07-12-2025

9610ZMD801302425006 MD

PHYSICS

1) The pressure exerted by water on a fish at a depth h below the surface of lake water is 1.209 ×
105 N/m2. If atmospheric pressure is 1.013 × 105 N/m2 and g = 9.8 m/s2, then the value of h is : -

(1) 20 m
(2) 15 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 2 m

2) Equal volume of two immiscible liquids of densities ρ and 2ρ are filled in a vessel as shown in the
figure. Two small holes are punched at depths h/2 and 3h/2 from the surface of lighter liquid.

If v1 and v2 are the velocities of efflux at these two holes, then v1/v2 is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The excess of pressure inside the first soap bubble is three times that inside the second bubble.
The ratio of volume of the first to that of the second bubble is : -

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 9
(3) 1 : 27
(4) 9 : 1

4) Velocity of liquid entering is 10 m/sec then what will be height difference between vertical limbs?

(1) 15 cm
(2) 15 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 60 m

5) The magnetic field intensity due to a thin wire carrying current I shown in figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Two circular coils X and Y, having equal number of turns, carry equal currents in the same sense
and subtend same solid angle at point O. If the smaller coil X is midway between O and Y, and if we
represent the magnetic induction due to bigger coil Y at O as BY and that due to smaller coil X at O

as Bx, then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The charge on a particle Y is double the charge on particle X. These two particles X and Y after
being accelerated through the same potential difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field
and describe circular paths of radii R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of the mass of X to that of Y is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola y2 = 2x carries a current i = 2 A as shown in

figure. this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field Tesla. The magnetic force on the wire

is (in newton)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) When a current carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its magnetic moment anti-
parallel to the field
(a) Torque on it is maximum
(b) Torque on it is zero
(c) Potential energy is maximum
(d) Dipole is in unstable equilibrium

(1) b, c, d are correct

(2) only b is correct
(3) a and c are correct
(4) none

10) A charge q revolve in a circle of radius 'r' with angular frequency 'ω'. If the magnetic field
produced at the centre of circle is 'B', then radius of circle is directly proportional to –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A material rod, when placed in a strong magnetic field, aligns itself at right angles to the
magnetic field. The nature of material is :-
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Ferromagnetic
(4) Low ferromagnetic

12)

A circular coil of radius 2.00 cm has 50 turns. A uniform magnetic field B = 0.2 T exists in the space
in a direction parallel to the axis of the loop. The coil is now rotated about a diameter through an
angle of 60°. The operation takes 0.1 s. The average emf induced in the coil is

(1) 6.28 × 10–2 V

(2) 6.28 × 10–3 V
(3) 62.8 × 10–2 V
(4) 628 × 10–2 V

13) Three identical conducting circular loops are placed in uniform magnetic fields. Inside each loop,
there are two magnetic field regions, separated by dashed line that coincides with a diameter, as
shown. Magnetic fields may either be increasing (marked as INCR) or decreasing (marked as DECR)
in magnitude at the same rates. If IA, IB and IC are the magnitudes of the induced currents in the
loops A, B and C respectively then choose the CORRECT relation :-

(1) IA > IB = IC
(2) IA = IC > IB
(3) IA = IB = IC
(4) IC > IA > IB

14)
Figure shows two coaxial coils M and N. Column I is regarding same operations done with M and
column-II about induced current in coil N.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Just after switch S is closed. (P) Current is induced A to B.

Switch S is opened after keeping it

(ii) (Q) Current is induced for B to A.
closed for long.

After switch S is closed for a long

(iii) (R) No current is induced.
time.
(1) i-(P), ii-(R), iii-(Q)
(2) i-(P), ii-(Q), iii-(R)
(3) i-(R), ii-(Q), iii-(P)
(4) i-(Q), ii-(P), iii-(Q)

15) A thin conducting wire (PQR) in the form of circular arc with its plane vertical is moving in a
horizontal magnetic field B as shown in the figure. The potential difference developed across the
wire when its speed is v, is

(1) BvR
(2) BvR

(3)

(4)

16) In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source resistance the voltmeter and ammeter reading

will respectively be

(1) 0V, 3A
(2) 150V, 3A
(3) 150V, 6A
(4) 0V, 8A

17) Alternating current is flowing in inductance L and resistance R. The frequency of source is ω/2π.
Which of the following statement is correct :

(1) For low frequency the limiting value of impedance is L.

(2) For high frequency the limiting value of impedance is ωL.
(3) For high frequency the limiting value of impedance is R.
(4) For low frequency the limiting value of impedance is ωL.

18) The power factor of an R - L circuit is . If the frequency of A.C. is doubled. Then new power
factor of the R - L circuit will be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) For a series LCR circuit, I vs w curve is shown:

(a) To the left of ωr, the circuit is mainly capacitive.
(b) To the left of ωr, the circuit is mainly inductive.
(c) At ωr, impedance of the circuit is equal to the resistance of the circuit.

(d) At ωr, impedance of the circuit is 0. Choose the most

appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) and (d) only

(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

20) Match List I with List II of Electromagnetic waves with corresponding wavelength range :

List-I List-II

(A) Microwave (I) 400 nm to 1 nm

(B) Ultraviolet (II) 1 nm to 10–3 nm

(C) X-Ray (III) 1 mm to 700 nm

(D) Infra-red (IV) 0.1 m to 1mm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

21)
Match the column I with column II -

Column - I Column - II
(Law) (Mathematical formula)

(A) Faraday law (P)

Ampere
(B) (Q)
Maxwell law

(C) Gauss law for magnetism (R)

(D) Gauss law for electrostatics (S)

(1) A R, B Q, C S, D P
A P, B Q, C S, D R
(2)

(3) A P, B S, C Q, D R
(4) A R, B S, C Q, D P

22) A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and separation between the plates d, is charged by a
constant current i. Consider a plane surface of area A/2 parallel to the plates and drawn
symmetrically between the plates, then the displacement current through this area, will be –

(1) i

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

23) An electromagnet has stored 648 J of magnetic energy, when a current of 9A exists in its coils.
What average emf is induced if the current is reduced to zero in 0.45s?

(1) 320V
(2) 160 V
(3) 32 V
(4) 3.2 V

24) A circular coil of 'N' turns and radius 'R' is placed in a plane containing an infinitely long wire.
The distance of the wire from the centre of the coil is 'x'. Current in the wire is I1 and current in coil
is I2. Find the value of 'x' for which field at the centre of the coil is zero :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Figure shows an Amperian path ABCDA. Part ABC is in vertical plane PSTU while part CDA is in
horizontal plane PQRS. Direction of circulation along the path is shown by an arrow near point B and

at D. for this path according to Ampere’s law will be :-

(1) (I1 – I2 + I3)µ0

(2) (–I1 + I2)µ0
(3) I3µ0
(4) (I1 + I2)µ0

26) Two charged particles M and N enter a space of uniform magnetic field, with
velocities perpendicular to the magnetic field. The paths are as shown in the figure. The possible
reasons for different paths may be :
(A) the charge of M is greater than that of N.
(B) the momentum of M is greater than that of N.
(C) specific charge of M is greater than that of N
(D) the speed of M is less than that of N.

(1) A & C
(2) B, C & D
(3) A & B
(4) A, C & D

27) A circular current carrying loop of radius R is bent about its diameter by 90° and placed in a

magnetic field as shown in the figure. Which of the following

statement is correct?

