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ESE 2021 : PRELIMS EXAM

C L A SS ROOM T ES T S ERIES
BOOKLET SERIES
CIVIL
ENGINEERING
Test No. 14
Section A : Flow of Fluids, Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower (All Topics)
Section B : Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures-1 (Part Syllabus) Topic: Limit state design for bending shear, axial
compression and combined forces design of beams, Lintels, Tanks and Staircases.
Section C : Structural Analysis-2 (Part Syllabus) Topic: Analysis of determinate and indeterminate trusses, rolling loads,
influence lines, free and forced vibrations or single degree and multiple degree freedom system, concept and use of computer
aided design (matrix analysis).

Duration: 1½ hrs. Maximum Marks: 150

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2 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Section A : Flow of Fluids, Hydraulic Machines 2. If the streamlines are curved and
and Hydropower equidistant then there will be only
normal convective acceleration.
Q.1 In a two-dimensional incompressible flow, 3. If the streamlines are curved and
the fluid velocity components are given by converging, then both normal and
u = x – 4y and v = –y –4x. The equation of tangential acceleration exist.
streamline is given as 4. If streamlines are straight and parallel
to each other, then constant non-zero
(a) 2 x 2  2 y 2  xy  C  0
acceleration exists.
(b) 2x2  2 y2  x2 y  C  0 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
(c) 2 x 2  2 y 2  xy  C  0
Q.5 For a two-dimensional flow field, the
(d) 2 y 2  2x 2  xy  C  0 stream function is  = 4x 2 – 5y 2 . The
magnitude of discharge occurring between
Q.2 Consider the following statements: the streamlines passing through (1, 1) and
1. At room temperature, the dynamic (2, 2) is
viscosity of water is more than that of (a) 5 units (b) 3 units
air whereas the kinematic viscosity of (c) 4 units (d) 2 units
air is more than that of water.
2. As the temperature increases, viscosity Q.6 The velocity corresponding to a two

of the gas increases faster whereas dimensional flow field is V  3y 2 iˆ  4xyjˆ.
kinematic viscosity decreases much The magnitude of rotation at the point (3, 3)
faster. in rad/sec is
Which of the above statements is/are (a) 6 (b) 3
correct? (c) 1.5 (d) 12
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Q.7 Consider the following velocity distribution
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 across a section:
Q.3 If a soap bubble has to sustain an absolute
pressure of 101.35 kPa with its diameter
being 25 mm then what will be the surface y
tension of soap-air interface? (Consider
u = ky

y y/2
atmospheric pressure equal to 101.325 kPa.)
(a) 0.078 N/m (b) 0.076 N/m
u
(c) 0.316 N/m (d) 0.025 N/m
The velocity is linearly varying upto half of
Q.4 Choose the correct set of statements about depth of section from bottom. The
flow acceleration based upon streamline remaining half has no flow. The momentum
pattern energy correction factor for the given flow is
(Note: Consider flow from left to right) 1 2
1. If streamlines are straight and diverging (a) (b)
3 3
then only convective tangential positive 4 8
acceleration exists. (c) (d)
3 3

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 Civil Engineering | Test 14 3

Q.8 The boundary layer thickness at a distance U U

of 1 m from the leading edge of a flat plate (a) (b)
4 2
kept at zero angle of incidence to the flow
U U
direction is 0.2 cm. The velocity outside the (c) (d)
3 5
boundary layer is 25 m/s. Assuming that
the boundary layer is entirely laminar, the Q.12 Consider the following statements:
boundary layer thickness at a distance of 1. The friction factor is always a function
4 m is of the Reynold’s number of the flow in
(a) 0.2 cm (b) 0.4 cm hydrodynamically smooth pipes in
(c) 0.1 cm (d) 0.05 cm turbulent regime.
2. In a fully developed rough turbulent
Q.9 The discharge in laminar flow through a
pipe flow, the relative roughness
pipe of diameter 0.04 m having a centreline
governs the friction factor.
velocity of 1.5 m/s is
3. For a Reynold’s number of 1600 in a flow
(a) 0.16 m3/s (b) 3.77 l/s
3 through pipe, the friction factor is 0.4.
(c) 0.94 m /s (d) 0.94 l/s
4. For a Reynold’s number of 104 in a flow
Q.10 An object has a projected area 1 m2 normal through pipe, the friction factor is 0.0316.
to the direction of its motion. It has a drag Which of the above statements are correct?
coefficient of 0.4 for a Reynold’s number of (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
107 using a characteristics length of 2 m. For (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
this Reynold’s number, what is the drag on
Q.13 Two tanks are connected in parallel by two
the object when moving through water at
pipes A and B. A has a friction factor of f
20°C ( = 10–3 Ns/m2)
while that of B is 2f. A and B have identical
(a) 20 kN (b) 10 kN
lengths. If the size of pipe B is thrice that of
(c) 5 kN (d) 15 kN
pipe A then ratio of discharge in pipe A to
Q.11 Flow of a fluid with absolute viscosity  is that in pipe B will be
in laminar motion between two parallel (a) 0.03 (b) 0.064
plates under the action of motion of one of (c) 0.09 (d) 0.045
the plates and also under the presence of a
Q.14 The wind velocity in a cyclone may be
6U assumed to vary according to free vortex
pressure gradient of . The magnitude
b2 law. If the velocity of wind is 16 km/hr,
of minimum velocity for the figure shown 50 km from the centre of the cyclone, then
below is the velocity at a point 10 km radially
inwards towards the centre of the storm
U from the given point is
(a) 20 km/hr (b) 80 km/hr
b
y (c) 40 km/hr (d) 10 km/hr

