Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025

MODEL TEST - 40
REASONING
Direction (1-2): The given question consists of a question and two statements

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numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the both statements
and mark the appropriate option.
1. Eight people were born on eight different consecutive months, starts from January.
Only one person was born on each month. Who is the youngest person?
ha
Statement I: Only two people were born before K. R was born after K in the
month having even number of days. J was born immediately after R. U is just
elder to H and both were born before R. T was born before A but not to G.

E
Statement II: A was born in the month having even number of days after March.
Only three people were born between A and K. J was born after A but not
immediately.
d
(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
ee

to answer the question

(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
C
(4) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
Sr

(5) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to
answer the question
2. Seven boxes are kept one above the other in a stack. The bottom most box is
numbered one the one above to it is numbered two and so on top most box is
numbered seven. How many boxes are kept between C and X?
Statement I: Only three boxes are kept between box C and box S, where box C is
kept above box S. Only one box is kept between S and X. Not more than one box is
C
kept below box S.
Statement II: Box S is kept one of the even numbered positions but not above
fifth box. Only one box is kept between box S and C. Box C is kept immediately
above box X. Box Y is kept immediately above box W. Neither box Y nor W kept at
bottom or top of the stack. Box X is kept above S.
(1) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
(2) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
(3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(5) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to
answer the question
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

Directions (3-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Nine people viz. D, G, K, N, P, R, T, V, and X are sitting around a circular
table facing outside (i.e.: opposite to the centre) with equal distance between
adjacent persons. N sits third to the right of G. Only one person sits between V
and P. Neither V nor P sits adjacent to both N and G. Only two people sits between
R and T. R doesn’t sit adjacent to V. T doesn’t sit adjacent to N. Only two people
sit between D and X. The number of people sits between K and X (to the right of
X) is more than the number of people sits between K and D (to the right of D).
More than two people sit between V and X (to the left of X).
3. What is the position of ‘K’ with respect to the one who sits immediate right of X?
1) Third to the left 2) third to the right
3) Fourth to the right 4) fourth to the left 5) fifth to the right

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4. How many people sits between X and D (to the right of D)?
1) One 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) more than four
5. Who amongst the following people sit adjacent to D?
1) NV 2) NR 3) NT 4) NP 5) PR
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and hence form a group, which one of the following

2) N-R
ha
doesn’t belong to that group?
1) D-V 3) G-X 4) K-P 5) T-G
7. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given arrangement?
(I) X and G are sitting adjacent to each other

E
(II) N and X are not sitting adjacent to each other
(III) More than three people sit between G and V (to the left of V)
1) Only (II) 2) Only (II) and (III) 3) Only (I) and (II) 4) Only (I) and (III) 5) None of these
d
Direction (8-10): Study the following informtaion carefully and answer the questins below:
Sten starts walking 10m towards east direction to reach point T, from point
T he takes 5m right turn to reach point Y, and then he takes 20m west direction
ee

to reach point B, from point B he takes 12m right turn to reach point R. Finally
he takes 10m right turn to reach point V.
8. in which direction is point ‘R’ with respect to sten?
C
1) north-west 2) north-east 3) south-west 4) west 5) east
9. If sten walks 22m from point B to reach point R then what is the shortest distance
between Sten initial and final positions?
Sr

1) 15m 2) 10m 3) 17m 4) 12m 5) 19m

10. The direction of point R with respect to point Y same as point ___ with respect to
point ___.
1) R, B 2) V, T 3) V. Y 4) R, T 5) Except option 1
11. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the third,
the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word “SURVEYED” using each
letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following will be the
third letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word can be formed give
C
X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give Z as your answer.
1) E 2) V 3) R 4) X 5) Z
Directions (12-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Seven people viz. B, E, H, K, N, Q and Tare sitting in a straight line and all are
facing the north direction. The distance between adjacent people is same. Each one
likes different fruits viz. Apple, Orange, Papaya, Mango, Kiwi, Banana and Grape.
B sits third to the right of one who likes Grapes. At-least one person sits to
the right and at-most four people sits to the left of B. K sits immediate left of one
who likes Mango. One who likes Mango doesn’t sit adjacent to both B and one
who likes grapes. As many people sit to the left of E as right of one who likes
mango. Not more than two people sit between E and one who likes mango. One
who likes banana sits second to the right of Q. Q doesn’t like grapes. T sits right
of H but not immediate. The number of people sits between T and one who likes
kiwi is twice the number of people sits between H and one who likes kiwi. N
doesn’t like Apple and Papaya. The one who likes Apple sits right of H.
12. Who amongst the following people like Papaya
1) B 2) N 3) T 4) Q 5) K
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13. What is the position of ‘B’ with respect to the one who likes ‘Apple’?
1) Immediate right 2) third to the right
3) Second to the left 4) third to the left 5) Immediate left
14. How many people sit between T and one who likes Orange?
1) None 2) One 3) two 4) three 5) four
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and hence form a group, which one of the following
doesn’t belong to that group?
1) H-Mango 2) K-Orange 3) Q-Kiwi 4) B-Grapes 5) N-Banana
16. Which of the following statement is not true as per the given arrangement?
1) Only two people sit between T and one who likes kiwi
2) H sits immediate left of one who likes Banana

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3) No one sits between E and one who likes Grapes
4) N sits adjacent to B and likes Orange 5) Q sits at extreme left-end of the row.
Direction (17-19): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions
I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding

17.
commonly known facts.
ha
Statements: Only a few pillows are soft. No soft is hard.
All hard are strong.

E
Conclusion I: Some pillows are not strong
1) Only Conclusion I follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows
Conclusion II: Some hard is strong.
2) Only Conclusion II follows
d
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 5) Both Conclusion I and II follow
18. Statements: Some papers are books. All books are pens.
One a few pens are nuts.
ee

Conclusion I: Some nuts are papers Conclusion II: No paper is nut

1) Both Conclusion I and II follow 2) Either Conclusion I or II follows
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
4) Only Conclusion II follows 5) Only Conclusion I follows
C
19. Statements: All plastic is iron.
Only a few plastic is steel. All steel is copper.
Sr

Conclusion I: All iron is Steel is a possibility

Conclusion II: Some plastic is not copper
1) Either Conclusion I or II follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Both Conclusion I and II follow
4) Only Conclusion I follows 5) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
20. Company X. a telecom company of country Z. which proposed last week that it
would charge its customers for video calls, said that it will not go ahead with the
plan Video call is a facility given free of cost by the company for its existing
C
customers. Which of the following maybe a reason for the change in plan by the
said company?
1) Company Y, a rival to company X setup shop in country Z just two months back
and has introduced a number of interesting offers for customers.
2) Many people using the services of company X live in rural areas and might not
be able to afford an extra charge for certain services.
3) Company X plans to expand its market globally this year.
4) Company X underwent a lot of criticism for the said proposal and also
experienced a drop of around 10 percent customers in just one week.
5) The shares of company L, which charges its customers for a similar facility
since the beginning, dropped substantially this week.
Directions (21-24): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on eight different floors of a
eight storeyed building where the ground floor is numbered one, the one above
that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Only one
person lives on each floor.
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

C lives on even numbered floor but not below fourth floor. Only three people
live between C and F. As many people live above F as below D. C lives immediate
to A. E live immediately below G but both do not live above the sixth floor. B lives
above H and not more than two people live between them.
21. On which of the following floors does B live?
1) Fifth 2) Sixth 3) seventh 4) fourth 5) eighth
22. Who lives two floors below D?
1) G 2) A 3) H 4) C 5) F
23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and hence form a group, which one of the following
doesn’t belong to that group?
1) C-B 2) A-F 3) H-B 4) D-G 5) E-F

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24. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
1) B lives on odd numbered floor 2) Only three people live between F and E
3) E lives two floors below F
4) No one live between A and B 5) As many people live above A as below H.
Direction (25-27): In this question relationship between different elements is
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shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
25. Statement: Q > W  E  D  F = G > V ;U  B  N = J  F  P < C
Conclusion I: E  B

E Conclusion II: U > Q

1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
d
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true
4) Only Conclusion I is true 5) Only Conclusion II is true
26. Statement: U  J  N<H  Y<T  G=B  V<F  R<E  D=C
Conclusion I: D > G Conclusion II: C = B
ee

1) Either Conclusion I or II is true 2) Both Conclusions I and II are true

3) Only Conclusion II is true
4) Only Conclusion I is true 5) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
C
27. Statement: U  P  L  M  F=T  D  X  S  Y  B  E
Conclusion I: L = S Conclusion II: P > S
Sr