(1)
Magnetic moment of the loop is
(2) Torque acting on the loop is zero
(3) Angular acceleration of the loop is non-zero
(4) Both (1) and (2)

28) The voltage supplied to a circuit is given by V = V0t3/2, where t is time in second. Find the RMS
value of voltage for the period t = 0 to t = 1s :-

(1)

(2) V0

(3)

(4) 2V0

29) An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path of radius 2m in a horizontal XY plane,
with the centre at the origin. When the object is at x = –2m, its velocity is . What is the
object's acceleration when it is y = 2m : -
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) When a ceiling fan is switched off its angular velocity reduces to 50% while it makes 36
rotations. How many more rotation will it make before coming to rest (Assume uniform angular
retardation) : -

(1) 18
(2) 12
(3) 36
(4) 48

31) A stone of mass m is tied to a string and is moved in a vertical circle of radius r making n
revolutions per minute. The total tension in the string when the stone is at its lowest point is : -

(1) mg
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) The distance of centres of mass of two square plates system as shown from point O, if masses of

plates are 2m and m is (their edges are 'a' and '2a' respectively) -

(1)

(2) a

(3)

(4)

33) Figure shows the behavior of a projectile just after it has broken up into three pieces. What was
the speed of the projectile the instant before it broke up?
(1) v3
(2) 3v3

(3)

(4) 4v3

34) A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v strikes a suspended wooden block of mass M and stick
to it. If the block rises to a height h, the initial velocity of the bullet will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A solid sphere rolls down an inclined plane and its velocity at the bottom is ν1. The same sphere
slides down the plane (without friction) and its velocity at the bottom is ν2. Which of the following
relations is correct :-

(1) ν1 = ν2

(2)
ν1 = ν2

(3)
ν1 = ν2
(4) None of these

36) The angular momentum of a projectile projected at an angle θ with the horizontal with speed
u about the point of projection when it is at the highest point of its trajectory is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Consider the sphere moving on rough horizontal surface. At some instant it has linear velocity v
and angular velocity about centre of mass v0/2R. The translational velocity after the sphere starts

pure rolling :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The force between a hollow sphere and a point mass at P inside it as shown in figure:

(1) is attractive and constant

(2) is attractive and depend on the position of the point with respect to centre C
(3) is zero
(4) is repulsive and constant

39) A body attains a height equal to the radius of the Earth when projected from Earth' surface. The
velocity of the body with which it was projected is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) Two solid spherical planets of equal radii R are having masses 4M and 9M their centres are
separated by a distance 6R. A projectile of mass m is sent from the planet of mass 4 M towards the
heavier planet. What is the distance r of the point from the center of lighter planet where the
gravitational force on the projectile is zero ?

(1) 1.4 R
(2) 1.8 R
(3) 1.5 R
(4) 2.4 R

41) Three rings each of mass M and radius R are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of
inertia of the system about YY′ will be :

(1) 3 MR2

(2)

(3) 5 MR2

(4)

42) The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about an axis passing through centre of gravity is MR2;
then its radius of gyration about a parallel axis at a distance 2R from first axis is :-

(1) 5R
(2)

(3)

(4)
43) If all rods have same length and area of cross-section. Also density
(σ2) > density (σ1) then :-

(1) I4 > I2 > I3 > I1

(2) I4 > I3 > I2 > I1
(3) I1 > I2 > I3 > I4
(4) I4 > I2 > I1 > I3

44) A rigid seesaw of 20 kg is balanced with two boys A and B and a weight of 2 kg is hanged as

shown in the figure. Mass of A is 40 kg find mass of B.

(1) 340 kg
(2) 193 kg
(3) 135 kg
(4) 75 kg

45) A force F = 2N is applied horizontally on a vertex of a equilateral triangle of side 2m, as shown
in the figure. Find the torque due to force F about point P as shown in the figure :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Correct match :-

Mixture Purification technique

(A) Chloroform & aniline (P) Distillation
(B) Glycerol & Spentlye (Q) Chromatography
(C) Aniline & Water (R) Steam distillation
(D) Amino Acid (S) Distillation under reduced pressure
(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
(2) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q
(3) A–P, B–R, C–S, D–Q
(4) A–R, B–S, C–P, D–Q

2) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
Nature of compound/ impurity Purification technique
(a) Liquids having sufficient difference in boiling point (p) Fractional distillation
(b) Difference of boiling points of liquids is not much. (q) Distillation
Compounds which decompose at or below their
(c) (r) Steam distillation
boiling point
Substances which are steam volatile and are
(d) (s) Distillation under reduced pressure
immiscible with water
(1) a = q, b = p, c = r, d = s
(2) a = p, b = q, c = s, d = r
(3) a = q, b = p, c = s, d = r
(4) a = p, b = q, c = r, d = s

3) Statement I: Silica gel and alumina are used as adsorbent for adsorption chromatography.
Statement II: Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Both statements I and II are true
(4) Both statements I and II are false

4) Examples of compounds separated by steam distillation method

(1) Glycerol- spent lye mixture in soap industry

(2) Aniline- water mixture
(3) Chloroform and aniline mixture
(4) Franctions of cruid oil in petroleum industry

5) The substance which can be commonly used as an adsorbent in column chromatography is

(1) Na2O
(2) NaCl
(3) Al2O3
(4) Alum

6) Assertion: Friedel craft alkylation of benzene and hexadeutero benzene occur exactly at the same
rate.
Reason: The cleavage of C–H bond is not the rate determining step of the reaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

7)
A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following is correct

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

9) Match the coloumn-I with coloumn-II

[Link]. Reaction Option Product

A I E1

B II E2

C III SN1

D IV SN2

(1) A-III ; B-II ; C-IV ; D-I

(2) A-III ; B-I ; C-I ; D-II
(3) A-IV ; B-II ; C-III ; D-IV
(4) A-II ; B-I ; C-IV ; D-II

10)
Identify final product 'Z' :-

(1) CHI
(2) HC≡CH

(3)

(4) H2C=CH2

11) Acetophenone and Benzophenone can be distinguished by :-

(1) Fehling solution
(2) Tollen's reagent
(3) Iodoform test
(4) Lucas test

12) Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Arrange the following compounds in order of their boiling point

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II

14)
This reaction would follow which of the following pathway predominantly ?

(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) E1
(4) E2

15) Arrange following anions in order of their leaving group tendency :

(I) FӨ (II) ClӨ (III) BrӨ (IV) IӨ

(1) III > I > II > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) II > I > III > IV

16) 1-phenyl-2-chloropropane on treating with alc. KOH gives mainly :

(1) 1-phenylpropene
(2) 2-phenylpropene
(3) 1-phenylpropan-2-ol
(4) l-phenylpropan-1-ol

17) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : 2-Bromo pentane on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives 1-pentene as a major product.
Statement-II : In dehydrohalogenation reactions the preferred product is always that alkene with
has lesser number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded c-atoms.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

18) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion : Alkyl chlorides are best prepared from alcohols by reaction of SOCl2.
Reason : The other two products are easily escapable. So reaction gives pure Alkyl chlorides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

19) CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by :

(1) Benedict test

(2) Iodoform test
(3) Tollen's reagent test
(4) Fehling solution test
20) The correct order of reactivity in SN1 reaction for the following compound is ?
(I) C6H5CH(CH3)Br (II) C6H5CH2Br (III) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br (IV) C6H5C(CH3)C6H5Br

(1) IV > III > I > II

(2) IV > I > III > II
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) IV > II > III > I

21) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : In ether formation by Williamson synthesis, if a primary alkyl halide is used, an
alkene is the only reaction product and no ether is formed.
Statement-II : Alkoxides are not only nucleophiles but strong bases as well. They react with alkyl
halides leading elimination reactions as well as substitution reactions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statements I and statements II are correct.

