.

Study of one character at a time

– avoided confusion.

Use of statistical analysis & large data

– mathematical approach to inheritance.
Final answer : 3 → I, III and IV

121) NCERT-XII Pg. # 71

122)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
NCERT Page No 56

123)

NCERT Pg. No. 73 & 79

A – III – 3, B – I – 2, C – II – 1

124) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 59

125) Ncert Pg No: 61

126) Ncert Pg No: 72, module

127) Ncert Pg No: 72 & 73

128) Module Pg. No. 50

129) NCERT-XII Pg. # 88

130)

Question Explanation:

Identifying inheritance pattern from a pedigree chart.

Concept:

Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

Solution:

The trait is a recessive disorder as it skips a generation (e.g., the unaffected parents in the
second generation have an affected child in the third). It is autosomal because both males and
females are affected, and an affected female passes the trait to her son, which would not
happen in a sex-linked dominant pattern.

Final Answer:

Option 3: Autosomal recessive

 OR

NCERT XII Page No.72

131)

Explain Question: The question asks to find the genotype of father and mother in the given
pedigree chart

Concept: Human genetics : Pedigree Analysis

Solution:

The trait here is autosomal dominant. So Mother will have genotype aa and the father will
have the genotype Aa.

So the correct answer is : 4.

Final answer: Option 4

132) Explaining :It represents the inheritance of autosomal recessive trait.

Concept : Pedigree analysis

Final Answer : (3)

133)

Question explanation: This question asks for the probability of a child having normal
pigmentation (not albino) and AB blood group when both parents are carriers for albinism and
have AB blood group.

Concept: Subtopic – Mendelian inheritance & Codominance.

Solution: Albinism is a recessive trait controlled by the gene “a”.

A. AA or Aa = normal, aa = albino.
B. AB blood group is an example of codominance (IAIB).
Step 1: For albinism (Aa × Aa)

Parents Gametes Offspring Phenotype

Aa × Aa A, a AA, Aa, Aa, aa 3 Normal : 1 Albino

→ Probability of normal pigmentation = 3/4

Step 2: For blood group (IAIB × IAIB)

Parents Gametes Offspring
Phenotype
IAIB × IAIB IA, IB IAIA, IAIB, IAIB, IBIB 1A:2
AB : 1 B

→ Probability of AB blood group = 2/4 = 1/2

Step 3: Combined Probability

Normal pigmentation × AB blood group = (3/4) × (2/4) = 6/16

Final Answer: 6/16 chance of normal pigmentation and AB blood group.

134) Asking About:

This question is asking about the probability of a son inheriting colorblindness from his
parents, given that the father is colorblind and the mother is homozygous normal.
Concept:
The question involves the concepts of :
• Sex-linked Inheritance: Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait meaning the gene is
located on the X chromosome.
• Carrier: A female who carries one copy of the recessive allele on one her X chromosomes
but does not express the trait.

Solution:
Parental Genotypes:
Father (colorblind): XcY (where Xc represents the X chromosome with the
colorblindness allele)
Mother (homozygous normal ): XX
Possible Gamete:
Father: Xc and Y
Mother: X
Punnett Square:

Possible offspring Genotypes and Phenotypes:

XcX: Daughter, carrier of colorblindness (but not colorblind herself)
XY: Son, normal vision
Therefore, the chance of a son being colorblind in this scenario is 0% Since the mother is
homozygous normal she will always pass on a normal X chromosome to her sons. The sons
receive their Y chromosome from the father which does not carry the gene for colorblindness.
Answer: (1)

135) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 289

136) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 289

137)

NCERT XII Pg # 213

138)

NCERT Page # 231

139) NCERT Pg # 168, 167

140) NCERT XII Pg # 198(E), 217(H)

141) NCERT-XII Pg # 199

142) Question Explanation: This question asks about thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq
polymerase) used in PCR and its activity at high temperature.

