10-09-2025

2321CMD303035250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) A ball is projected from the ground with 50 m/s. At the maximum height its velocity is 30 m/s.
Calculate the time after which it will reach to the ground again.

(1) 4s
(2) 8s
(3) 2s
(4) 16s

2) A ball is thrown upwards and it returns to ground describing a parabolic path. Which of the
following remains constant

(1) Kinetic energy of the ball

(2) Speed of the ball
(3) Horizontal component of velocity
(4) Vertical component of velocity

3) An aeroplane is flying at a height of 1960 m in horizontal direction with a velocity of 360 km/hr.
When it is vertically above the point A on the ground, it drops a bomb. The bomb strikes at a point B
on the ground then the time taken by the bomb to reach the ground is-

(1) 20 sec
(2) 20 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 10 sec

4) If the range of a projectile is β times of the maximum height of the projectile, then angle of
projection will be :-

(1) tan–1(4β)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

5) A ball is projected from the ground at angle θ with the horizontal. After 1 second it is moving at
angle 45° with the horizontal and after 2 seconds it is moving horizontally. What is the velocity of
projection of the ball :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) A particle P is projected from ground with an initial speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 60° with the
horizontal. From what height h should an another particle Q be projected horizontally with velocity 5
m/s so that both the particles collide at ground at point C, if both are projected simultaneously? (g =

10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 25 m

7)

The motion of one projectile as seen from another will always

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabolic
(3) Circular
(4) Hyperbolic

8) The equation of projectile is (origin is point of projection); (x → horizontal; y →

vertical)

Column-I Column-II

A. Initial velocity P. S.I. unit

B. Range of projectile Q. 10 S.I. unit

Maximum height
C. R. 3.75 S.I. unit
of projectile

D. Angle of projection S.
S.I. unit
(1) A-Q; B-P; C-R; D-S
(2) A-R; B-S; C-P; D-Q
(3) A-P; B-R; C-S; D-Q
(4) A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R

9) A boat is moving with a velocity 3i + 4j with respect to the ground. The water in the river is
moving with a velocity –3i – 4j with respect to the ground. The relative velocity of the boat with
respect to water is :-

(1) 8j
(2) –6i –8j
(3) 6i + 8j
(4)

10) A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still water with a
velocity 10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim so as to take the shortest possible path to
go to the south.

(1) 30° with downstream

(2) 60° with downstream
(3) 120° with downstream
(4) South

11) A boat moves relative to still water with a velocity which is n times the river flow velocity. At
what angle to the stream direction must be boat move to cross the river along shortest path ?

(1)

(2)
sin–1

+ sin–1
(3)

– sin–1
(4)

12) Two boats A and B having same speed relative to river are moving in a river. Boat A moves
normal to the river current as observed by an observer moving with velocity of river current. Boat B
moves normal to the river as observed by the observer on the ground :

(1) To a ground observer boat B moves faster than A

(2) To a ground observer boat A moves faster than B
(3) To the given moving observer boat B moves faster than A
(4) To the given moving observer boat A moves faster than B

13) A boat man could row his boat with a speed 10 m/sec. He wants to take his boat from P to a point
Q just opposite on the other bank of the river flowing at a speed 4 m/sec. He should row his boat-
(1) At right angle to the stream

(2)
At an angle of sin–1 with PQ up the stream

(3)
At an angle of sin–1 with PQ down the stream

(4)
At an angle of cos–1 with PQ down the stream

14) To cross the river in shortest distance, a swimmer should swim making angle θ with the
upstream. What is the ratio of the time taken to swim across in the shortest time to that in swimming
across over shortest distance. (Assume speed of swimmer in still water is greater than the speed of
river flow)

(1) cos θ
(2) sin θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

15) A man can swim at a speed of 3 km/h in still water. He wants to cross a 500m wide river flowing
at 2km/h. He keeps himself always at an angle to 120° with the river flow while swimming. The time
taken to cross the river

(1)
hr

(2)
hr

(3)
hr
(4) None

16) Rain is falling vertically with speed 5 km/h and man is moving horizontally with speed 12 km/h
then find out speed of rain felt by man :-

(1) 12 km/h
(2) 5 km/h
(3) 13 km/h
(4) 11 km/h

17) A man standing on a road has to hold his umbrella at 30° with the vertical to keep the rain away.
He throws the umbrella and starts running at 10 km/hr. He finds that rain drops are hitting his head
vertically. Find the speed of the rain w.r.t to the running man :-

(1) 10 km/hr
(2)
(3) 20 km/hr
(4)

18) It is raining vertically downward with 5 km/h. A man walks in the rain with 6 km/h. The rain
drops will fall on the man with a relative velocity of-

(1) 11 km/h
(2) km/h
(3) 1 km/h
(4) km/h

19) Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 12 ms–1. A cyclist is moving east to west with a speed of
12 ms–1. In order to protect himself from rain at what angle from verticle he should hold his
umbrella :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 0°

20) A man is walking due to east at the rate of 2 kmh–1. The rain appears to him to come down
vertically at the rate of 2 kmh–1. The actual velocity and direction of rainfall with the vertical
respectively are :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 kmh–1, 0°
(4) 1 kmh–1, 90°

21) A man is walking on a horizontal road with a speed of 4 km/h. Suddenly, the rain starts vertically
downwards with a speed of 7 km/h. The magnitude of the relative velocity of the rain with respect to
the man is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 4 km/h

22) A man running on a horizontal road at 6 km/h finds the rain falling vertically. He doubles his
speed and finds that the raindrops make an angle 37° with the vertical. Find the velocity of rain with
respect to the ground :-
(1) 8 km/hr
(2) 10 km/hr
(3) km/hr.
(4) 12 km/hr.

23) Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed of 50 m/s. Wind starts blowing after some time
with a speed of 25 m/s in East to West direction. The direction in which a boy standing at that place
should hold his umbrella is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A tractor is moving in north direction holding a flag with velocity 25 km/hr. Wind is flowing in
east direction with velocity 25 km/hr. In which direction the flag will fly. :-

(1) Towards south

(2) Towards west
(3) Towards south-west
(4) Towards south-east

25) If the instantaneous velocity of a particle projected as shown in figure is given by

where a, b and c are positive constants, the range on the horizontal plane will be :

(1) 2ab/c
(2) ab/c
(3) ac/b
(4) a/2bc

26) A particle (A) is dropped from a height and another particle (B) is projected in horizontal
direction with speed of 5 m/s from the same height, then correct statement is :-

(1) Particle (A) will reach at ground first with respect to particle (B).
(2) Particle (B) will reach at ground first with respect to particle (A).
(3) Both particles will reach at ground simultaneously.
(4) Both particle will reach at ground with same speed.

27) A man holding a flag is running in north-east direction with speed 10 m/s. Wind is blowing in
east direction with speed m/s. Find the direction in which flag will flutter.

(1) South
(2) North
(3) East
(4) West

28) A boy wants to jump from building A to building B. Height of building A is 39.2 m and building B
is 19.6 m. Distance between buildings is 20 m. Assuming boy jumps horizontally, then calculate
minimum velocity with which boy has to jump to land safely on building B :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 9.8 m/s
(4) 19.6 m/s

29) A person moves 30 m north, then 20 m east then 30 m southwest. His displacement from the
original position is :-

(1) 14 m southwest
(2) 28 m south
(3) 10 m west
(4) 15 m east

30) A body is projected with a speed 4 m/s at an angle θ with vertical. The kinetic energy at the
highest point is 3/4th of initial kinetic energy. The value of θ is :

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 45º
(4) less than 45°

31) Statement 1 : Magnitude of average velocity is equla to average speed.

Statement 2 : Magnitude of instantaneous velocity is equal to instantaneous speed.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

32) A flag on a bus is fluttering in north direction & wind is blowing in east direction. Then which of
the following will be true -

(1) bus is moving in south direction.

(2) bus is moving in north east direction.
(3) bus may be moving in any direction between south & east.
(4) bus may be moving in any direction between south & west.

