SUNDAY TEST - 2

DATE - 21 DEC 2025

r, are placed as shown in the figure (centers at vertices of

PHYSICS an equilateral triangle of side R). Consider an axis XX'
which is touching two shells and passing through the
diameter of the third shell. Moment of inertia of the system
1.​ The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by
consisting of these three spherical shells about XX' axis is:​
T = 2π √(L/g). Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1
(1) 3mr² + 2mR²​
mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum
(2) 11/5 mr² + 3mR²​
is found to be 90 s using a wrist watch of 1 s resolution.
(3) 4mr²​
The accuracy in the determination of g is:​
(4) 16/5 mr² + 4mR²
(1) 2%​
7.​ Which of the following statements is true regarding the
(2) 3%​
gravitational force?​
(3) 1%​
(1) Gravitational force is affected by the presence of other
(4) 5%
bodies.​
2.​ A particle moves along a straight line such that its
(2) Gravitational force depends on the medium between
displacement x changes with time t as x = √t. The
the masses.​
acceleration of the particle is:​
(3) Gravitational shielding is possible using a shell of
(1) Constant​
heavy metal.​
(2) Variable and proportional to t​
(4) Gravitational force is a conservative force.
(3) Variable and proportional to t⁻³ᐟ²​
8.​ A steel wire of length 4.7 m and cross-sectional area 3.0 ×
(4) Variable and proportional to x
10⁻⁵ m² stretches by the same amount as a copper wire of
3.​ Which of the following graphs correctly represents the
length 3.5 m and cross-sectional area 4.0 × 10⁻⁵ m² under a
variation of β = -(dV/dP)/V with P for an ideal gas at
given load. What is the ratio of the Young's modulus of
constant temperature?​
steel to that of copper?​
(1) A straight line parallel to P axis​
(1) 1.2 : 1​
(2) A hyperbola​
(2) 1.8 : 1​
(3) A straight line passing through origin​
(3) 2.4 : 1​
(4) A parabola
(4) 1 : 1
4.​ Assertion (A): A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept
9.​ The dimensional formula for the coefficient of viscosity is:​
on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the
(1) [M L T⁻¹]​
dishes from the table.​
(2) [M L⁻¹ T⁻¹]​
Reason (R): For every action, there is an equal and opposite
(3) [M L⁻¹ T⁻²]​
reaction.​
(4) [M L⁻² T⁻²]
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
10.​ A projectile is fired with a velocity u at an angle θ with the
of A​
ground. At the highest point of its trajectory, the speed of
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
the particle is √3/2 times its speed of projection. The angle
explanation of A​
of projection θ is:​
(3) A is true but R is false​
(1) 30°​
(4) A is false but R is true
(2) 45°​
5.​ A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a
(3) 60°​
constant speed v. The force on the body is mv²/r and is
(4) 15°
directed towards the center. What is the work done by this
11.​ A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge of
force in moving the body over half the circumference of
mass M as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an
the circle?​
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a
(1) mv²/r × πr​
and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is:​
(2) Zero​
(1) a = g cos θ​
(3) mv²/r²​
(2) a = g sin θ​
(4) πr²/mv²
(3) a = g tan θ​
6.​ Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius
 (4) a = g cot θ qt² + rt³, where p = 3 m/s, q = 4 m/s² and r = 5 m/s³. The
12.​ Potential energy v/s displacement curve for one force acting on the body at t = 2 seconds is:​
dimensional motion of a particle is shown. The particle is (1) 136 N​
released from rest at position A. Which of the following (2) 134 N​
statements is correct?​ (3) 158 N​
(1) The particle will reach equilibrium at B and stop.​ (4) 68 N
(2) The particle will speed up till B and then slow down.​ 19.​ A cyclist on a level road takes a sharp circular turn of
(3) The particle will reach C and then return to A.​ radius 3 m (g = 10 m/s²). If the coefficient of static friction
(4) The particle will cross C with a finite velocity. between the tyres and the road is 0.2, the maximum speed
13.​ A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its axis with with which the cyclist can take the turn without slipping
angular speed 100 rad/s. The radius of the cylinder is 0.25 is:​
m. What is the kinetic energy associated with the rotation (1) √6 m/s​
of the cylinder?​ (2) 6 m/s​
(1) 3000 J​ (3) 60 m/s​
(2) 3125 J​ (4) √60 m/s
(3) 2500 J​ 20.​ Assertion (A): A spring with force constant k is cut into
(4) 6250 J two equal halves. The force constant of each half becomes
14.​ If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% while its 2k.​
mass remains the same, the acceleration due to gravity on Reason (R): The spring constant is inversely proportional
the earth's surface would:​ to the length of the spring.​
(1) Decrease by 2%​ (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(2) Remain unchanged​ of A​
(3) Increase by 2%​ (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(4) Increase by 1% explanation of A​
15.​ Match the columns regarding Stress-Strain curve for a (3) A is true but R is false​
metallic wire:​ (4) A is false but R is true
Column I Column II​ 21.​ The angular momentum of a particle of mass m moving
(A) Proportional limit (P) Point where plastic deformation with a uniform speed v along the line y = a is:​
begins​ (1) mva​
(B) Elastic limit (Q) Greatest stress the material can (2) Zero​
withstand​ (3) mv/a​
(C) Tensile strength (R) Hooke's law is valid​ (4) mva/2
(D) Fracture point (S) Strain increases without increase in 22.​ Two satellites of same mass m are revolving around the
stress​ earth (mass M) in circular orbits of radii r₁ and r₂ (r₁ > r₂).