1) Both Conclusions I and II are true 2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Only Conclusion I is true
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) Either Conclusion I or II is true
Directions (28-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Ten people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y study either of the three book
viz. The stranger, Afterlives, and Beloved with atleast two and not more than
C
four people studying each book. (Note: if it is said that A studies with B then it
means that both A and B study the same department).
S doesn’t study with P. Q studies with W but not studies Afterlives. T doesn’t
study with R and Y. V studies with Y. U studies with only one person but neither
with V nor with W. Y doesn’t study with W. T studies with X but not study the
stranger. S doesn’t study with R. S doesn’t study Beloved and the Stranger.
28. Who among the following people studies Afterlives?
1) VYRP 2) WQTX 3) US 4) WQ 5) VY
29. P studies with ___.
1) U 2) W 3) T 4) V 5) X
30. Find the odd man out.
1) SV 2) QX 3) UY 4) TR 5) PW
31. Which of the following statement is correct as per the given arrangement?
1) T studies with only one person 2) Only three people studies Beloved book
3) No two books studied by same number of people
4) Only three people doesn’t study any of the given book
5) T studies with four people
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Directions (32-33): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Six people viz. A, B, C, D, E, and F got different jobs in a year but not in
same month. B got the job before only E. Only two people got the jobs between F
and C. C got the job just after A.
32. How many people got the job before C?
1) One 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) five
33. Who got the job just after D?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
34. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “HARDWORK” each of
which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in English alphabetical order?
1) None 2) one 3) two 4) three 5) four

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Directions (35-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Ten people bought ten different things consecutively one after the other on
different occasions. No person other than the given people bought a thing on the
given occasions or on any other occasion.
T bought an item one of the occasions after D. Only three people bought an
ha
item between F and H, where H bought an item after F. No one bought items
between F and T. As many people bought an item between H and G as between F
and D. Y bought an item one of the occasions after H but not after O. As many

E
people bought items between O and H as between W and C. More than three
people bought items between C and H, where C bought an item before H. Atleast
two people bought an item before C. Odd number of people bought item after B.
d
35. How many people bought items after B?
1) Three 2) four 3) one 4) seven 5) five
36. Who amongst the following people bought item immediately after B?
ee

1) G 2) H 3) F 4) Y 5) T
37. Who bought items first and last respectively?
1) O, W 2) W, Y 3) D, O 4) W, O 5) Y, D
38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
C
per the given arrangement and hence form a group which one of the following
doesn’t belong to that group?
1) D-F 2) G-H 3) C-W 4) B-Y 5) H-O
Sr

39. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given arrangement?
1) Only W bought an item before D
2) As many people bought items before F as after B
3) Only three people bought items between F and H
4) Only two people bought items after H 5) All the given statements are not true
40. Read the given information to answer the given question:
Company B is an online retail store and has been into this business since early
C
90’s. Online shopping has been around for more than two and a half decades but
it has become truly mainstream very recently. As per the reports, even in 2010,
online shopping barery made up 7% of all retail sales globally. Twenty years ago
online shopping was considered to be a novelty.
Course of action: Around three years ago in 2018 Company B expanded its business
and started selling all kinds of goods from essentials to groceries, books to
electronics, beauty supplies, footwear’s to clothing’s, logistics etc.
Which of the following may not be a reason which led Company B to decide on the
given course of action?
1) Most of the population started preferring shopping essentials and other utilities
on a virtual platform since the later months of 2017
2) Number of smart phone users worldwide increased by around 80% by the end
of 2017 facilitating the growth of ecommerce.
3) The open marketing areas of company ‘B’ have shown extreme returns.
4) The fixed target of company ’B’ is not reached, thereby it has entered into
various e-commerce.
5) The company ‘B’ assumed to increase the employability to become one of the
leading companies.
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COMPUTER AWARENESS
41. Today’s computer giant IBM was earlier known by different name which was
changes in 1924. What was that name?
1) Tabulator Machine Co 2) Computing Tabulating Recording Co.
3) The Tabulator Ltd.
4) International Computer Ltd. 5) None of these
42. The terminal device that functions as a cash register, computer terminal, and
OCR reader is the:
1) Data collection terminal 2) OCR register terminal
3) Video display terminal 4) POS terminal 5) None of these
43. What was the first electronics digital programmable computing device?
1) Analytical Engine 2) Difference Engine

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3) Colossus 4) ENIAC 5) None of these
44. EDVAC stands for
1) Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Calculator
2) Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer
3) Electronic Data Variable Automatic Calculator
4) Electronic Data Variable Automatic Computer
5) Electronic Display Variable Automatic Calculator
45.
ha
An interconnected network exclusively used within organizations such as banking,
business firms, etc that uses web technologies for sharing data or information
internally is called

46.
1) Protocol

E
2) Intranet 3) Internet
The most widely used internet connections are
1) Dial-Up
4) Hypertext

2) Broadband (Broad Bandwidth)

5) Arpanet
d
3) DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) 4) Wireless connection 5) All of the above
47. Which process is used to map logical addresses of variable length onto physical
memory?
ee

1) Paging 2) Overlays
3) Segmentation 4) Paging with segmentation 5) None of these
48. Which of the following statement is true about secondary memory (auxiliary
memory)?
C
1) Secondary memory is non-volatile in nature that is slower than primary
memories.
2) It is also known as backup memory.
Sr

3) Data is permanently stored even if power is switched off.

4) Computer may run without secondary memory. 5) All are correct
49. To create a table in MS Access
1) Database should be created before creating a table
2) You should allow at least one Primary key in a table
3) Table can be created using Table Templates 4) All of the above 5) None of these
50. Access time of the symbol table will be logarithmic, if it is implemented by
1) Linear list 2) Self organizing list 3) Search tree 4) Hash table 5) None of these
C
51. A on-screen formatter will not always provide an exact copy of what the text will
look like on paper because
1) Display may not be capable of showing all the characters the printer can
generate
2) Commands will be present in the file
3) Left and right margins will be different 4) All of these 5) None of these
52. In data processing system, what is the name given to the lead line of a paragraph
that accidentally becomes an isolated last line on a print page?
1) Window 2) Header 3) Boiler-plate 4) Orphan 5) None of these
53. Press _____ to bring up search box.
1) Shift + F3 2) Shift + F4 3) Shift + F5 4) Shift + F6 5) Shift + F8
54. This dialog box specifies or modifies the worksheet cell range containing data to
be charted.
1) Chart Location 2) Chart Style 3) Chart Options
4) Chart Source Data 5) None of these
55. A term associated with the comparison of processing speeds of different computer
systems is
1) CPS 2) MIPS 3) EFTS 4) MPG 5) MPEG
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56. The attribution of human form or qualities to things such as machines or

computers is called?
1) Cybernetics 2) Cybernation
3) Artificial intelligence 4) Anthropomorphism 5) None of these
57. The ____ on the Start menu offers an alternate method to start applications or
open data files.
1) Run command 2) Find command
3) Settings command 4) All programs 5) None of these
58. When we click the _____ option all the selected items are sent to their former
destinations?
1) Review 2) Restore 3) Save 4) Shift 5) None of these
59. The _____ triangle in the Open box displays a list of recently used path names.
1) Top 2) Inverted 3) Ordinary 4) Simple 5) Complex

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60. When was the world’s first laptop computer introduced in the market and by
whom?
1) Hewlett-Packard, 1980 2) Epson, 1981
3) Laplink Travelling Software Inc, 1982
4) Tandy Model-200, 1985 5) None of these
61. Which of the following is used in an optical mouse?

62.
ha
1) Infrared light 2) Light Emitting Diode (LED) 3) Sensor 4) Microwave 5) None of these
How many address lines are needed to address each machine location in a
2048*4 memory chip?
1) 10 2) 11 3) 8 4) 12 5) 7
63.
3) Vacuum tubes

E
Which electronic components are used in Fifth generation computers?
1) Transistors 2) Integrated circuits
4) ULSI Microprocessor 5) None of these
d
64. Dynamic memory allocation in C++ is done from the:
1) Circular Queue 2) Bidirectional link list 3) Stack 4) Heap 5) Pointer
65. KIPS stands for ________
ee

1) Kite Information Processing System 2) Knowledge Information Processing system

3) Knowledge Information Printing System
4) Knowledge Integration Processing System
C
5) Knowledge Integration Printing System
66. Name the tree in which, for every node, the height of left sub tree and height of
right sub tree can differ by at most one
Sr