33) The position of a particle moving in the xy-plane at any time t is given by x = (3t2 – 6t) metres, y
= (t2 – 2t) metres. Select the correct statement about the moving particle from the following :-

(1) The acceleration of the particle is zero at t = 0 second

(2) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 0 second
(3) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 1 second
(4) The velocity and acceleration of the particle are never zero

34) Two identical balls are set into motion simultaneously from equal heights h. While the ball A is
thrown horizontally with velocity v, the ball B is just released to fall by itself. Choose the alternative
that best represents the motion of A and B with respect to an observer who moves with velocity v/2

with respect to the ground as shown in the figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Two particles A and B are moving in vertical plane as shown in figure at t = 0, then time after

which A will collide to B will be –

(1) 4 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 2 s
(4) 8 s

36) A particle travels according to the equation x = at3, y = bt3. The equation of the trajectory is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Two particles are projected simultaneously with different speed from the same point as shown

in figure. Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Their relative acceleration is zero

(2) Their relative velocity is constant
(3) Their relative velocity along vertical direction is non-zero
(4) Their relative velocity along horizontal direction is non-zero

38) Horizontal wind is blowing with velocity v in N-E direction. A man start running in north
direction with acceleration a find time after which man feel the wind blowing towards east.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A ship A is moving westwards with speed of 10 km/hr and ship B 100 km south of A is
moving northwards with speed of 10 km/hr. The time after which the distance between them
becomes shortest is :-

(1) 5 hr
(2)
(3)
(4) 10 hr

40) Figure shows two ships moving in x-y plane with velocities VA and VB. The ships move such that B

always remains north of A. The ratio is equal to :-

(1) Cos θ
(2) Sine θ
(3) Sec θ
(4) Cosec θ

41) Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running
simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A ball is thrown from a point O aiming a target at angle 37° with the horizontal so that the ball
hits the target at C but the ball hits at point D, a vertical distance y0 below C. If the initial velocity of
the ball is 10 m/s and the horizontal distance between O and C is 5 m. Find y0 :-

(1) 1 m
(2) 1.5 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 1.95 m

43) At the uppermost point of a projectile its velocity and acceleration are at an angle of :–

(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

44) If air resistance is not considered in projectile, the horizontal motion takes place with :-

(1) Constant velocity

(2) Constant acceleration
(3) Constant retardation
(4) Variable velocity

45) A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude of velocity
after 10 seconds will be :-

(1) 5 units
(2) 9 units
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all :-

(1) light metals

(2) inert gases
(3) halogens
(4) Alkaline earth metals
2) Mendeleev predicted and named certain future elements as Eka – Aluminium and Eka – Silicon.
These elements were

(1) Ga and Ge
(2) Al and Si
(3) Fe and S
(4) H and Si

3) Atomic number 34 belongs to :-

(1) 3rd period, 15 group, p block

(2) 4th period, 16 group, p block
(3) 4th period, 2 group, s block
(4) 5th period, 12 group, d block

4) Match list - I with list - II :

List-I List-II

A Cl2O7 I Amphoteric

B Na2O II Basic

C Al2O3 III Neutral

D N2O IV Acidic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (Ill), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (Ill)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (Ill), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (I). (B) - (II), (C) - (Ill), (D) - (IV)

5) Which of the following order is correct for the property mentioned in brackets ?

(1) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ (Ionisation energy)

(2) C < N < F < O (2nd Ionisation energy)
(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (Electronegativity)
(4) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ (Ionic radius)

6) Select the incorrect order of EN of species.

(1) Mn7+ > Mn5+ > Mn4+

(2) N > O > F
(3) Li > Na > K
(4) F > Cl > Br > I

7) Find the correct order of electron gain enthalpy -

(1) Be < N < F
(2) N < Be < F
(3) Ne > N > Be
(4) All are correct

8) Statement-1 : Electron gain enthalpy of N is positive while that of P is negative.

Statement-2 : Smaller atomic size of N in which there is a considerable electron-electron repulsion
and hence the additional electron is not accepted easily.

(1) Both Statements are true and the Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(2) Both Statements are true but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true but the Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false but the Statement-2 is true.

9) Arrange the following in correct ionisation energy order.

(1) F > Cl > Cl– > F

(2) Cl > Cl– > F > F–
(3) Cl– > Cl > F– > F
(4) None of these

10) The second ionization energies of Li, Be, B and C are in the order

(1) Li > C > B > Be

(2) Li > B > C > Be
(3) B > C > Be > Li
(4) Be > C > B > Li

11) The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

(1) ununoctium
(2) ununennium
(3) unnilennium
(4) unununnium

12) The incorrect statement among the following is :

(1) The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg.
(2) The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential of Na.
(3) The first ionization potential of Na is less than the first ionization potential of Mg.
(4) The third ionization potential of Mg is greater than the third ionization potential of Al.

13) The correct order of acidic strength

(1) Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10

(2) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(3) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(4) K2O > CaO > MgO

14) The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is :

(1) sp > sp2 > sp3

(2) sp3 > sp2 > sp
(3) sp2 > sp > sp3
(4) sp3 > sp > sp2

15) The process requiring absorption of energy is :

(1) N → N–
(2) F → F–
(3) Cl → Cl–
(4) H → H–

16) Match List I (Atomic Number of Element) with List II (Block to which the Element Belongs) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List I List II
(Atomic Number of Element) (Block to which the element belongs)

A. 24 1. p

B. 38 2. f

C. 49 3. s

D. 59 4. d
(1) A→2; B→1; C→3; D→4
(2) A→4; B→3; C→1; D→2
(3) A→2; B→3; C→1; D→4
(4) A→4; B→1; C→3; D→2

17) The element with the electronic configuration as [Ar]3d104s24p3 represents a

(1) metal
(2) non-metal
(3) metalloid
(4) transition element

18) Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is :

(1) Mg < Ca < Cl < P

(2) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
(3) P < Cl < Ca < Mg
(4) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
19) The element with atomic number Z = 114 will be placed in?

(1) 7th period, IVA group

(2) 8th period, IVA group
(3) 7th period, VA group
(4) 6th period, VB group

20)

Column-I Column-II
(Electronic configuration) (Corresponding elements)

(A) [Xe]4f145d106s2 (P) s-block element

(B) [Rn]5f146d17s2 (Q) Transition element

(C) [Xe]4f145d106s26p67s2 (R) d-block element

(D) [Xe]4f145d26s2 (S) Representative element

(T) Inner-transition element

(1) A → R; B → T; C → P, S; D → Q, R
(2) A → T; B → R; C → P, S; D → Q, R
(3) A → R; B → P, S; C → T; D → Q, R
(4) A → R; B → T; C → Q, R; D → P, S

21) The correct order of electron affinity of B, C, N, O is

(1) O > C > N > B

(2) B > N > C > O
(3) O > C > B > N
(4) O > B > C > N

22) Which one of the elements has the maximum electron affinity

(1) F
(2) Cl
(3) Br
(4) I

23) The atomic numbers of the metallic and non-metallic elements which are liquid at room
temperature respectively are :

(1) 55, 87
(2) 33, 87
(3) 35, 80
(4) 80, 35

24) Consider the following electronic configuration of an element(P) : [Xe]4f145d16s2 Then correct
statement about element ‘P’ is :

(1) It belongs to 6th period and 1st group

(2) It belongs to 6th period and 2nd group
(3) It belongs to 6th period and 3rd group
(4) None of these

25) Which one is not endothermic reaction?

(1) O¯ + e¯ → O–2
(2) O+ → O+2 + e
(3) O + e¯ → O¯
(4) O → O+ + e¯

26) Among the oxides given below, how many of them are acidic oxides ?
MnO, CO2, NO2, N2O5, CO, N2O

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

27) Which of the following has correct order of ionic radii ?

(1) O2– > F¯ > Na+ > Mg2+

(2) Mg2+ > Na+ > O2– > F¯
(3) Mg2+ > Na+ > F¯ > O2–
(4) O2– > F¯ > Mg2+ > Na+

28) The number of elements present in fifth period is :

(1) 18
(2) 32
(3) 8
(4) 24

29) Which of the following is an example of hypervalent species :-

(1) ClF3
(2) PCl5
(3) IF3
(4) All the three

30) Which of the following is an expanded octect molecule ?