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S​ Which of the following is true regarding their speeds v₁
(2) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S​ and v₂?​
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S​ (1) v₁ = v₂​
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q (2) v₁ > v₂​
16.​ In an experiment, four quantities a, b, c and d are measured (3) v₁ < v₂​
with percentage errors 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. (4) v₁/r₁ = v₂/r₂
Quantity P is calculated as P = a³b² / (cd). Percentage error 23.​ A wire of length L and radius r is clamped at one end. On
in P is:​ stretching the other end of the wire with a force F, the
(1) 14%​ increase in its length is l. If another wire of same material
(2) 10%​ but of length 2L and radius 2r is stretched with a force 2F,
(3) 7%​ the increase in its length will be:​
(4) 4% (1) l​
17.​ Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 m/s. A woman (2) 2l​
rides a bicycle with a speed of 10 m/s in the north to south (3) l/2​
direction. What is the direction in which she should hold (4) 4l
her umbrella?​ 24.​ Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have
(1) At an angle of tan⁻¹(3) with the vertical towards north​ different dimensions?​
(2) At an angle of tan⁻¹(1/3) with the vertical towards south​ (1) Impulse and Momentum​
(3) At an angle of tan⁻¹(1/3) with the vertical towards north​ (2) Work and Torque​
(4) At an angle of tan⁻¹(3) with the vertical towards south (3) Angular Momentum and Planck's Constant​
18.​ A body of mass 2 kg travels according to the law x(t) = pt + (4) Moment of Inertia and Moment of Force
25.​ A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 (3) Glass​
m/s from the top of a multistorey building. The height of (4) Copper
the point from where the ball is thrown is 25 m from the 32.​ The number of significant figures in the numbers 23.023,
ground. How long will it take for the ball to hit the 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10⁻³ are respectively:​
ground? (Take g = 10 m/s²)​ (1) 5, 1, 2​
(1) 3 s​ (2) 5, 1, 5​
(2) 4 s​ (3) 5, 5, 2​
(3) 5 s​ (4) 4, 4, 2
(4) 6 s 33.​ The position-time graph for a particle is shown in the
26.​ A particle moves in the x-y plane according to the rule x = figure (a semi-circle). What is the average velocity of the
a sin(ωt) and y = a cos(ωt). The particle follows:​ particle between t = 0 to t = 6 s?​
(1) An elliptical path​ (1) Zero​
(2) A circular path​ (2) 3 m/s​
(3) A parabolic path​ (3) 4 m/s​
(4) A straight line path inclined equally to x and y axes (4) 2 m/s
27.​ Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are connected 34.​ A bullet of mass 0.04 kg moving with a speed of 90 m/s
to each other with light strings and are then placed on a enters a heavy wooden block and is stopped after a
frictionless surface as shown in the figure. The system is distance of 60 cm. What is the average resistive force
pulled by a force F = 10 N. The tension T₁ between 2 kg exerted by the block on the bullet?​
and 3 kg blocks is:​ (1) 270 N​
(1) 2 N​ (2) 200 N​
(2) 5 N​ (3) 300 N​
(3) 8 N​ (4) 320 N
(4) 10 N 35.​ A body of mass M collides against a wall with velocity V
28.​ A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up and rebounds with the same speed. Its change in
water to fill a tank of volume 30 m³ in 15 min. If the tank is momentum is:​
40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is (1) Zero​
30%, how much electric power is consumed by the pump? (2) MV​
(g = 10 m/s², density of water = 1000 kg/m³)​ (3) 2MV​
(1) 33.3 kW​ (4) -2MV
(2) 44.4 kW​ 36.​ A cord of negligible mass is wound round the rim of a fly
(3) 40 kW​ wheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25
(4) 30 kW N is applied on the cord. The wheel is mounted on a
29.​ A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a horizontal surface. horizontal axle with frictionless bearings. The angular
C is its center and Q and P are two points equidistant from acceleration of the wheel is:​
C. Let v_P, v_Q and v_C be the magnitude of velocities of (1) 12.5 rad/s²​
points P, Q and C respectively, then:​ (2) 6.25 rad/s²​
(1) v_Q > v_C > v_P​ (3) 25.0 rad/s²​
(2) v_Q < v_C < v_P​ (4) 50.0 rad/s²
(3) v_Q = v_P, v_C = 0.5 v_P​ 37.​ Which of the following symptoms is NOT likely to occur
(4) v_Q < v_C > v_P is possible depending on position to an astronaut floating in a satellite?​
30.​ Assertion (A): The value of acceleration due to gravity 'g' is (1) Swollen face​
greater at the poles than at the equator.​ (2) Headache​
Reason (R): Earth is not a perfect sphere; it is flattened at (3) Swollen feet​
the poles and bulged at the equator.​ (4) Orientation problem
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 38.​ According to Hooke's law of elasticity, if stress is
of A​ increased, the ratio of stress to strain:​
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (1) Increases​
explanation of A​ (2) Decreases​
(3) A is true but R is false​ (3) Remains constant​
(4) A is false but R is true (4) Becomes zero
31.​ Identify the material which is more elastic than the others 39.​ One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and
from the following options:​ pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume). What is the ratio
(1) Rubber​ of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of
(2) Steel​ hydrogen? (Take the size of a hydrogen molecule to be
 about 1 Å).​
(1) ~ 10²​
(2) ~ 10³​
(3) ~ 10⁴​
(4) ~ 10⁵ CHEMISTRY
40.​ The position vector of a particle is r = 3t i - 2t² j + 4 k m.