1) AVL tree 2) B-tree 3) Threaded tree 4) Complete tree 5) None of these

67. Which of the following data structure is more appropriate to represent a heap?
1) Two-dimensional array 2) Doubly linked list
3) Linear Array 4) Linked list 5) None of these
68. Which of the following transport layer protocols is used to support electronic
mail?
1) IP 2) TCP 3) UDP 4) SMTP 5) FTP
69. A software design pattern often used to restrict access to an object is:
C
1) Adapter 2) Decorator 3) Delegation 4) Proxy 5) None of these
70. Which of the following is not a key strategy followed by the clean room approach
to software development?
1) Formal specification 2) Dynamic verification
3) Incremental development 4) Statistical testing of the system 5) None of these
71. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?
1) Collaboration diagram 2) Use-case diagram
3) State chart diagram 4) Activity diagram 5) None of these
72. The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is
1) Evolutionary Development Model 2) Waterfall model
3) Prototyping model 4) Iterative enhancement model 5) None of these
73. RAD software process model stands for
1) Rapid Application Development
2) Relative Application Development 3) Rapid Application Design
4) Recent Application Development 5) Request Access Development
74. Fault base testing technique is
1) Unit testing 2) Beta testing
3) Stress testing 4) Mutation testing 5) None of these
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75. A good software requirement specification does not have the characteristic
1) Completeness 2) Consistency
3) Clarity 4) Reliability 5) None of these
76. _____ is a pre-requisite for implementation of e-business.
1) Anti-virus 2) Payment mechanism
3) Website 4) Virtual private network 5) None of these
77. It is widely used and internationally recognized coding system to represent
characters in a standard way. What is this?
1) ASCII 2) SSL 3) VPN 4) ANSI 5) None of these
78. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless
communication for notebook users is called a ____
1) Router 2) Wireless hub

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3) Wireless switch 4) USB wireless network adapter 5) None of these
79. The ability to combine name and addresses with a standard document is called
_____
1) Document formatting 2) Database management
3) Mail merge 4) Form letters 5) None of these
80. Which of the following format you can decide to apply or not in Auto Format dialog
box?
ha
1) Number format 2) Border format 3) Font format 4) Both 1 and 2 5) All of these
GENERAL AWARENESS
81.

E
In December 2025, a historic milestone was achieved at the Indian Military
Academy when a woman officer cadet successfully completed pre-commissioning
d
training and passed out, ending a tradition that had continued since the Academy’s
establishment in 1932.
Who became the first woman officer cadet to pass out from the Indian Military
Academy?
ee

1) Nidhi Singh 2) Ananya Rao 3) Sai Jadhav 4) Poonam Yadav 5) Ritu Meena
82. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), aimed at providing LPG connections
to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households to ensure clean cooking fuel
C
and reduce health hazards, was launched by the Government of India in which
year?
Sr

1) 2012 2) 2014 3) 2015 4) 2016 5) 2018

83. World No Tobacco Day, observed annually by the WHO to combat the tobacco
epidemic, falls on which date?
1) April 7 2) May 31 3) June 1 4) November 19 5) December 1
84. Which of the following indices is released by the Ministry of Housing and Urban
Affairs (MoHUA) to assess the outcomes of various urban policies and determine
the quality of life in Indian cities?
1) Global Liveability Index 2) Ease of Living Index
C
3) Municipal Performance Index (MPI)
4) City Biodiversity Index 5) Urban Quality Index
85. With the launch of NPCI Tech Solutions Limited (NTSL), the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI) now has four subsidiaries under its umbrella. Which
of the following was not among the previously incorporated NPCI subsidiaries?
1) NPCI BHIM Services Limited (NBSL)
2) NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL)
3) NPCI Bharat BillPay Limited (NBBL)
4) NPCI Digital Settlements Limited (NDSL) 5) None of those given as options
86. During the 6th National Water Awards and Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari 1.0 Awards
held at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi, several Chhattisgarh districts were honoured
for large scale water conservation efforts. Among these, which district topped
the Best Performing District category by constructing more than 92,000 new
water structures as part of its sustained water management initiatives?
1) Mahasamund 2) Gariaband
3) Balodabazar Bhatapara 4) Rajnandgaon 5) Balod
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87. Under the “National Red List Assessment” initiative, India aims to complete the
red list assessment of about 11,000 prioritised species by 2030. Which organisations
are leading this effort in collaboration with IUCN India and CSS: India – WTI?
1) National Biodiversity Authority and NITI Aayog
2) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) and WWF India
3) Botanical Survey of India (BSI) and Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
4) Ministry of Earth Sciences and Indian Institute of Ecology
5) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau and Central Zoo Authority
88. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) has handed over the Haldia Multi-
Modal Terminal (MMT) in West Bengal to which company under the Public-Private
Partnership (PPP) model, marking a key step in India’s inland waterways
development?

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1) Adani Ports and SEZ Ltd 2) JSW Infrastructure Ltd
3) IRC Natural Resources 4) Essar Ports Ltd 5) DP World India
89. India announced a post-disaster reconstruction assistance package for Sri Lanka
following Cyclone Ditwah, conveyed during high-level meetings in Colombo by
the External Affairs Minister. What is the total value of the reconstruction
assistance package announced by India?
1) USD 300 million
3) USD 400 million
ha 2) USD 350 million
4) USD 450 million 5) USD 500 million
90. What was the total value of foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows into India
during the financial year 2024–25, according to the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry?
1) $68.70 billion
3) $77.92 billion

E 2) $71.28 billion
4) $81.04 billion 5) $84.55 billion
d
91. The Reserve Bank of India issued the “Reserve Bank of India (Settlement of
Claims in respect of Deceased Customers of Banks) Directions, 2025” to
streamline the settlement process and standardise documentation across banks.
ee

As per these directions, banks must settle such claims within what maximum
period from the date of receipt of all required documents?
1) 10 calendar days 2) 15 calendar days
C
3) 20 calendar days 4) 30 calendar days 5) 45 calendar days
92. In the context of global digital finance, startups raise funds through ICOs by
issuing digital tokens. In this acronym, what does the letter ‘C’ denote?
Sr

1) Coin 2) Capital 3) Credit 4) Currency 5) Commodity

93. The Ministry of Civil Aviation celebrated the 9th anniversary of the Regional
Connectivity Scheme – UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik) on 21 October 2025 in
New Delhi. Launched in 2016, the first UDAN flight was inaugurated by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi between which two cities?
1) Shimla and Delhi 2) Mumbai and Pune
3) Dehradun and Chandigarh 4) Guwahati and Kolkata 5) Varanasi and Lucknow
94. In macroeconomic terminology, what is the specific term used to describe a
C
temporary slowing down of the rate of inflation, where the general price level of
goods and services continues to rise but at a reduced pace compared to a previous
period?
1) Inflation 2) Deflation 3) Stagflation 4) Disinflation 5) Reflation
95. Which Indian diplomat, currently serving as the Ambassador to Panama, Costa
Rica, and Nicaragua, participated in the launch ceremony of the newly formed
India–Panama Inter-Parliamentary Friendship Group in October 2025?
1) Sumit Seth 2) Manpreet Vohra
3) Taranjit Singh Sandhu 4) Ajay Bisaria 5) Pavan Kapoor
96. The Government of India has significantly transformed the institutional credit
landscape for the fisheries sector by integrating the Kisan Credit Card (KCC)
Fisheries scheme with a unified digital interface. As per the latest official
implementation status in 2025, onto which national portal has this scheme been
onboarded to facilitate end-to-end digital processing and direct connection between
lenders and beneficiaries?
1) UMANG Portal 2) Kisan Rin Portal 3) GeM Portal
4) e-Shram Portal 5) JanSamarth Portal
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97. Indian public sector oil companies have finalised a one-year agreement to import
nearly 2.2 MTPA of LPG from the US Gulf Coast in 2026, representing about 10
percent of India’s annual LPG imports. Which companies jointly awarded this
tender to Chevron, Phillips 66, and TotalEnergies Trading?
1) ONGC, GAIL, and Oil India 2) IOC, BPCL, and HPCL
3) IOC, ONGC, and GAIL
4) BPCL, HPCL, and Oil India 5) GAIL, Oil India, and IOCL
98. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently issued new guidelines requiring all
regulated entities (REs) to report comprehensive details about their digital lending
apps (DLAs), including those operated through Lending Service Providers (LSPs).
Through which of the following platforms must these details now be mandatorily
submitted as per the latest RBI directions?

r’s
1) Digital Lending Monitoring Dashboard 2) Sachet Portal
3) Complaint Management System
4) Centralised Information Management System
5) Financial Services Reporting System
99. The Fiscal Monitor Report provides a comprehensive overview of the latest public
finance developments, updates the medium-term fiscal outlook, and assesses
ha
the fiscal implications of policy measures relevant to the global economy. Which
of the following organisations publishes the Fiscal Monitor Report?
1) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

E
2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
3) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
4) World Bank 5) World Economic Forum (WEF)
d
100. The Bihar Legislative Assembly election of 2025 was held in two phases on 6 and
11 November, with counting conducted on 14 November 2025. Which of the following
was the total voter turnout recorded in this election, the highest since the first
ee

state polls in 1951?