(1) PCl5
(2) SF6
(3) H2O
(4) 1 and 2 both

31) Among the following electron deficient compound is :-

(1) CCl4
(2) PCl5
(3) OF2
(4) BCl3

32) Hypervalent compounds is (are) :

(i) PCl5 (ii) SF6
(iii) BF3 (iv) ClF3
Correct option is :

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) All of these

33) In ammonium ion, bond in between ammonia molecule and a proton is form by –

+
(1) Complete transfer of electron from NH3 to H
+
(2) electrostatic attraction between NH3 & H
+
(3) equal contribution of electrons by NH3 & H
(4) One sided sharing of electrons

34) Which compound does not show a co-ordinate linkage :-

(1) SO2
(2) O3
(3) CH3NC
(4) CO2

35) No. of electrons shared in the formation of nitrogen molecule is :-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 2
(4) 8

36) Which of the following species is neither hypervalent nor hypovalent?

¯
(1) ClO4
(2) BCl3
2–
(3) SO4
2–
(4) CO3

37) Which of the following is not an exception of octet rule :-

(1) BH3
(2) LiCl
(3) NO2
(4) SnCl4

38) When lewis Acid and lewis base are present then bond between them will be :-

(1) Ionic
(2) Covalent
(3) Coordinate
(4) Metallic

39) Which set not contains isoelectronic species :-

–3 –2 –1
(1) BO3 , CO3 , NO3
–2 –2 –1
(2) SO3 , CO3 , NO3
– –2
(3) CN , N2, C2
–3 –2 –1
(4) PO4 , SO4 , ClO4

40) Total number of non-bonding electrons in

(1) 4
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 0

41) Stability of Ionic compound depends -

(1) Sublimation Enthalpy

(2) Born Haber Cycle
(3) Lattice Enthalpy
(4) Ionisation Enthalpy

42) Generally a bond formed between a metal and a non metal is called

(1) Covalent
(2) Ionic
(3) Coordinate bond
(4) Metallic
43) Which of the following elements can never achieve octet

(1) C and N
(2) H and He
(3) N and O
(4) Na and Cl

44) Which of the following represents zero overlap of atomic orbitals.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

45) The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is

(1) K2O, Na2O, MgO, Al2O3

(2) Al2O3, MgO, K2O, Na2O
(3) MgO, Al2O3, K2O, Na2O
(4) Na2O, MgO, Al2O3, K2O

BOTANY

1)

Select the correct matching:

A. Fungi depend on dead substrate are called saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals are called parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae called lichens
D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant called mycorrhiza

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) All of these

2) Statement 1 : Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air, water, soil and on animals and plants.
Statement 2 : Fungi show a great diversity in pigmentation and reserve food.

(1) Statement 1 is True but the Statement 2 is False.

(2) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is True.
(3) Both Statement 1 & Statement 2 are True.
(4) Both Statement 1 & Statement 2 are False.

3) Read the following statement (A-D) (A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of peptidoglycan.
(B) Fungi are heterotrophic
(C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in association with algae as mycorrhiza and with roots of higher
plants as lichens
(D) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy
How many of the above statement are incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

4) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.

(2) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
(3) Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
(4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.

5) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion: The morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies form the
basis for the division of the kingdom Fungi into various classes.
Reason: The network of mycelium is known as hyphae.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

6) Study the given examples carefully :-

Saccharomyces, Penicillium, Rhizopus, Puccinia, Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Ustilago, Albugo,
Trichoderma, Agaricus, Mucor, Neurospora.
How many Genus belongs to phycomycetes ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

7) Which of the following is not a feature of phycomycetes ?

(1) Members have coenocytic, aseptate hyphae

(2) Sexual reproduction is by oospores.
(3) Members are found in aquatic habitats
(4) Members sexually resproduce by zoospores and aplanospores

8) Observe the diagram and select the correct option :-

(1) This fungi belongs to Ascomycetes

(2) Mycelium is branched and septate
(3) In this fungi, sexual spores are produced endogenously
(4) All of these

9) Consider the following statements about Ascomycetes.

I. They are saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous and parasitic.
II. Include unicellular and multicellular forms.
III. Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate.
IV. Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are important examples of Ascomycetes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are false?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) I and III

10) Match column I and II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Mushroom (a) Exogenously origtin

(ii) Claviceps (b) Basidiocarps

(iii) Conidia (c) Sac fungi

(iv) Yeast (d) Unicellular, Non-mycelial

(1) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a

11) Consider the following statements:-

(a) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites. (b) The
mycelium is branched and septate and the asexual spores are generally not found but vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common. (c) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. Above statements
are related to the member of which class :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

12)
Identify the organism and feature associated with it :-

(1) Morchella - Edible fungus

(2) Agaricus - Edible fungus
(3) Rhizopus - Bread mould
(4) Alternaria - Pathogenic fungus

13) Members of basidiomycetes :-

(1) Have sex organs but lack sexual reproduction

(2) Generally do not produce asexual spores
(3) Are puffballs, morels and bracket fungi
(4) Do not produce fruiting bodies

14) Assertion : Member of basidiomycetes and Phycomycetes forms dikaryon.

Reason : In these fungi, fusion of two haploid nuclei takes place immediately.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

15) Statement I : Sexual spores are generally not found in members of Basidiomycetes but
vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common
Statement II : Members of deuteromycetes reproduce by asexual spore known as conidia.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect
(4) Statement I and statement II both are correct

16) Assertion :- Deuteromycetes are commonly known as imperfect fungi.

Reason :- Only asexual or vegetative phases are known of deuteromycetes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the
incorrect option only.
(A) M.W. Beijernik demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco could cause
infection.
(B) W.M. stanley showed that viruses could be crystallised.
(C) Lichen are the symbiotic relationship between the root of higher plants and fungi
(D) The RNA of the viroid is of high molecular weight.

(1) Only C and D

(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) A, B, C and D

18) Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has

(1) Abnormally folded nucleic acid

(2) Similar in size to viruses
(3) Free RNA without protein coat
(4) Free DNA without protein coat

19)
Identify a, b, c in these figures :-

(1) a-RNA, b-Capsid, c-Tail fibres

(2) a-RNA, b-Capsid, c-Head
(3) a-DNA, b-Capsid, c- Tail fibres
(4) a-DNA, b-Collar, c-Capsid

20) Only nucleic acid containing and non-proteinaceous smallest infectious agent cause :

(1) Mad cow disease

(2) CJD
(3) Potato Spindle Tuber Disease
(4) Flu

21) Viruses did not find a place in five kingdom classification because :-

(1) They are obligate parasites.

(2) Virases are unicellular organisms.
(3) They can pass through virus proof filters.
(4) They are not truly living because they do not have a cell structure.

22) The given statements describe a group of organism

(A) Symbiotic association of autotrophs and Heterotrophs
(B) It act as very good pollution indicators especially [SO2]
(C) They are not included in the five kingdom classification

(1) Lichen
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Algae
(4) Fungus

23) Assertion (A) : In lichens, mycobiont and phycobiont are symbiotically associated with each
other.
Reason (R) : Mycobiont provides food and phycobiont provides anchorage and absorption of water
and minerals.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

24) Match Column - I with Column - II.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots

(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials

(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living plants or animals

(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Read the following statements.

(A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(B) Viroids have low molecular weight DNA.
(C) Virus are inert outside their specific host cell.
(D) Mumps, small pox and influenza diseases are caused by bacteria.
Which statements are correct.

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

26) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Desmids (i) Golden algae

(b) Dinoflagellates (ii) Pellicle

(c) Euglenoids (iii) Two flagella

(d) Slime mould (iv) Plasmodium

(1) a - (i), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (iv)
(2) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
(3) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(4) a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iii)

27) Statement-I :- All single celled eukaryotes are placed under protista, and the boundaries of this
kingdom are well defined.
Statement-II :- Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a process involving cell fusion and
zygote formation.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
28) Which of the following is true for the diagram given below ?

