18-01-2026

1015CMD303055250050 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find gravitational field at point (2, 3) if gravitational potential is given by V = 5x2y.

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A person brings a mass of 1 kg from infinity to a point A. Initially the mass was at rest but it
moves at a speed of 2 m/s as it reaches A. The work done by the person on the mass is –3J. The
potential at A is -

(1) – 5 J/kg
(2) – 3 J/kg
(3) – 2 J/kg
(4) None of these

3) Three solid sphere each of mass m and radius R are released from the position shown in figure.

The speed of any one sphere at the time of collision would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The depth d at which the value of acceleration due to gravity become times the value at the
surface is (R = Radius of earth) :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two wires are made of same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-
sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 6A. If on applying a force F, length of
first wire increases by Δℓ, how much force is required to stretch the second wire by 2Δℓ ?

(1) 9 F
(2) 36 F
(3) 72 F
(4) F

6)

The length of wire, when M1 is hung from it, is and is with both M1 and M2 hanging. The natural
length of wire is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A solid sphere of radius R made of material of bulk modulus B is surrounded by a liquid in a

cylindrical container. A massless piston of area A floats on the surface of the liquid. When a mass M
is placed on the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional change in the radius of the sphere is
(Assume that the change in volume is small) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of its volume immersed in the liquid. When the
whole system accelerates upwards with acceleration of g/3, the fraction of volume immersed in the

liquid will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) At what speed, the velocity head of water is equal to pressure head of 40 cm of Hg :-

(1) 10.3 m/s

(2) 2.8 m/s
(3) 5.6 m/s
(4) 8.4 m/s

10) If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid
(density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same
size in the same liquid :-

(1) 0.1 m/s

(2) 0.2 m/s
(3) 0.4 m/s
(4) 0.133 m/s

11) A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius 2R about the earth. How much energy is
required to transfer it to a circular orbit of radius 4R :- (R = Radius of earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) A planet of mass m revolves around the sun of mass M in a circular orbit of radius r with angular
speed ω. Another planet of mass 2m revolves around the sun in circular orbit of radius 4r

with angular velocity ω', Then is :-

(1) 4
(2)

(3) 8

(4)

13) The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in string is 5 m. If two
complete waves pass through any point per second, the velocity of wave is

(1) 2.5 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

14) A source x of unknown frequency produces 8 beats with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with a
source of 270 Hz. The frequency of source x is :

(1) 258 Hz
(2) 242 Hz
(3) 262 Hz
(4) 282 Hz

15) The speed of transverse waves in a stretched string is 700 cm/s. If the string is 2 m long, the
frequency with which it resonantes in fundamental mode is :

(1) (7/2) Hz
(2) (7/4) Hz
(3) (14) Hz
(4) (2/7) Hz

16) A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz is used in an experiment for measuring speed of sound (ν) in
air by resonance tube method. Resonance is observed to occur at two successive lengths of the air
column, ℓ1 = 30 cm and ℓ2 = 70 cm. Then ν is equal to :

(1) 332 ms–1

(2) 379 ms–1
(3) 384 ms–1
(4) 338 ms–1

17) The vibrations of a string of length 600 cm fixed at both end is represented by the equation y =

6 sin cos (9πt) where, x and y are in cm out t in sec. Find the maximum displacement at x = 5
cm.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) An open pipe produces a fundamental frequency f in air. When dipped in water, so that of its
length in under water, its fundamental frequency is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) An open pipe is suddenly closed with the result that the second overtone of the closed pipe is
found to be higher in frequency by 100Hz than the first overtone of the original pipe. The
fundamental frequency of open pipe will be :-

(1) 100 Hz
(2) 300 Hz
(3) 150 Hz
(4) 200 Hz

20) A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ1 and ρ2
respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in
their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is– [At N.T.P.]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Two identical charged balls (each of charge Q and mass M) are suspended by 2 strings of same

length as in figure at equillibrium θ is very small then :-

(1) x2 ∝ Q3
(2) x3 ∝ Q2
(3) x ∝ Q2
(4) x3 ∝ Q
22) A square cross-section ABCD of side a is kept in the direction shown in the diagram. An electric

field exists in the region. The flux of this field through the area of cross-section is:

2
(1) E0a

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Three large conducting sheets placed closed and parallel to each other contain charges Q, –2Q

and 3Q respectively, then electric field will be zero at :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

24) A very small spherical part is removed from the shell of radius R having charge density σ electric

field intensity at point p in figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = –x2y – xz3 + 4. The electric field at that
point is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in between two parallel plates by a string of
length L. Time period of pendulum is T0. When parallel plates are charged, the time period changes

to T. The ratio is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

27) Pressure of one mole of a ideal gas follows given equation P = P0 , where P , V
are constant. When volume of gas is changed from V = V0 to V = 2V0 then change in temperature is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) A thermodynamic process of one mole ideal monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The efficiency of

cyclic process ABCA will be :-

(1) 25%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 50%

(4)

29) Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2 Lengths of brass and steel
rods are and respectively. If is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the
folowing relations holds good:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Three rods of the same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3k, 2k and k. They are arranged
as shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The temperature of their junction is :-

(1) 75°C

(2)

(3) 40°C

(4)

31) The rate of flow of heat through a metal rod with temperature difference 40oC is 1600 cal/s. The
thermal resistance of metal rod in oC s/cal is

(1) 0.025
(2) 0.25
(3) 2.5
(4) 40

32) A gas mixture consists of 4 moles of O2 and 2 moles of Ar at temperature T. If vibrational modes
are neglected, total internal energy of system is

(1) 11 R T
(2) 4 R T
(3) 13 R T
(4) 9 R T

33) Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is

heated

(1) Both d1 and d2 will decrease

(2) Both d1 and d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease
(4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase

34) If AB and CD are isothermals and AD and BC are adiabatics (see fig.) then the temperatures of -

(1) B and C are same

(2) A and C are same
(3) B and D are same
(4) Temperature of A is more than that of D

35) An ideal gas contained in a vessel is subjected to an expansion process such that ฀฀2/3 = constant
. Temperature of gas during the process :
(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains same
(4) data insufficient

36) Column-I shows graph of thermodynamics process, and column-II contains information about
various thermodynamic variables. Correct by match process in column-I with the information in
column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) W>0

(B) (Q) W≤0

(C) (R) ΔQ > 0

(D) (S) ΔU > 0

(T) ΔU ≤ 0
(1) A–QRT; B–PS; C–PRS; D–PT
(2) A–PRT; B–QRS; C–PRS; D–QT
(3) A–PRT; B–QRS; C–RS; D–Q
(4) A–RST; B–PS; C–QR; D–QT

37) If current through 4Ω is 2A then calculate potential difference across A and B :-

(1) 8V
(2) 16 V
(3) 4 V
(4) None of these

38)

If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will :

(1) increase by 0.05%

(2) increase by 0.2%
(3) decrease by 0.2%
(4) decrease by 0.05%

39) 62.5 × 1018 electrons per second are flowing through a wire of area of cross-section 0.1m2, the
value of current flowing will be :

(1) 1 A
(2) 0.1 A
(3) 10 A
(4) 0.11 A

40) The correct relation between conductivity of wire 1 and wire 2 is :

(1) σ1 = σ2
(2) σ1 > σ2
(3) σ1 < σ2
(4) None

41)

A mark at bottom of a liquid appears to rise by 0.1m. The depth of the liquid is 1 m. The refractive
index of liquid is:

(1) 1.33
(2) 9/10
(3) 10/9
(4) 1.5

42) Find the apparent distance between the observer & the object shown in the figure and shift in

the position of object.