1) 66.91% 2) 62.45% 3) 69.80% 4) 63.12% 5) 71.60%
101. Following the conclusion of the 38th National Games in Uttarakhand, the Indian
Olympic Association (IOA) has officially allocated the hosting rights for the 39th
C
edition of the National Games to which state?
1) Goa 2) Gujarat 3) Uttarakhand 4) Meghalaya 5) Chhattisgarh
Sr

102. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in 2010 under the NGT Act
for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental
protection. As of December 2025, who is the current Chairperson of the NGT,
having previously served as the Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court?
1) Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel 2) Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta
3) Justice Prakash Shrivastava
4) Justice Sheo Kumar Singh 5) Justice Swatanter Kumar
103. To strengthen India’s domestic capacity and supply chain resilience in critical
C
minerals, the Union Cabinet approved an incentive scheme under the National
Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM). This scheme aims to boost recycling of e-waste,
lithium-ion battery scrap, and other secondary sources of critical minerals. What
is the tenure and total outlay of this Cabinet-approved scheme?
1) 3 years; Rs.1,000 crore 2) 4 years; Rs.2,500 crore
3) 5 years; Rs.1,200 crore
4) 7 years; Rs.34,300 crore 5) 6 years; Rs.1,500 crore
104. Under Component 3 of PM-Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY),
financial incentives in the form of Performance Grants are provided to fisheries
micro and small enterprises to adopt safety and quality assurance systems. What
is the maximum Performance Grant quantum offered to Scheduled Caste (SC),
Scheduled Tribe (ST), and Women-owned microenterprises?
1) 35% of total investment or Rs.20 lakhs, whichever is lower
2) 30% of total investment or Rs.45 lakhs, whichever is lower
3) 35% of total investment or Rs.45 lakhs, whichever is lower
4) 45% of total investment or Rs.45 lakhs, whichever is lower
5) 50% of total investment or Rs.55 lakhs, whichever is lower
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105. The UN Water Convention, originally intended for European and Central Asian
countries, became open to all UN member states in 2016. Bangladesh, a participant
in Convention activities since 2012, formally joined after attending the 10th
Meeting of the Parties in Slovenia in 2024. Which United Nations body services
and administers the UN Water Convention?
1) UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
2) UN Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat)
3) UN Development Programme (UNDP)
4) UN Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP)
5) United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE)
106. On the occasion of Independence Day 2025, a total of 1,090 personnel from Police,

r’s
Fire, Home Guard, Civil Defence, and Correctional Services were honored with
Gallantry and Service Medals. According to the Home Ministry, how many
personnel were awarded the "President’s Medal for Distinguished Service" (PSM)
for the year 2025?
1) 233 personnel 2) 99 personnel
3) 758 personnel
ha 4) 1,090 personnel 5) 155 personnel
107. Which organization released the report titled "Designing a Policy for Medium
Enterprises," which aims to transform medium enterprises into future growth

1) Ministry of Finance

E
engines of India’s economy?
2) Reserve Bank of India
d
3) NITI Aayog 4) Ministry of MSME 5) FICCI
108. In the World’s 50 Safest Commercial Banks 2025 list published by Global Finance,
Royal Bank of Canada secured the top spot. Which bank retained the 2nd position
ee

in this global ranking?

1) Deutsche Bank 2) Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group
3) HSBC Holdings 4) JPMorgan Chase & Co. 5) DBS Bank
C
109. The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) signed an MoU with which
organization to promote financial inclusion by distributing mutual fund products
Sr

across India, especially in rural and semi-urban areas?

1) India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)
2) Centre for Excellence in Postal Technology (CEPT)
3) National Small Savings Institute (NSSI)
4) Department of Posts (DoP) 5) Postal Life Insurance (PLI)
110. As per the official shareholding disclosures of the Small Industries Development
Bank of India (SIDBI), the Government of India holds a 20.85% stake in the
C
institution, making it the largest shareholder. What is the second-largest
shareholding percentage held by the State Bank of India (SBI) in SIDBI?
1) 13.33% 2) 14.80% 3) 15.65% 4) 16.73% 5) 18.00%
111. Under the RBI’s Digital Payments Index (DPI) framework, QR Codes are categorized
under which component, and what is the weight assigned to this category in the
overall index structure?
1) Payment Performance, with a weight of 45%, since QR-based transactions
directly affect transaction volumes.
2) Payment Enablers, with a weight of 25%, as QR Codes enhance merchant
participation.
3) Consumer Centricity, with a weight of 5%, as QR Codes ensure ease of customer
access.
4) Payment Infrastructure – Supply Side, with a weight of 15% in the index.
5) Payment Infrastructure – Demand Side, with a weight of 10%, reflecting usage
metrics from the customer side.
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112. Consider the following statements regarding the PM-SETU (Pradhan Mantri Skilling
and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs) scheme launched in 2025:
I. The scheme aims to modernize 1,000 Government ITIs across India using a
hub-and-spoke model.
II. 200 ITIs will serve as advanced hubs with incubation centres, production units,
and trainer training facilities.
III. 800 ITIs will function as spokes to extend training outreach.
IV. The total project outlay is Rs.60,000 crore.
V. Five National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs) in Bhubaneswar, Chennai,
Hyderabad, Kanpur, and Ludhiana will be upgraded into Centres of Excellence
(CoE) with global tie-ups.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) I, II, and IV only 2) I, II, III, and V only

r’s
3) I, III, IV, and V only 4) I, II, III, IV, and V 5) II, III, and V only
113. The Ministry of Finance has introduced new guidelines under the "Banking Laws
(Amendment) Act, 2025," which offer depositors more flexibility in nominating
individuals for their assets. While the new rules allow for both simultaneous and
successive nominations for deposit accounts, what specific type of nomination is
exclusively permitted for articles held in safe custody and safety lockers?
ha
1) Only simultaneous nomination for up to two individuals.
2) Both simultaneous and successive nominations are allowed.
3) Only successive nominations are permitted.
4) A single nomination with no option for multiple nominees.

E
5) No nominations are allowed for items in a safety locker.
114. The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve (CDBR) located in Himachal Pradesh has
been included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) by UNESCO
d
in 2025. With this addition, how many Indian biosphere reserves are now part of
the UNESCO WNBR list?
1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 13 5) 15
ee

115. The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body constituted under
the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, to safeguard and promote the
rights of women in India. Who is the present Chairperson of the National
C
Commission for Women?
1) Rekha Sharma 2) Smriti Irani 3) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
4) Dr. Archana Majumdar 5) Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar
Sr

116. Under the RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme (RDS), which was introduced in November
2021, what is the maximum investment limit per asset for an individual investor
through the Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account?
1) Rs.10 lakh 2) Rs.50 lakh 3) Rs.1 crore 4) Rs.2 crore 5) Rs.5 crore
117. The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) was launched by the Government of
India in 2015 to facilitate loans up to ?20 lakh (raised from the earlier ?10 lakh
limit) to non-corporate, non-farm small and micro enterprises. In the acronym
MUDRA, which is the implementing agency for this scheme, what does the letter
C
‘U’ stand for?
1) Upgradation 2) Union 3) Units 4) Utilisation 5) Urban
118. The 2025 Global AI Vibrancy Index, released in November 2025 by Stanford
University, assesses countries based on multiple dimensions of artificial
intelligence development and adoption. According to the latest rankings, what
was India’s position in the 2025 Global AI Vibrancy Rankings?
1) 2nd 2) 3rd 3) 4th 4) 5th 5) 7th
119. The SWAMIH (Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing) Fund–II,
announced in the Union Budget 2025, was launched as a blended finance facility
involving contributions from the government, banks, and private investors. What
is the total corpus of this newly launched fund?
1) Rs.10,000 crore 2) Rs.12,000 crore
3) Rs.25,000 crore 4) Rs.20,000 crore 5) Rs.15,000 crore
120. According to Bloomberg’s report titled “Bloomberg-World’s Richest Families 2025”,
which family topped the global ranking with a net worth exceeding $500 billion,
primarily derived from ownership of the world’s largest retail chain?
1) Al Nahyan family 2) Al Saud family 3) Walton family
4) Hermes family 5) Ambani family
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (121-128): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are highlighted to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
It’s hard to scroll through social media these days without a gymfluencer
telling you about the benefits of lifting weights and eating more protein. These
messages have changed the way Americans think about fitness and wellness.
Cardio, once the king of exercise, is being supplanted by weight lifting sessions.
(A) Planet Fitness, one of the largest gym chains in the world, has long billed
itself as a place for exercise novices. Now it is trying to respond to the rising
popularity of strength training by redesigning its space and adding more weights
and resistance machines.