22) Match the column

Column-I (Compounds) Column-II (Boiling point)

(a) Ethanol (p) 309.1 K
(b) Methoxy methane (q) 231 K
(c) Propane (r) 351 K
(d) n-pentane (s) 248 K
(1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(2) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(3) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
(4) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p

23) The major product of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Phenol on treatment with dil HNO3 at low temp (298 K) gives two products P and Q. P is steam
volatile but Q is not. P and Q are respectively.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25)
Select the correct statement :-

(1) A is 2° alcohol
(2) B is 3° alcohol
(3) C is 1° alcohol
(4) A and C are 3° alcohol

26) The reaction

Proceed by the mechanism :

(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) SE
(4) SNi

27)
Product (A) and (B) respectively are :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) product of reaction is :-

(1) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(2) CH3–CH2CH2COOH
(3) CH2=CH–CH2CH3

(4)

29) The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence

are given by the set :-

(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(2) C2H5Br, CH≡CH, CH2=CHBr

(3)
C2H5Br, CH2=CH2,
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, Br–CH2–CH2–Br

30) Assertion :- The product formed by the reaction of C6H5—CH2—O—CH3 with HI are
C6H5—CH2I and CH3—OH.
Reason :- Benzyl cation is more stable than methyl cation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

31) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

(1) It is used for the preparation of primary aliphatic amines.

(2) Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by this method.
Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with the anion formed by
(3)
phthalimide
(4) Aniline can be prepared using this method.
32)
The structure of X is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A coloured product is obtained in the following reaction of Aniline :-

structure of 'B' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34)
Name of the reaction and product A, are

(1) Gabriel phthalimide, CH3CH2–NH2

(2) Hoffmann bromamide, CH3CH2–NH2
(3) Gabriel phthalimide, CH3NH2
(4) Carbylamine, CH3–CH2–NC

35) Identify 'X' in the following sequence of reaction:

(1) benzoic acid

(2) phenyl acetic acid
(3) benzyl alcohol
(4) benzamide

36)
Which of the following is correct :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

37)

Which of the following is correct for given reaction:

(1) Product 'A' is insoluble in base

(2) Product 'B' is insoluble in base
(3) Product 'A' is soluble in base
(4) Both (2) and (3)

38) In the chemical reactions,

the compounds 'A' and 'B' respectively are :

(1) benzenediazonium chloride and fluorobenzne

(2) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
(3) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
(4) phenol and benzene

39) Aniline reacts with bromine water at room temperature to give a white precipitate of

(1) 2-Bromoaniline
(2) 4-Bromoaniline
(3) 2,4,6-Tribromoaniline
(4) 2,4,6-Tribromobenzene

40)
B and C in the above sequence are

(1) Benzoic acid + aniline

(2) Phthalic acid + ethylamine
(3) Phthalic acid + aniline
(4) Benzoic acid + ethylamine

41) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) Fat soluble vitamin (p) Fingerprinting
(b) Water soluble vitamin (q) Vitamin A and vitamin D
(c) DNA (r) Uracil
(d) RNA (s) Vitamin B and vitamin C
(1) a - s, b - s, c - r, d - p
(2) a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r
(3) a - q, b - r, c - p, d - s
(4) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p

42) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II
(Carbohydrates) (Monosaccharide unit)
(a) Maltose (p) β-D-Glucose
(b) Lactose (q) Two α-D-Glucose
(c) Cellulose (r) β-D-Galactose & β-D-Glucose
(d) Sucrose (s) α-D-Glucose & β-D-Fructose
(1) a – q, b – s, c – r, d - p
(2) a – q, b – r, c – p, d - s
(3) a – r, b – s, c – p, d - q
(4) a – r, b – p, c – q, d - s

43) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : All carbohydrates which reduce Fehling's solution and Tollen's reagent are refered to
as reducing sugars.
Statement-II : All disaccharides whether aldose or ketose are reducing sugares.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect

44) RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains :

(1) Ribose suger and thymine

(2) Ribose sugar and uracil
(3) Deoxyribose sugar and thymine
(4) Deoxyribose sugar and uracil

45) Which of the following reaction of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic structure.

(1) Glucose forms pentaacetate

(2) Glucose reacts with Hydroxylamine to form an oxime
(3) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine
(4) Glucose is oxidised by bromine water to gluconic acid

BIOLOGY

1) Incomplete digestive tract (blind sac body plan) is found in :

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropod
(3) Molluscs
(4) Platyhelminthes

2) Which of the following is correct about notochord?

(1) Dorsally situated

(2) Mesodermal in origin
(3) Rod like
(4) All of these

3) Water path in sponges is :

(1) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum

(2) Osculum → Spongocoel → Osculum
(3) Ostia → Spongocoel → Ostia
(4) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum

4) Polyp → Asexually → Medusa → Sexually → Polyp

The above cycle is shown by

(1) Physalia
(2) Aurelia
(3) Obelia
(4) Hydra

5) Match the following:

Column I Column II

A. Physalia 1. Brain coral

B. Adamsia 2. Sea fan

C. Pennatula 3. Sea pen

D. Gorgonia 4. Sea anemone

E. Meandrina 5. Portuguese man-of-war

 F. Fasciola 6. Liver fluke
(1) A−5, B−4, C−2, D−3, E−1, F–6
(2) A–5, B–4, C–3, D–2, E–1, F–6
(3) A–5, B–4, C–2, D–1, E–2, F–6
(4) A–5, B–3, C–4, D–2, E–1, F–6

6) (1) Fertilization ______.

(2) Development ______.
(3) Excretion and osmoregulation by ______.
Fill in the blanks for organism given in the figure.

(1) Internal, direct, rennett cells

(2) Internal, indirect, flame cells
(3) External, direct, nephridia
(4) External, indirect, protonephridia

7) The mouth which has file-like rasping organ for feeding called radula is found in:

(1) Mollusca
(2) Hemichordata
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Arthropoda

8) Select the incorrect statement from the following

(1) In vertebrates, the notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column.

In cephalochordates, the notochord is extended from head to tail region and is persistent
(2)
throughout life.
(3) Protochordates are exclusively marine.
(4) Notochord is present in tail of adult in urochordata.

9) Which of the following are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawning,
within a few days, they die. Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to ocean. Specify the correct
one.
(1) Petromyzon (Lamprey)
(2) Myxine (Hagfish)
(3) Scoliodon
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) Select the difference which is wrongly written:

Cartilaginous fish Bony fishes

(1) Operculum is absent Operculum is present

(2) Fertilization is internal Fertilization is external

(3) Posses 5–7 pair of gills Posses 4 pair of gills

(4) Mostly oviparous Mostly viviparous

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following is a poisonous snake?

(1) Cobra
(2) Krait
(3) Viper
(4) All of these

12) Which of the following is incorrect about birds?

(1) Air sacs is connected to lungs which help in respiration.

(2) Hind limbs possess scales and are modified for walking, swimming or clasping.
(3) Separate sexes, internal fertilization, oviparous and direct development.
(4) Endoskeleton consists of feathers, scales, beak and claws.

13) Select the incorrect matching:

(1) Kangaroo – Macropus

(2) Blue whale – Balaenoptera
(3) Monkey – Macaca
(4) Elephas – Camel

14) Select the incorrect matching: [A: Phylum, B: Segmentation, C: Circulatory system, D:
Distinctive features] [A: Absent, P: Present]

A B C D

(1) Ctenophore A A Comb plates for locomotion

 (2) Aschelminthes A P Often worm shaped, elongated

(3) Annelida P P Body segmentation like rings

(4) Arthropoda P P Jointed appendages

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Virus infected cells secrete a protein called ________ to protect other non-infected cells.

(1) Cytokine
(2) Immunoglobulin
(3) Interferon
(4) Clotting factors

16) Which of the following is not a cellular barrier of innate immunity?

(1) PMNL-Neutrophils
(2) Monocytes
(3) Natural killer cells
(4) Thrombocytes

17) Which immune response makes graft rejection obvious?

(1) Humoral mediated

(2) Innate immunity
(3) Cell mediated
(4) Acquired immunity

18) By using recombinant DNA technology, hepatitis B vaccine is produced from ________.