(1) 35, 5
(2) 45, 5
(3) 30, 5
(4) 40, 5

43) A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface at an angle (as shown below) and it emerges
finally parallel to the surface of water, then the value of μg would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

44) For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the condition of total internal reflection of this ray

the minimum refractive index of the transparent slab will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) One of the refracting surfaces of a prism of angle 30° is silvered. A ray of light incident at angle
of 60° retraces its path after reffection from silvered surface. The refractive index of the material of
prism is :

(1)
(2)
(3) 3/2
(4) 2

CHEMISTRY

1) When a mixture of solid NaCl, solid K2Cr2O7 is heated with concentrated H2SO4, orange red
vapours are [Link] are of the compound :-

(1) chromous chloride

(2) chromyl chloride
(3) chromic chloride
(4) chromic sulphate

2) An inorganic salt gives colourless, pungent smelling gas, when reacted with conc. H2SO4. The
evolved pungent smelling gas gives dense white fumes with a glass rod dipped in NH4OH. The anion
of salt may be

2–
(1) CO3
–
(2) NO3
(3) Br–
(4) Cl–

3) The metal that does not give the borax bead test is :

(1) Cr
(2) Ni
(3) Pb
(4) Mn

4) Few drops of conc. HNO3 are added just before proceeding to group-III in order to :

(1) convert Fe2+ to Fe3+

(2) convert Fe3+ to Fe2+
(3) ppt. group III
(4) None of these

5) Incorrect match is :

Identification test Colour

(1) Starch - iodine test Blue

(2) Nessler's reagent test Green

(3) Layer test of bromide Red-Brown

(4) Layer test of Iodide Violet

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6)

List-I (Basic List-II

Radical) (Group)

(P) Pb+2 (1) VI group

(Q) Fe+3 (2) IV group

(R) Ni+2 (3) I group

(S) Mg+2 (4) III group

Correct matching is :
P Q R S

(1) 1 3 2 4

(2) 3 4 2 1

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 3 4 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Y is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following compound on hydration (addition of H2O) with H2SO4/HgSO4/H2O give
aldehyde as major product :-

(1)

(2) CH3–C≡CH
(3) CH≡CH
(4) CH3–C≡C–CH3

10) Consider following reaction

The major product of reaction will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

11) Which of the following orders is correct for the ease of decarboxylation of these acids ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > III > II

12) Primary alcohol is formed as a major product in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

13) , A is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) A+B
The products A and B are

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) Find the major product in the following reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which of the following act as electrophile in nitraton of benzene. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)
Compare rate of E.S.R :-

(1) a > b > c

(2) a > c > b
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > b > a

18) ?
Here the product formed is ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19)
Reagent (x) can be :-

(1) HI / Red P
(2) Zn–Hg / HCl

(3)

(4) All of the above

20) Assertion (A) :- Benzene reacts with excess of Cl2 in presence of sunlight to form BHC.
Reason (B) :- Reaction undergoes electrophilic substitution.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

21) Assertion (A) :- 1-Butene on reaction with HBr in presence of benzoyl peroxide give 1-
Bromobutane as major product.

Reason (R) :- is more stable than .

(1) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

22)
Compound B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Match the following :-

(a) (p) Kolbe's electrolysis

(b) CH3–COOK (q) Nitration

(c) (r) Wurtz reaction

CH3–Br

(d) (s) Friedal-craft alkylation

(1) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s

(2) a–q, b–r, c–p, d–s
(3) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r
(4) a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s

24) What will be the EMF for the given cell ?

Pt(|H2(g),P1)|H+(aq,1M)||H+(aq.,1M)|(H2(g),P2)|Pt(s)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The standard electrode potentials in volts are :

Zn2+/Zn = –0.762, Cr3+/Cr = – 0.740,
2H+/H2 = 0.00, Fe+3/Fe2+ = + 0.770.
Which is the strongest reducing agent?

(1) Zn(s)
(2) Cr(s)
2+
(3) Fe (aq)
(4) H2(g)

26) Which of the following metal can displace Zn from ZnSO4 :- Given,

(1) Ni
(2) Ag
(3) Cu
(4) Mg

27) In passing 3 Faraday of electricity through the three electrolytic cells connected in series
containing molten Ag+, Ca2+ and Al3+ ions respectively, the molar ratio in which the three metal ions
are liberated at the electrodes is :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 6 : 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 4 : 2

28) Select the correct option for following aqueous solutions :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) Given, = 0.80V,

= –2.37V, = 0.34V,
= 0.79 V.
Which of the following statements is correct

(1) AgNO3 can be stored in copper vessel.

(2) Cu(NO3)2 can be stored in magnesium vessel.
(3) CuCl2 can be stored in silver vessel.
(4) HgCl2 can be stored in copper vessel.

30) In the diagram given below. The value of x is :-

(1) 0.325 V
(2) 0.65 V
(3) –0.35 V
(4) –0.65 V

31) At 25°C the potential of hydrogen electrode ( = 1 atm and [H⊕] = 0.04 M) will be :-

(1) +0.084 V
(2) –0.042 V
(3) –0.063 V
(4) –0.084 V

32) One gram M3+ was discharged by the passage of 1.81 × 1023 electrons. What is the atomic weight
of metal :-

(1) 33.35
(2) 133.4
(3) 66.7
(4) 10

33)

Determine the value of for the following reaction

2+ 2+ +4
Cu + Sn Cu + Sn
if equilibrium constant is 106.

(1) 0.1773 V
(2) 0.01773 V
(3) 0.2153 V
(4) 1.773 V

34) For a spontaneous reaction ΔG, equilibrium constant 'KC' and will be respectively :-

(1) –ve, > 1, +ve

(2) +ve, >1, –ve
(3) –ve, < 1, –ve
(4) –ve, >1, –ve

35) For the concentration cell : Zn|Zn2+ (M1) || Zn2+ (M2) | Zn, the value of ΔG will be negative if :-

(1) M1 = M2
(2) M1 > M2
(3) M2 > M1
(4) None of these

36) Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-II
Column-I
(Electrolyte
(Cell)
used)

Leclanche
(a) (p) KOH + ZnO
cell

(b) Mercury cell (q) NH4Cl + ZnCl2

Lead Storage Moist NaOH or

(c) (r)
battery KOH

38% solution of
(d) Ni-Cd Cell (s)
sulphuric acid
(1) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s
(2) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(3) a-r, b-q, c-s, d-p
(4) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r

37) Assertion : For weak electrolytes molar conductivity (Λm) increases steeply with dilution
especially near lower concentration.
Reason : Weak electrolytes have lower degree of dissociation at higher concentration and molar
conductivity (Λm) increases steeply with dilution due to increase in degree of dissociation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

38) Consider following statements regarding preparation of Fe(OH)3 sol.

(A) Fe(OH)3 sol is lyophilic sol and can be prepared easily.
(B) Fe(OH)3 sol is lyophobic sol and can be prepared by hydrolysis of FeCl3.
(C) During preparation of Fe(OH)3 sol, following reaction occur:
FeCl3 + 3H2O → Fe(OH)3 + 3HCl
(D) In the preparation, FeCl3 should be added dropwise in boiling water.
(E) HCl formed in the process should be removed by coagulation.
(F) Particles of Fe(OH)3 adsorb Cl– from solution.
Correct statements are :-

(1) B, C, E
(2) A, D, F
(3) B, C, D
(4) B, D, E

39) Select incorrect statements :

(1) Cell potential of mercury cell remain same during its life
(2) Cell potential of Ni-Cd cell remain same during its life
(3) In fuel cell, oxygen is reduced at cathode
(4) In H2–O2 fuel cell, H2 and O2 are products.

40) Which of the following reactions occur at the cathode during the charging of lead storage
battery?

− 2−
(1) PbSO4(s) + 2e → Pb(s) + SO4
2+ 2−
(2) Pb + SO4 → PbSO4
(3) Pb → Pb2+ + 2e-
+ 2− -
(4) PbSO4 +2H2O → PbO2 + 4H +SO4 + 2e

41)

Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

Leclanche cell Converts energy of combustion into

(A) (P)
(Dry cell) electrical energy
 Reaction at cathode :
(B) Lead-storage battery (Q)
O2(g)+4H+(aq)+4e–→ 2H2O(ℓ)

Reaction at cathode :
(C) Fuel cell (R)
MnO2+NH4++e–→ MnO(OH)+NH3

Reaction at anode :
(D) Rusting (S)
Pb(s)+SO4–2(aq) → PbSO4(s)+2e–
(1) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(4) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S

42) The unknown solution whose concentration is to be determined by titration is called

(1) Titrand
(2) Titration
(3) Titrant
(4) End point

43)

Given below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as reason (R)
Assertion (A): Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols
Reason (R): Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols due to the strong attraction between
the dispersed phase and dispersion medium.