Q.15 A jet of water is issuing from a 2 × 10–5 m2

area orifice. It was found to travel
Stationary plate horizontal and vertical distances of 10 m
and 20 metre respectively. If coefficient of

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4 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

contraction for the orifice is 0.6 then 2. In turbulent flow, the total shear stress
discharge in litre per second is may be considered mainly due to
(Assume g = 10 m/s2) momentum transport in the transverse
(a) 0.06 (b) 0.1 direction.
(c) 0.12 (d) 0.06 3. Mixing length is considered to represent
the average distance a small fluid mass
Q.16 A model of a reservoir is drained in
will travel before momentum exchange.
8 minutes by opening the sluice gate. The
4. Prandtl’s mixing length theory is based
time required to empty the prototype
on the assumption that there is no
considering the scale ratio of 1 : 784 will be
correlation between fluctuating velocity
(a) 3.5 minutes (b) 210 minutes
components.
(c) 2.24 hours (d) 3.73 hours
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.17 When compared to a streamlined body, a (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
bluff body will have (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) less pressure drag but more friction drag (d) 1 and 2 only
(b) less pressure drag and less friction drag
(c) more pressure drag and more friction Q.20 Consider a boundary layer growth over a
drag flat plate. Choose the correct set of
(d) more pressure drag but less friction drag statements from the following:
1. For a steady flow, the streamlines shift
Q.18 Bernoulli’s principle is used wherever over the boundary layer in order to
energy considerations are involved then compensate the discharge across section
which of the following statements are on the plate.
correct? 2. Shape factor obtained for a boundary
1. Pitot-tube indicates the position of the layer flow is independent of velocity
total energy line above any arbitrary profile.
datum. 3. There exists a momentum deficit at the
2. In rotational flow, the velocity varies trailing edge of the plate.
normal to the flow. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. The piezometric head in a uniform (b) 2 and 3 only
conduit does not remain constant in a (c) 1 and 3 only
direction normal to flow for a rotational
(d) 1, 2 and 3
flow.
4. In a real fluid, the total head varies Q.21 The pressure drop in a 15 cm radius
throughout the normal section in a horizontal pipe is 50 kPa in a distance of
uniform conduit. 12.5 m. The wall shear stress in Pascals is
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (a) 0.3 (b) 300
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 30 (d) 0.03

Q.19 Choose the correct statements with Q.22 Consider a venturimeter fitted in a pipe flow
reference to Prandtl’s mixing length theory: arrangement and state which of the
1. Prandtl used the analogy of mean free following statements are correct?
path of kinetic theory of gases to 1. It is a device used for measuring volume
develop mixing length concept. of fluid flowing per unit time.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 14 5