(1) Bacteria
(2) Yeast
(3) Fungi
(4) Lichen

19) In an allergic reaction, which chemicals are released by the mast cells?

(1) Histamine and serotonin

(2) Histamine and secretin
(3) Serotonin and adrenalin
(4) Serotonin and Noradrenaline

20) Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?

(1) Brunner glands
(2) Peyer’s patches
(3) Crypts of lieberkuhn
(4) Glisson’s capsule

21) What is shown in the figure?

(1) Cannabinoid molecule

(2) Morphine
(3) Nicotine
(4) Lobeline

22) Normal cells in our body inhibit the uncontrolled growth of cells which they are in contact with.
This is known as

(1) Cell-cell contact

(2) Cell cycle regulation
(3) Contact inhibition
(4) Contact response

23) MRI uses strong magnetic field and ________ radiations to detect pathological and physiological
changes.

(1) Ionizing
(2) Non-ionizing
(3) LASER
(4) X-ray

24) Atropa belladonna is

(1) Ornamental plant

(2) Hallucinogenic plant
(3) Immunomodulator plant
(4) Depressant plant
25)
Fill in the blanks in (1) and (2) in the above flowchart.

(1) a → greater than 1000 Dalton; b → Nucleotide

(2) a → 18–800 Da; b → Nucleic acid
(3) a → greater than 10,000 Da; b → Oligosaccharides
(4) a → greater than 1000 Dalton; b → Nucleoside

26) Monomeric unit of inulin is:

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Mannose
(4) Ribose

27) What is the number of carbon atoms which the Palmitic and Arachidonic acid contain (including
carboxyl carbon)?

(1) 16, 19
(2) 15, 19
(3) 16, 20
(4) 18, 20

28) Which of the following is correct about lipids?

(1) On the basis on melting points they are divided into fats and oils.
(2) Neural tissues are made up of simple lipids only.
(3) Phospholipids never forms a part of cell membrane.
(4) Lipids are strictly macromolecule.

29) Select the incorrect matching regarding the following diagram:

(1) Purine — Its metabolism forms uric acid
(2) Uracil — It is exclusively found in RNA only
(3) Adenylic acid — Monomer of both RNA and DNA
(4) Cholesterol — Forms a part of cell membrane

30) Match the column:

Column I Column II

A. Acidic 1. Valine

B. Basic 2. Lysine

C. Neutral 3. Glutamic acid

D. Aromatic 4. Tyrosine, phenylalanine, tryptophan

(1) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(2) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(3) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(4) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

31)

Match the Column:

Column I Column II
(Category) (Secondary Metabolites)

A. Pigments 1. Concanavalin A

B. Terpenoids 2. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

C. Alkaloids 3. Morphine, Codeine

D. Lectins 4. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin

E. Toxins 5. Abrin and Ricin

F. Drugs 6. Vinblastin, Curcumin

(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, E–5, F–6
(2) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1, E–5, F–6
(3) A–3, B–4, C–6, D–5, E–1, F–2
(4) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–6, E–5, F–3

32) Select the correct statement:

Increase in substrate concentration, increases the velocity of enzymatic reaction at first then it
(1)
reaches maximum and further increment does not occur.
In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular
(2)
structure.
(3) Competitive inhibition are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
(4) All of these
33) Enzymes which catalyse hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic bond belongs to the class:

(1) Oxidoreductase
(2) Transferase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Ligase

34) Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) Metal ions loosely attached with Apoenzyme — Holoenzyme

(2) Non-protein organic part attached tightly to the Apoenzyme — Prosthetic group.
(3) Non-protein organic part attached loosely to the Apoenzyme — Coenzyme.
(4) All of these

35) Which experiment conclusively proved that DNA is the genetic material?

(1) Griffith’s Experiment

(2) Meselson-Stahl Experiment
(3) Hershey and Chase Experiment
(4) Taylor’s Experiment

36) Which of the following is not a property required for a molecule to function as genetic material?

(1) Stability
(2) Ability to express traits
(3) Ability to replicate
(4) Ability to form tertiary protein structure

37) What is the nature of DNA replication in cells, as shown by Meselson and Stahl?

(1) Conservative
(2) Dispersive
(3) Random
(4) Semiconservative

38) Which enzyme joins the discontinuously synthesized fragments during DNA replication?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) DNA helicase
(3) DNA ligase
(4) RNA primase

39) The direction of DNA polymerization is:

(1) 3' to 5'

(2) 5' to 3'
(3) Both directions
(4) Random

40) What is the function of the origin of replication in DNA?

(1) Initiates protein synthesis

(2) Terminates transcription
(3) Starts replication
(4) Synthesizes RNA primers

41) In E. coli, the DNA replication rate is approximately:

(1) 500 bp/sec

(2) 1000 bp/sec
(3) 1500 bp/sec
(4) 2000 bp/sec

42) Assertion: DNA replication is semi-conservative.

Reason: In the daughter molecules, both strands are new.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) A is true, R is false
(3) Both A and R are false
(4) A is false, R is true

43) Which experiment proved that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material?

(1) Griffith’s experiment

(2) Meselson-Stahl experiment
(3) Hershey-Chase experiment
(4) Mendel

44) Which of the following codons is a stop codon?

(1) AUG
(2) UUU
(3) UGA
(4) UGC

45) Why is it necessary to remove introns from pre-mRNA?

(1) They encode proteins

(2) They are only present in prokaryotes
(3) They interrupt coding sequences and must be removed for correct translation
(4) They prevent mRNA transport
46) How many phosphate group are present in pyro-phosphate?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

47) Which of the following codons is a start codon?

(1) AUG
(2) UUU
(3) UGA
(4) UGC

48) Which of the following is common to DNA replication and transcription?

(1) Both use RNA primers

(2) Both require DNA template
(3) Both synthesize in 3' → 5' direction
(4) Both require Okazaki fragments

49) Which enzyme removes RNA primers during DNA replication in prokaryotes?

(1) DNA polymerase I

(2) DNA polymerase III
(3) DNA ligase
(4) Primase

50) In the Hershey-Chase experiment, which isotope was used to label DNA?

(1) 35S,35S
(2) 14C,14C
(3) 32P, 35S
(4) 32P, 32P

51) Which of the following viruses contains RNA as its genetic material?

(1) Bacteriophage T2
(2) Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(3) Lambda phage
(4) Herpes virus

52) DNA is more stable than RNA because:

(1) DNA is single-stranded

(2) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine
(3) DNA lacks the 2'-OH group
(4) RNA can’t replicate

53) Why is the genetic code termed ‘degenerate’?

(1) Each amino acid is coded by only one codon.

(2) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon.
(3) Codons overlap during translation.
(4) Some codons code for multiple amino acids.

54) If the template DNA strand has the sequence 3’-TAC GTA CGG-5’, what is the mRNA sequence?

(1) 5’-AUG CAU GCC-3’

(2) 5’-UAC GUA CGG-3’
(3) 5’-ATG CAT GCC-3’
(4) 3’-AUG CAU GCC-5’

55) Which statements are true about DNA packaging in eukaryotes?

I. Nucleosome is the repeating unit of chromatin.
II. 146 bp of DNA is wrapped around a core of histone proteins.
III. H1 histone binds to linker DNA between nucleosomes.
IV. The solenoid structure is a 10 nm fiber.

(1) I, II, and III only

(2) I and II only
(3) All of the above
(4) II and IV only

56) Assertion (A) : There is a uniform distance between the two strands of DNA.
Reason (R) : In a DNA double helix, purines always pair with pyrimidines.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

57) A DNA molecule has 1800 base pairs. How many complete turns are present in the double helix?

(1) 90
(2) 180
(3) 120
(4) 170

58) Which of the following correctly describes a structural gene in prokaryotes?