(1) A is correct but R is not correct

(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

44)

Column-I Column-II

(i) Milk (p) Aerosol

(ii) Dust (q) Emulsion

(iii) Cheese (r) Gel

(iv) Froth (s) Foam

(1) (i) → p ; (ii) → q ; (iii) → r ; (iv) → s
(2) (i) → s ; (ii) → r ; (iii) → q ; (iv) → p
(3) (i) → q ; (ii) → p ; (iii) → r ; (iv) → s
(4) (i) → r ; (ii) → q ; (iii) → p ; (iv) → s

45) Fog is a colloidal solution of :-

(1) Gas in liquid
(2) Solid in gas
(3) Gas in gas
(4) Liquid in gas

BIOLOGY

1) Statement-I : Health simply means "absence of disease" or "physical fitness".

Statement-II : Health is not affected by genetic disorders, infections and life style.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

2) Statement-I : Innate immunity is specific type of defence that is present at birth.

Statement-II : Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and characterised by memory.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

3) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(a) Physiological barrier-Mucous coating
(b) Physical barrier-Acid, saliva, tears
(c) Cellular barrier-PMNL
(d) Cytokine barrier-Interferon

(1) a, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

4) The barriers in the innate immunity are given in the following. Identify a, b, c and d :-

Types of
Barrier
Barrier

Skin, gastrointestinal
A. a i.
and urogenital tracts

B. physiological ii. b

C. c iii. Interferon

D. cellular iv. d
(1) a-physiological barrier, b-saliva, c-cytokine barrier d-PMNL- basophill
(2) a-physiological barrier, b-saliva, c-Physiological, d-PMNL- neutrophills
(3) a-physical barrier, b-Tear, c-cytokine barrier, d-PMNL- Acidophil
(4) a-physical barrier, b-saliva, c-cytokine barrier, d-PMNL- neutrophills

5) Which of the following statement is false for the structure labelled as "A" in the figure given

below?

(1) Here maturation of T-lymphocytes takes place

(2) Here immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes
(3) Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and become effector cells
(4) It is an example of primary lymphoid organ.

6) Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

(1) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
(2) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.
(3) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
(4) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.

7) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicit a highly intensified
anamnestic response.
Reason (R) :- This is the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter
Choose the most appropriate answer -

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

8) How many of the following are example of secondary lymphoid organ ?

Bone marrow, spleen, thymus, MALT, tonsils, appendix, lymph node

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

9) Which is true regarding secondary lymphoid organs ?

In these lymphoid organs, immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive

(1)
lymphocyte.
(2) These lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of lymphocyte with the antigen.
(3) Appendix is largest lymphoid organ.
(4) The bone marrow is the main secondary lymphoid organ.

10) Select the incorrect statement for active immunity:-

(1) When a host is exposed to antigen active immuity is stimulated

(2) Active immunity is slow and take time to give its effectiveness
(3) The yellowish fluid colostrum can induce the active immunity
(4) Active immunity can be stimulated by injecting vaccine.

11)

Read the following A-D how many of above statements are not incorrect :-
(A) Health means only absence of disease or physical fitness.
(B) Health people increases productivity and bring economic prosparity.
(C) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality.

(D) Yoga has been practised since time immemorial to achieve physical health only.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) Virus infected cell secrete proteins called __ __. Which stimulate adjacent non infected cells to

produce ___ __ ?

X Y
(1) Antigen Antibody
Translation
(2) inhibiting Interferons
protein
(3) Antibody Antigen
Translation
(4) Interferons inhibiting
protein

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
13) Identify the correct option for given diagram for A, B and C :-

A B C

Antibody
(1) Light chain Heavy chain
binding site

Antigen Constant Variable

(2)
binding site light chain heavy chain

Constant Constant
(3) Epitope
light chain heavy chain

Constant Constant
(4) Paratope
light chain heavy chain
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Antibodies which are received by foetus from their mother, through the placenta during
pregnancy, are:-

(1) IgG
(2) IgD
(3) IgA
(4) IgM

15) In the case of snakebite which of the following will be required :-

(1) Artificial active immunity

(2) Natural active immunity
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(4) Natural passive immunity

16) List some of the organisms are given below.

Trypanosoma, Chlorella, Spirullina, Chlamydomonas, Euglena, Physarum, Gonyaulax.
How many organisms are rich in protein and are used food supplement even by space travellers ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

17) Choose the correct option of members of Rhodophyceae :-

(1) Ectocarpus, Porphyra, Fucus

(2) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gelidium
(3) Dictyota, Chara, Gelidium
(4) Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

18) (A) Cell wall possesses pectin.

(B) Cell wall contains polysulphate esters.
(C) Organisms lack flagella.
(D) Organisms have complex post fertilization development.
How many of above characters are shown by red algae ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

19) Pyrenoids contains protein beside starch is stored food in :-

(1) Red Algae

(2) Green Algae
(3) Fungi
(4) Brown Algae

20) Identify the bryophytes marked as X and Y :-

(1) X = Male Marchantia, Y = Female Marchantia

(2) X = Male Sphagnum, Y = Female Sphagnum
(3) X = Female Sphagnum, Y = Male Sphagnum
(4) X = Female Marchantia, Y = Male Marchantia

21) The marine forms that form massive plant bodies are:-
(1) Fungi
(2) Kelps
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Slime moulds

22) Stipe, hold fast, and frond are terms associated with :-

(1) Gracilaria
(2) Polysiphonia
(3) Laminaria
(4) Chara

23) Lichens don’t grow in :

(1) Polluted areas

(2) Non polluted areas
(3) Areas with rich biodiversity
(4) Areas with poor biodiversity

24) Read the following statement and choose correct option :

(i) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(ii) Prothallus is a gametophytic, free living photosynthetic structure formed in homosporous
pteridophyte.
(iii) Mosses have vascular tissue.
(iv) Mosses are of great ecological importance.

(1) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect

(2) i, ii, iv correct and iii incorrect
(3) i, ii, iii correct and iv incorrect
(4) i, ii, iii, iv correct

25) Given below is the diagram of organism identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the
right option about them :- Options :-

Part (A) Part (B) Part (C) Part (D)

(1) Sporophyte Stalk Leaves Foot

(2) Capsule Foot Leaves Gametophyte

(3) Sporophyte Stalk Foot Gametophyte

(4) Capsule Seta Leaves Gametophyte

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Select the mismatch :-

(1) Pinus – Coralloid roots

(2) Cycas – Unbranched stem
(3) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(4) Equisetum – Homosporous

27) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Gymnosperms form lax or cones

(2) Gymnosperms produce seeds and pollen grains
(3) Gymnosperms may be homosporous
(4) Gymnospermic plants can be monoecious or dioecious

28) Chemosynthetic bacteria helps in recycling

(1) Only Nitrogen

(2) Only nitrogen and phosphorus
(3) Nitrogen, phosphorus iron and sulphur
(4) Only sulphur

29)

Select the wrong statement.

(1) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.

(2) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
(3) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.
(4) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.

30) First of all the plants are classified into herbs, Shrubs and tree by :-

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) R.H. Whittaker
(4) Copeland

31) According to Five-Kingdom classification multicellular eukaryotes are placed under which
Kingdom?

(1) Plantae
(2) Animalia
(3) Fungi
(4) All of these

32) Choose the incorrect pair of following

(1) Phycomycetes-aquatic habitat

(2) Ascomycetes-Rust and smut disease
(3) Basidiomycetes-lack sex organs
(4) Deuteromycetes-help in mineral cycling

33) Which is common in Lichen and Mycorrhiza ?