r’s
On a recent tour at the company’s headquarters in Hampton, (A)/ N.H., Colleen
Keating, the chief executive, walked past (B)/ the old-faithful treadmills and pointed to
the dumbbells (C)/and weight machines people use for chest presses and to build their
quads, glutes and hamstrings.(D) “A couple of years ago, we did not have rigs and
racks in our gyms,” said Ms. Keating, who took the top job in June 2024 after a
career in hospitality, including as chief executive of FirstKey Homes, a rental
home property company. “We used to be a bit more cardio-forward (B), and now
ha
we’re dedicating about half the gym floor to strength and about half the club floor
to cardio.”
The changes may shift how people think of Planet Fitness, which has nearly

E
2,800 locations and about 21 million members. So might the membership fee,
which in the summer of 2024 increased to $15 a month — still cheaper than
some Sweetgreen salads but a 50 percent jump from the $10 it had been for
d
decades. The higher fee hasn’t been bad for business, though. In the company’s
most recent quarter, total revenue increased 13 percent. Its share price is also
up, by more than 30 percent in the past five years. “It’s really important that we
ee

__________(C)___________ that ‘Yes, you can get strong at Planet Fitness,’” Ms.
Keating, 57, said. We’re in the golden age of fitness. When I was growing up, I
don’t remember seeing my parents go to the gym or my friends’ parents go to the
gym. I had one friend whose dad jogged. Young people today are growing up
C
watching their parents have fitness as part of their lifestyle. Gen Z is the fastest-
growing segment of our membership.
121. What is the central theme of the passage?
Sr

1) The decline of cardio-based exercises in America

2) The rise of gym influencers on social media
3) How Planet Fitness is adapting to changing fitness trends
4) The pricing strategy of global gym chains
5) The impact of hospitality executives on fitness companies
122. In above passage a sentence is highlighted and marked as ‘A’. What does that
sentence imply?
1) Cardio exercises are no longer useful
C
2) Weight lifting has become more popular than cardio
3) Cardio requires more equipment than weight training
4) Cardio is banned in most gyms 5) Weight lifting is cheaper than cardio exercises
123. In above passage a phrase is bolded and marked as ‘B’. which of the following
phrase (s) can best replace with out changing the meaning of the bolded phrase.
1) Focused on endurance sports 2) Centred mainly on cardio exercises
3) Ignoring strength training
4) Designed for professional athletes 5) Limited to treadmill usage
124. What is the synonym of the word “segment” as used in the passage?
1) Division 2) Obstacle 3) Strategy 4) Facility 5) Agreement
125. Which of the following is the antonym of the word “resistance” as used in the passage?
1) Opposition 2) Obstruction 3) Compliance 4) Force 5) Strain
126. What can be inferred from the passage about Planet Fitness’s membership fee
increase?
1) It led to a decline in membership 2) It negatively affected the company’s revenue
3) It discouraged Gen Z customers
4) It did not harm the company’s business performance
5) It caused the company to close several locations
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127. Which of the following words given in the options should come at the place marked as
(C) in the above passage to make it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful?
1) convey 2) indicate 3) transfer 4) indicate 5) converse
128. In the above passage, a sentence is given in Italics. There may or may not be an
error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as
your answer. If there is no error, then choose option (5) as your answer.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
Direction (129-130): In this question a sentence has been given with four words
given in bold denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of the four given in bold may be
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. REPLACE that word with the Antonym
of the given words such that when rearranged, that word should be both grammatically
and meaningfully correct. Then rearrange the given words in order to form a
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence and answer the given questions:

r’s
129. In early November, Microsoft said it would provide (A) artificial intelligence tools
and training to more than 200,000 students and supply (B) in the United Arab
Emirates. Days later, a financial services company in Kazakhstan educators (C)
an agreement with OpenAI to hidden (D) ChatGPT Edu, a service for schools and
universities, for 165,000 educators in Kazakhstan.
1) ABDC: involve 2) BCDA: announced 3) ABCD: ascend
4) DCBA: deprive
ha 5) No replacement required
130. Karnataka has miss(A) its first-ever attention (B) of an ultra-rare leopard colour
morph, informally named the “Sandalwood Leopard”, marking only the second
confirmed documented (C) of this rare big cat in India. The discovery, made in

1) CADB: sighting

E
the Vijayanagara district, has drawn national and global instance (D) to the
state’s rich and genetically diverse wildlife.
2) BADC : overlooking 3) ADCB : ignore
d
4) DACB 5) No replacement required
Direction (131-135): In the following passage, there are blanks, each one has
preceded by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in
ee

options (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given
word suits the blank, mark ‘No change required’ as the answer.
U.S. inflation eased in November in what economists said likely reflected
C
________(131)_______ (satisfied) caused by the government shutdown, creating
an uncertain picture for the Federal Reserve as it ________(132)_______ apparently
contends with rising unemployment. The latest Consumer Price Index, released
Sr

by the Bureau of Labor Statistics on Thursday, rose 2.7 percent from the same
time last year. That fell short of the previous 3 percent pace and was well below
economists’ ________(133)_______ expecting for a 3.1 percent rise. “Core” inflation,
which the central bank tracks as a ________(134)_______ scale of underlying
inflation since it strips out volatile items like energy and food prices, rose at an
annual rate of 2.6 percent. It last stood at 3.1 percent. The latest inflation report
arrives at a pivotal political moment for the White House. With prices still
stubbornly high, voters increasingly say that they are unhappy with President
C
Trump’s handling of the economy and ________(135)_______ frustrated with the
slow pace of improvement, according to recent polls.
131. 1) no change required 2) distortions 3) clarity 4) personification 5) beauty
132. 1) simultaneously 2) successively 3) singly 4) no change required 5) consecutively
133. 1) distrust 2) surmise 3) no change required 4) knowledge 5) expectations
134. 1) measurement 2) calibre 3) compute 4) gauge 5) no change required
135. 1) spirited 2) shackled 3) confidence 4) advanced 5) no change required
Directions (136-138): Rearrange the following four sentences (P), (Q), (R) are (S)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
136. P. No well-dressed Victorian lady appeared at a social gathering without carrying
one, edged with a paper frill or delicate greens and sometimes inserted into a
silver filigree holder.
Q. In the mid-19th century, the nosegay, or posy (a small bunch of mixed flowers),
was much in fashion.
R. Plant materials are customarily arranged in containers, woven into garlands,
and worn or carried for personal adornment.
S. Flower bouquets that are carried include the nosegay and corsage.
1) SRQP 2) PRQS 3) PRSQ 4) RSQP 5) none of the given arrangement
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137. P. The gaps in accessibility to these transport systems were steadily closing in
the later 19th century, while the empire of steam was becoming global.
Q. Beginning in the mid-19th century, the steamship and the railway brought
greater comfort and speed and cheaper travel, in part because fewer overnight
and intermediate stops were needed.
R. Above all else, these innovations allowed for reliable time-tabling, essential
for those who were tied to the discipline of the calendar if not the clock.
S. Transport innovation was an essential enabler of tourism’s spread and
democratization and its ultimate globalization.
1) PRQS 2) SQRP 3) RQSP 4) SQPR 5) none of the given arrangement
138. P. The organization’s successor, Fáilte Ireland, also developed joint ventures
with the Northern Ireland Tourist Board.
Q. Tourism plays a very important role in the Irish economy.

r’s
R. Its value has increased considerably since the 1950s, when the Irish Tourist
Board (Bord Fáilte Éireann) was established and began encouraging new hotel
construction, the development of resort areas, the extension of sporting facilities,
and an increase of tourist amenities.
S. The vast majority of foreign tourists come from the United Kingdom, the United
States, and elsewhere in Europe, but groups from the Middle East and China are

1) QRPS
ha
increasingly seen at the major tourist attractions around the country.
2) SQRP 3) PSQR 4) RQSP 5) none of the given arrangement
Directions (139-140): In the following questions, two columns are given, each

E
containing three sentences. In the first column, the sentences are labeled A, B,
and C, and in the second column, they are labelled D, E, and F. A sentence from
the first column may or may not be combined with a sentence from the second
d
column using a suitable connector to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. The options show possible pairs along with the connectors that
can correctly join them. Choose the option(s) that form a meaningful and
ee

grammatically correct sentence.