(1) Has exons and introns

(2) Is continuous without interruptions
(3) Transcribed by DNA polymerase
(4) Requires a poly-A tail for stability

59) Match the types of RNA with their correct roles:

RNA Type Role

A. mRNA i. Carries amino acids to ribosomes
B. tRNA ii. Forms part of ribosomal structure
C. rRNA iii. Template for protein synthesis
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i

60) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) DNA is an acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion How many of above statements are
correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

61) Identify the molecule shown below and select the right option :-

Options :-

Molecule Present in Biomolecule

(1) Thymine DNA Pyrimidine

(2) Guanine DNA Purine

(3) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

(4) Uracil DNA Purine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Which one of the following is the main enzyme of DNA replication :-
(1) DNA-polymerase I
(2) DNA polymerase III
(3) RNA polymerase I
(4) RNA polymerase III

63) Choose the incorrect statement from the following statements (A-D)
(A) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serves dual purpose
(B) On template 5'→3' DNA replicate in continuous manner.
(C) DNA polymerase have to catalyse the reaction with low degree of accuracy.
(D) Any mistake during replication would results into mutations.

(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) A and B
(4) B and D

64) Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the list:-

List-I List-II
Join short DNA
a Ligase
segments together
Remove supercoils
produced due
b DNA polymerase
to unwinding of
DNA duplex
Break hydrogen
bond's between
c Helicase the complementary
base pairs during
DNA replication
(1) 'a', 'b' and 'c' are correct
(2) 'a' and 'b' are correct but 'c' incorrect
(3) 'a' is correct but 'b' and 'c' are incorrect
(4) 'a' and 'c' are correct but 'b' is incorrect

65) Assertion : Some organisms such as purple and green sulphur bacteria do not release O2 during
photosynthesis.
Reason : These bacteria use H2S as hydrogen donor which produce sulphur or sulphate depending
on the organism and not O2.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

66) Assertion : CO2 is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis.

Reason : The effect of water as a factor is more through its effect an plant.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

67) In half-leaf experiment, a compound is used to absorb an essential substrate of photosynthesis.

This compound is ?

(1) NaOH
(2) KOH
(3) NaCl
(4) HCl

68) Under the normal conditions, which one is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis ?

(1) CO2 concentration

(2) Light
(3) Temperature
(4) Chlorophyll concentration

69) Who described the first action spectrum of photosynthesis ?

(1) Sachs
(2) Englemann
(3) Arnold
(4) Von helmont

70) To make one molecule of sucrose, 12 turns of the calvin cycle are required. Select incorrect pair
that goes in and comes out of the calvin cycle:

In Out

(1) 12 CO2 One sucrose

(2) 36 ATP 36 ADP

(3) 24 NADPH 24 NADP+

(4) 18 ATP 18 ADP

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Except for plants in shade or in dense forests, light is rarely a limiting factor in nature. This
statement is supported by which of the following facts ?

(1) Light causes excitation of chlorophyll

(2) Light causes the splitting of H2O
(3) Light causes the breakdown of chlorophyll at low light intensity
(4) Light saturation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

72) Julius von sachs provided evidences for –

(A) Production of glucose when plant grow.
(B) Green substance in plants is located in special bodies.
(C) First action spectrum
(D) Light is essential for photosynthesis.
(E) Glucose is usually stored as starch.

(1) A, B, E
(2) A, C, E
(3) B, C, E
(4) A, B, D

73)

In monocotyledon plant vascular bundles is closed type because :-

Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium possess the ability to form secondary xylem and
(1)
phloem
(2) Vascular bundles have no cambium and they do not form secondary xylem and phloem
Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium do not possess the ability to form secondary
(3)
tissues
(4) Both (1) and (2)

74)

On the stem the epidermal hairs are called trichomes.

(A) Trichomes are usually multicellular.
(B) Most of trichomes are unicellular.
(C) Trichomes may be branched or unbranched.

(D) Trichomes prevent loss of water. How many statements are correct ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) In young dicot stem, which of the following structure are included in stele ?

(1) Endodermis, pericycle, phloem, pith and medullary rays

(2) Pericycle, vascular bundle, pith.
(3) Only xylem, cortex, pith and medullary rays
(4) Phloem and cortex

76)
How many in the list given below are the part of epidermal tissue system ?

Epidermis, Xylem, Phloem, Root hair, stomata, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

77) Which of the following is the correct statement about dorsiventral leaf :-

(1) The veins vary in thickness in reticulate venation

(2) Palisade parenchyma is abaxially placed.
(3) Adaxial surface bear no stomata.
(4) The size of vascular bundles are independent on the size of veins.

78) In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves into large, empty
colourless cells. There are called :

(1) Spongy parenchyma

(2) Complimentary cells
(3) Bulliform cells
(4) Subsidiary cells

79)

The figure below different types of vascular bundles, select the correct option to the diagram given
below :-

(1) A - Show concentric vascular bundle

(2) B - Show radial vascular bundle
(3) C - Show conjoint open vascular bundle
(4) A - Show conjoint closed vascular bundle

80) A common character of monocot and dicot root is :

(1) Exarch xylem

(2) Endarch xylem
(3) Number of xylem strand
(4) Secondary growth

81) Match the following terms with their correct description:

 Column I Column II

(a) Micropropagation (i) Fusion of isolated protoplasts

(b) Somatic hybridisation (ii) Production of large number of identical plants

(c) Totipotency (iii) Ability of a cell to regenerate into whole plant

(1) a–ii, b–i, c–iii
(2) a–iii, b–ii, c–i
(3) a–i, b–iii, c–ii
(4) a–ii, b–iii, c–i

82) Match the Bt toxin gene with the pest it controls:

Bt Gene Target Pest

(a) cryIAc (i) Cotton bollworm

(b) cryIIAb (ii) Cotton bollworm

(c) cryIAb (iii) Corn borer

(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii
(2) a–iii, b–ii, c–i
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii
(4) a–i, b–iii, c–ii

83) Statement I: RNAi is triggered by dsRNA formation inside the cell.

Statement II: RNAi prevents transcription of mRNA.

(1) Both statements correct

(2) I correct, II incorrect
(3) I incorrect, II correct
(4) Both incorrect

84) Which step is essential for successful somatic hybridisation?

(1) Use of auxins and cytokinins

(2) Removal of cell walls to form protoplasts
(3) Micropropagation
(4) Use of Bt gene

85) Which of the following best describes Golden Rice?

(1) Iron-enriched wheat

(2) Vitamin A-enriched rice
(3) High-yield rice
(4) Herbicide-tolerant rice

86) Assertion (A): Insulin used for treating diabetes cannot be administered orally.
Reason (R): Insulin is a protein and will be digested by proteolytic enzymes in the stomach.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

87) Statement I: Proinsulin has an extra stretch called the C-peptide.

Statement II: The C-peptide is essential for the biological activity of insulin.

(1) Both statements correct

(2) I correct, II incorrect
(3) I incorrect, II correct
(4) Both statements incorrect

88) Match the molecular techniques with their applications:

Column I Column II

(a) PCR (i) Detect HIV in suspected patients

(b) ELISA (ii) Detect antigens or antibodies in infections

Autoradiography
(c) (iii) Detect mutated genes in clones
with DNA probe
(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii
(2) a–ii, b–iii, c–i
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii
(4) a–i, b–iii, c–ii

89) Which of the following is true about transgenic animals?

(1) Over 95% of transgenic animals are cows.

(2) They can be used to study disease, develop drugs, and produce biological products.
(3) Transgenic animals cannot be used for toxicity testing.
(4) All transgenic animals live longer than non-transgenic animals.

90) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced milk enriched with:

(1) α-1-antitrypsin
(2) Human alpha-lactalbumin
(3) Insulin
(4) Growth hormone
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 3 2 1 3 3 2 1 4 1 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 2 4 4 4 1 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 2 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 1 3 2 2 1 4 4 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 4 4 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : Find the pressure exerted by water on fish.