(1) It has two equal flagella

(2) It has two flagella one is transverse and another is longitudinal.
(3) Some members of this group cause red sea.
(4) This is a group of unicellular eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

29) Which of the following statements are not true about chrysophytes ?
(a) They are found mostly in marine enviroments
(b) They are microscopic and float actively in water current.
(c) They are mostly saprophytic
(d) This group includes diatoms and desmides

(1) a, c & d
(2) a, b & c
(3) b, c & d
(4) Only c & d

30)

Characteristic feature of euglenoids are

A. Presence of cell wall
B. Presence of two flagella
C. Photosynthetic in presence of sunlight
D. Presence of pellicle which makes their body flexible.

(1) A, D only
(2) B, D only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) All

31) Identify "A" diagram and select the right option giving some of the features correctly ?

I II III
1 A = Englena Saprophytic only Pellicle makes the body flexible
2 A = Euglena Autotroph and heterotroph Pigments are identical to higher plants
they have a gullet that opens to the outside
3 A = Euglena Heterotroph only
of the cell surface
4 A = Euglena Heterotroph only They have one long flagellum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Statement-I :- Euglenoids are fresh water organisans, found in stagnant water.
Statement-II :- Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation called plasmodium.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

33)

In slime moulds,
(a) The main body is wall less
(b) True wall is found around spores
(c) Spores are dispersed by water
(d) Nutrition is photosynthetic

(1) Statements a, b are correct

(2) Statements a, c are correct
(3) Statements b, d are correct
(4) Statements a, d are correct

34) Which of the following is correct about the slime mould?

I. During unfavourable conditions plasmodium differentiated and produces fruiting bodies.
II. Spores possess no true cell wall
III. They are saprophytic protistan
IV. Being extremely resistant, spores survive for many years
V. Plasmodium can grow upto several feet

(1) I, III, IV, V only

(2) I, II, III only
(3) I, II, V only
(4) I, III, IV only

35) A "Y" (example "X") reproduces in such a great numbers that the water may appear red,
producing a red tides and kills large marine animals like "Z".
Identify "X", "Y" and "Z".

(1) X- Gonyaulax ; Y- Dinoflagellates; Z- Fishes

(2) X- Paramecium ; Y- Protozoa ; Z-Crocodiles
(3) X- Trypanosoma ; Y- Protozoa ; Z- Frogs
(4) X- Plasmodium ; Y- Euglenoids ; Z- Oysters

36) How many of the followings are photosynthetic. Dinoflagellates, Diatoms, Euglenoids, Slime
mould, Protozoa :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

37) Read the following pair :-

(A) Desmid-Destructible walls
(B) Dinoflagellates-Red tide
(C) Slime mould -decomposer nature
(D) Euglenoids-some time behave like predator
(E) Protozoa-Unicellular prokaryotes
Choose the correct pair :-

(1) Only A, B, C, D
(2) Only B, C, D, E
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, C, D, E

38) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Diatoms are the chief 'producers' in the oceans

(2) Unicellular eukaryotes are placed under protista
(3) Rhizopus is commonly called bread mould
(4) Yeast is a multicellular fungus

39) Which option is not correct about members of kingdom protista ?

(1) They have cilia or flagella

(2) They secrete toxin in water
(3) They show nitrogen fixation
(4) They have well defined nucleus and other membrane-bounded cell organelles

40) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Protists reproduce asexually and sexually and may have flagella or cilia.
(B) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(C) The cell wall of dinoflagellates has stiff silicated plates on outer surface.
(D) Chrysophytes float passively with water currents
(E) The pigments of euglenoids are identical to those present in higher plants.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

41) Identify the correct match from column-I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Euglena (a) Saprophytic

(ii) Diatom (b) Diatomaceous earth

(iii) Slime mould (c) Red tide

(iv) Dinoflagellates (d) Gonyaulax

(e) Pellicle

(f) Chief Producer of oceans

(1) (i)-e, (ii)-b,f (iii)-c, (iv)-a,d
(2) (i)-e, (ii)-b,f (iii)-a, (iv)-c,d
(3) (i)-e, (ii)-b,c,f (iii)-a, (iv)-d
(4) (i)-e, (ii)-b,c,f (iii)-d, (iv)-a

42) How many of the following are usually observed in dinoflagellates and euglenoids both ?
Nucleus, Cell wall, Cell membrane, Two Flagella, Cilia, Photosynthesis, Red tide, Pellicle

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

43) Identify the correctly matched pairs and select the correct option from options given below :
(A) Diatomaceous earth : Dinoflagellates
(B) Parasites : Trypanosoma
(C) Predation and photosynthesis : Euglena
(D) Pellicle : Slime mould

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B, C and D
(3) B and C only
(4) A and B only

44) Which of the following statement is/are correct for diatoms and dinoflagellates both ?
(A) Both of them are found in water.
(B) Both of them are unicellular and have well defined nucleus.
(C) Both of them are usually photosynthetic.
(D) Cell wall in both of them are made up of two overlapping shells.

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B, C and D
(3) B and C only
(4) A and B only

45) Virus, viroids and prions are -

(1) Non cellular pathogen

(2) Not included in five kingdom system
(3) Able to cause diseases in other livings
(4) All of the above

ZOOLOGY

1) Pneumotaxic centre is present in :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Medulla oblongata

2)

Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?

(1) Nasal cavity → pharynx → trachea → larynx → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli

(2) Nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
(3) Nasal cavity → larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
(4) Nasal cavity → larynx → bronchi → pharynx → trachea → bronchioles → alveoli

3)

In which of the following, gaseous exchange between O2 and CO2 occurs through the entire body
surface?

(1) Sponges
(2) Flatworms
(3) Coelenterates
(4) All of these

4)

A person suffer puncture in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs. Its
effect could be

(1) Reduced breathing rate

(2) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(3) No change in respiration
(4) Cessation (termination) of breathing

5) Intercostal muscles are found attached with

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Ribs
(3) Pleura
(4) Lungs

6)

Exchange of gases in lungs is by

(1) Simple diffusion

(2) Active transport
(3) Passive transport
(4) Osmosis

7)

A person with TV of 450 ml, VC of 4,000 ml, and RV of 1,000 ml would have a total lung capacity of

(1) 1,450 ml
(2) 4,450 ml
(3) 5,000 ml
(4) 5,450 ml.

8)

Match the following and mark the correct options

Animal Respiratory Organ
A. Earthworm i. Moist cuticle
B. Arthropods ii. Gills
C. Fishes iii. Lungs
D. Birds/Reptiles iv. Tracheal tube

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

9)

Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is

(1) Hyperbolic
(2) Sigmoid
(3) Straight line
(4) Parabolic

10)

Cartilagenous rings in respiratory passage are present in

(1) Trachea, bronchi and initial bronchioles only

(2) Trachea only
(3) Trachea and initial part of bronchi only
(4) Trachea, bronchi and all bronchioles

11)

Trachea divides at

(1) 5th thoracic vertebra into right and left secondary bronchi
(2) 7th thoracic vertebra into secondary bronchi
(3) 5th thoracic vertebra into right and left primary bronchi
(4) 7th thoracic vertebra into primary bronchi

12)

The presence of CO2 in blood will lower pH because CO2 combines with _________ to form ________
and the rate of reaction increased by ___________.

+ –
(1) H2O ; H and HCO3 ; carbonic anhydrase
–
(2) H2O ; HCO3 ; carbonic anhydrase
+
(3) H2O; H ; carbonic ions
+ –
(4) H ; HCO3 ; oxyhaemoglobin

13) Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. Chemosensitive receptors associated with aortic arch & carotid artery.
B. Pnemotoxic centre can increase the duration of inspiration.
C. Respiratory rhythm centre in pons is primarily responsible for respiratory regulation.
D. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to respiratory rhythm centre.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & D
(4) C & D
14)

A B C D

(1) Pulmonary vein PO2 95mmHg pCO2 45mmHg Pulmonary artery

(2) Pulmonary artery PO2 104mmHg pCO2 40mmHg Pulmonary vein

(3) Pulmonary vein PO2 95mmHg pCO2 45mmHg Systemic artery

(4) Systemic vein PO2 104mmHg pCO2 40mmHg Pulmonary artery

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Statement-I : The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining.
Statement-II : The inner pleural membrane is in contact with diaphragm.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

16) Which of the following represents the volume of air left in the lungs after normal expiration ?