The velocity of the particle at t = 2 s is:​ 46.​ A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is
(1) 3 i - 4 j m/s​ treated with conc. H₂SO₄. The evolved​
(2) 3 i - 8 j m/s​ gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight
(3) 3 i - 2 j m/s​ (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be:​
(4) 3 i + 8 j m/s (1) 1.4​
41.​ A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of the (2) 3.0​
bowler without changing its initial speed of 12 m/s. If the (3) 2.8​
mass of the ball is 0.15 kg, the impulse imparted to the ball (4) 4.4
is:​ 47.​ Statement I: The first ionization enthalpy of molecular
(1) 1.8 N s​ nitrogen is greater than that of molecular oxygen.​
(2) 3.6 N s​ Statement II: The bond order of N₂ is 3.0 whereas that of
(3) 3.6 J​ O₂ is 2.0.​
(4) 0.15 N s (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.​
42.​ A woman pushes a trunk on a railway platform which has (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.​
a rough surface. She applies a force of 100 N over a (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.​
distance of 10 m. Thereafter, she gets progressively tired (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
and her applied force reduces linearly with distance to 50 48.​ Consider the reaction:​
N. The total distance through which the trunk has been x P₄ + y HNO₃ → z H₃PO₄ + w NO₂ + H₂O (equation not
moved is 20 m. Calculate the total work done by the balanced)​
woman.​ When the equation is balanced using whole number
(1) 1750 J​ coefficients, the value of (x + y + z) is:​
(2) 1500 J​ (1) 24​
(3) 2000 J​ (2) 25​
(4) 1250 J (3) 29​
43.​ A solid sphere is rotating about a diameter at an angular (4) 31
velocity ω. If it cools so that its radius reduces to 1/n of its 49.​ Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is
original value, its angular velocity becomes:​ NOT possible for an electron in the ground state of​
(1) ω/n​ an atom with atomic number 19?​
(2) ω/n²​ (1) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2​
(3) nω​ (2) n = 2, l = 1, m = -1, s = -1/2​
(4) n²ω (3) n = 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = +1/2​
44.​ Assertion (A): A body can have zero velocity and still have (4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
finite acceleration.​ 50.​ For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B → C, ΔH = 400 kJ
Reason (R): Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.​ mol⁻¹ and ΔS = 0.2 kJ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹. At what temperature​
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation will the reaction become spontaneous considering ΔH
of A​ and ΔS to be constant over the temperature range?​
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (1) T > 2000 K​
explanation of A​ (2) T < 2000 K​
(3) A is true but R is false​ (3) T = 2000 K​
(4) A is false but R is true (4) Reaction is never spontaneous
45.​ For a particle performing uniform circular motion, choose 51.​ Arrange the following species in the increasing order of
the correct statement from the following:​ their bond angles:​
(1) The magnitude of particle velocity (speed) remains NH₃, PH₃, AsH₃, SbH₃​
constant.​ (1) SbH₃ < AsH₃ < PH₃ < NH₃​
(2) Particle velocity remains constant.​ (2) NH₃ < PH₃ < AsH₃ < SbH₃​
(3) The acceleration vector is constant.​ (3) PH₃ < AsH₃ < SbH₃ < NH₃​
(4) The acceleration vector is tangential to the circle. (4) AsH₃ < SbH₃ < NH₃ < PH₃
52.​ Given the following graph representing the variation of
potential energy with internuclear distance​
 for a diatomic molecule. Which point corresponds to (1) C₃H₅O₂​
the most stable state of the molecule?​ (2) C₆H₁₀O₄​
[Imagine a standard Morse potential curve where Y-axis (3) C₄H₁₀O₂​
is Potential Energy and X-axis is Distance]​ (4) C₆H₁₂O₂
Point A: Far right (separated atoms)​ 59.​ Which of the following is not a disproportionation
Point B: The potential well minimum​ reaction?​
Point C: On the rising slope to the left (repulsion)​ (1) 2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂​
Point D: At zero energy level​ (2) P₄ + 3OH⁻ + 3H₂O → PH₃ + 3H₂PO₂⁻​
(1) Point A​ (3) S₈ + 12OH⁻ → 4S²⁻ + 2S₂O₃²⁻ + 6H₂O​
(2) Point B​ (4) 2F₂ + 2OH⁻ → 2F⁻ + OF₂ + H₂O
(3) Point C​ 60.​ The number of radial nodes and angular nodes in a 4d
(4) Point D orbital are respectively:​
53.​ Which of the following overlaps is incorrect (assuming (1) 1, 2​
Z-axis is the internuclear axis)?​ (2) 2, 2​
(1) 2p_y + 2p_y → π-bond​ (3) 1, 3​
(2) 2p_z + 2p_z → σ-bond​ (4) 2, 1
(3) 2p_x + 2p_x → π-bond​ 61.​ Assume that you have 100 g of N₂ and 100 g of H₂
(4) 2s + 2p_y → π-bond mixed to produce NH₃. Identify the limiting reagent and​
54.​ Match List-I with List-II:​ the mass of NH₃ produced.​
List-I (Process) List-II (Entropy Change, ΔS)​ (1) H₂ is limiting; 566.6 g NH₃​
(A) Liquid vaporizes (i) ΔS = 0​ (2) N₂ is limiting; 121.4 g NH₃​
(B) Reaction is at equilibrium (ii) ΔS is negative​ (3) N₂ is limiting; 60.7 g NH₃​
(C) Reversible adiabatic expansion (iii) ΔS is positive​ (4) H₂ is limiting; 170.0 g NH₃
(D) Freezing of water (iv) ΔS_total = 0​ 62.​ Which of the following arrangements represents the
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i​ correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with negative
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii​ sign)?​
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv​ (1) F > Cl > O > S​
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (2) Cl > F > S > O​
55.​ How many of the following species are paramagnetic?​ (3) Cl > S > O > F​
N₂, O₂, O₂⁻, O₂²⁻, B₂, C₂, NO​ (4) F > O > Cl > S
(1) 3​ 63.​ Consider the species: I₃⁻. The number of lone pairs on
(2) 4​ the central iodine atom and the geometry of the ion are:​
(3) 5​ (1) 3, Linear​
(4) 2 (2) 2, Bent​
56.​ Identify the correct statement regarding Diborane (3) 3, Trigonal Bipyramidal​
(B₂H₆):​ (4) 2, Linear
(1) Each boron atom is sp² hybridized.​ 64.​ The standard enthalpy of formation of CH₄(g), CO₂(g)
(2) It contains two bridge hydrogens and four terminal and H₂O(l) are -74.8, -393.5 and -285.8 kJ mol⁻¹​
hydrogens.​ respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of methane is:​
(3) The bridge bonds are 2-centre-2-electron bonds.​ (1) -890.3 kJ mol⁻¹​
(4) All B-H bonds are of equal length. (2) -604.5 kJ mol⁻¹​
57.​ Assertion (A): The first ionization enthalpy of Boron is (3) -754.1 kJ mol⁻¹​