Concept : This question is based on pressure due to liquid column.
Solution :
Pressure exerted on fish by water
= 1.209 × 105 – 1.013 × 105
= 1.96 × 104
so 1.96 × 104 = hρg
1.96 × 104 = h × 103 × 9.8 ⇒ h = 2m
Final Answer : (4)

2) Explaining : find the ratio of velocities of efflux

Concept : This question is based on Bernoulli's theorems
Solution :

From Bernoulli's theorem,

∴
Final Answer : (4)

3) Explaining : find the ratio of volume of the soap bubble.

Concept : This question is based on excess pressure.
Solution :
Excess pressure inside a soap bubble

or
Given, P1 = 3P2

∴ or
Therefore, ratio of volumes of bubbles

∴ V1 : V2 = 1 : 27
Final Answer : (3)

4) Explaining : find the height difference between vertical limbs.

Concept : This question is based on Bernoulli's theorems (venturimeter)
Solution :
From equation of continuity,
A1v1 = A2v2
2 × 10 = 1v ⇒ v = 20 m/sec
Using B.T.,

Final Answer : (2)

5) Explaining : To find net magnetic field at centre O.

Concept : Magnetic field due to straight wire and field due to circular arc.
Solution :

Barc =

[Link] =
Bnet = Barc + [Link]

Final Answer : (1)

6) Explaining : To find the ratio of magnetic field due to x & y at O.

Concept : Magnetic field due to circular coil at axial point.
Solution :

By = =

Final Answer : (3)

7) Explaining : To determine the ratio of mass of particle x and y.
Concept : Motion of particle in magnetic field.
Solution :

r= ⇒
m ∝ qr2

Final Answer : (3)

8) Explaining : To determine magnetic force on wire.

Concept : Force on current carrying conductor .

Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

9) Explaining : To choose correct statement regarding a current carrying coil placed in

uniform magnetic field.
Concept :
U = – MB cosθ
Solution :
Angle between and is 180°.
Final Answer : (1)

10) Explaining : To determine the dependance of r on ω and B.

Concept : Atomic magnetism
Solution :

B=

r∝
Final Answer : (4)

11) Explaining : To identify the nature of material.

Concept : Magnetic materials.
Solution : Diamagnetic materials are repelled is magnetic field.
Final Answer : (1)

12) Explaining : To find emf induced in coil.

Concept : Faraday's law.
Solution :

e = 6.28 × 10–2 Volt

Final Answer : (1)

13) Explaining : To choose the correct relation for induced currents.

Concept : Lenz law.
Solution : By lenz, induced EMF will oppose change in flux

Final Answer : (2)

14) Explaining : To determine loss of energy when a charged capacitor is connected to an

uncharged one.
Concept : Conservation of charge and energy in capacitor sharing.
Solution :
Case-I : When the switch is just closed. Current starts flowing in the coil M and a magnetic
field (B) is developed whose direction (right to left) can be found by loop rule. Due to this, flux
through N changes and current is induced such that it opposes the magnetic field due to coil
M. Hence, direction of current in the coil will be opposite (i.e., A to B) to that in coil M as

shown in figure. Case-II : When the switch is opened after

keeping it closed for a long time, steady state will be reached i.e., current might have reached
its maximum value. When then switch is open, current starts decreasing in the coil M leading
to decrease is magnetic field (B). To oppose this decrement in magnetic field (B') to support
magnetic field in coil M, current induced in coil N (from loop rule) should be in same direction

(i.e., B to A) as it is in coil M as shown figure. Case-III :

When the switch is closed from a long time, current in the coil M will reach the maximum
value and becomes constant. If current remains constant magnetic field developed will also
remain constant. Since magnetic field remain constant in coil M, change in flux in coil N will
be zero and therefore there won't be any emf induced in Coil N. Since there is no emf induced,
no current will be induced in coil N.
Final Answer : (2)

15)

Explaining : To find the EMF induced across the ends of wire.

Concept : Motional EMF.
Solution :
Hint : Induced emf e = BvI
Here Ieff = PR =
Here induced emf = BvIeff
=
Final Answer : (2)

16) Explaining : To determine voltmeter and ammeter reading.

Concept : Resonance
Solution :
The voltage VL and VC are equal and opposite so voltmeter reading will be zero.
Also R = 30Ω, XL = XC = 25 Ω

So
Final Answer : (4)

17) Explaining : To find the impedance of R-L circuit.

Concept : R-L circuit.
Solution :

Z=
If ω is very high then ωL >>> R (neglect R)
Z ≈ ωL
Final Answer : (2)

18) Explaining : To find the power factor of R-L circuit.

Concept : Power factor, cosϕ = .

Solution :

cosϕ =

tanϕ =

⇒ XL = R
Frequency doubled then XL ⇒ R

Now tanϕ =

so cosϕ =
Final Answer : (2)

19) Explaining : To find the nature of R-L-C series circuit.

Concept : Resonance.
Solution :
at ωr, XC = XL

So if ω < ωr then xC will increase and XL will decrease.

Hence to left of ωr circuit is capacitive

at ωr,
Final Answer : (3)

20) Explaining : To match the radiation of List-I to their corresponding wavelengths is List-2.
Concept : EM spectrum
Solution :
X-ray 1 nm to 10–3 nm
Ultra Violet 400 nm to 1 nm
Infra red 1 mm to 700 nm
Micro wave 0.1 m to 1mm
Final Answer : (2)

21) Explaining : Match column-I wih column-2.

Concept : Maxwell equations.
Solution :
Theoretical
Final Answer : (4)

22) Explaining : To find the value of displacement current.

Concept : Displacement current.
Solution :
Suppose the charge on the capacitor at time t is Q, the electric field between the plates of the

capacitor is . The flux through the area considered is

∴ The displacement current

Final Answer : (2)

23) Explaining : To find average emf induced.

Concept : Energy stored in inductor, U = LI2 and emf induced e = L .

Solution : Magnetic energy
U= LI2 ⇒ L = = 16H

Induced emf e = L

= 16 × = 320V
Final Answer : (1)

24) Explanation: To find the value of x for which at the centre of coil the net magnetic field
becomes zero.
Concept: Magnetic field at the centre of coil is due to magnetic field due to LONG straight
wire and magnetic field due to coil of N turns. To get zero magnetic field at the centre of
coil, both should be equal and opposite.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

25) Explanation: To find the value of integral using ampere's law.

Concept: Ampere's law.
Solution :

0 0
= µ (I1 + I3 + I2 – I3) = µ (I1 + I2)
[since for the given direction of circulation I3 entering at PSTU is positive while I3 at PQRS is
negative]
Alternative solution:

= µ0(I1 + I3) + µ0(I2 – I3) = µ0(I1 + I2)

Final Answer : (4)

26) Explanation: two predict the possible reasons for different paths for the charge particle
M and N in a uniform magnetic field.
Concept: Motion of charge particle in magnetic field.

Solution :
Here RN > RM
Final Answer : (4)

27) Explanation: To find the magnetic moment of the current carrying loop and the torque
acting on the current carrying loop when it is kept in a magnetic field.
Concept: Magnetic moment of loop and Torque acting on current carrying loop.
Solution :
Hint : and
Magnetic moment of loop

Now, torque
= Zero
Final Answer : (4)

28) Explaining : To find the RMS value of voltage

Concept : This question is based on RMS value
Solution :

Vrms = ⇒

therefore, Vrms =
Final Answer : (1)

29) Explaining : Find acceleration of object at y = 2m.

Concept : In uniform circular motion

Acting towards centre of circle

Solution :

The radius of circular path is 2m and the speed of the object is 4 m/s.
The magnitude of acceleration is

= 8 m/s2
The acceleration is directed towards the centre.
Therefore, when an object is at y = 2m, its acceleration is m/s2.
Final Answer : (1)

30) Explaining : Find number of rotations of fan.