2. It has a converging entrance with cone What is the acceleration? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
angle greater than that of diffuser. (a) 0.88 m/s2 (b) 19.1 m/s2
3. The function of the converging cone is (c) 16.8 m/s2 (d) 12.4 m/s2
to convert the pressure energy into
Q.27 When cavitation occurs in hydraulic
kinetic energy.
structures and hydraulic machines, it is
4. The greater is the angle of divergence,
indicated by which the following:
the smaller is the energy dissipation.
1. Formation of large number of air
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
bubbles
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
2. Long life of structure and machines
Q.23 The shear stress distribution in a viscous 3. Increase in efficiency
flow is given by  = 8 – 3y for y  2 m, 4. Noise and vibrations
where  is shear stress in N/m 2 at any 5. Trouble free operations
distance y in metre from the plate. The (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
coefficient of dynamic viscosity is 1.5 Pa.s. (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
It is found that no slip condition exists for (c) 1 and 4 only
the flow then velocity of flow at y = 1 m is (d) All of the above
(a) 2.12 m/s (b) 6.5 m/s
Q.28 Ageing of a pipeline has caused decrement
(c) 1.67 m/s (d) 4.33 m/s
in flow carrying capacity by 20%. Estimate
Q.24 A rectangular pontoon has a width of 5 m the corresponding final Darcy-Weisbach
and length 10 m. The pontoon is floating in friction factor, if initially it was 0.04.
an oil lake of density 900 kg/m 3 with a (a) 0.084 (b) 0.064
submerged depth of 1 m. After floating for (c) 0.056 (d) 0.034
long the pontoon falls into sea water of
Q.29 A jet of water 75 mm in diameter having a
density 1025 kg/m3. What is the submerged
velocity of 20 m/s, strikes normally a flat
depth of pontoon at equilibrium in sea
smooth plate. If the plate is moving in the
water?
same direction as the jet with a velocity of
(a) 1.5 m (b) 1.14 m
5 m/s, then efficiency of the jet will be
(c) 0.66 m (d) 0.88 m
(a) 25% (b) 68%
Q.25 The discharge Q over a rectangular weir (c) 28% (d) 88%
depends on the head H over the weir,
Q.30 Which of the following statement(s) is/are
acceleration due to gravity g, length of weir
correct, with respect to classification of
crest L, height of weir crest over the channel
hydraulic turbines?
bottom Z and the kinematic viscosity  of
1. Both Pelton and Francis turbines are
the liquid. The number of -terms are
impulse turbines.
(a) 2 (b) 4
2. Both Francis and Kaplan turbines are
(c) 3 (d) 6
reaction turbine.
Q.26 A closed tank containing water to a depth 3. Francis turbine is an axial flow reaction
of 1.5 m falls vertically with an acceleration turbine.
such that there is a vacuum pressure of 4. Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction
10 cm of mercury on the bottom of the tank. turbine.

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6 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Select the correct answer using the codes protect the penstocks against water
given below: hammer pressure.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Q.31 Tests on a pump model indicate a cavitation
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
parameter, c = 0.10. A homologous unit is
to be installed at a location where Q.35 An impulse wheel at best speed produces
atmospheric pressure head is 9.30 m, vapour 93 kW under a head of 64 m. By what
pressure head is 0.4 m and is to pump water percent should the speed be increased for
against a head of 25 m. What is the an 88 m head? (Assuming equal efficiencies)
maximum permissible suction head? (a) 14.8% (b) 12.9%
(a) 5.4 m (b) 6.4 m (c) 17.3% (d) 119.4%
(c) 4.8 m (d) 6.8 m
Q.36 A hydraulically most efficient trapezoidal
Q.32 A large hydraulic turbine is to generate channel section carries water at the
300 kW at 1000 rpm under a head of 40 m. optimum depth of 0.50 m. Chezy’s
For initial testing, a 1 : 4 scale model of the coefficient is 75 and the longitudinal slope
turbine operates under a head of 10 m. The is 1 in 2500. What is the discharge through
power developed by the model will be the channel?
(a) 2.34 kW (b) 4.68 kW (a) 0.825 m3/s (b) 0.425 m3/s
(c) 4.38 kW (d) 18.75 kW (c) 0.325 m3/s (d) 0.625 m3/s
Q.33 A centrifugal pump has an impeller of 30 Q.37 Consider the following statements in
cm diameter and runs at 1500 rpm giving reference to Rapidly Varied Flow (RVF):
best efficiency. It delivered 2.4 m 3 /min 1. Curvature of streamlines is not
against a head of 25 m. What is the non- excessive.
dimensional specific speed? (based on flow 2. Depth change appreciably over short
expressed in L.P.S.) lengths.
[Take 4 3. Frictional resistance plays an important
9.81  3.132 , 9.81  1.77,
role in these flows.
5  2.236 and 10  3.162 ]. 4. A hydraulic jump occurring below a
(a) 98 (b) 172 spillway or a sluice gate is an example
(c) 148 (d) 153 of unsteady RVF.
Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t the
Q.34 Consider the following statements with codes given below:
respect to hydroelectric plant and their (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
components: (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
1. Pumped storage plants are base load
plants. Q.38 The S3 water surface profile (y = depth of
2. Run-of-river plants with pondage can flow, y0 = normal depth, yc = critical depth)
operate both as peak load and base load is indicated by which of the following
plants as river flow permits. condition?
3. Surge tank is cylindrical open topped (a) y0 > yc > y (b) yc > y0 > y
storage reservoir which is provided to (c) yc > y > y0 (d) y > yc > y0