less than that of Beryllium.​ (4) +890.3 kJ mol⁻¹
Reason (R): The penetration of a 2s electron to the 65.​ In the reaction: Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 14H⁺ + 6e⁻ → 2Cr³⁺ + 7H₂O,
nucleus is more than that of a 2p electron.​ the equivalent weight of K₂Cr₂O₇ (Molecular Weight =
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct M) is:​
explanation of A.​ (1) M/3​
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct (2) M/6​
explanation of A.​ (3) M/1​
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.​ (4) M/5
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct. 66.​ Which of the following statements about Group 15
58.​ An organic compound contains 49.3% Carbon and 6.84% elements is incorrect?​
Hydrogen. The vapour density of the compound is 73.​ (1) Nitrogen differs from other members of the group
What is the molecular formula? (Atomic Mass: C=12, due to its small size and high electronegativity.​
H=1, O=16)​ (2) Stability of +5 oxidation state decreases down the
 group.​ (3) 8​
(3) All group 15 hydrides (EH₃) act as Lewis acids.​ (4) 2
(4) Nitrogen has a unique ability to form pπ-pπ multiple 74.​ How many of the following statements are correct?​
bonds. (a) Boric acid is a protonic acid.​
67.​ Calculate the uncertainty in the velocity of a cricket ball (b) Aluminum chloride exists as a dimer in vapor state.​
of mass 150 g if the uncertainty in its​ (c) Carbon is a Group 13 element.​
position is 1 Å (10⁻¹⁰ m). (h = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ kg m² s⁻¹)​ (d) In B₂H₆, the hybridization of Boron is sp³.​
(1) 3.5 × 10⁻²⁴ m s⁻¹​ (e) Gallium has a lower melting point than Aluminium.​
(2) 5.5 × 10⁻²² m s⁻¹​ (1) 2​
(3) 3.5 × 10⁻²² m s⁻¹​ (2) 3​
(4) 4.2 × 10⁻²³ m s⁻¹ (3) 4​
68.​ Match the species in List-I with the type of hybrid (4) 5
orbitals in List-II:​ 75.​ Which transition involves the maximum energy?​
List-I List-II​ (1) n = ∞ to n = 1 for H atom​
(A) SF₄ (i) sp³d²​ (2) n = 2 to n = 1 for H atom​
(B) IF₅ (ii) d²sp³​ (3) n = 2 to n = 1 for He⁺ ion​
(C) NO₂⁺ (iii) sp³d​ (4) n = 1 to n = 2 for Li²⁺ ion
(D) NH₄⁺ (iv) sp³​ 76.​ Assertion (A): Combustion of all organic compounds is
(v) sp​ an exothermic reaction.​
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-v, D-iv​ Reason (R): The enthalpies of all elements in their
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv​ standard states are zero.​
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-v, D-iv​ (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-v, D-iv explanation of A.​
69.​ One mole of an ideal gas expands reversibly and (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct
isothermally from a volume of 10 L to 20 L at 27 °C.​ explanation of A.​
The work done by the gas is (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹):​ (3) A is correct but R is incorrect.​
(1) -1729 J​ (4) A is incorrect but R is correct.
(2) +1729 J​ 77.​ The radius of the second Bohr orbit for the hydrogen
(3) -5744 J​ atom is: (Radius of first orbit = a₀)​
(4) -3458 J (1) 2a₀​
70.​ Identify the correct order of acidic strength of the (2) 4a₀​
oxides:​ (3) 8a₀​
(1) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₄O₁₀ < SO₃​ (4) 0.5a₀
(2) SiO₂ < Al₂O₃ < P₄O₁₀ < SO₃​ 78.​ Which of the following compounds has the highest
(3) SO₃ < P₄O₁₀ < SiO₂ < Al₂O₃​ dipole moment?​
(4) Al₂O₃ < P₄O₁₀ < SiO₂ < SO₃ (1) CO₂​
71.​ Which of the following sets of elements have the (2) HI​
strongest tendency to form anions?​ (3) H₂O​
(1) N, O, F​ (4) SO₂
(2) P, S, Cl​ 79.​ The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO₂ is
(3) As, Se, Br​ approximately:​
(4) Sb, Te, I (1) 1.2 × 10²³​
72.​ In the structure of HNO₃, the formal charge on the (2) 6.0 × 10²²​
central nitrogen atom is:​ (3) 6.0 × 10²³​
(1) 0​ (4) 1.2 × 10²⁴
(2) +1​ 80.​ Match the property in List-I with the element showing
(3) -1​ the maximum value in List-II:​
(4) +2 List-I List-II​
73.​ Consider the following reaction occurring in the basic (A) Most Electronegative (i) Cl​
medium:​ (B) Highest Electron Gain Enthalpy (ii) F​
MnO₄⁻(aq) + I⁻(aq) → MnO₂(s) + I₂(s)​ (C) Highest Ionization Enthalpy (iii) Li​
The stoichiometric coefficient of OH⁻ in the balanced (D) Strongest Reducing Agent (aq) (iv) He​
equation is:​ (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii​
(1) 4​ (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv​
(2) 6​ (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv​
 (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (3) Be₂⁺​
81.​ For an isolated system, ΔU = 0. What will be ΔS?​ (4) Li₂
(1) ΔS = 0​ 89.​ Which of the following is an extensive property?​
(2) ΔS < 0​ (1) Molar heat capacity​
(3) ΔS > 0​ (2) Temperature​
(4) Cannot be determined (3) Enthalpy​
82.​ The correct order of increasing s-character in the hybrid (4) Refractive index
orbitals of Beryllium in BeCl₂, Boron in BCl₃,​ 90.​ Consider the redox reaction:​
and Carbon in CCl₄ is:​ IO₃⁻ + a I⁻ + b H⁺ → c I₂ + d H₂O​
(1) BeCl₂ < BCl₃ < CCl₄​ The values of a, b, c, and d respectively are:​
(2) CCl₄ < BCl₃ < BeCl₂​ (1) 5, 6, 3, 3​
(3) BCl₃ < BeCl₂ < CCl₄​ (2) 5, 3, 6, 3​
(4) CCl₄ < BeCl₂ < BCl₃ (3) 3, 5, 3, 6​
83.​ Which of the following reactions defines ΔH°f (Standard (4) 5, 6, 5, 5
Enthalpy of Formation)?​
(1) C(diamond) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g)​
(2) ½ H₂(g) + ½ F₂(g) → HF(g)​
(3) N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)​
(4) CaO(s) + CO₂(g) → CaCO₃(s)
84.​ In the brown ring test for nitrates, a brown ring is
formed at the junction of two liquids. The complex​ BIOLOGY
responsible for the brown color is [Fe(H₂O)₅(NO)]²⁺. The
oxidation state of Iron in this complex is:​
91.​ Select the correct statement regarding the specific
(1) +1​
properties of living organisms from the following:​
(2) +2​
(1) Increase in mass and increase in number of
(3) +3​
individuals are twin characteristics of reproduction.​
(4) 0
(2) Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the
85.​ Identify the incorrect statement regarding the structure
body in cell-free systems, and these isolated reactions
of Oxoacids of Phosphorus:​
are living things.​
(1) In H₃PO₄, there are three P-OH bonds and one P=O
(3) Cellular organisation of the body is the defining
bond.​
feature of life forms.​
(2) In H₃PO₃, there are two P-OH bonds and one P-H
(4) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
bond.​
breeders, but only in plants.