139. Column I
A. The team performed exceptionally well in the tournament.
B. She continued to speak confidently during the meeting.
C
C. I have been feeling much more confident in my work.
Column II
D. I received detailed feedback from my mentor on how to improve my projects.
Sr

E. They faced several unexpected challenges, including injuries to key players

and last-minute changes to the schedule.
F. Her colleagues doubted the outcome would be in her favor.
1) Only A–E (though) & B–F (while)
2) Only B–F (since) & C–D (unless) 3) Only A–E (because) & B–F (and)
4) Only A–D (if) & C–F (though) 5) Only A–E (yet) & C–D (while)
140. Column I
C
A. He decided to take a short break,
B. The students will not pass the final exam,
C. I left early.
Column II
D. They revise all the chapters thoroughly and practice previous question papers.
E. I could avoid the rush-hour traffic.
F. He had been working continuously for eight hours without rest.
1) Only A-F (though) 2) Only C-E (because) and A-D (since)
3) Only A-E (as) and B-F (likewise)
4) Only A–E (yet) and C–D (while) 5) Only A-F (as), B-D (unless) and C-E (so that)
Directions (141-147): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are highlighted to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
In what remains of a cemetery, at what used to be the edge of Bujumbura,
the living displace the dead. Burundi’s largest city is growing so fast that people
have built homes where once there were graves, sometimes without moving the
bodies beneath. Berchmans Nyandwi, who digs graves and organises funerals,
looks on with folded arms. Soon, he says, all this will be houses.
15
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You find what space you can in Burundi, where 14m people squeeze into an
area not much bigger than Wales or Massachusetts. Many places are far more
populous, and a few islands and city-states are denser. But the only countries to
beat Burundi on both counts are Bangladesh, Taiwan and, by a little, its northerly
neighbour, Rwanda. That makes Burundi an extreme example of how population
pressure is changing African societies. For most of history Africa has been sparsely
populated, and much of it remains so. But the continent has ten times as many
people as a century ago, and places like the Niger delta and the Ethiopian highlands
are getting crowded. So, too, is the region around Burundi, from Kenya to Congo,
a swathe of humanity between Africa’s Great Lakes, where there are good rains
and enough altitude to soften the equatorial heat. Density does not necessarily

r’s
mean cities. Most Burundians still live in the collines, the hills, growing bananas,
cassava and beans on steep slopes that crumble into the valleys. On roadsides,
in gardens, between houses, it feels like every spare scrap of land is planted
with maize. By conventional measures, often based on administrative divisions,
Burundi is one of the most rural countries on the planet.
But the countryside is thickening, in ways that break established definitions.
ha
An oecd-backed research project called Africapolis considers a place to be urban
if it has more than 10,000 inhabitants in buildings not more than 200 metres
apart. By that measure 78% of Burundians already live in “urban” areas and, by

E
2050, most of the country will be one continuous agglomeration. This idea should
not be taken too literally. It might be better to say that much of Burundi is
becoming an in-between place: not quite country, not yet town. The pressing
d
question is how to grow enough food. The optimists can cite Ester Boserup, a
Danish economist, who argued in the 1960s that land scarcity drives farmers to
adopt more intensive methods. She was thinking of innovators like Vivien
ee

Nduwumwami, a retired agricultural officer in Kayanza, in the highlands. He

bounds down a hillside showing where he has cut terraces to prevent erosion,
spread lime to reduce acidity, and installed irrigation that allows him to plant
C
three times a year.
141. According to the passage, why is there a need for adopting intensive agricultural
methods in Burundi?
Sr

I. To prevent soil erosion and maintain fertile land on steep slopes

II. To ensure farmers can grow enough food despite limited land
III. To encourage migration from rural areas to cities
IV. To allow multiple cropping cycles and increase agricultural productivity
1) I, II & IV 2) I, II & III 3) both III & IV 4) only III 5) I, II & IV
142. Which of the following defines the phrase “not quite country, not yet town” in the
passage?
C
1) an area abandoned by people 2) a rural place turning into urban settlement
3) a fully developed city
4) a sparsely populated countryside 5) a place with no agricultural activity
143. Which of the following best reflects the effects of population pressure in Burundi?
I. Expansion of urban areas into rural and cemetery lands
II. Increased use of intensive agricultural methods
III. Reduction in rural population due to urban migration
1) both II & III 2) only III 3) both I & II 4) only I 5) I, II & III
144. What is the theme of the passage?
1) Urban expansion and loss of rural land in Burundi
2) Population pressure and its impact on land use and agriculture
3) International conventions for environmental protection
4) Global efforts to reduce hazardous waste
5) Pharmaceutical and ethical significance of biodiversity
145. Find the most suitable antonym for the word “intensive” as used in the passage?
1) bombast 2) sparse 3) concentrated 4) rigorous 5) elaborate
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

146. Which of the following is not true according to the passage?

1) Burundi is one of the most densely populated countries in the world ?
2) Most Burundians still live in rural hills, growing crops like bananas, cassava,
and beans
3) By 2050, most of Burundi is expected to become one continuous urban
agglomeration
4) Population density in Burundi has no effect on agricultural practices
5) Farmers in Burundi are adopting terraces and irrigation to grow multiple
crops per year
147. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
1) Population growth in Burundi is leading to urban expansion into rural and
cemetery areas

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2) Most Burundians have migrated permanently to cities
3) Intensive farming has completely stopped soil erosion in Burundi
4) All agricultural land in Burundi is owned by the government
5) Urbanization has no effect on food production
Directions (148-149): Select the STARTERS from the given options which can be
ha
used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the
same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.
148. I. The film was criticized heavily by reviewers.
II. Despite this, it attracted large audiences and earned massive profits.

E
(i) while the film was criticized heavily…
(ii) although the film was criticized heavily…
d
(iii) as well as the film was criticized heavily…
1) Both (i) and (iii) 2) Only (ii) 3) Both (i) and (ii) 4) Only (iii) 5) None of the above
149. I. His steady dedication, effective guidance skills, and talent for inspiring his
staff.
ee

II. The organization successfully finished the demanding assignment before the
deadline.
(i) Therefore his steady dedication, effective guidance…
C
(ii) Also his steady dedication, effective guidance…
(iii) Because of his steady dedication, effective guidance…
Sr

1) Only (ii) 2) Both (i) and (ii) 3) Both (i) and (iii) 4) Only (iii) 5) None of the above
Directions (150-152): In the following question, one highlighted word is given.
Each option contains a pair of words: the first word is a synonym and the second
word is an antonym of the highlighted word. Choose the correct pair.
150. DIATRIBE
1) speech, approval 2) rant, compliment
3) harangue, applause 4) lecture, admiration 5) tirade, praise
C
151. ACRIMONIOUS
1) compare, pleasant 2) hostile, sweet
3) spiteful, friendly 4) bitter, cordial 5) venomous, insane
152. PROPITIOUS
1) favorable, unfavourable 2) promising, adverse
3) lucky, unlucky 4) auspicious, inauspicious 5) all of the above
Direction (153-154): In each of the following sentences, a blank has been given.
One word from the options can appropriately fill all the blanks to make the
sentences meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option that best
fits all the blanks.
153. A. Throw in a smart bistro and an imaginative gift shop, and contemporary art
provides the ____________ for rural regeneration.
B. Bank policymakers have warned that an acceleration in pay demands could
give extra ___________ to inflation.
C. By altering the tactics and formation, he provided his side with added attacking
_________ and by half-time they had scored twice.
1) stimulus 2) propellant 3) incitement 4) impetus 5) None
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

154. A. Roxy was finishing off with a ___________ rumba rhythm he’d been experimenting
with, a final flourish to bring the whole thing together.
B. The ___________ photographic session seemed to be coming to an end just
before everyone succumbed to frostbite.
C. The negotiations between the two companies became _________, lasting several
months longer than anyone expected.
1) protracted 2) boosted 3) compiled 4) encroached 5) None
Directions (155-158): In the following question, three sentences (I, II and III) are
divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). There is an error in one part of each of
the sentences. Select the option with the parts containing errors in all three
sentences and mark it as your answer.

r’s
155. I. Among the key national initiatives on education and health, (A) / programs
focuses on providing affordable, high-quality schooling, (B) / showing progress
across multiple states, (C) / and union territories. (D) / NO ERROR (E)
II. Efforts to increase access (A) / to clean water and sanitation facilities (B) /
has appeared to play a crucial role (C) / in community development. (D) / NO
ERROR (E)
ha
III. Integrate environmental sustainability as a central element (A) / in all urban
planning, especially (B) / in transport, waste management, public health, (C) /

1) III C, II A, I B

E
renewable energy, and climate adaptation strategies. (D) / NO ERROR (E)
2) I B, II C, III E
d
3) II D, III A, I E 4) I A, II D, III B 5) All are correct
156. I. The sudden storm/A/ damaged several houses,/B/ leaving many families /C/
without shelter. /D/NO ERROR (E)
ee

II. A midnight alert led (A) / to banker Rachel T. Simmons participating (B) / in
the initiatives to prevent (C) / Chicago’s municipal debt crisis in 1983. (D) / NO
ERROR (E)
C
III. Clearwater Quarry, the only limestone (A) / extraction site in Portugal, has
remained (B) / operational without interruption since (C) / its opening in 2010.
Sr

(D) / NO ERROR (E)