(1) F.R.C.
(2) I.C.
(3) V.C.
(4) E.R.V.

17) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air
is released out
Statement-II :- Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions result in release of CO2
Choose the correct option from the given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

18) Assertion: There is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure
during inspiration.
Reason: Inspiration is an active process while quiet expiration is a passive process.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19) Mark the correct option with respect to respiratory disorders.

(1) Asthma — Wheezing sound

(2) Occupational respiratory disorders — should wear protective masks
(3) Emphysema — Inflammation of bronchi & bronchioles
(4) Both (1) and (2)

20) Analyse the given diagram and choose the correct option when this shift occurs.

(1) pO2↓, pH↓

(2) pCO2⭡, pH↓
(3) pO2↓, temperature↓
(4) pO2⭡, temperature↓

21) The diffusion membrane not consist of –

(1) Single layer endothelial cells

(2) Basement membrane
(3) Smooth muscle layer
(4) Squamous cell layer of alveoli

22) During Expiration –

I. Diaphragm moves upwards (original position)
II. EICM contracts
III. Sternum moves upwards
IV. Thoracic volume decreases

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) I and IV

23) Choose the incorrect match –

(1) Alveoli – Vascularised bag like structure

(2) Terminal bronchioles – supported by incomplete cartilaginous ring
(3) Pleural fluid – Reduces friction on the lung surface
(4) Epiglottis - Prevent entry of food into the larynx

24) Match the following column and select the correct option:-

Column I Column II

(a) CO2 transported by RBC (i) 7%

(b) O2 transported in dissolved state (ii) 25%

(c) CO2 transported in dissolved state (iii) 97%

(d) O2 transported by haemoglobin (iv) 3%

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

25) Lungs are comprised of -

(1) Branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli

(2) Trachea and pharynx
(3) Bronchi and Trachea
(4) Trachea, pharynx and larynx

26) By every 200 ml of deoxygenated blood; how much CO2 is delivered to alveoli?

(1) 8 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 12 ml

27) Human has the ability to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration with the help of
additional muscle in :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Vertebrae
(3) Sternum
(4) Abdomen

28) Chemosensitive areas are stimulated when :-

(1) CO2 concentration increases in venous blood

(2) H+ concentration increases in arterial blood
(3) O2 concentration increases in arterial blood
(4) CO2 concentration decreases in arterial blood

29) Statement-I :- The lungs are situated in thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air tight
chamber.
Statement-II :- We can directly alter the pulmonary volume.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct

30) The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a ___'A'___.
Identify 'A'-

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Spirometer
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) Expiratory reserve volume.

31) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A): Increased frequency of neural signals from pneumotaxic centre increase the
respiratory rate.
Reason (R): Increased frequency of neural signal from this centre can reduce the duration of
inspiration.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

32) Given below is the diagrammatic representation, explaining mechanism of breathing.

 Choose the correct option w.r.t. given diagram.

Diaphragm becomes dome shaped due to contraction of its muscles and decreases the volume of
(1)
thoracic cavity
(2) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases due to contraction of external intercostal muscles
(3) Diaphragm is relaxed and arched upwards which decreases the volume of thoracic cavity
(4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles shifts the ribs inwards and downwards

33) Assertion :- We have a pair of external nostrils opening just above the upper lips.
Reason :- External nostrils lead to a nasal chamber through the nasal passage.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

34) Assertion : On an average, a healthy human breathes 12-16 times per second.
Reason : Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

35) Observe the diagrame and choose the correct answer about given sites A,B, C, D.

A B C D

1. Epiglottis Alveoli Diaphragm Trachea

2. Epiglottis Alveoli Trachea Diaphragm

3. Alveoli Epiglottis Trachea Diaphragm

 4. Diaphragm Alveoli Trachea Epiglottis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Study the spirograph and identify the correctly matched volumes and capacities from the codes
given :-

TV IRV ERV RV VITAL

CAPACITY
(1) A C B D E
(2) A B C D E
(3) B A C D E
(4) C B A D E

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin takes place due to :-

(1) Low PO2 and High PCO2

(2) Low PO2 and Low PCO2
(3) High PO2 and High CO2
(4) High PO2 and Low PCO2

38) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Myoglobin present in the muscle has more affinity for O2 compared to that of haemoglobin.
Expiration takes place when the intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric
(2)
pressure
(3) Inspiration can occur if the pressure within the lungs is more than the atmospheric pressure
(4) Oxygen myoglobin dissociation curve is hyperbolic

39) Additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration is called :-

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) Functional residual capacity

40) A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking Identify the disorder :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Bronchitis
(3) Silicosis
(4) Emphysema

41) Sound producing structure in human?

(1) Syrinx
(2) Larynx
(3) Vocal sac
(4) Both (1) & (2)

42) Proliferation of fibrous tissues in lungs of coal mine workers is characteristic featreu of -

(1) Asthma
(2) Pleurisy
(3) Emphysema
(4) Occupational respiratory disorders

43) Statement-I : Role of O2 in regulation of respiration is quite significant.

Statement-II : About 2.8 ml CO2 is transported in the form of bicarbonates per 100 ml blood.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

44) In a fast running person, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to :

(1) Left
(2) Right
(3) Hyperbolic
(4) Parabolic

45) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the ________

(1) End of phyrynx

(2) Middle of larynx
(3) Posterior of the thoracic cavity
(4) Anterior of the thoracic cavity
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 4 1 3 1 1 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 2 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 4 4 4 3 4 4 1 4 4 3 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 2 3 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 3 1 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 4 4 2 1 3 2 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 1 1 2 4 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

∵u= , 50 =
∴ uy = 40 m/s

∵T= = 8 sec

2)

ax = 0
vx = constant

3)

4)

∵ R = βH ∴

∴ ∴

5) T = ⇒ 2=
Uy = 20 m/s
at t = 1 vy = 10 m/s
vx = 10 m/s

v=

6) Time of fall of Q = time of flight of P

Put u = 10 m/s, θ = 60°, g = 10 m/s2

⇒ h = 15 m

7)
Since particle may have some relative velocity but relative acceleration is zero. Thus path is
straight line.

8) Given equation

Equation trajectory
By comparition

(1) ⇒
(2) R =

(3) ⇒

(4) Hmax = ⇒ ⇒ u = 10 m/s

9)
∴

10)

θ = sin–1

= sin–1

= sin–1
so (90°+30°) = 120° from downstream

11)

angle ⇒
12)

∴ VA > VB

13)

sinθ =

θ = sin–1 with PQ up the stream

14) Case I : For shortest distance

If VR = VS cos θ then time taken to cross with shortest distance is

Case II : For shortest time

Now

15)

16) 1. Question Explain:

A man moves horizontally at 12 km/h while rain falls vertically at 5 km/h. Find the relative
speed of the rain as perceived by the man.
2. Concept Based:
The relative velocity of the rain with respect to the man is the vector subtraction of the rain's
 vertical velocity and the man's horizontal velocity. Use Pythagoras' theorem to compute the
resultant velocity.

3. Formula Used :

from the Δ low of vectors :

4. Calculation (in brief):

A. Given: Vrain = 5 km/h, vman = 12 km/h.

B. Relative speed:

vrelative =
Final Answer: Option 3 (13 km/h) is correct

17)

According to question
VR sin 30 – 10 = 0
VR = 20 m/sec

= VR cos 30° =

18)

⇒
=
= km/h

19) , θ = 60°

20) Given velocity of man, vm = 2 kmh–1 and velocity of rain with respect to man
 vrm = 2 km/h

Thus, direction of rainfall with the vertical is 45° Actual velocity of rain

21)

22) Let the velocity of rain w.r.t. the ground is u.