(1) Algae
(2) Fungi
(3) Bacteria
(4) Protists

34) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column-I Column-II
(A) Chief producers in oceans (i) Slime moulds
(B) Red Tides (ii) Diatoms
(C) Plasmodium (iii) Euglenoids
(D) Mixotrophic nutrition (iv) Dinoflagellate
(1) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(i)
(2) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii)
(3) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iv)

35) Consider the following statements:

(a) Body as a soap box.
(b) Walls possess a large amount of silica.
(c) Two flagella one lies longitudinally and other transversely and in a furrow between the wall
plates.
(d) They float passively.
How many are correct for chrysophytes ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

36) Select the correct combination of statements (A–D) regarding the characteristics of certain
organisms.
(A) Mycoplasma lacks cell wall and can not survive without oxygen.
(B) Ascospores are 8 or 4 in number and endogenously formed.
(C) Fimbriae play important role in motility
(D) Nostoc and Anabaena are nitrogen fixing autotrophic bacteria found in coralloid root of cycas.
The correct statements are :-

(1) A & D
(2) C & D
(3) B & C
(4) B & D

37)

Read the following statements

(A) The cell wall of fungi are composed of chitin & polysaccharide.
(B) Members of phycomycetes have aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
(C) In ascomycetes asexual spores are called ascospores
(D) In basidiomycetes vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common

How many above statements are correct ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

 Column I Column II Column III
(Kingdom) (Cell wall) (Body organisation)

1 Monera a Present in some i Tissue/ organ

2 Protista b Present (Chitin) ii Loose tissue

3 Fungi c Present (Cellulose) iii Cellular

4 Plantae d Polysaccharide + Amino acid iv Cellular

(1) 2–a–iii, 1–d–iv, 3–b–ii, 4–c–i
(2) 1–d–iv, 2–b–i, 3–a–ii, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–d–iv, 2–c–ii, 3–a–i, 4–b–iii
(4) 2–b–iii, 1–c–iv, 3–d–ii, 4–c–i

39) Assertion: Bacteria are prokaryotic.

Reason: Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) Primary productivity depends on the :-

(1) Plant species inhabiting in that particular area

(2) Variety of environmental factors
(3) Availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants
(4) All of these

41) Arrange the following ecosystems in order of their mean NPP (tons / ha / year).
A. Tropical deciduous forest
B. Tropical rain forest
C. Temperate deciduous forest

(1) B > C > A

(2) C > B > A
(3) A > B > C
(4) B > A > C

42) Peacock eats snake and snake eats insect while insect eats green plant. Then the position of
peacock is :-

(1) Primary producer

(2) Secondary producer
(3) Decomposer
(4) Top at the apex of ecological pyramid

43) Which one of the following is correct pair regarding decomposition ?

 I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) Release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Mineralisation

(4) Break down of detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) and conditions favours decomposition whereas and inhibit decomposition

(1) (a) Warm (b) dry (c) low temperature (d) anaerobiosis
(2) (a) Cold (b) moist (c) low temperature (d)anaerobiosis
(3) (a) Cold (b) dry (c) high temperature (d) aerobic conditions
(4) (a) Warm (b) Moist (c) low temperature (d) anaerobiosis

45) Standing crop is :-

(i) Biomass in a unit area
(ii) Number of living organism in unit area
(iii) Amount of nutrient such as carbon, nitrogen, calcium in unit area
(iv) Amount of detritus in unit area

(1) Only i
(2) i & ii
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) i, iii, iv

46) Find out the available energy at producer level.

(1) 10,000 J
(2) 1000 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 100000 J

47) Among the following option maximum species diversity is found in :-

(1) Fungi
(2) Angiosperm
(3) Fishes
(4) Birds

48) Greater biological diversity of tropics than temperate regions is due to the :-

(1) Presence of more seasonal environment

(2) Frequent glaciations in the past
(3) Highly variable climate and availability of less solar energy in the past
(4) Availability of more solar energy which contributes to high productivity

49) Identify S, A ,Z and C in a typical species-area relationship curve/graph :-

S A Z C

Species Area Slope of

(1) Y-intercept
richness explored line

Species Area Regression

(2) Y-intercept
richness explored coefficient

Slope of line
Species Area
(3) (regression Y-intercept
richness explored
coefficient)

Species Regression Area

(4) Y-intercept
richness coefficient explored
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) According to Tilman which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(A) Plots with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass
(B) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
(C) Provide resistance to invasions by alien species

(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only A & C
(4) A, B, C

51) Match column I with column II :-

 Column-I Column-II

(a) Over-exploitation (i) Amazon rain forest

(b) Co-extinction (ii) Lantana, Eichhornia

(c) Habitat loss (iii) Plant-Pollinator

Alien Steller's sea cow,

(d) (iv)
species invasion Passenger pigeon

Options :-
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

52) There are four major causes (the evil quartet) of biodiversity losses, with respect to them, which
of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation decreases biodiversity.

(2) Over exploitation cause some fishes to get endangered.
(3) Alien species invasions decrease the threat to native species.
(4) Co-extinctions lead to extinction of a species as well as associated plant and animal species.

53) Which of the following characters is not related to biodiversity hot spot?

(1) High species richness

(2) High endemism
(3) Lesser interspecific interaction
(4) Accelerated habitat loss

54) Assertion (A) :– Population size for any species is not a static parameter.
Reason (R) :– Population size keeps changing with the time depending on various factors including
food availability, predation pressure, and adverse weather.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

55) How many of the following statements is/are correct in reference to predation ?
(a) Ecosystem may become unstable in absence of predators.
(b) Predators can be used as biological control agents for pest control.
(c) Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community.
(d) Fitness of interacting species is significantly lowered in predation.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

56)

Gause's principle of competitive exclusion is :-

(1) The more abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition
(2) Competion for the same resource exclude species having different life style
(3) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely when resource are limited
Large organism exclude smaller ones through competition as in the case of large tree
(4)
controlling underbrush

57) in above equation represent :-

(1) Carrying capacity

(2) Environmental resistance
(3) Rate of change in population density
(4) Intrinsic rate of growth

58) Which of the following scientists proposed that the first form of life originated from preexisting
non-living organic molecules through chemical evolution

(1) Oparin and Haldane

(2) Darwin and Wallace
(3) Miller and Urey
(4) Pasteur and Aristotle

59) The formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents before the origin of life
is called

(1) Biogenesis
(2) Chemical evolution
(3) Panspermia
(4) Spontaneous generation

60) According to Oparin and Haldane, the primitive atmosphere of early earth was predominantly

(1) Oxidising with free oxygen

(2) Reducing with methane and ammonia
(3) Neutral with nitrogen only
(4) Rich in ozone

61) Which of the following gases was absent in the early earth atmosphere

(1) Methane
(2) Ammonia
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Molecular oxygen

62) Match the theory with its main idea

Column-I Column-II

A Chemical evolution I Life from pre-existing life

B Biogenesis II Life from non-living molecules

C Spontaneous generation III Life from outer space

D Panspermia IV Life from decaying matter

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

63) Assertion (A) : Pasteur's experiment did not answer how the first life form originated on earth.
Reason (R) : His experiment focused only on disproving spontaneous generation under present day
conditions.

(1) Both A and Rare true and R explains A

(2) Both A and Rare true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

64) The survival of Australian marsupials despite being less competitive than placental mammals is
best explained by which factor?