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 Civil Engineering | Test 14 7

Q.39 In a hydraulic jump occurring in a

rectangular channel of 3.0 m width, the
discharge is 7.8 m3/s and depth before the
jump is 0.28 m. It can be classified as: y1
(a) an oscillating jump
y2
(b) a weak jump
(c) a strong jump
(d) a steady jump The depths at small distance upstream (y1)
and downstream (y2) are 2.0 m and 0.4 m
Q.40 Consider the following statements w.r.t.
respectively. What is the discharge in the
specific energy curve:
channel? (Neglect energy loss at the gate
and take g = 9.81 m/s2)
(a) 5.78 m3/s (b) 4.56 m3/s
3
(c) 6.32 m /s (d) 3.74 m3/s

Q.43 A positive surge of height 0.8 m was found

to occur in a rectangular channel with a flow
depth of 2.0 m. The celerity of the surge is
(a) ±4.68 m/s (b) ±6.34 m/s
(c) ±5.74 m/s (d) ±4.24 m/s

Direction (Q.44 to Q.50): The following items

consists of two statements, one labelled as
1. The upper limb CR’ denotes the
Statement (I) and the other labelled as
subcritical flow region.
Statement (II). You have to examine these two
2. The lower limb CR denotes the
statements carefully and select your answers to
supercritical flow region.
these items using the codes given below:
3. There is only one specific energy curve Codes:
for a given channel cross-section. (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
Which of the above statement(s) is/are are true and Statement (II) is the
correct? correct explanation of Statement (I).
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 are true but Statement (II) is not a
correct explanation of Statement (I).
Q.41 A rectangular channel carries a certain flow
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
for which the alternate depths are found to
is false.
be 5.0 m and 2.0 m. The critical depth (in
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
m) for this flow is
(II) is true.
(a) 3.24 m (b) 3.06 m
(c) 4.24 m (d) 4.06 m Q.44 Statement (I): In Kaplan turbine, high
efficiency is maintained over a wide range
Q.42 A sluice gate in a 2.0 m wide horizontal of turbine output.
rectangular channel is discharging freely as Statement (II): Vanes on the hub are
shown. adjustable.

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8 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.45 Statement (I): Boundary layer effect is the Section B : Design of Concrete and Masonry
cause for increased maximum velocity at Structures-1
centreline of flow in a circular pipe.
Q.51 The IS code specifies the characteristic
Statement (II): For the continuity principle
strength of concrete (fck) as that the 28 days
to hold good, the velocity of flow increases
cube strength below which not more than
due to boundary layer effect.
5 percent of the test results may be expected
Q.46 Statement (I): A vessel having sides to fall. The expression for fck in terms of
diverging upwards has better stability while mean strength fm and standard deviation S
a floating body with sides converging would be
upwards has a doubtful stability. (a) fm – 0.165 S (b) fm – 1.65 S
Statement (II): For a cylinder floating with (c) f m (d) fm + 1.65 S
its axis parallel to the liquid surface, the
Q.52 A balanced reinforced concrete beam of
metacentre does not exist and thus
M20 grade and width 300 mm is having a
metacentric height GM is zero such cylinder factored limiting moment of resistance of
has zero stability. 207 kNm. The grade of steel is Fe415. The
effective depth (to nearest multiple of 10)
Q.47 Statement (I): The power transmitted
of the beam section is
through a pipe is maximum when the loss
(a) 450 mm (b) 500 mm
of head due to friction is equal to one-third
(c) 550 mm (d) 600 mm
of total head at the inlet.
Statement (II): Velocity is maximum when Q.53 The lever arm ‘Z’ for a deep beam
the friction loss is equal to one-third of total (continuous) having the ratio of effective
head at the inlet.
 l 
span, l to overall depth D i.e.,   is 1.8,
Q.48 Statement (I): Pascal’s law is not valid for D
real fluids with rigid body motion.
is
Statement (II): For a real fluid, dynamic
(a) Z = 0.2 (l + 2 D)
viscosity is not zero. (b) Z = 0.2 (l + 1.5 D)
Q.49 Statement (I): A hydraulic jump occurs (c) Z = 0.5 l
when there is a break in grade from a steep (d) Z = 0.6 l
slope to mild slope.
Q.54 Find the moment of resistance of the beam
Statement (II): At normal depth, flow in section as shown in figure.
steep sloped channel is supercritical while
in mild sloped channel, flow is subcritical.