1) II D, III A, I D 2) I D, II E, III E
3) III C, II A, I B 4) I A, II C, III D 5) All are correct
157. I. It is a situation which (A)/ neither political party cannot (B)/ handle without
(C)/ causing public unrest. (D) / NO ERROR (E)
II. She is familiar to (A) / the new software and (B) / she can operate (C) / it
without difficulty. (D) / NO ERROR (E)
C
III. He is skilled at (A)/ managing million dollars and (B)/ investing them wisely,
but (C)/he rarely takes unnecessary risks.(D)/ NO ERROR (E)
1) I B, II A, III E 2) II D, III A, I D
3) I A, II C, III D 4) III C, II A, I B 5) All are correct
158. I. The Ministry of Health launched (A) / a task force head by Dr. Sharma (B) / to
assess the vaccination strategy to improve (C) / and streamline hospital procedures
(D) / No Error (E)
II. Reliance and Air India Group declared (A) / that they plan to acquisition Jet
Airways and GoAir (B) / with Reliance holding a 30% (C) / stake in the combined
company. (D) / NO ERROR (E)
III. Students were forbidden to (A)/ speak their native language in school;(B)/
they were to learn (C)/ English in order to integrating more quickly.(D)/ NO
ERROR (E)
1) III C, II A, I B 2) I A, II C, III E
3) II B, III D, I B 4) I A, II D, III B 5) All are correct
18
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

Directions (159-160): A passage is given below. Some sentences begin with a

number (corresponding to the question number) and some words are highlighted
in bold. One of the highlighted words is grammatically incorrect/ inappropriate.
Choose the word from the option as your answer. If all the highlighted words are
correct, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
Agriculture must produce about 50 per cent more food, feed and fibre by
2050 compared with what was produced in 2012, to feed the growing population.
But meeting this demand will add significant 159. pleasure to already strained
natural resources, especially water, land, and soil, a new report by the Food and
Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, warned. Between 1964
and 2023, global agricultural production tripled but the vast majority of these
gains were achieved by intensifying how existing land was used through higher
yielding crops, expansion in irrigation and improved technologies rather than by

r’s
expanding the amount of land under cultivation, the latest edition of The State
of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture (SOLAW 2025)
report pointed out.
World’s total irrigated land area, for instance, more than doubled during
this period and by 2023, 23 per cent of all croplands were 160. equipped for
irrigation. In contrast, farmland area grew by only 8 per cent over those six
ha
decades, underscoring the mounting pressure on the same limited areas of land
to deliver ever-greater levels of food, feed and fibre. Expanding agricultural area
is no longer variable, the report stressed. Overall, agriculture accounted for
72 per cent of global freshwater withdrawals, a figure predicted to rise further in

159. 1) pleasure 2) vast

E
the future and contributing to increasing water scarcity. This happens by
overexploitation of groundwater and seawater intrusion in coastal aquifers.
3) amount 4) edition 5) No correction required
d
160. 1) equipped 2) mounting 3) variable 4) predicted 5) No correction required
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
ee

Direction (161 - 165): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
161. 50.98 ×? – 119.01 + 1089.09 = 50.022
C
1) 22 2) 44 3) 30 4) 25 5) 21
162. (28.96)2+ (12.95)2 - 399.98  576.01 = (?)2
Sr

1) 28 2) 23 3) 25 4) 27 5) 26
163. 174.95 × 34.98 – 82.95 × 19.9 = ?
1) 4465 2) 4905 3) 4665 4) 4645 5) 4520
164. 349.89 + 324.01 × ? = (8)3
1)81 2) 3 3) 5 4) 9 5) 18
C
48.01
165. 7.103× + 139.01 + 504.08 ÷ 8.95 = ?
56.09
1)139 2) 201 3) 189 4) 150 5) 100
Direction (166 - 170): In the given question two equations numbered I and II are
given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer
166. I: x2 – 18x – 243 = 0 II: 3y2 – 4y + 64 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
167. I:5x2 – 28x + 39 = 0 II: 2y2 – 23y + 63 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
168. I: x2 – 3x – 598 = 0 II: y2 – 6y – 475 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
169. I: x2 + 46x + 360 = 0 II: y2 – 53y - 630 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
2 2
170. I: x – 44x + 480 = 0 II: y – 20y + 84 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

Direction (171-175): In the given question two quantities are given, one as
Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between
two Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
171. A, B and C started a business and ratio of amounts invested by B and C is 5:8. In
second year A, B and C increased their investment by 75%, 60% and 37.5%. In
third year they further increased their investment by Rs.6000, Rs.1000 and
Rs.3000 respectively.
Quantity I: If A and B invested Rs.14000 and Rs.15000 initially and profit after 1
years is Rs.7950, Then find the profit share of C after 1 year.
Quantity II: If A and B invested Rs.24000 and Rs.20000 initially. If total profit

r’s
after 2 years is Rs.14550. Then find the profit share of B after 2 year.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
172. A box contains two bags X and Y which has 20 and 25 marbles respectively some
ha
of which are white and rest are blue in colour. Ratio of number of white marbles
in bag X and Y is 7:8.
Quantity I: If number of blue marbles in bag Y is 36% of total marbles in bag Y.

E
Find the probability of picking two white marbles from the Box.
Quantity II: If total number of blue marbles in box is 30, Then find the probability
of picking a white marbles from bag X and two white marbles from bag Y.
d
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
ee

5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined

173. Quantity I: Find the larger root of equation: x2 + 380 = 81x.
Quantity II: A boat can cover a distance of 168 km in upstream as well as same
C
distance in downstream in 22.4 hours. Boat takes 13 hours more to travel 300
km in upstream than time taken to cover 240 km in downstream. If the boat can
Sr

travel X km in still water in 570 minutes, then find the value of X.

1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
174. Quantity I: The total number of boys and girls in a school is 300. Next year
number of boys decreased by 28% and number of girls increased by 32%, then
the total number of students becomes 291. What is the number of girls now in
C
school?
Quantity II: 165
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
175. Quantity I: Vishnu takes 8 more days than Varma to complete a work. Akansh is
20% more efficient than varma and takes four days less than Varma takes. Find
the number of days taken by all of them to complete twice this work together.
7
Quantity II: 8
59
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
20
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

176. Ratio of the selling price of the mobile and laptop is 3:4. If the shopkeeper sold
the mobile and laptop at the profit of Rs.200 and 20% respectively and the difference
between the cost price of mobile and laptop is Rs.2000, then find the cost price of
laptop.
1) 18000 2) 20000 3) 15000 4) 12000 5) 16000
177. In a business, capital investment of Badal was 125% that of Amar. After 6 months,
Amar withdrew 50% of his capital and after 8 months, Badal withdrew 80% of his
capital. At the end of the year, if the total profit is Rs 102000. Find the amount
received by Amar.
1) 45600 2) 45000 3) 45900 4) 48000 5) 45200

r’s
178. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water and the quantity of milk is four
times more than that of water. If 36 liters of the mixture is taken out and 10
liters of water is added to the mixture, then the ratio of milk to water becomes
5:2. Find the quantity of the mixture in the vessel initially.
1) 48 2) 72 3) 108 4) 96 5) 84
ha
179. Speed of boat in still water is 80% of speed of boat in downstream. If boat takes 2
hours and 36 minutes to cover 78 km in upstream, then find total time taken by
boat to cover 150 km each in downstream and in upstream.
1) 10 2) 5

E 3) 12 4) 8 5) 15
180. The ratio of efficiency of Pipe A and Pipe B is 2: 3. Pipe A and Pipe B together can
d
fill the tank in 36 minutes. Find the time taken by Pipe B and Pipe C to fill the
tank, if Pipe C can empty the tank in 120 minutes.
1) 140 2) 180 3) 160 4) 100 5) 120
ee

181. 35 men can do a piece of work in 8 hours per day and complete 25% of the work in
10 days. If x men started the work in 5 hours per day and after 20 days, 30 men
C
took 6 days in 5 hours per day to complete the remaining work, then find the
value of x.
1) 96 2) 95 3) 100 4) 103 5) 108
Sr

182. 360 liter mixture contains water and milk in a ratio of 3: 5 respectively. If X liters
of the mixture is taken out, then the quantity of milk in the resultant mixture
will be equal to the initial quantity of water in the [Link] the value of X.
1) 144 2) 90 3) 162 4) 135 5) 108
183. Amar invests Rs.11250 in simple interest at x% per annum for x years and the
interest obtained by Amar is Rs.7200. Kundan invests Rs.y in compound interest
C
at (x + 12)% per annum for 2 years and the interest obtained by Kundan is
Rs.3300. Find the value of y.
1) 7200 2) 7000 3) 6800 4) 7500 5) 7800
184. Distance between two cities C1 and C2 is 600 km. P starts from C1 and Q from C2
at the same time. After two hours, P realized he was travelling slowly and therefore
1
increased his speed by th and meet Q at a point 216 km from C1. Find the
4
increased speed of P, if Q drove at a constant speed of 150 km/hr.
1) 50 kmph 2) 100 kmph 3) 150 kmph 4) 200 kmph 5) 250 kmph
185. Half of the total surface area of a sphere is 847cm2 less than the half of total
surface area of a hemisphere. If the ratio between the radius of the hemisphere
and the sphere is 3:2, then find the radius of hemisphere. (in cm)
1) 14 2) 10.5 3) 7 4) 28 5) 21