(1) Higher intelligence of marsupials

(2) Viviparous nature of mammals
(3) Long-term geographical isolation due to continental drift
(4) Faster mutation rate in marsupials

65) Darwin's finches demonstrate adaptive radiation because they:

(1) Migrated from different continents to the same island

(2) Evolved different beak shapes from a common ancestor on the same island
(3) Were artificially selected by humans
(4) Appeared suddenly without ancestral forms

66) Mammals replaced reptiles as dominant land animals mainly because mammals:

(1) Laid more eggs

(2) Had scales on skin
(3) Protected embryos inside the mother's body
(4) Depended only on external fertilisation

67) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of multiple species from:

(1) Different ancestors in different habitats

(2) One ancestral species in a given geographical area
(3) Artificial selection over generations
(4) Sudden mutations without selection

68) Fossils are considered important evidence of evolution because they

(1) Show direct proof of extinct organisms and evolutionary sequence

(2) Represent only present-day organisms
(3) Are found only in sedimentary rocks
(4) Are unrelated to geological time

69) Homologous organs support evolution because they indicate

(1) Same function but different origin

(2) Same origin but different functions
(3) Different origin and same function
(4) No structural similarity

70) Analogous organs arise due to

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Genetic drift

71) Similarities in amino acid sequences of proteins among organisms provide evidence for evolution
based on

(1) Fossils
(2) Embryology
(3) Biochemical similarities
(4) Biogeography

72) The widely accepted idea that life arose gradually from non-living matter through chemical
evolution is a form of

(1) Spontaneous generation

(2) Panspermia
(3) Biogenesis through evolution
(4) Creation theory
73) All the following statements are correct about Saheli. but one is wrong. Which one is wrong ?

(1) It is a type of oral contraceptive pill.

(2) It is once a week pill with few side effects and high contraceptive value.
It inhibits ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus
(3)
to prevent/retard entry of sperms.
(4) It was developed at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow, India.

74) As per 2017 amendment of MTP act (opinion of two medical practitioners is mandatory
if pregnancy has lasted for

(1) 8 weeks
(2) 12 weeks
(3) More than 28 weeks
(4) More than 12 weeks but less than 24 weeks

75) Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In all non-primate mammals cyclic changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and D only

76) Which of the following hormone is/are responsible for parturation

(i) HCG
(ii) Estrogen
(iii) Cortisol
(iv) Oxytocin
(v) hPL

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) ii, iii, iv, v
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) ii, iv only

77) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Zona pellucida (i) Secondary egg membrane

(b) Erectile tissue (ii) Menopause

(c) Menstrual cycle ceases (iii) Penis

 (d) Corona radiata (iv) Primary egg membrane

Codes
a b c d

(1) i iii ii iv

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) iv ii iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Select the correct sequence for pathway of sperm movement.

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vasa deferens → Epididymis
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vasa deferens
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Vasa deferens → Epididymis
(4) None of these

79) Identify A, B and C in the diagram :

A B C

(1) Zona pellucida Perivitelline space Cells of corona radiata

(2) Perivitelline space Zona pellucida Cells of corona radiata

Cells of corona
(3) Zona pellucida Perivitelline space
radiata

(4) Vitelline membrane Zona pellucida Cells of corona radiata

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
80) Arrange the sequence of embryonic development and choose the correct option :-
I. Morula
II. Zygote
III. Gastrula
IV. Blastula
V. Foetus

(1) II, I, IV, III, V

(2) II, I, III, IV, V
(3) II, III, I, IV, V
(4) II, V, IV, III, I

81) How many of the hormones given below are produced in women only during pregnancy?
Estrogen, HCG, HPL, Relaxin, Progesterone

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

82) Choose the odd one out wrt placental hormone :

(1) HCG and HPL

(2) Estrogen and progesterone
(3) Relaxin and prolactin
(4) HPL and progesterone

83) Match the following and choose the correct option:

Embedding of
(A) Trophoblast (i) blastocyst in the
endometrium

Group of cells
that would
(B) Cleavage (ii)
differentiate
as embryo

Inner Outer layer of

(C) cell (iii) blastocyst attached
mass to the endometrium

Rapid Mitotic
(D) Implantation (iv) division of
zygote
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
84) Match column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A. Heart (i) End of 24 week

B. Limbs & Digits (ii) Fifth month

Movement of foetus and

C. (iii) End of second month
hair on head.

Eye lids separate and

D. (iv) One month
eyelashes are formed
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

85)

Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development

Which two of the above statements are correct?

(1) a and d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

86) Assertion :- Administration of progesteron or progesteron-estrogen combination within 72

hours of coitus are found to be very effective contraceptives.
Reason :- High level of progesterone hormone, inhibits the release of gonadotropins. Consider as a
emergency method.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

87) Observe the following flow chart and choose right statement :-
(1) cause release of and inhibits secretion of (normally)
(2) causes release of and concentrates inside the seminiferous tubule
(3) is GnRH, is ICSH and is FSH
(4) is GnRH, is LH and is FSH

88) The structure that stores and matures sperm:

(1) Testis
(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Epididymis
(4) Urethra

89) There are three layers present in uterus, one of them is thick muscular, second is thin visceral
peritoneum and third glandular layer. Layers are respectively:-

(1) Perimetrium, Myometrium, Endometrium

(2) Endometrium, Myometrium, Perimetrium
(3) Myometrium, perimetrium, Endometrium
(4) Myometrium, endometrium, Perimetrium

90) A single breast contains how many mammary lobes.

(1) 15-20
(2) 20-25
(3) 30-40
(4) one only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 1 2 2 1 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 1 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 4 4 3 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Given V = 5x2y

;
at point (2, 3) ;

2)

M = 1 kg
V = 2 m/s
W = –3J

W = PE + KE
PE = W – KE
PE = –5J

Potential per unit mass =

3) By law of conservation of energy, we have

(U+K)initial = (U+K)final

4) Acceleration due to gravity at depth d is given that

5) As both wires have same volume,
V1 = V2 ⇒ A1L1 = A2L2

AL1 = 6AL2 or
As both wires are made of same material,

Y1 = Y2 ⇒

= 72F

6)

M1 g = K(l1 – l0) ......(1)

(M1+M2)g = K(l2 – l0) ......(2)

7)

B= ⇒ =

ΔP = , =

8) Buoyant force = weight

ρlVimm geff = ρbVgeff.

,
depends only on the densities, which do not change with acceleration.

9) = 5.44

∴ v2 = 5.44 × 2 × 9.8 = 106.6

∴ v = 10.3 m/s

10) Terminal velocity vT =

⇒ v2 = 0.1 m/s

11) Total energy Initially Ei =

total energy finally Ef =

So energy required ΔE = Ef – Ei =

12)

ω2 =

(ω')2 =

= 64

=8

13) Distance between two consecutive crests is

5 m with is equal to λ = 5m, freq. n = 2 Hz
v = nλ = 10 m/s

14)
common → 258 Hz

15) v = 700 cm/sec = 7 m/sec, L=2m

16) ν = 2f (l2 – l1)
ν = 2 × 480 × (70 – 30) × 10–2
ν = 960 × 40 × 10–2
ν = 38400 × 10–2 m/s
ν = 384 m/s

17) Ymax = 6 sin

∴ For x = 5

y = 6 sin =

18) ∴ For f =

when 2/5 of length is under water, the length that is outside water is L'

19) For closed pipe (Second overtone)

fC = ...(1)
For original open pipe first overtone

...(2)
Given fC = 100 + f0

⇒
Fundamental frequency of open pipe is

20)

V1 cop = V1oop
21)

x3 ∝ Q2

22)

23)

+ –
EB = 0
Let σ = Q/A

24)
Einside = Elarge – Esmall = 0

Eoutside = Elarge + Esmall =

So Elarge = Esmall =

25) V = –x2y–xz3 + 4

=
26)

27)

V1 = V0,

P1 = P =
V2 = 2V0,

P2 = P =
Ideal gas equation, PV = µRT

for µ = 1, T =
Therefore,

and

=
Change in temperature,

ΔT = T2 – T1 =

28)

0 0
W= (P ) (V )

QAB = nCvΔT =
0 0 0 0
(2P V – P V ) = (+ve)

QBC = nCpΔT = [4P V – 2P V ]

0 0 0 0

= 5P0V0 = (+ve)
 QCA = – ve

0 0
Qin = QAB + QBC = PV

η=

29) 1. Problem Explanation:

Determine the relationship between the lengths and coefficients of linear expansion of brass
and steel rods when the total length remains constant at all temperatures.