(3) H₃PO₂ is a tribasic acid.​
92.​ According to binomial nomenclature, the scientific
(4) Acids containing P-H bonds have strong reducing
name of the mango is correctly written as:​
properties.
(1) Mangifera Indica​
86.​ Statement I: The atomic radius of Ga is slightly less
(2) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.​
than that of Al.​
(3) Mangifera indica Linn.​
Statement II: This is due to the poor shielding effect of
(4) mangifera indica
the d-electrons in Ga.​
93.​ Which of the following statements regarding the rules
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.​
of nomenclature is incorrect?​
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.​
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin and written
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.​
in italics.​
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(2) The first word denoting the genus starts with a
87.​ An element with atomic number 119 has not been
capital letter.​
discovered yet. If it is discovered, to which group​
(3) The specific epithet starts with a small letter.​
Would it belong?​
(4) When written by hand, the names are underlined
(1) Group 1​
together.
(2) Group 2​
94.​ Read the following statements about Monera and select
(3) Group 17​
the correct option:​
(4) Group 18
A. Bacteria differ from other bacteria in having a
88.​ Using molecular orbital theory, predict which of the
different cell wall structure which helps in survival in
following species does not exist?​
extreme conditions.​
(1) H₂⁺​
B. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great
(2) He₂​
 role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, (3) W.M. Stanley (1935) - Showed that viruses could be
iron and sulphur.​ crystallised.​
(1) Only A is correct​ (4) Pasteur - Discovered the Viroid.
(2) Only B is correct​ 101.​Which of the following features is not present in the
(3) Both A and B are correct​ Phylum Porifera?​
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (1) Water canal system​
95.​ Match Column I with Column II:​ (2) Choanocytes lining the spongocoel​
Column I Column II​ (3) Extracellular digestion only​
A. Chrysophytes i. Gonyaulax​ (4) Spicules or spongin fibres
B. Dinoflagellates ii. Silicified cell walls​ 102.​In which of the following animals is the body
C. Euglenoids iii. Saprophytic protists​ cylindrical and composed of an anterior proboscis, a
D. Slime Moulds iv. Pellicle​ collar and a long trunk?​
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii​ (1) Balanoglossus​
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii​ (2) Petromyzon​
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i​ (3) Branchiostoma​
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) Ascidia
96.​ Identify the correct statement regarding Fungi:​ 103.​Consider the following characteristics:​
(1) Albugo is a parasitic fungus on mustard belonging to I. Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy.​
Ascomycetes.​ II. Heart is two-chambered (one auricle and one
(2) Coenocytic mycelium is a characteristic of ventricle).​
Phycomycetes.​ III. They are cold-blooded animals.​
(3) Basidiospores are produced endogenously in the IV. Fertilisation is usually external.​
basidium.​ The above features are characteristic of:​
(4) Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical and (1) Chondrichthyes​
genetic work and belongs to Basidiomycetes. (2) Osteichthyes​
97.​ Assertion (A): Viruses are not considered truly living.​ (3) Amphibia​
Reason (R): They have an inert crystalline structure (4) Cyclostomata
outside the living cell.​ 104.​How many of the following statements are correct
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct regarding the Class Amphibia?​
explanation of A.​ A. The body is divisible into head and trunk.​
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct B. The tympanum represents the ear.​
explanation of A.​ C. Respiration is by gills, lungs and through skin.​
(3) A is true but R is false.​ D. The heart is three-chambered (two auricles and one
(4) A is false but R is true. ventricle).​
98.​ In the five-kingdom classification of Whittaker, (1) One​
Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been placed in:​ (2) Two​
(1) Algae​ (3) Three​
(2) Plantae​ (4) Four
(3) Monera​ 105.​Match the following animals with their specific
(4) Protista features:​
99.​ How many of the following organisms possess a Column I Column II​
coelom?​ A. Limulus i. Radula​
Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, B. Pila ii. Living fossil​
Mollusca, Echinodermata, Hemichordata​ C. Pleurobrachia iii. Comb plates​
(1) 4​ D. Taenia iv. Flame cells​
(2) 5​ (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv​
(3) 6​ (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv​
(4) 3 (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i​
100.​Select the incorrect match regarding the scientists and (4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
their contributions to Virology:​ 106.​In Pteridophytes, the dominant phase in the life cycle is:​
(1) D.J. Ivanowsky (1892) - Recognized certain microbes (1) Gametophyte which is independent and multicelluar.​
as causal organism of mosaic disease of tobacco.​ (2) Sporophyte which is differentiated into true root,
(2) M.W. Beijerinck (1898) - Demonstrated that the stem and leaves.​
extract of infected plants could cause infection in (3) Gametophyte which is dependent on sporophyte.​
healthy plants.​ (4) Sporophyte which is dependent on gametophyte.