21
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

Direction (186-190): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
The data is about number of Google pay users, number of Phonepe users and
number of Paytm users in three different cities A, B and C.
Google pay: Total number of users in city A and B is 27300. Ratio of number of
Google pay users to Phonepe users in city A is 25:26. Number of users in city C is
1800 less than number of Paytm users in city C.
Phonepe: Total number of users in all three cities is 44000. Average number of
users in city B and C is 15500. Number of users in city B is 1600 more than
number of Google pay users in city B.
Paytm: Total number of users in all three cities is 46700, while the sum of
number of users in city A and B together is 11700 more than number of users in
city C. Number of users in city A is 800 more than number of Google pay users in

r’s
city B.
186. The number of Paytm users in city C is approximately how much percent more or
less than the number of Phonepe users in city A?
1) 35 2) 40 3) 50 4) 60 5) 45
187. The number of Paytm users in city C is approximately what percent of the total
number of Google pay, Phonepe and Paytm users in city C?
1) 26 2) 30
ha 3) 37 4) 44 5) 56
188. Find the difference between total number of Google pay, Phonepe and Paytm
users in city B to that by in city A.
1) 3200 2) 4500 3) 3700 4) 3500 5) 3000
users in city C?
1) 6:7 2) 5:7

E
189. What is ratio between number of Google pay users in city A to number of Paytm
3) 7:8 4) 8:5 5) 5:6
d
190. Find the average number of Google pay, Phonepe and Paytm users in city A.
1) 11300 2) 12700 3) 13700 4) 11400 5) 15600
Direction (191-195): Study the following information carefully and answer the
ee

given questions.
There are 5 boats (P, Q, R, S and T) they travel between different places i.e.
boat P to place G-H, boat Q to place H-I, boat R to place I-J, boat S to place J-K and
C
boat T travels to place K-L.
The table shows the percentage of distance between all the locations out of
the total distance (in km) and the bar graph shows the upstream speed of all the
Sr

boats.

45
40
35
Places Distance 30
C
G-H 20% 25

H-I 15% 20
15
I-J 10%
10
J-K 30% 5
K-L 25% 0
P Q R S T

upstream speed

Other information:
The total distance between all the places is 840 kms.
The speed of the stream is different for all the places.
The ratio of downstream speed and upstream speed of boat P is 3: 2 respectively

22
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

The speed of current between places I-J is 25% of the speed of current between
places G-H.
Speed of current between places H-I is 50% more than the speed of current at
places I-J.
The ratio of downstream speed of boat S and boat T is 3: 4 respectively and
downstream speed of boat S is 10 km/h more than upstream speed.
191. The total distance covered by boat S downstream in 6.5 hours and upstream in 4
hours is approximately what percent less/more than the distance covered by
boat Q downstream in 6 hours?
1) 200 2) 250 3) 350 4) 400 5) 300
192. Find the ratio of the time taken by boat P to go to place G-H and back to place H-

r’s
G and the time taken by boat R to go to place I-J and return to point J-I.
1) 13:9 2) 12:7 3) 14:9 4) 14:5 5) 15:17
193. One day the speed of boat S in still water is increased by 25% and the speed of
the current increased by 20%, then what is the total time taken by boat S to
travel to place J-K and back on that day? (In hrs)
5 1
ha 3 2 1
1) 10 2) 7 3) 7 4) 9 5) 5
22 25 25 11 25

E
194. If boat P travels to places I-H and then to places H-G then what is the time (in
hrs) taken by the boat to cover the total distance? (When boat travels from, G to H
d
then H to I while stream flows from G to I)
1 9 3 2 2
1) 10 2) 11 3) 15 4) 14 5) 9
2 14 4 3 5
ee

195. What is the difference between the distance covered by boat P downstream in 4
hours and boat R upstream in 3.5 hours together and the distance covered by
C
boats Q and S each in 3 hours in still water? (in km)
1) 110 2) 118 3) 125 4) 104 5) 98
Direction (196 – 200): Read the following information carefully and answer the
Sr

questions given below:

Given pie chart shows percentage distribution of viewers of Jio cinema in five (A,
B, C, D and E) different offices and table shows number of viewers who subscribed
Jio cinema.
Note: Total viewers in any office = Total subscriber + Total unsubscribe.

Total viewers of Jio cinema = 6000

C
A B C D E

z% 12%

15%

y%
x%

23
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 40

Given, (i) y + z = 45
(ii) x + y = 53
Offices Total people who subscribed
A 440
A+B 940
C 880
C+D 1580
E 360
196. If total male unsubscribed viewers in D is 200/3 % more than that of total female
unsubscribed viewers in the same office, then find the ratio of total male
unsubscribed viewers in D to total unsubscribed viewers in A and C together.

r’s
1) 25: 54 2) 27: 55 3) 54: 25 4) 29: 54 5) 78: 23
197. The central angle for total unsubscribed viewers in B & C and total subscribed
viewers in E together with respect to total viewers is Q (degree). Which of the
following is correct regarding numerical value Q?
I. Q = 3x + 9.6 II. Q is an integer III. (Q + 6.4) = 100
1) Only III 2) Only II 3) Both I and II 4) Both I and III 5) All I, II and III
ha
198. Out of total viewers in office C, 325/7 % are female and 7/13th of total female are
unsubscribed viewers, then find total unsubscribed male viewers from office C.
1) 440 2) 380 3) 450 4) 280 5) 560
199. In another office F, total subscribed viewers are 20% more than total unsubscribed

E
viewers of office A and total subscribed viewers in office F are
3
7
th of total viewers
d
in the same office. Find total unsubscribed viewers from office F is what percent
less than total unsubscribed viewers from office C.
1) (z + 24) % 2) (x + 16) % 3) (y + 20) % 4) Both 1 and 2 5) None of these
ee

200. All data given above for the May and in June total viewers increased by 40%,
while percentage distribution of total viewers of Jio cinema in these five offices
remains same as May. If number of subscribed viewers from office A, B, D and E
C
in June increased by 25%, 20%, 14% and 10% respectively and total subscribed
viewer from all the five offices in June are 2800, then find total unsubscribed
viewers from office C in June.
Sr

1) 1896 2) 2196 3) 1296 4) 1455 5) 2345

KEY
1.3 2.1 3.3 4.5 5.1 6.2 7.5 8.4 9.3 10.5
11.3 12.4 13.3 14.1 15.2 16.4 17.2 18.2 19.5 20.4
21.2 22.3 23.1 24.4 25.4 26.4 27.4 28.3 29.4 30.2
31.4 32.3 33.1 34.2 35.1 36.2 37.4 38.3 39.5 40.1
C
41.2 42.4 43.3 44.2 45.2 46.5 47.3 48.5 49.4 50.3
51.1 52.1 53.3 54.4 55.2 56.4 57.1 58.2 59.2 60.2 SCAN QR FOR
61.2 62.2 63.4 64.3 65.2 66.1 67.3 68.4 69.4 70.2 OUR RESULTS
71.2 72.1 73.1 74.4 75.4 76.3 77.1 78.4 79.3 80.5
81.3 82.4 83.2 84.2 85.4 86.5 87.3 88.3 89.4 90.4
91.2 92.1 93.1 94.4 95.1 96.5 97.2 98.4 99.2 100.1
101.4 102.3 103.5 104.3 105.5 106.2 107.3 108.5 109.4 110.3
111.4 112.4 113.3 114.4 115.5 116.4 117.3 118.2 119.5 120.3
121.3 122.2 123.2 124.1 125.3 126.4 127.1 128.5 129.2 130.1
131.2 132.1 133.5 134.4 135.5 136.4 137.2 138.1 139.1 140.5
141.1 142.2 143.3 144.2 145.2 146.4 147.1 148.3 149.4 150.5
151.4 152.5 153.4 154.1 155.2 156.5 157.1 158.3 159.1 160.3
161.3 162.2 163.1 164.4 165.2 166.5 167.2 168.5 169.4 170.1
171.2 172.1 173.2 174.5 175.1 176.1 177.3 178.4 179.4 180.5
181.4 182.1 183.4 184.2 185.5 186.1 187.3 188.3 189.2 190.3
191.5 192.3 193.1 194.3 195.3 196.1 197.4 198.2 199.4 200.1

24