2. Concept:
When two rods are joined and their total length remains unchanged with temperature, the
total thermal expansion must balance out, meaning the expansions of both rods compensate
each other.

3. Formula:
Thermal expansion of a rod:
ΔL = αLΔT

4. Calculation:
For total length to remain constant:
α1L1 = α2L2
Since the total length doesn't change with temperature:
α1L1 = a2L2

Thus, the correct relation is:

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

30) Question Explanation

We have three rods with different thermal conductivities (3k, 2k and k) arranged at a junction,
with one end of each rod maintained at 100°C, 50°C, and 0°C respectively. We need to find the
junction temperature (T) where heat flow is balanced.

Concept
The concept based on Junction temperature.

Formula
For each rod, heat flow rate is given by:

Since all rods have the same dimensions, we can ignore A and L, considering only thermal
conductivity.
Using heat balance at the junction:
For steady-state conduction, the sum of heat currents at the junction must be zero (since no
heat is accumulating at the junction).

Calculation :
• Heat flow from 100°C (through conductivity 3k):
• Heat flow from 50°C(through conductivity 2k):

• Heat flow from 0°C (through conductivity k):

Applying heat balance equation:

Dividing throughout by k/L:

Final Answer : (3)

31)

Given : rate of flow of heat (conduction rate)

Thermal resistance,

32)

13 R T

33)

Thermal expansion is like photographic enlargement, So all dimensions will increase on

heating.

34) Explain : a thermodynamic cycle represented on a P-V diagram is given. AB and CD are
isothermal processes, and AD and BC are adiabatic processes. determine the temperature
relationships between the points A, B, C, and D.
Concept : Isothermal processes occur at constant temperature, while adiabatic processes
involve no heat exchange, leading to temperature changes.
Formula : Adiabatic Process TVγ-1 = constant.
Calculation :Isothermal Processes
AB is isothermal, meaning the temperature at A (TA) is the same as the temperature at B (TB).
So, TA= TB.
DC is isothermal, meaning the temperature at C (TC) is the same as the temperature at D (TD).
So, TC = TD

Adiabatic Processes:

AD and BC are adiabatic. In an adiabatic expansion (volume increases), temperature

decreases. TA > TD and TB > TC
Ans (4)

35)

PV2/3 = const.

= const.

36) (A) PV → constant

T → constant, ΔU = 0
V increases W > 0
ΔQ > 0
(B) P ∝ T Isochoric W = 0
T increases ΔU > 0
ΔQ > 0
(C) P → constant
V increase W > 0
T increases ΔU > 0
ΔQ > 0
(D) V ∝ T → Isobaric
V decreases W < 0
T decreases ΔU < 0
ΔQ < 0

37)
Since both resistance of 4Ω then current in other 4Ω would be 2A.

38)
 R α ℓ2 (when vol. const.)

39)

40) Asking about: A graph of current density J vs electric field E is shown for two wires.
Based on the slopes of the lines, we must compare their electrical conductivities.
Concept: From Ohm's law in microscopic from J = σE. So the slope of the J-E graph gives
conductivity σ. Greater slope means higher conductivity.

Formula: J = σE ⇒
Explanation: Wire 1 has a steeper slope than wire 2 in the J-E graph. so:
σ = Slope = tanθ
σ1 > σ2
θ is angle from x - axis
Answer is option (2).

41)

QUESTION EXPLANATION
A mark at the bottom appears to rise by 0.1 m. The real depth is 1 m. Find refractive index of
the liquid.
CONCEPT
This question is based on Real depth–apparent depth relation.
FORMULA

[S = shifting]
SOLUTION

⇒ 0.1 = 1

FINAL ANSWER Option (3)

42)

Explain the question : Find the apparent distance between the observer and the object
shown: observer is 10 cm left of the slab, slab thickness = 10 cm with μ = 2, object is 20 cm
right of the slab; surrounding media μ = 1. Also find the shift in the position of the object.

Concept : This question is based on shift produced by a glass slab.

Formula : Shift =

Solution :
shift = = 5 cm
Apparent distance = 10 + 5 + 20 = 35 cm.

Final answer : Option (1)

43) The given ray of light is as shown below For glass-water interface,
applying Snell's law

⇒ ......(i)
For water-air interface, angle of incidence in water = r

Again, ⇒ ......(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get

44) Explain the Question : To find the minimum refractive index of slab so that light will
refract back.
Concept : This question is based on critical angle and total internal reflection.
Solution :

1 × sin 45° = µ × sin (90 – θ)

= µ cos θ ⇒ cos θ =

sin θ ≥
 ⇒

⇒ ⇒µ≥
Final Answer : 3

45) Question Explanation : to find refractive index of the material of prism.

Concept : Silvering of prism., Geometry
Formula : Snell's law sin i × 1 = sin r × μ
Visual aid:

Calculation :
A = 30°, i = 60°, μ = ?
sin 60° = sin 30° × μ

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

CHEMISTRY

46) Solution :- Chromyl chloride produce orange red vapours When a mixture of solid NaCl,
solid K2Cr2O7 is heated with concentrated (H2SO4)
Final Answer 2

47) Solution
1. When a salt containing Cl– ion reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4), HCl gas is
evolved NaCl(s) + H2SO4 (conc) → NaHSO4 (s) + HCl(g) ↑
HCl gas → Colouless gas with in ammonium.
2. When a glass rod diffed in ammonium hydroxide (NH4O4) is brought near HCl
gas NH4OH(g) NH3(g) + H2O (ℓ)
HCl + NH3(g) → NH4Cl (dense white fumes)
Final answer : (4)

48)

Pb is not a transition metal

49)

50)
Nessler's reagent test
salt + NaOH Red-Brown
+ Nessler's reagent. ppt.

51)

Solution :-
Pb+2 — I group
Fe+3 — III group
Ni+2 — IV group
Mg+2 — VI group
Final Answer :- 2

52)

Addition of HBr and HCl are both are EAR.

53)

54)

If addition of OH occurs at terminal C-atom then aldehyde is formed.

55)

In OMDM reaction addition of H2O occurs according to MK rule. No C⊕ is formed as no

rearrangement occurs.

56)

Rate of decarboxylation ∝ Stability of CΘ

57)

In HBO reaction addition of H2O occurs opposite to MK rule.

58)
59)

60)

Hofmann's elimination product is formed when size of base is bulkier.

61) act as electrophile is nitration of benzene.

62)

Rate of E.S.R. ∝

63) Rate of ESR α +I +M group on Benzene

64)

65)
It is free radical addition reaction (FRAR)
 66)

67) 'A' → CH3 – C ≡ CH

68)

(a) (q) Nitration

CH3–COOK Kolbe's
(b) (p)
electrolysis

Wurtz
(c) (r)
CH3–Br reaction

Friedal-craft
(d) (s)
alkylation

69) • Anode (Oxidation): H2(g, P1) → 2H+(aq) + 2e–

• Cathode (Reduction): 2H+(aq) + 2e– → H2(g, P2)
The overall cell reaction is: H2(g, P1) → H2(g, P2)
For this reaction :
•n=2
• = 0.

•Q=
Substituting these values into the Nernst equation:

70)

Reducing power ∝ SOP

71) Zinc has a reduction potential of –0.76 V. among the given options, only
0

Magnesium has a more negative E . Therefore, Magnesium can displace

zinc.
72)

Mole × vf ⇒

mole ∝

73)

For weak electrolytes

Debye huckle equaion =
y = c - mx
For strong electrolytes
order of condectance HCl > KCl> LiCl

74)

Reactivity order of metal

⇒ Mg > Cu > Hg > Ag (Reactivity order)
A salt of more active metal can be stored in less active metal.

75) Question Explanation: Calculate E° for Cu2+ / Cu from potentials of intermediate steps.
Concept: Use ΔG° = –nFE° additivity for sequential reactions.