107.​Which of the following algae produces Carrageen?​ (2) Twisted​
(1) Gelidium (Red Algae)​ (3) Imbricate​
(2) Laminaria (Brown Algae)​ (4) Vexillary
(3) Porphyra (Red Algae)​ 115.​Placentation where the ovules are borne on a central
(4) Chondrus (Red Algae) axis and septa are absent, as found in Dianthus and
108.​Assertion (A): The mosses have an elaborate mechanism Primrose, is called:​
of spore dispersal.​ (1) Axile​
Reason (R): In mosses, the sporophyte is more elaborate (2) Parietal​
than that in liverworts.​ (3) Free central​
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Basal
explanation of A.​ 116.​How many of the following plants belong to the family
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Fabaceae?​
explanation of A.​ Gram, Arhar, Moong, Soyabean, Tomato, Brinjal,
(3) A is true but R is false.​ Belladonna, Indigofera, Sunhemp, Sesbania​
(4) A is false but R is true. (1) 5​
109.​Read the following statements regarding Gymnosperms:​ (2) 6​
I. The ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and (3) 7​
remain exposed.​ (4) 8
II. The roots are generally tap roots.​ 117.​Which of the following statements is incorrect
III. The stems are branched in Cycas and unbranched in regarding the anatomy of roots?​
Pinus.​ (1) In dicot roots, the initiation of lateral roots takes
IV. The leaves are well-adapted to withstand extremes place in the pericycle.​
of temperature.​ (2) In monocot roots, the pith is large and well
Which of the statements are correct?​ developed.​
(1) I, II and IV​ (3) The vascular bundles in roots are conjoint and open.​
(2) I, II and III​ (4) The cortex consists of several layers of thin-walled
(3) II, III and IV​ parenchyma cells.
(4) I and IV only 118.​The tissue responsible for the mechanical support in the
110.​Haplontic life cycle is exhibited by:​ growing parts of the plant such as young stem and
(1) Ectocarpus​ petiole of a leaf is:​
(2) Fucus​ (1) Parenchyma​
(3) Volvox​ (2) Collenchyma​
(4) Polysiphonia (3) Sclerenchyma​
111.​In which of the following plants does the root originate (4) Xylem fibres
from the base of the stem and constitute the fibrous 119.​In a transverse section of a dorsiventral leaf, the
root system?​ vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of
(1) Mustard​ thick-walled:​
(2) Wheat​ (1) Spongy parenchyma​
(3) Monstera​ (2) Palisade parenchyma​
(4) Banyan (3) Bundle sheath cells​
112.​Identify the incorrect match regarding phyllotaxy:​ (4) Epidermal cells
(1) Alternate - China rose​ 120.​Assertion (A): In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells
(2) Opposite - Calotropis​ along the veins modify themselves into large, empty,
(3) Whorled - Alstonia​ colourless cells called bulliform cells.​
(4) Alternate - Guava Reason (R): These cells help in photosynthesis by
113.​In a cymose inflorescence:​ increasing surface area.​
(1) The main axis continues to grow.​ (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) The flowers are borne in an acropetal order.​ explanation of A.​
(3) The main axis terminates in a flower.​ (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) The younger flowers are present towards the apex. explanation of A.​
114.​Diagram-based question: If you observe the aestivation (3) A is true but R is false.​
where the margins of sepals or petals overlap one (4) A is false but R is true.
another but not in any particular direction, this type is 121.​Match Column I with Column II regarding plant
called:​ anatomy:​
(1) Valvate​ Column I (Tissue/Layer) Column II (Function/Feature)​
 A. Trichomes i. Gas exchange​ 129.​Which of the following is a homopolymer?​
B. Guard Cells ii. Casparian strips​ (1) Chitin​
C. Endodermis iii. Prevent water loss via transpiration​ (2) Inulin​
D. Sieve tube elements iv. Lack nucleus at maturity​ (3) Cellulose​
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv​ (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii​ 130.​The bond connecting two nucleotides in a
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii​ polynucleotide chain is:​
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (1) Peptide bond​
122.​In the structural organisation of the Cockroach, the (2) Glycosidic bond​
forewings (Mesothoracic) are called:​ (3) Phosphodiester bond​
(1) Tegmina​ (4) Hydrogen bond
(2) Elytra​ 131.​Identify the incorrect statement regarding enzymes:​
(3) Hindwings​ (1) Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of
(4) Labrum temperature and pH.​
123.​Identify the correct statement regarding the digestive (2) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a
system of the cockroach:​ temporarily inactive state.​
(1) The crop is used for storing food.​ (3) High temperature destroys enzymatic activity
(2) Hepatic caeca are present at the junction of midgut because proteins are denatured.​
and hindgut.​ (4) Competitive inhibitors bind to the allosteric site of
(3) Malpighian tubules help in digestion of cellulose.​ the enzyme.
(4) The gizzard has an outer layer of thick cuticle 132.​Match the Secondary Metabolites with their examples:​
forming six chitinous teeth. Column I Column II​
124.​In the male cockroach, the sperm are stored in the:​ A. Alkaloids i. Lemon grass oil​
(1) Testes​ B. Terpenoids ii. Morphine, Codeine​
(2) Vas deferens​ C. Essential oils iii. Vinblastine, Curcumin​
(3) Seminal vesicles​ D. Drugs iv. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes​
(4) Mushroom gland (1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii​
125.​Which of the following statements about Frog anatomy (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii​
is correct?​ (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii​
(1) The heart is 4-chambered.​ (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(2) Digestion of food takes place by the action of HCl 133.​Assertion (A): Co-enzymes are organic compounds but
and gastric juices secreted from the walls of the their association with the apoenzyme is only transient.​
stomach.​ Reason (R): The essential chemical components of many
(3) They are uricotelic.​ coenzymes are vitamins.​
(4) The brain is enclosed in a bony structure called the (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
cranium and has 12 pairs of cranial nerves. explanation of A.​
126.​The type of epithelial tissue found in the lining of the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
stomach and intestine which helps in secretion and explanation of A.​
absorption is:​ (3) A is true but R is false.​
(1) Squamous epithelium​ (4) A is false but R is true.