Concept: PCR

Solution:
Thermus aquaticus is a thermophilic bacterium from which Taq DNA polymerase is isolated. -
Correct
Taq polymerase is active at high temperatures (~72°C), which is ideal for PCR elongation. -
Incorrect

Final answer: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

143) NCERT Pg.#173,180,179,182

144) NCERT-XII Pg#199

145) NCERT XII Pg # 195

th

146) NCERT XII, Page # 195

147)
NCERT Pg#194

148)

NCERT-XII Pg#197,198

149)

NCERT-XII Pg#197

150) NCERT Pg. # 199

151) Module

152) NCERT-XII

153)

NCERT-XII Pg#193

154)

NCERT-XII Pg#196

155) NCERT-XII Pg#194

156)

NCERT-XII Pg#195

157)

NCERT-XII Pg#197

158)

NCERT-XII Pg#197 to 202

159) NCERT-XIth Pg# 197-202

160)

NCERT-XII Pg#197
161)

NCERT-XII Pg#199

162)

NCERT-XII Pg#197

163)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 197-202

164)

NCERT-XII Pg#197-198

165) NCERT, Pg. # 201, 202

166) NCERT, Pg. # (E) 201, 202 (H)

167) NCERT, Pg. (E) 206

168) NCERT, Pg. # (E)197 to 201

169) NCERT, Pg. # (E) 194 to 197

170)

Question Explanation: Matches bones with their joint types.

Concept: Types of joints.
Solution: The knee joint is a hinge joint, allowing movement in one plane. The intervertebral
discs are cartilaginous joints, permitting limited movement. The cranial bones form fibrous
joints (sutures), which are immovable. The joint between the radius and ulna is a pivot joint,
allowing rotation.
Final Answer: Option (3)

171)

Explain Question : Match Column-I with Column-II.

Concept : This question is based on Human skeletal system
Explanation :
(i) Zygomatic bone → Cheek bone (c)
(ii) Mandible → Lower jaw (d)
(iii) Clavicle → Long slender bone with two curvatures (b)
(iv) Patella → Sesamoid bone (e)
 (v) Ilium → Coxal bone (a)
Final answer :
1 (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-e, (v)-a

172)

The question asks which of the following is not correctly matched. Let's analyze each pair:

1. Long bone → Femur, humerus: This is a correct match. Both the femur (thigh bone) and
the humerus (upper arm bone) are classified as long bones.

2. Elbow joint → Hinge: This is a correct match. The elbow joint is a classic example of a
hinge joint, allowing for movement primarily in one plane (flexion and extension).

3. Number of vertebrochondral ribs → 6: This is a correct match. Vertebrochondral ribs are

the 8th, 9th, and 10th ribs. They connect to the cartilage of the ribs above them, rather than
directly to the sternum. There are 3 on each side, making a total of 6.

4. No movement is present → Ball and socket: This is an incorrect match. Ball and socket
joints, like the hip and shoulder, are designed for a wide range of motion. They allow for
movement in multiple planes.

Therefore, the point that is NOT correctly matched is:4) No movement is present → Ball and socket

173) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 309

174) Correct Answer: 3. Four

Explanation: Let's go through the list and identify which bones are unpaired (meaning there's
only one of that bone in the body):

A. Sternum: Unpaired (breastbone)

B. Maxilla: Paired (upper jaw, two bones)
C. Mandible: Unpaired (lower jaw)
D. Hyoid: Unpaired (a U-shaped bone in the neck, not directly articulating with other bones)
E. Carpals: Paired (wrist bones, multiple small bones in each wrist)
F. Patella: Paired (kneecap, one in each knee)
G. Malleus: Paired (one of the ossicles in the middle ear, one in each ear)
H. Frontal: Unpaired (forehead bone)

175) NCERT XIth Pg # 311

176)

Question Explanation: Does the reason correctly explain why vertebrae have a central
hollow portion for spinal cord passage?

Concept: The question is based on vertebral column.

Solution:
 A. Assertion is true: Each vertebra has a central hollow portion called the vertebral
foramen, which together form the vertebral canal housing the spinal cord.

B. Reason is also true: The joints between adjacent vertebrae are cartilaginous, allowing
limited movement and shock absorption.

C. However, the reason does not explain the presence of the hollow portion; that structure
exists to protect and accommodate the spinal cord, not because of the joint type.

Final answer:
Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.

177) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

178)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 26

179) NCERT XII - Pg. No - 26

180) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 28, 29