Q.50 Statement (I): When the channel section is

550 mm

a half square, a hydraulically efficient

section is obtained. 2
Ast = 900 mm
Statement (II): With the slope, roughness
coefficient and area of flow fixed, a
minimum perimeter section will represent
the hydraulically efficient section as it
300 mm
conveys the maximum discharge.
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 Civil Engineering | Test 14 9

Assume, permissible stress in concrete in

bending compression and steel in tension
as respectively 5.6 N/mm2 and 210 N/mm2.
(a) 88.8 kNm (b) 82.6 kNm 3.
(c) 67.7 kNm (d) 77.7 kNm
d
Q.55 For the development of full strength in
shear stirrups, it shall be bent satisfying,
which of the following requirements? The critical section for shear at a distance d
1. The ends of the stirrups shall be bent from the face of support, lies in which of
through an angle of atleast 90 degree the above cross-sections shown?
around a bar of at least its own diameter (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
and continued beyond the end of the (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
curve for a length of atleast eight times
Q.57 Consider the following statements with
the bar diameter.
respect to compression members with
2. The ends of the stirrups shall be bent
helical reinforcement:
through an angle of atleast 135 degree
1. The strength of compression members
around a bar of at least its own diameter
with helical reinforcement shall be taken
and continued beyond the end of the
as 1.05 times the strength of similar
curve for a length of atleast six times
members with lateral ties.
the bar diameter.
2. The ratio of the volume of helical
3. The ends of the stirrups shall be bent
reinforcement to the volume of the core
through an angle of atleast 180 degree
around a bar of at least its own diameter Afck 
shall not be less than 0.36  c  1
and continued beyond the end of the  Ag
fy 
 
curve for a length of atleast sixteen times 3. The strength of compression members
the bar diameter. with helical reinforcement shall be taken
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only as 1.10 times the strength of similar
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 members with lateral ties.
Q.56 Consider the following RC beam cross- 4. The ratio of the volume of helical
sections: reinforcement to the volume of the core

fck  Ag 
d shall not be less then 0.36  1

f y  Ac 
1. Where Ag, Ac are gross cross-sectional
area of the member and core area, and
fck and fy are characteristics strength of
concrete and steel respectively.
d Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
2. (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 4 are correct
(d) Only 1 is correct

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10 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.58 Determine the design shear force at the 160 mm. Maximum value of hoop tension
support for a cantilever beam as shown per metre length of wall is
below. The depth of beam is linearly [Take w = 9.81 kN/m3]
varying from 800 mm at support to 350 mm
at free end. (Take effective cover as 40 mm). 2 Coefficient at points
H
DT 0.4H 0.5H 0.6H 0.7H 0.8H
45 kN/m (factored)
10 0.437 0.542 0.608 0.589 0.440

mm
350
800 mm

12 0.429 0.543 0.628 0.633 0.444

(a) 119.3 kN (b) 126.3 kN

3.0 m (c) 128.9 kN (d) 117.9 kN

(a) 175 kN (b) 215 kN Direction (Q.63 to Q.64): The following items
(c) 95 kN (d) 135 kN consists of two statements, one labelled as
Statement (I) and the other labelled as Statement
Q.59 The size of a rectangular column is 300 mm
(II). You have to examine these two statements
× 400 mm and the effective length about
carefully and select your answers to these items
major axis is equal to 6.0 m. The axial force,
using the codes given below:
P u acting on column is 1500 kN. The
Codes:
additional moment about major axis due to
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
slenderness will be equal to
are true and Statement (II) is the
(a) 67.5 kNm (b) 49.8 kNm
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) 77.8 kNm (d) 59.5 kNm
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
Q.60 Basic value of span to effective depth ratio are true but Statement (II) is not a
for continuous beam having span 20 m is correct explanation of Statement (I).
(a) 26 (b) 13 (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
(c) 20 (d) 10 is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
Q.61 In a staircase tread of step is 260 mm and
(II) is true.
the rise of the step is 140 mm. If unit weight
of reinforced concrete is 25 kN / m 3 then the Q.63 Statement (I): An under-reinforced beam
weight of each step (without waist slab) will undergo large deformation resulting in
be equal to ductile failure.
(a) 0.682 kN/m width of staircase Statement (II): The primary cause of failure
(b) 0.569 kN/m width of staircase of an under-reinforced beam is due to
(c) 0.455 kN/m width of staircase yielding of tension steel.
(d) 0.796 kN/m width of staircase
Q.64 Statement (I): Ties must be stiff enough to
Q.62 A circular tank has an internal diameter of prevent lateral displacement of the main
10 m and has maximum height of water as bars during ultimate failure conditions.
4 m. The walls of the tank are restrained at Statement (II): Size of ties is independent
the base. Thickness of vertical wall is of grade of steel used.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 14 11