(2) Cuboidal epithelium​ 134.​Which structure of protein is absolutely necessary for
(3) Columnar epithelium​ the many biological activities of proteins?​
(4) Ciliated epithelium (1) Primary structure​
127.​Gap junctions:​ (2) Secondary structure​
(1) Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.​ (3) Tertiary structure​
(2) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells (4) Quaternary structure
together.​ 135.​In the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs during:​
(3) Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other (1) G1 phase​
by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.​ (2) S phase​
(4) Are found only in nervous tissue. (3) G2 phase​
128.​Skeletal muscle tissue is:​ (4) M phase
(1) Striated and involuntary​ 136.​Which stage of mitosis is characterized by the
(2) Non-striated and involuntary​ condensation of chromosomal material?​
(3) Striated and voluntary​ (1) Prophase​
(4) Non-striated and voluntary (2) Metaphase​
 (3) Anaphase​ Bronchioles → Alveoli
(4) Telophase 143.​The volume of air involved in breathing movements can
137.​Diagram-based question: You are observing a stage of be estimated by using a:​
cell division where homologous chromosomes separate, (1) Spirometer​
while sister chromatids remain associated at their (2) Sphygmomanometer​
centromeres. This stage is:​ (3) Barometer​
(1) Anaphase of Mitosis​ (4) Stethoscope
(2) Anaphase I of Meiosis​ 144.​Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
(3) Anaphase II of Meiosis​ normal expiration is called:​
(4) Metaphase I of Meiosis (1) Residual Volume (RV)​
138.​Match the substages of Prophase I with their key (2) Expiratory Capacity (EC)​
events:​ (3) Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)​
Column I Column II​ (4) Vital Capacity (VC)
A. Zygotene i. Terminalisation of chiasmata​ 145.​A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage
B. Pachytene ii. Synapsis occurs​ saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against
C. Diplotene iii. Crossing over​ the pO2. This curve is highly useful in studying the
D. Diakinesis iv. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex​ effect of factors like:​
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i​ (1) pCO2 and H+ concentration​
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv​ (2) Only Temperature​
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i​ (3) Only pCO2​
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) Nitrogen concentration
139.​How many of the following statements are correct 146.​Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around
regarding Meiosis?​ ______ of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological
I. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and conditions.​
cell division but only a single cycle of DNA replication.​ (1) 4 ml​
II. Meiosis I is initiated after the parental chromosomes (2) 5 ml​
have replicated to produce identical sister chromatids at (3) 10 ml​
the S phase.​ (4) 20 ml
III. Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis 147.​A specialized centre present in the medulla region of
II.​ the brain called the ____________ is primarily
(1) None​ responsible for the regulation of respiratory rhythm.​
(2) One​ (1) Pneumotaxic centre​
(3) Two​ (2) Respiratory rhythm centre​
(4) All three (3) Chemosensitive area​
140.​Cells in the G0 phase:​ (4) Aortic arch
(1) Terminate the cell cycle​ 148.​Which of the following is a chronic disorder in which
(2) Exit the cell cycle​ alveolar walls are damaged resulting in a decrease in
(3) Suspend the cell cycle​ respiratory surface, often caused by cigarette smoking?​
(4) Proliferate rapidly (1) Asthma​
141.​Case Study: A person goes to high altitude. He starts (2) Emphysema​
breathing faster and his heart rate increases. This is (3) Silicosis​
because:​ (4) Bronchitis
(1) The binding affinity of haemoglobin decreases.​ 149.​The value of pCO2 in alveoli and tissues respectively is:​
(2) The pO2 is high at high altitudes.​ (1) 40 mm Hg and 45 mm Hg​
(3) The CO2 concentration is very low.​ (2) 45 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg​
(4) RBC production decreases immediately. (3) 40 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg​
142.​Which of the following is the correct pathway for air (4) 95 mm Hg and 45 mm Hg
passage in humans?​ 150.​Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water
(1) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → than oxygen.​
Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli​ Reason (R): The amount of CO2 that can diffuse
(2) Nostrils → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in
Bronchi → Alveoli​ partial pressure is much higher compared to that of O2.​
(3) Nostrils → Pharynx → Trachea → Larynx → (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Bronchi → Alveoli​ explanation of A.​
(4) Nostrils → Larynx → Trachea → Pharynx → (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
 explanation of A.​ (4) 20
(3) A is true but R is false.​ 157.​Which of the following is the most abundant protein in
(4) A is false but R is true. the whole of the biosphere?​
151.​Which of the following is incorrect regarding the (1) Collagen​
structure of the cell membrane?​ (2) Trypsin​
(1) The lipids are arranged within the membrane with (3) Insulin​
the polar head towards the outer sides and the (4) RuBisCO
hydrophobic tails towards the inner part.​ 158.​Read the statements about B-DNA:​
(2) Peripheral proteins lie on the surface of the A. The pitch of the helix is 34 Angstroms.​
membrane while the integral proteins are partially or B. There are roughly 10 bp in each turn.​
totally buried in the membrane.​ C. The strands are antiparallel.​
(3) The fluid nature of the membrane is important for Which are correct?​
functions like cell growth, formation of intercellular (1) A and B only​
junctions, secretion, endocytosis, cell division etc.​ (2) B and C only​
(4) Lipids are quasi-fluid in nature which enables lateral (3) A and C only​
movement of proteins, but carbohydrates are rigid. (4) A, B and C
152.​How many of the following are functions of the 159.​Choose the mismatched pair regarding cell division:​
mesosome in bacteria?​ (1) Syncytium - Liquid endosperm in coconut​
Cell wall formation, DNA replication, Distribution of (2) Cell plate - Precursor to middle lamella​
DNA to daughter cells, Respiration, Secretion processes​ (3) Kinetochore - Disc shaped structures on centromeres​
(1) 2​ (4) Chiasmata - Formed during Zygotene
(2) 3​ 160.​Transition state structure of the substrate formed
(3) 4​ during an enzymatic reaction is:​
(4) 5 (1) Permanent and stable​
153.​Ribosomes are:​ (2) Transient and unstable​
(1) Membrane-bound organelles found in all cells.​ (3) Permanent and unstable​
(2) Composed of RNA and proteins and are not (4) Transient and stable
surrounded by any membrane.​ 161.​In the leaf anatomy of a monocot plant:​
(3) Present only in the cytoplasm and nowhere else.​ (1) Stomata are present only on the adaxial epidermis.​
(4) Larger in prokaryotes (80S) than in eukaryotes (70S). (2) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy
154.​The core of the cilium or flagellum is called the parenchyma.​
axoneme, which possesses a number of microtubules (3) Bulliform cells are absent.​
running parallel to the long axis. The arrangement of (4) Vascular bundles are nearly similar in size, except in
axonemal microtubules is referred to as:​ main veins.