Concept : For constant α apply equation of motion .
Solution : By using equation

⇒ ,(n = 36) ..(i)

Now let fan completes total n′ revolution from the starting to come to rest

substituting the value of α from equation (i)

revolution
Number of rotation = 48 – 36 = 12
Final Answer : (2)

31) Explaining : Find tension in string at lowest point.

Concept : T = mg + mω2r
and
ω = 2πn
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

32) Explaining : Two square plates of masses 2m (edge a) and m (edge 2a) are joined. Find
the center of mass distance from point O.
Concept : This question is based on Center of mass for system of two plates: m1x1 = m2x2
With given edge positions and masses.
Solution :

com of system will be at joint point of Two plates.

Final Answer : (2)

33) Explaining : A projectile breaks into three pieces. Given their momenta/velocities, find the
speed just before breakup.
Concept : This question is based on Use momentum conservation and vector breakup;
typically, combine individual momenta for the pre-burst speed.
Solution :
4m =m
+m×2
–2m

⇒ =
Final Answer : (3)

34) Explaining : A bullet of mass moving with velocity v strikes a suspended wooden block
of mass M and sticks to it. The block rises to height h. Find the initial velocity of bullet.
Concept : This question is based on Use momentum conservation for initial, and energy
conservation for height reached:

Solution :

⇒
Final Answer : (2)

35) Question Explanation : A solid sphere rolls down and its velocity at bottom is v, same
sphere slides down, its velocity at bottom is v2. Find relation between v1 & v2
Concept : This question is based on Rolling motion on an inclined plane

Formula :

Solution :

Final Answer : option (2)

36) Explaining : choose correct option

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

At heighest point v = u cos θ

 Final Answer : (4)

37)

Explain question : We are tasked with finding the translational velocity of the sphere after it
starts pure rolling, given that it initially has linear velocity v0​ and angular velocity v0/2R.
Concept : This question is based on for a rolling object, pure rolling occurs when the linear
velocity v and the angular velocity ω are related by the equation v=ωR.
Formula:
Solution :

By the conservation of angular momentum about A

Final answer : Option (2)

38) Explaining : To find force on mass placed inside hollow sphere.

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

Hence
Final Answer : (3)

39) Explaining : Find projection velocity

Concept : This question is based on COME
Solution :
By applying conservation of energy, KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf

Final Answer : (1)

40) Explaining : Find distance 'r' from 4 M mass where field is zero.
Concept : This question is based on Neutral point.
Solution : The gravitational force on projectile of mass m at a distance r from a planet of mass
4M is zero.
∴
or 4(6R – r)2 = 9r2 or 2(6R – r) = 3r
or r = 2.4 R
Final Answer : (4)

41) Explain Question : Find the M.O.I. of system about yy'.

Concept : Parallel axis theorem.
Solution :

I of upper ring will be & lower two ring will have

(Using parallel axis theorem)

Final Answer : (4)

42) Explain Question : Find radius of gyration about parallel axis at distance 2 R.
Concept : Radius of gyration.
Solution :
According to theorem of parallel axis,
I = ICG + M(2R)2
where, ICG = MI about an axis through the centre of gravity.

or

∴
Final Answer : (2)

43) Explain Question:

Rank the moments of inertia ( ) for four different rods rotating about an end. Each
rod is composed of two halves, each with a different mass density ( ). All rods have
the same length ( L ) and cross sectional area. (σ1 < σ2)
Concept: Moment of Inertia
Formula:

Solution:
All rods have the same length and cross-sectional area, but densities .
vs. is made entirely of the denser material ( ), while Rod 3 is entirely of the less
dense material ( ). Because Rod 4 has a greater total mass, its moment of inertia is the
highest. Rod 3 has the lowest total mass, so its moment of inertia is the lowest. Therefore,
.
vs. : Both rods are half and half . The key difference is the placement of the denser
material. In Rod 2, the denser half is farther from the axis of rotation, where it has a much
greater impact on the moment of inertia. In Rod 1, the denser half is closer to the axis,
contributing less. Therefore, .
Combining these comparisons, we find the correct order is the one that has the densest
material farthest from the axis, leading to the highest moment of inertia. This gives us:
(densest material throughout) (denser half farther from axis) (denser half closer to
axis) (least dense material throughout).

The final order is .

Final answer: (4)

44)

Question Explaination: A 20 kg rigid seesaw is balanced with two boys, A and B, on it. The
mass of boy A is 40 kg. A 2 kg weight is also hanging from the seesaw. find the mass of boy B.
Concept : This question is based on equilibrium of rigid body.
Formula :
Solution :

mg × 2 – 220 × 3 – 400 × 8 = 0
2 mg = 3200 + 660
2 mg = 3860
m = 193
Final answer : option (2)

45)

Explain Question:
Find the torque caused by a horizontal force of F = 2 N applied at vertex R about another
vertex point P of an equilateral triangle. The side length of the triangle is 2
m.
Concept:
This question is based on torque
Formula : = F×r⊥
Solution:
 = 2 × 2 sin 60º

= N–m
Final Answer: (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : Match the following

Concept : This question is based on purification
Solution : A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q
Final Answer : (2)

47) Explaining : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on purification
Solution :
a = q, b = p, c = s, d = r
Final Answer : (3)

48) Explaining : Statement are given for chromatography

Concept : This question is based on chromatography
Solution : Adsorption chromatography is based upon differential adsorption.
Final Answer : (3)

49) Explaining : Examples of compounds separated by steam distillation method

Concept : This question is based on distillation
Solution :
Aniline is steam volatile and immiscible in water, so separated by steam distillation.
Final Answer : (2)

50) Explaining : The substance which can be commonly used as an adsorbent in column
chromatography is
Concept : This question is based on column chromatography.
Solution :
Alumina is generally used as adsorbent in column chromatography
Final Answer : (3)

51) Explaining : A & R given for Friedel craft alkylation

Concept : This question is based on FCR
Solution :
RDS in ESR is attack of electrophile not removal of hydrogen. (According to mechanism)
Final Answer : (1)

52) Explaining : Reaction of toluene

Concept : This question is based on preparation of aromatic aldehyde.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

53) Explaining : Which of the following is correct

Concept : This question is based on Wurtz reaction
Solution : All of these
Final Answer : (4)

54) Explaining : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on substitution/elimination
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

55) Explaining : Identify final product 'Z'.

Concept : This question is based on Haloform reaction
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

56) Explaining : Acetophenone and Benzophenone can be distinguished by.

Concept : This question is based on reaction of aldehyde/ketone
Solution : Fact
Final Answer : (3)

57) Explaining : Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction ?

Concept : This question is based on SN1
Solution : For SN1 reaction check stability of carbocation.
Final Answer : (4)

58) Explaining : Arrange the following compounds in order of their boiling point
Concept : This question is based on boiling point
Solution :

Boiling point ∝ So boiling point order → III > II > I

Final Answer : (2)

59) Explaining : This reaction would follow which of the following pathway predominantly.
Concept : This question is based on SN2.
Solution :

The reaction would follow mechanism.

Final Answer : (2)

60) Explaining : Arrange following anions in order of their leaving group tendency.
Concept : This question is based on leaving tendency.
Solution :
Leaving group tendency order ⇒ I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
Large sized I– can easily accomodate –ve charge so it is a good leaving group. While small sized
F– cannot easily accomodate –ve charge due to greater interelectronic repulsion. So F– is a
poor leaving group.
Final Answer : (3)

61) Explaining : 1-phenyl-2-chloropropane on treating with alc. KOH gives mainly.

Concept : This question is based on dehydrohelogenation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

62) Explaining : Statement are given for dehydrohalogenation.