Section C : Structural Analysis-2 Q.68 Consider the following statements related

to matrix method:
Q.65 The frame structure as shown in figure is
1. Obtaining flexibility matrix is difficult
used to support a hoist for transferring
for large and complex structures.
loads for storage at points underneath it. It 2. Flexibility matrix is applicable to stable
is anticipated that the load on the dolly is structures only.
3 kN and the beam CB has a mass of 3. Stiffness method is more suitable than
2.4 kN/m. Assume the dolly has negligible the flexibility method and is preferred
size and can travel the entire length of the for computer analysis.
beam and joint A is pinned and joint B is on 4. Stiffness method is applicable for
rollers. Calculate the maximum moment in determinate structures only.
the beam at point D. Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
1m 1.5 m 1.5 m
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
C B (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
A D
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
3 kN (d) 1 and 3 only

Q.69 Consider the following statements:

1. Absolute maximum moment occurs
under one of the load when the resultant
(a) 4.35 kNm (b) 2.25 kNm of all the loads and the load under
(c) 5.55 kNm (d) 2.1 kNm consideration are equidistant from the
centre of the beam.
Q.66 Calculate the vertical deflection of the joint
2. All statically determinate beams will
‘C’ of the truss as shown below, if the
have influence lines for stress function
member DF has a lack of fit of 1 cm.
consisting of straight line segments.
4m 4m 4m Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
E F B
A (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
3m

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D C
Q.70 Consider the following statements related
(a) 5.5 mm (b) 0.55 mm to rigid frame which is externally
(c) 1.1 cm (d) 0.416 cm determinate and internally indeterminate
structure:
Q.67 A weight of 0.01 kN is attached to a spring
1. If temperature of all members changes
of stiffness of 0.64 N/m. Calculate the
by equal amount, no stress will be
coefficient of critical damping.
induced.
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
2. If temperature of a particular member
(a) 1.60 (b) 0.8
changes, then stress will be introduced
(c) 16 (d) 0.16
in that member only.

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12 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Which of the above statement(s) is/are (a) 3 kN (T) (b) 3 kN (C)

correct? (c) 5 kN (C) (d) 5 kN (T)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Q.73 The flexibility matrix of the beam shown in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
figure is
Q.71 For a continuous beam as shown in figure,
A 2
the ILD for reaction at joint C will be 2I C I B
1
6m 4m 8m 4m 6m
2m 2m
B C D E ( AE is constant)
A F
 1   1 
 2EI 0   2EI 0 
   
(a)  4  (b)  2 
(a) 0 0
E
A B C D  AE   AE 

1  1 
 EI 0   EI 0 
   
(b) E (c)  4  (d)  2 
F 0 0
A B C D  AE   AE 

Q.74 A vibrating system has viscous damping

ratio,  = 0.60 then what is logarithmic
(c)
F decrement of the given system?
A B C D E
(a) 6.28 (b) 3.14
(c) 4.712 (d) 7.854
(d) E Q.75 Statement (I): The proof of Muller-Breslau
F
A B C D principle can be established using the
Q.72 Calculate the force in the number CE of the principle of virtual work.
truss shown in figure. Statement (II): If the body is given an
imaginary or virtual displacement, the work
A done by all the forces and moment must
3 kN
also be equal to zero.
2m
B 45° C (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
3 kN
are true and Statement (II) is the
2m
E correct explanation of Statement (I).
D 5 kN
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
3m are true but Statement (II) is not a
F G correct explanation of Statement (I).
5 kN (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false.
3m
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
H I (II) is true.

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