(1) 9 + 0​ 162.​The heartwood is different from sapwood because
(2) 9 + 2​ heartwood:​
(3) 9 + 1​ (1) Is lighter in colour.​
(4) 8 + 2 (2) Conducts water and minerals.​
155.​Match the chromosome types with the position of (3) Contains deposits of tannins, resins, oils, gums.​
centromere:​ (4) Is physiologically active.
Column I Column II​ 163.​Regarding the cockroach, the mosaic vision has:​
A. Metacentric i. Terminal centromere​ (1) More sensitivity and less resolution​
B. Sub-metacentric ii. Middle centromere​ (2) More sensitivity and more resolution​
C. Acrocentric iii. Close to one end​ (3) Less sensitivity and less resolution​
D. Telocentric iv. Slightly away from the middle​ (4) Less sensitivity and more resolution
(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i​ 164.​In frogs, the cloaca is a common chamber for the output
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii​ of:​
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv​ (1) Digestive system and Excretory system only​
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i (2) Excretory system and Reproductive system only​
156.​In the "Palm" reaction involving palmitic acid, how (3) Digestive, Excretory and Reproductive systems​
many carbons are present including the carboxyl (4) Digestive system and Respiratory system
carbon?​ 165.​Identify the amino acid that is not aromatic:​
(1) 15​ (1) Tyrosine​
(2) 16​ (2) Phenylalanine​
(3) 18​ (3) Tryptophan​
 (4) Valine (2) CO2 and H+ ions​
166.​Which one of the following is a non-reducing sugar?​ (3) O2 and N2​
(1) Glucose​ (4) CO2 and O2
(2) Galactose​ 175.​Which of the following statements about the family
(3) Sucrose​ Fabaceae is correct?​
(4) Lactose (1) Flowers are actinomorphic.​
167.​"Omnis cellula-e cellula" was proposed by:​ (2) Calyx has valvate/imbricate aestivation.​
(1) Schleiden​ (3) Gynoecium is bicarpellary.​
(2) Schwann​ (4) Fruit is a berry or capsule.
(3) Rudolf Virchow​ 176.​Read the following statements about stem
(4) Robert Brown modifications:​
168.​The Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation A. Underground stems of turmeric and zaminkand store
of:​ food.​
(1) Proteins and fats​ B. Stem tendrils develop from axillary buds.​
(2) Glycoproteins and glycolipids​ C. Thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea are modified
(3) DNA and RNA​ axillary buds.​
(4) Vitamins and enzymes D. Opuntia has a flattened stem that contains
169.​Assertion (A): The inner mitochondrial membrane chlorophyll.​
forms a number of infoldings called cristae.​ How many are correct?​
Reason (R): Cristae decrease the surface area for (1) 1​
enzyme action.​ (2) 2​
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) 3​
explanation of A.​ (4) 4
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 177.​Match the Column I with Column II:​
explanation of A.​ Column I Column II​
(3) A is true but R is false.​ A. Perianth i. Stamens united in one bundle​
(4) A is false but R is true. B. Monadelphous ii. Distinct calyx and corolla absent
170.​Select the correct statement regarding G1 phase:​ (Lily)​
(1) Cell is metabolically inactive.​ C. Diadelphous iii. Stamens united in two bundles (Pea)​
(2) DNA replication takes place.​ D. Epipetalous iv. Stamens attached to petals (Brinjal)​
(3) The cell grows continuously.​ (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv​
(4) Chromosome number doubles. (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii​
171.​In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication (3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv​
begins in the nucleus, and the _____________ (4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
duplicates in the cytoplasm.​ 178.​Diagram Based: In the cross-section of a monocot stem:​
(1) Mitochondria​ (1) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.​
(2) Centriole​ (2) Hypodermis is collenchymatous.​
(3) Golgi body​ (3) Water-containing cavities are present within the
(4) Ribosome vascular bundles.​
172.​The partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) in oxygenated (4) Phloem parenchyma is present.
blood and deoxygenated blood is respectively:​ 179.​Connective tissue fibers are absent in:​
(1) 95 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg​ (1) Bone​
(2) 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg​ (2) Blood​
(3) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg​ (3) Cartilage​
(4) 45 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg (4) Adipose tissue
173.​What is the role of the Pneumotaxic centre?​ 180.​Which of the following is true for the 'Lock and Key'
(1) It increases the duration of inspiration.​ hypothesis of enzyme action?​
(2) It moderates the functions of the respiratory rhythm (1) The active site is flexible and changes shape.​
centre and reduces the duration of inspiration.​ (2) The substrate fits into the active site like a key fits
(3) It detects high CO2 levels and stimulates the rhythm into a lock.​
centre.​ (3) The product leaves the active site, changing the
(4) It controls the heart rate. enzyme structure permanently.​
174.​A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the (4) It explains non-competitive inhibition only.
rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to:​
(1) O2 and H+ ions​