Solution:

Final answer: option (1)

76)

2H+ + 2e– → H2

= – 0.084 V

77)

∵ 1 mole e– = 6.02 × 1023 e– = 1F

∴ 1.81 × 1023 e– = 0.3 F
 w=

1=
Atomic mas = 10 g mol–1

78)

at equilibrium Ecell = 0

=
= 0.1773

79)

Step-by-Step Calculation: From the formulas: - If the reaction is spontaneous, .-

From , negative means , so . - From ,
negative implies .

80)

Ecell =
if M2 > M1 then Ecell > 0
and ΔG = –ve

81) Leclanche cell (a): A common dry cell that uses an electrolyte of ammonium chloride and
zinc chloride (q).
Mercury cell (b): A small primary cell with an electrolyte paste of potassium hydroxide and
zinc oxide (p).
Lead Storage battery (c): A rechargeable battery that uses a 38% solution of sulfuric acid
(s).
Ni-Cd Cell (d): A rechargeable battery that uses a moist electrolyte of potassium hydroxide
(r).

82) For weak electrolytes, dilution increases dissociation, increasing Λm sharply - reason
correctly explains assertion.

83) HCl formed in the process should be removed by dialysis. Particles of Fe(OH)3 adsorb
Fe3+ ion from solution and all particles become positively charged.
 84)

Based on facts

85)

During charging, PbSO4 at the cathode gains electrons and is converted back to Pb:
PbSO4(s) + 2e– → Pb(s) + SO42–

86)

(A) Leclanché cell (Dry cell):

Cathode reaction → MnO2 + NH4+ + e– → MnO(OH) + NH3 → (R)
(B) Lead storage battery:
Anode reaction → Pb + SO42– → PbSO4 + 2e– → (S)
(C) Fuel cell :
Converts chemical (combustion) energy into electrical energy → (P)
(D) Rusting: Involves oxygen reduction at cathode → O2 + 4H+ + 4e– → 2H2O → (Q)

87) Based on facts

88)

Ncert, Class 12th, Part-1, [Link], Edition - 2022 - 2023

89)

Dispersed Dispersion
phase medium

Milk liquid liquid

Dust Solid Gas

Cheese Liquid Solid

Froth Gas Liquid

90) Fog is a colloidal solution of liquid in a gas in which liquid is the dispersed phase where as
gas is the dispersion medium

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. No. # 145, 146/ 158, 159

92)
 Question Explanation: Identify the correct statements about types of immunity.

Concept: Immunity – Innate vs Acquired.

Solution: The correct answer is option 3 – Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is

correct.

A. Statement-I: Incorrect. Innate immunity is non-specific and is present at birth. It does

not target specific pathogens.

B. Statement-II: Correct. Acquired (adaptive) immunity is pathogen-specific and exhibits

immunological memory, allowing a stronger response upon re-exposure.

Final answer: Option (3)

93) NCERT XII Pg. # 150-151

94)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 134-135

95)

NCERT-XII, Page # 138

96) Question explanation: This question asks to identify the incorrect statement regarding
acquired (adaptive) immunity.

Concept: Acquired immunity

Solution: The correct answer is Option 3.

A. Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific, not non-specific. It is not present at birth; it

develops after exposure to antigens.

B. Anamnestic response is the secondary immune response due to memory from the first
encounter (Statements 1 and 2 are correct).

C. Primary response occurs during the first encounter with a pathogen (Statement 4 is
correct).

Final answer: Option 3

97) Explanation Question :

The question is asking whether the assertion about anamnestic (secondary immune) response
and the reason about immune memory are correct and whether the reason explains the
assertion.
Concept: This question is based on Human Health and Disease.
Solution:
Assertion (A): Correct – A second encounter with the same pathogen produces a stronger
and faster response.
Reason (R): Correct – The immune system retains memory of the first encounter.
R is the correct explanation of A.
Final answer: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

98) NCERT-XII, Page # 153,154

99)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 137-138

100)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 136

101)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 129-130

102)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 136

103) NCERT Pg No. # 151 (Fig. 8.4)

104) Explanation:
The antibodies that can cross the placenta from the mother to the foetus during pregnancy are
IgG (immunoglobulin G). This is a crucial form of passive immunity, providing the foetus
with protection against various infections before birth. Other antibody types, such as IgA, IgD,
and IgM, do not readily cross the placenta.

Correct Answer: 1. IgG

105)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 136

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 32

107)
Explain Question : The question asks to identify the group of algae that belongs to the class
Rhodophyceae, commonly known as red algae
Concept : This question is based on Rhodophyceae - red algae
Explanation : “Members of Rhodophyceae (red algae) include Polysiphonia, Porphyra, and
Gelidium.”
Final answer : 2

108) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 33 table-3.1

109) NCERT Pg. # 32/3.1.1

110)

Explanation:
Marchantia is a liverwort belonging to [Link] has separate male and female thalli
(dioecious). (X) Female Marchantia → Bears archegoniophore, which is a stalked, umbrella-like
structure producing archegonia (female gametes).
(Y) Male Marchantia → Bears antheridiophore, which is a stalked structure producing
antheridia (male gametes).

111)

NCERT XI Pg. # 30

112) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 33

113) NCERT(XII) Pg#132/142(H) Para:7.3

114)

Explain Question : The question has provided four statements about different plant groups
and wants to know which of them are correct.
Concept : This question is based on Gymnosperms, Pteridophytes (ferns), and Bryophytes
(mosses).
Explanation :
(i) Gymnosperms are heterosporous. - Correct
Gymnosperms produce two types of spores: microspores (male) and megaspores (female), so
they are heterosporous.
(ii) Prothallus is a gametophytic, free living photosynthetic structure formed in homosporous
pteridophytes.
- Correct
In homosporous pteridophytes (e.g., ferns like Dryopteris), the prothallus is the free-living,
photosynthetic gametophyte.
(iii) Mosses have vascular tissue. - Incorrect
Mosses are non-vascular plants; they lack true vascular tissue (xylem and phloem).
(iv)Mosses are of great ecological importance. - Correct
Mosses help in soil formation, water retention, and as pioneer species in ecosystems.
Final answer : 2

115)

In a typical moss (e.g., Funaria) diagram: A = Capsule,B = Seta,C = Leaves, D= Gametophyte.

116)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 22

117)

NCERT pg no. 39

118)

Nitrogen, phosphorus and iron.

Reason: Chemosynthetic bacteria recycle many minerals, not just one — mainly N, P, Fe.
119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

120)

Explain Question : The question asks who first classified plants into herbs, shrubs, and trees,
which refers to a morphological classification based on plant size a structure.

Concept : This question is based on Biological Classification : Introduction

Solution : The correct answer is 2 - Aristotle

Aristotle, the Greek philosopher, was one of the earliest to attempt biological classification.
He classified plants based on their morphology (external features) into:
Herbs – small, soft-stemmed plants
Shrubs – medium-sized, woody plants
Trees – large, woody plants

Final Answer : option (2) Aristotle

121)

In the Five-Kingdom classification, multicellular eukaryotes are placed in Plantae, Animalia,

and Fungi, as all these kingdoms include multicellular eukaryotic organisms.

122) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about select incorrect pair about kingdom fungi.

Concept :
Kingdom fungi.

Solution :
1. Phycomycetes – aquatic habitat – correct pair
2. Ascomycetes – Rust and smut disease – incorrect pair
Correct is - smut and rust fungus belongs to Basidiomycetes.
3. Basidiomycetes-lack sex organs correct pair.
4. Deuteromycetes – help in mineral cycling correct pair.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

123) NCERT XI Page # 21

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20,21

125) Explain Question: Count true statements for chrysophytes.