Recall : vr/m is resultant of vr/g and vm/g (in opposite direction).

u sin θ – 6 = 0
u sin θ = 6 (i)
Now the man doubles his speed and vr/m makes 37° with vertical, it may be

Recall : Resultant is towards larger vector.

tan 53° =

= =
u cos θ = 8 (ii)

u= = = 10 km/h

tan θ = ⇒ θ = 37°
vr/g = 10 km/h at an angle 37° with vertical direction

23)

24)

Velocity of wind with respect to tractor.

=
This is in south - east direction.

25) Explain question: Need to calculate range of a projectile.

Concept: This question is based on projectile motion.

Solution:

vx = a ; vy = (b – ct)
∵ At maximum height
vy = 0
b – ct = 0
So, time of Flight T =
Range R = (vx)(T)

Final Answer: Option 1 is correct.

26)

For both particles time of flight (T) =

27)
,

So, resultant velocity

m/s
So, flag will flutter in south direciton.

28)

Time taken

h = 39.2 – 19.6 = 19.6 m

∵ Horizontal range
R = (ux) (T)
20 = (ux) (2)
ux = 10 m/s

29)

10 m west

30)
31) Average velocity = |Displacement| Distance.

32)
let velocity of bus =
if wind is not blowing flag will be fluttering along .
Now
then flag will be fluttering along resultant of

33)

x = 3t2 – 6t y = t2 – 2t

vx = = 6t – 6 vy = = 2t – 2
at t = 1 sec → vx = 0 and vy = 0

hence

34)

with respect to man

35) To catch (vy)A = (vy)B

vsin37° = 30

Time taken

36)
∵ x = at3, y = bt3

∴ ,∴y=

37)

38)

According to question.

39)

40)

The velocities towards east from both the ships should be same.
VA = VB cos θ

41)
 a2 =

∴t=

∴t=

42)

→ In moving horizontal distance 5m, the ball will fall by distance gt2.
→ Time taken by particle to move 5m is,

→ Distance travelled by particle from C to D is,

43)

∴ ∠α=90°

44) In the absence of air resistance, the projectile moves with constant horizontal velocity
because acceleration due to gravity is totally vertical.

45) From Ist equation of motion

We have
Therefore

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation: Given at. no. 10, 18, 35, 54 and 86 fall in which of the options.
Concept : Apply magic no. to arrive at the given atomic no's.
Solution :
 Thus we can conclude that the given atomic no's 10, 18, 36, 54, 86 belongs to inert gas group.
Final Answer : option (2).

47)

NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg. # 72

48) Question Explanation:- The atomic number 34 corresponds to the element Selenium
(Se).
Concept:- Electronic configuration

Se = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s² 4p⁴

Final Answer: Option (2). 4th period, 16th group, p block.

49)

Explanation:
The question presents two lists: List-I contains chemical formulas of oxides, and List-II
contains descriptions of the oxides' properties (amphoteric, basic, neutral, acidic). You are
asked to match each oxide in List-I with its correct property from List-II.

Concept: (Chemical formula of oxides & properties of oxides)

A. Cl2O7 is a non-metal oxide, thus acidic (IV).

B. Na2O is an alkali metal oxide, thus basic (II).
C. Al2O3 is amphoteric, reacting with both acids and bases (I).
D. N2O is a neutral oxide (III).

Therefore, A-(IV), B-(II), C-(I), D-(III).

Final Answer : Option (2)

50)

(1) Correct order → Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2– (Ionisation energy)
For isoelectronic species (I.E. ∝ Zeff)
(2) Correct order → C < N < F < O (2nd I.E.)
Second electron removal from oxygen requires more energy as it acquires stable 2s22p3
configuration after removal of one electron.
(3) Correct order → B > Tl > In > Ga > Al (Electronegativity)
In general EN increases in boron family from top to bottom due to increase in Zeff on valence
shell while boron has highest E.N. due to its vary small size.
(4) Correct → Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ (Ionic radius)
Ionic radius depends on Zeff and number of shells.

51)

Zeff increase, E.N. increase

N, O, F, Cl, Br, I
0.3 3.5 4.0 3.0 2.8 2.5
Generally going down the group E.N. decreases.

52)

Be N F
2 2 2 2 3
1s 2s 2p5
2 2
1s , 2s 1s 2s 2p
E.A. order ; Be < N < F

53) N(g) + e¯ → N¯ (g) ΔegH → positive value (energy absorbed)

P(g) + e¯ → P¯ (g) ΔegH → negative value (energy released)

54) F > Cl > Cl– > F

(ionisation energy)
Cl > Cl–

55) Li > B > C > Be, i.e. option (2) is correct.

56) IUPAC name of element: 119 ununennium

57) IE2 of Na is higher than that of Mg because in case of Na, the second electron has to be
removed from the noble gas core while in case of Mg, removal of second electron gives a noble
gas core.

58)

In a period, on moving from left to right along the same period, acidic nature of oxides
increases.
 Hence, Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10

59)

Fact based

60) Nitrogen has stable 2p3 configuration and also due to high e– charge density at outermost
orbital it requires energy to add one extra e– in its outer most shell i.e., its first electron gain
enthalpy is positive.

61)

Atomic number E.C. Block

(A) 24 [Ar]4s1 3d5 d-4

(B) 38 [Kr]5s2 s-3

(C) 49 [Kr]4d10 5s2 5p1 p - 1

(D) 59 [Xe]4f3 6s2 f–2

A B C D
4 3 1 2

62)

metalloid

63)

The order of increasing atomic radii is Ca > Mg > P > Cl.

As we go down the group, size increases & on moving left to right in a period, size decreases.

64)

At number – 114 iupac name – Flerovium

Z = 104 to 118 (period number = 7)

Group number = last 2 digit in atomic number of element.

Z = 114 IV–A group

65)

(A) [Xe]4f145d106s2, last e– goes to 5d subshell so it is a d-block element and 5d subshell is

fulfilled so it is not considered as transition element (A→R)
(B) [Rn]5f146d17s2, last e– goes to 5f subshell so it is f-block or inner-transition element (B→T)
(C) [Xe]4f145d106s26p67s2, last e– goes to 7s subshell so it is a s-block or representative element
(C→P, S)
(D) [Xe]4f145d26s2, last e– goes to 5d subshell so it is a d-block element and 5d subshell is
partially field so it is also considered as transition element (D→Q, R)

66) value of electron affinity increases on going from left to right in

periods but the value of electron affinity of Vth a elements is less than that of IVth a element,
this is due to half filled p-orbitals presence.

67) Flourine although have highest electronegativity due to its very small size, effective inter
electronic repulsions are observed which brings down its electron affinity.

68)

Z = 80 (Hg)
Z = 35 (Br)

69)

[Xe]4f145d16s2
Atomic number = 71 Periodic number = 6th Group number = 3rd

70)

O + e– → O– → Exothermic in nature.

71)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many of the given oxides are acidic oxides. You
need to identify each oxide as acidic, basic, or neutral and then count how many are acidic.

Underlying Concept: Oxides can be classified based on their chemical nature as acidic, basic,
or neutral oxides. Acidic oxides are usually formed by non-metals and react with water to form
acids. Basic oxides are typically formed by metals and react with acids to form salts. Neutral
oxides do not show acidic or basic behavior.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Classify each oxide: 1. MnO - metal oxide (basic) 2. COâ‚‚ - non-
metal oxide (acidic) 3. NOâ‚‚ - non-metal oxide (acidic) 4. Nâ‚‚Oâ‚… - non-metal oxide (acidic)
5. CO - neutral oxide 6. Nâ‚‚O - neutral oxide Count of acidic oxides = 3 (COâ‚‚, NOâ‚‚,
Nâ‚‚Oâ‚…).

Tips and Tricks: Remember: non-metal oxides are generally acidic, metal oxides are
generally basic, and some oxides (like CO and Nâ‚‚O) are neutral.

Common Mistakes: Misclassifying neutral oxides as acidic or basic; forgetting to identify the
element type (metal vs non-metal).
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that classify neutral oxides like CO or Nâ‚‚O as
acidic are incorrect because these oxides do not exhibit acidic behavior.

72)

For isoelectronic species

Size ∝

73) Number of elements present in fifth period is 18.

74)

Explanation

A. Hypervalent species are molecules where the central atom has more than 8 electrons in
its valence shell. This often occurs in elements from the third period and beyond due to
the availability of d-orbitals for bonding.

Concept

A. ClF₃: Chlorine (Cl) is in the third period. In ClF₃, Cl forms 3 bonds and has 2 lone pairs,
resulting in 3 + 2 = 5 electron pairs or 10 electrons around Cl.

B. PCl₅: Phosphorus (P) is in the third period. In PCl₅, P forms 5 bonds, resulting in 5
electron pairs or 10 electrons around P.

C. IF₃: Iodine (I) is in the fifth period. In IF₃, I forms 3 bonds and has 2 lone pairs, resulting
in 3 + 2 = 5 electron pairs or 10 electrons around I.

In all three molecules, the central atom has more than 8 valence electrons.
Answer option 4, (All the three).

75)

Explanation

A. An expanded octet occurs when a central atom in a molecule has more than eight
electrons in its valence shell. This is possible for elements in the third period and beyond
because they have vacant d-orbitals available for bonding.

Concept
 A. PCl₅: Phosphorus (P) is in the third period. In PCl₅, phosphorus forms 5 covalent bonds
with 5 chlorine atoms. This means phosphorus has 5 (its own valence electrons) + 5
(electrons shared from Cl) = 10 electrons in its valence shell. Thus, PCl₅ has an
expanded octet.

B. SF₆: Sulfur (S) is in the third period. In SF₆, sulfur forms 6 covalent bonds with 6 fluorine
atoms. This means sulfur has 6 (its own valence electrons) + 6 (electrons shared from F)
= 12 electrons in its valence shell. Thus, SF₆ has an expanded octet.

C. H₂O: Oxygen (O) is in the second period and does not have d-orbitals available for
bonding. In H₂O, oxygen forms 2 covalent bonds with 2 hydrogen atoms and has 2 lone
pairs. This means oxygen has 2 (its own valence electrons) + 2 (electrons shared from H)
+ 4 (from lone pairs) = 8 electrons in its valence shell, following the octet rule.

Answer option 4,(1 and 2 both).

76)

BCl3 has total 6e– with B.

77) Explanation -
The question asks which of the given compounds (PCl5, SF6, BF3, ClF3) are hypervalent,
meaning they have more than an octet of electrons.

Concept - (Octet Rule)

Hypervalent compounds exceed the octet rule, having more than eight electrons around the
central atom. PCl5, SF6, and ClF3 all exhibit this characteristic. BF3, conversely, is hypovalent,
possessing fewer than eight electrons. Therefore, the hypervalent compounds are (i) PCl5, (ii)
SF6, and (iv) ClF3.
Final Answer : (3)

78)

79)

O = C = O coordinate bond absent

80)

N ≡ N ⇒ 6 e– envolved in shoring.

81)
 Explanation

A. Octet Rule: Atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons to achieve a stable electron
configuration with eight valence electrons.

B. Hypervalent: Central atom has more than eight valence electrons.

C. Hypo-valent: Central atom has less than eight valence electrons.

Concept

A. We need to find the species where the central atom has exactly eight valence electrons.

A. ClO₄⁻: Cl has 7 valence electrons. In ClO₄⁻, Cl forms 4 bonds (often depicted as double
bonds for formal charge minimization), giving it effectively more than 8 electrons.
(Hypervalent)

B. BCl₃: B has 3 valence electrons. In BCl₃, B forms 3 bonds, giving it only 6 valence
electrons. (Hypovalent)

C. SO₄²⁻: S has 6 valence electrons. In SO₄²⁻, S forms 4 bonds (often depicted as double
bonds for formal charge minimization), giving it effectively more than 8 electrons.
(Hypervalent)

D. CO₃²⁻: C has 4 valence electrons. In CO₃²⁻, C forms 4 bonds (one double, two single),
giving it exactly 8 valence electrons.

Answer option 4,(CO₃²⁻).

82)

Explanation

A. Octet rule states atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons to achieve eight valence
electrons. Exceptions involve incomplete octets, odd electron molecules, and expanded
octets.

Concept

A. BH₃: Boron has only 3 valence electrons, forming 3 bonds (6 electrons). Incomplete
octet.
 B. LiCl: Lithium loses 1 electron (0 valence), Chlorine gains 1 (8 valence). Ionic compound,
Li⁺ has a duet (stable for small atoms).

C. NO₂: Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons. In NO₂, it has one unpaired electron (odd number
of electrons).

D. SnCl₄: Tin has 4 valence electrons, forming 4 bonds (8 electrons). Tin can accommodate
more than 8 electrons, but in SnCl₄ it has a complete octet.

Answer option 4, (SnCl₄).

83)

Explanation

A. Lewis Acid: An electron pair acceptor. It has an empty orbital that can accommodate a
pair of electrons.

B. Lewis Base: An electron pair donor. It has a lone pair of electrons that it can donate.

Concept

A. When a Lewis acid and a Lewis base react, the base donates its lone pair to the empty
orbital of the acid, forming a coordinate covalent bond. In this bond, both electrons of
the shared pair are provided by one atom (the Lewis base).

Answer option 3, (Coordinate).

84)

Explanation

A. Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons.

Concept

A. Option 1:

A. BO₃³⁻: 5 + (3 × 8) + 3 = 32 electrons

B. CO₃²⁻: 6 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 32 electrons
 C. NO₃⁻: 7 + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32 electrons

B. Option 2:

A. SO₃²⁻: 16 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 42 electrons

B. CO₃²⁻: 6 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 32 electrons

C. NO₃⁻: 7 + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32 electrons

C. Option 3:

A. CN⁻: 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 electrons

B. N₂: 7 + 7 = 14 electrons

C. C₂²⁻: 6 + 6 + 2 = 14 electrons

D. Option 4:

A. PO₄³⁻: 15 + (4 × 8) + 3 = 50 electrons

B. SO₄²⁻: 16 + (4 × 8) + 2 = 50 electrons

C. ClO₄⁻: 17 + (4 × 8) + 1 = 50 electrons

E. Option 2 contains species with different numbers of electrons.

Answer option 2, (SO₃²⁻, CO₃²⁻, NO₃⁻).

85)

Total number of nonbonding electron = 12

86)

Stability ∝ LE.
 87)

Ionic nature ∝ ΔEN

88)

(H, He) = duplet

89) zero overlap

90)

Basic nature of oxides decreases across a period (left to right) and increases down a group in
the periodic table.

BOTANY

91)

Question Explanation :
This question is asking about which is the correct among the given statements.

Concept :
This question is based on
Select the correct matching:
A. Fungi depend on dead substrate are called saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals are called parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae called lichens
D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant called mycorrhiza

Solution :
A. Fungi depend on dead substrate are called saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals are called parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae called lichens
D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant called mycorrhazia
All the given statement are correct.
So, the correct answer is 4. All of these

Final Answer :
Option (4)

92) NCERT Page No. 22

93) Explanation :
Choose correct statements.

Concept :
Kingdom fungi

Solution :
A - Cell wall made up of chitin - Correct
B - Correct - They cannot photosynthasis obtains hutrition by absurtion
C - Correct
Fungi + Algae - Lichens
Fungi + Roots - Mycorrtiza

Final Answer :
Option (2)

94)

Solution/Explanation :
Plasmogamy refers to the fusion of the cytoplasms of two gametes, which can be either
motile (e.g. flagellated) or non-motile. This occurs is mary sexual reproduction processes in
fungi.

95) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 23

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 23 & 24

Rhizopus, Albugo, Mucor

97) NCERT XI Pg. # 23

98) NCERT XI, Page # 23, Fig. 2.5(b)

99)

In Ascomycetes, the mycelium is septate and branched, not coenocytic (which is typical of
lower fungi like Zygomycetes).

The correct answer is : OPTION (3) Only III

100)

NCERT Pg. # 24
101)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 18

102) Explain Question: match the organism with its correct feature or description.
Concept: This question is based on basidiomycetes
Explanation: Agaricus - Includes common edible mushrooms. Edible fungus
Final answer: Agaricus - Edible fungus

103)

NCERT Pg # 24

104) NCERT Page No. # 23

105) NCERT XI Pg 24

106) NCERT-XI Pg. # 24

107) NCERT XIth Pg.#26-27

108)

Mad cow disease, also known as bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), is caused by
abnormally folded proteins called prions.

The correct answer is : OPTION (2) Similar in size to viruses.

109) NCERT XI, Page # 26

110)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which infectious agents, specifically those that
contain nucleic acids but are not composed of proteins, cause certain diseases listed: Mad cow
disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD), Potato Spindle Tuber Disease, and the Flu.

Underlying Concept: Infectious agents can be classified based on their composition. Some
agents contain nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) and proteins, such as viruses and bacteria, while
others like prions are composed solely of abnormal proteins without nucleic acids. Viroids are
infectious agents made up solely of small circular RNA molecules without coding for proteins.
The question focuses on agents that contain nucleic acid but are non-proteinaceous and are
the smallest infectious units causing disease. Viroids fit this description and are known to
cause plant diseases such as Potato Spindle Tuber Disease.
Tips and Tricks: Remember that prions are proteinaceous and cause diseases like Mad Cow
and CJD, viruses contain both nucleic acid and protein, and viroids contain nucleic acid only
and cause plant diseases.

Common Mistakes: Confusing prions (protein only) with viroids (RNA only). Misattributing
diseases like Mad Cow and CJD to nucleic acid-only agents instead of prions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Mad Cow disease and CJD are caused by prions, which
lack nucleic acids. Flu is caused by a virus that contains both protein and nucleic acid.
Therefore, they don't fit the criteria of being nucleic acid containing but non-proteinaceous
smallest infectious agents. Only Potato Spindle Tuber Disease is caused by viroids, which are
RNA molecules without protein.

111) NCERT Pg. # 25, 26

112)

NCERT Pg # 27

113) NCERT Pg# 27

114)

Solution/Explanation :
(a) Saprophyte → (ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials
(b) Parasite → (iii) Living on living plants or animals
(c) Lichens → (iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
(d) Mycorrhiza → (i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots

115) XI NCERT Page No. 26, 27

116) NCERT Pg. # 20 & 21 [2.2]

117)

NCERT XI Pg no. 14

118) NCERT Pg # 14

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

120)
 NCERT Pg. No. 21 - 2.2.3

121) NCERT XI Pg.# 21 Fig. 2.4 (a)

122)

NCERT XI Pg no. 15

123)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which statements about slime moulds are correct. It
provides four statements about their structure, spore characteristics, spore dispersal method,
and nutrition, and asks to identify the correct pair(s).

Underlying Concept: Slime moulds are a group of organisms classified under protists that
have a unique life cycle. Their main body, called plasmodium, lacks a cell wall, while the
spores they produce are protected by a true cell wall. They are heterotrophic organisms and
do not perform photosynthesis. Spore dispersal mechanisms can vary but are typically not by
water.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: 'Slime moulds = wall-less plasmodium + walled spores' and
'They are heterotrophic, not photosynthetic.'

Common Mistakes: Confusing slime moulds with fungi by assuming their main body has a
cell wall; thinking slime moulds are photosynthetic; assuming spore dispersal happens mainly
by water.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options stating spores are dispersed by water or that
nutrition is photosynthetic are incorrect because slime moulds are heterotrophs and their
spores are typically dispersed by air or other means. The main body does not have a cell wall,
so any statement contradicting this is wrong.

124)

A.

125) Explain:
It asks you to identify the correct organisms provided in red tide phenomenona.

Concept:
Dino flagellates Red tide.

Solution:
X - Gonyaulax is a genus of dinoflagellates.
Y - Dinoflagellates are primary cause of red tides.
Z- Red tide harmful for marine life particularly fishes.

Correct option: (1)

126)

NCERT XI Pg # 20, 21

127)

Explain Question : You're given five statements (A–E) describing features of different protists
or protist-like organisms. Your task is to choose the correct set of pairs.

Concept : This question is based on Kingdom Protista

Solution :
(B) Dinoflagellates - Red tide:
Dinoflagellates are known to cause red tides, which are harmful algal blooms.

(C) Slime mould - decomposer nature:

Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms that play a role in decomposition.

(D) Euglenoids - sometime behave like predator:

Euglenoids are mixotrophic, meaning they can perform photosynthesis but also ingest food,
thus behaving like predators at time.

Final Answer : option (3)

128)

Yeast is a multicellular fungus:

Yeast are fungi, but they are unicellular, not multicellular.

The correct answer is : OPTION (4) Yeast is a multicellular fungus

129)

Some protists may secrete toxins, nitrogen fixation is not a general characteristic of the
group.

The correct answer is : OPTION (3) They show nitrogen fixation

130)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 20,21, Para-2.2, 2.2.1,2.3.4

Four (A, B, D, E)

131)
 NCERT Page No. # 20,21

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21

(Nucleus, Cell membrane, Two flagella, Photosynthesis)

133) NCERT, Pg. # 20, 21, 22

134) NCERT Pg.# 20 & 21

135) NCERT XI Page No. # 25, 26

ZOOLOGY

136)

Explain Question : To identify the location of pneumotaxic center

Concept : This question is based on regulation of respiration

Explanation : The pneumotaxic centre is located in the pons region of the brain.

Final answer : 3

137) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 184

138) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 183

139) Cessation (termination) of breathing

140) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 185

141) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 184

142)

Total lung capacity = VC + RV

NCERT- XI, Page No.- 183

143) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 183

144) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 189

145) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 184

146) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 184

147) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 190

148) NCERT Pg No : 190

149) A → Pulmonary vein, B → PO2 95mmHg, C → pCO2 45mmHg, D → Pulmonary artery.

150) Statement-I : The outer pleural membrane (Parietal pleura) in contact with thoracic
lining.
Statement-II : The inner pleural membrane is in contact with Lungs.

151) NCERT Pg. # 187

152) NCERT Pg.# 185

153)

NCERT-XI, Page # 185

Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

154) NCERT-XI, Page # 190,191

Emphysema is characterised by damaged alveolar walls due to which respiratory surface is
reduced.

155) NCERT-XI, Page # 189

The shift depicts left shift which indicates increase in affinity between oxygen and
haemoglobin in alveoli.
pO2⭡, pCO2↓, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature are responsible for this shift.

156) NCERT XI Page # 188

157) NCERT XI Page # 186

158) NCERT XI Page # 184

159) NCERT XI Page # 189

160) NCERT Pg No : 184

161) NCERT, Pg-190

162) NCERT (XI) Pg # 271

163) NCERT (XI) (H) Pg. # 276

164) NCERT Pg. # 185

165) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 186

166) NCERT, Pg # 190

167) NCERT Page 271

168) NCERT page No. 269, 1st paragraph

169) NCERT-XI, Pg # 271/ 272 (E), 272 / 273 (H)

170) A = Epiglottis, B = Alveoli, C = Diaphragm, D = Trachea.

171) NCERT(XIth) Pg # 271

172) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 274

173) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 270

174) NCERT Pg # 271

175) NCERT Pg # 275

176) Syrinx - Sound producing structure in birds.

Vocal sac - Sound producing structure in frog.

177) Occupational respiratory disorders show fibrosis of upper part of lungs.

178) 2.8 ml is 70% (bicarbonate) of 4 ml CO2.

179) In case of O2 demand, curve shifted towards right.

180) Explanation : Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the anterior part of the thoracic
cavity.