 Concept: This question is based on Chrysophytes(Diatom)
Solution :
(a) Soap-box body → True (diatoms).
(b) Silica-rich walls → True (diatoms).
(c) Two flagella (transverse & longitudinal) → False (that’s dinoflagellates).
(d) Float passively → True (phytoplankton). → 3 true.
Final answer : 2

126)

A. Statement B:
Ascospores are typically 8 in number (sometimes 4) and are formed inside a sac-like structure
called an ascus (endogenously formed). Thus, this statement is correct.
B. Statement D:
Nostoc and Anabaena are indeed nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria (autotrophic bacteria) often
found in the coralloid roots of cycads, forming a symbiotic relationship. Hence, this statement
is correct.

The correct answer is:OPTION(4) B&D

127) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 22,23,24

A, B and D are correct

128)

Explain Question : The question asks to correctly match the kingdoms listed in Column I with
their characteristic cell wall composition (Column II) and body organization (Column III)

Concept : This question is based on [Link], Carl Woese

Solution :
2 (Protista) - a (Present in some) - iii (Cellular) → Protista have cell walls in some members and
are mostly unicellular.
1 (Monera) - d (Polysaccharide + Amino acid) - iv (Cellular) → Monera have peptidoglycan
(polysaccharide + amino acid) cell wall and are unicellular.
3 (Fungi) - b (Present chitin) - ii (Loose tissue) → Fungi cell wall chitin, loose tissue.
4 (Plantae) - c (Present cellulose) - i (Tissue/organ) → Plantae cell wall cellulose, well-
developed tissue/organs.

Final Answer : option (1)

129) Explaining the Question:

This question asks you to what defines prokaryotic cells through Assertion Reason.

Concept:
Prokaryotes cells

Solution:
Assertion : Bacteria are prokaryotic. (True)
 Reason : Bacteria do not posses true nucleus and membrane bound organelles. (True)

And yes this Reason correctly explains why bacteria are classified as prokaryotes

Correct Answer:
Option (1)

130)

The correct answer is 4. All of these.

Explanation: Primary productivity depends on various factors:

A. Plant species inhabiting that particular area: Different plant species have different
capacities for photosynthesis and energy production.
B. Variety of environmental factors: Factors like temperature, sunlight, water availability, and
climate influence plant growth and productivity.
C. Availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants: The presence of essential
nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus, and the ability of plants to photosynthesize, are key
factors in determining the primary productivity of an ecosystem.

131)

NCERT XII Pg# 207

132)

The correct answer is Option 4: Top at the apex of ecological pyramid.

Explanation: In the food chain described, the peacock is the final consumer, eating the
snake, which in turn eats the insect that consumes the green plant. Since the peacock is at the
top of the. food chain and does not have any natural predators in this scenario, it is placed at
the apex of the ecological pyramid.

133) Question Explanation : Which of the following is correctly matched regarding

decomposition.
Concept : Decomposition.
Solution :
• Decomposition : The breakdown of organic matter into simpler forms.
• Fragmentation : Physical breaking down of detritus into smaller particles.
• Humification : Formation of dark colored amorphous substances like humus.
• Leaching : Movement of soluble substances like nutrients down through soil layers.
• Minerlisation : Release of inorganic nutrients from organic matter by microbes.
Final Answer : Option (3)

134)

Explain Question: To Fill the blanks with suitable options:

Concept: Functions of Ecosystems ( Decomposition).

Solution:

and conditons favors decomposition whereas and

inhibit decomposition.

The correct answer is: '(a) Warm (b) Moist (c) low temperature (d) anaerobiosis'.
Warm and moist conditions favor decomposition, while low temperature and
anaerobiosis inhibit it.

Final answer: 4.

135)

NCERT XII Pg # 211

136) NCERT XII Pg.# 249, figure 14.4

137)

NCERT XII Pg # 218

138)

NCERT XII Pg # 219

139) NCERT XII, Pg.# 262

140) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 263

141) Question Explanation: The question asks to match the causes of biodiversity loss.
Concept: Causes of biodiversity loss
Solution:
(a) Over-exploitation caused the extinction of (iv) Steller's sea cow.
(b) Co-extinction is exemplified by the (iii) plant-pollinator relationship.
(c) Habitat loss is a major cause of deforestation in the (i) Amazon rain forest.
(d) Alien species invasion is exemplified by (ii) Lantana and Eichhornia.
Final answer: option (3)

142)

NCERT XII Pg # 222, 223

143)

Question Explanation: Identify the characteristic unrelated to biodiversity hotspots

Concept: Biodiversity Hotspot Criteria

Solution: Biodiversity hotspots are defined by high species richness and endemism, along
with accelerated habitat loss (or degree of threat).
Interspecific interaction (how species interact) is a general ecological factor and not a direct
criterion for defining a hotspot.

Final Answer: Option-3

144) NCERT XII, Pg. # 192

145)

NCERT XII Pg # 197, 198

146)

NCERT XII Pg # 199

147)

NCERT XII Pg # 195

148) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

Chemical evolution theory

149) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

Pre-life chemistry

150) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

Reducing atmosphere

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

No free oxygen

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

origin of life view

153) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

Scope of experiment
154)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 124

155) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 116-117

156) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 124

157) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 116-117

158) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 113-114

159) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 114-115

Common ancestry

160) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 114-115

Same function, different origin

161) Molecular evidence

162) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

Idea of Greek philosopher

163) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 61

164) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 62

165)

Question Explanation: Correct statements regarding female reproductive cycle.

Concept: This question based on Menstrual cycle.

Solution:

A - Correct (non-primates show oestrus cycle).

B- Incorrect (first cycle = menarche, not menopause).
C- Correct (absence of menstruation may indicate pregnancy).
D- Correct (menstrual cycle continues from menarche to menopause)

Final Answer: Option (3)

166) NCERT Pg.# 55

 167) NCERT Pg. 44 to 51

168) Explain the Question : This question is asking about the correct anatomical pathway of
sperm transport from the seminiferous tubules to the vas deferens in the male reproductive
system.
Concept : This question is based on human reproduction – male reproductive system: ducts
Solution : Sperm pass in order from seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia →
epididymis → vas deferens.
Final answer : 2

169)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the labeled parts of the ovum structure.
Concept : Female gamete structure – zona pellucida, perivitelline space, corona radiata.

Solution : The correct answer is option 1.

In the given diagram og human egg-
A points to the glycoprotein layer → Zona pellucida.
B is the gap between zona pellucida and plasma membrane of oocyte → Perivitelline space.
C is the outermost layer of follicular cells → Cells of corona radiata.

Final Answer : 1

170) NCERT Pg. # 36

171) NCERT Pg. # 37

172)

Question Explanation : Identify the option that contains a hormone not produced by the
placenta.

Concept : Placental hormones

Solution : The correct option is 3 : Relaxin and prolactin.

A. The placenta is a temporary endocrine gland that produces several hormones, including hCG,
hPL, estrogen, progesterone but relaxin(partly from placenta but mainly ovary).
B. Prolactin, however, is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and is responsible for milk
production.

So the odd one out is Relaxin and Prolactin.

Final answer : Option (3)

173) NCERT Pg. # 36

174) NCERT Pg. # 38

175) NCERT XII Pg. # 64

176) NCERT XIIth Pg.#61

177)

Question Explanation: Interpret the hormonal flow chart and identify the correct sequence
and roles of each labeled component.

Concept: The question is based on hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

Correct identification is as follows:

A. (a) = GnRH (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone)-Secreted by the hypothalamus,

stimulates the anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins.

B. (b) = LH /ICSH-Acts on Leydig cells to stimulate production of (e) = testosterone.

C. (c) = FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone)-Acts on Sertoli cells, promoting secretion

of (d) = Androgen Binding Protein (ABP).

D. (d) = ABP-Binds and concentrates ⓔ = testosterone within the seminiferous tubules to

support spermatogenesis.

E. (e) = Testosterone-Essential for sperm maturation and male secondary sexual

characteristics.
So, (FSH)causes release of (ABP) and (ABP) concentrates (Testosterone) inside
the seminiferous tubule.

Final answer: Option (2)

178) Also helps gain motility.

179) NCERT XII Pg. # 46

180) NCERT Pg#30