Concept : This question is based on dehydrohalogenation.
Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

63) Explaining : A & R given for tollen test.

Concept : This question is based on tollen test
Solution : I2 + NaOH ⇒ Iodoform Test.
Final Answer : (1)

64) Explaining : CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by :

Concept : This question is based on Iodoform test
Solution :

Compounds containing gives iodoform test.

Final Answer : (2)

65) Explaining : The correct order of reactivity in SN1 reaction for the following compound is.
Concept : This question is based on SN1
Solution :
Reactivity of SN1 reaction ∝ stability of Carbocation

Final Answer : (1)

66) Explaining : Statement given for Williamson ether synthesis.

Concept : This question is based on Williamson ether synthesis.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

67) Explaining : Match the column.

Concept : This question is based on Boiling point
Solution :

B.P. ∝ MW ∝
B.P. a > d > b > c
351 309.1 248 231
Hydrogen
Bonding
Final Answer : (3)

68) Explaining : The major product of the following reaction is.

Concept : This question is based on Halogenation
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

69) Explaining : Phenol on treatment with dil HNO3 at low temp (298 K) gives two products P
and Q. P is steam volatile but Q is not. P and Q are respectively.
Concept : This question is based on Nitration.
Solution :

Due to intra-molecular H-bonding, o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile and has lower boiling point
than p-Nitrophenol.
Final Answer : (1)

70) Explaining : Preparation of alcohol

Concept : This question is based on alcohol
Solution :
Option-(3) → C is 1° alcohol (True)
Final Answer : (3)

71) Explaining : The reaction

proceed by the mechanism

Concept : This question is based on SN2 mechanism.
Solution :
# Walden inversion
# SN2 Reaction

# Back side attack

Final Answer : (2)

72) Explaining : Preparation of aspirin

Concept : This question is based on reaction of phenol
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

73) Explaining : Product of given reaction.

Concept : This question is based on oxidation of alcohol.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

74) Explaining : The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence.
Concept : This question is based on reaction of alcohol.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

75) Explaining : A/R given for ether.

Concept : This question is based on ether.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

76) Explaining : Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding gabriel phthalimide
synthesis.
Concept : This question is based on gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Solution : NCERT XII, Pg # 394
Final Answer : (4)

77) Explaining : Reaction of 2, 4, 6 tribromo Aniline

Concept : This question is based on Diazotization
Solution :
Diazotization followed by reduction with EtOH replaces – NH2 by – H.
Final Answer : (3)

78) Explaining : A coloured product is obtained in the following reaction of Aniline.

Concept : This question is based on reaction of aniline.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

79) Explaining : Name of the reaction and product A, are.

Concept : This question is based on Gabriel phthalimide.
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

80) Explaining : Identify 'X' in the following sequence of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on diazotisation
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

81) Explaining : Nitration of aniline.

Concept : This question is based on reaction of aniline.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

82) Explaining : Which of the following is correct for given reaction.

Concept : This question is based on Hinsberg reagent.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

83) Explaining : compound A & B for given reaction.
Concept : This question is based on reaction of aniline.
Solution :

So, Option (1) is correct

Final Answer : (1)

84) Explaining : Aniline reacts with bromine water at room temperature to give a white
precipitate of.
Concept : This question is based on Aniline.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

85) Explaining : Reaction of Gabriel phthalimide.

Concept : This question is based on Gabriel phthalimide.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

86) Explaining : Match the column.

Concept : This question is based on vitamins
Solution :
 a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r
Final Answer : (2)

87) Explaining : Match the column.

Concept : This question is based on carbohydrate.
Solution :
a – q, b – r, c – p, d - s
Final Answer : (2)

88) Explaining : Statement are given for sugars.

Concept : This question is based on carbohydrates.
Solution : Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
Final Answer : (3)

89) Explaining : RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains :

Concept : This question is based on nucleic acid
Solution :
RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains Ribose sugar and uracil.
Final Answer : (2)

90) Explaining : Which of the following reaction of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic
structure.
Concept : This question is based on glucose.
Solution :
'Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.'
Explained only by its (glucose) cyclic structure.
Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY

91) Solution : Incomplete digestive tract (blind sac body plan) is found in Platyhelminthes.
Final Answer : (4)

92) Solution : Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal
side during embryonic development in some animals.
Final Answer : (4)

93) Solution : Water path in sponges is Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum.

Final Answer : (1)

94) Solution : Metagenesis is shown by Obelia.

Final Answer : (3)

95) Solution : A–5, B–4, C–3, D–2, E–1, F–6

 Column I Column II

A. Physalia 5. Portuguese man-of-war

B. Adamsia 4. Sea anemone

C. Pennatula 3. Sea pen

D. Gorgonia 2. Sea fan

E. Meandrina 1. Brain coral

F. Fasciola 6. Liver fluke

Final Answer : (2)

96) Solution : (1) Fertilization Internal.

(2) Development indirect.
(3) Excretion and osmoregulation by flame cells.
Final Answer : (2)

97) Solution : In molluscans, the mouth contains a file like rasping organ for feeding called
radula.
Final Answer : (1)

98) Solution : In urochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail.

Final Answer : (4)

99) Solution : Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. Eg.
Petromyzon, Myxine.
Final Answer : (4)

100) Solution : Cartilaginous fishes are mostly viviparous and bony fishes are oviparous.
Final Answer : (4)

101) Solution : Poisonous snake - Naja (Cobra), Bangarus (Krait), Vipera (Viper).
Final Answer : (4)

102) Solution : Endoskeleton is fully ossified and the long bones are hollow with air cavities.
Final Answer : (4)

103) Solution : Elephas – Elephant

Final Answer : (4)

104) Solution : Circulatory system is absent in Aschelminthes.

Final Answer : (2)

105) Solution : Virus infected cells secrete a protein called Interferon to protect other non-
infected cells.
Final Answer : (3)

106) Solution : Thrombocytes have role in clotting not in immunity.

Final Answer : (4)

107) Solution : Cell mediated immunity is responsible for graft rejection.

Final Answer : (3)

108) Solution : By using recombinant DNA technology, hepatitis B vaccine is produced from
Yeast.
Final Answer : (2)

109) Solution : In an allergic reaction, histamine and serotonin are released by the mast cells.
Final Answer : (1)

110) Solution : Examples of secondary lymphoid organs are spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils,
Peyer’s patches and appendix.
Final Answer : (2)

111) Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

112) Solution : Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition by virtue of which
contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
Final Answer : (3)

113) Solution : MRI uses strong magnetic field and Non-ionizing radiations to detect
pathological and physiological changes.
Final Answer : (2)

114) Solution : Atropa belladonna is known for its hallucinogenic properties.

Final Answer : (2)
115) Solution : a → 18–800 Da; b → Nucleic acid
Final Answer : (2)

116) Solution : Monomeric unit of inulin is fructose.

Final Answer : (2)

117) Solution : Palmitic acid contains 16 carbon atoms and Arachidonic acid contains 20
carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon
Final Answer : (3)

118) Solution : Neural tissues are made up of complex lipids. Phospholipids are part of cell
membrane. Lipids are strictly micromolecule.
Final Answer : (1)

119) Solution : Nucleotide = Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate

Final Answer : (3)

120) Solution : A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4

A. Acidic – 3. Glutamic acid
B. Basic – 2. Lysine
C. Neutral – 1. Valine
D. Aromatic – 4. Tyrosine, phenylalanine, tryptophan
Final Answer : (1)

121) Solution : A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1, E–5, F–6

A. Pigments – 4. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin
B. Terpenoids – 2. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
C. Alkaloids – 3. Morphine, Codeine
D. Lectins – 1. Concanavalin A
E. Toxins – 5. Abrin and Ricin
F. Drugs – 6. Vinblastin, Curcumin
Final Answer : (2)

122) Solution : All statements are correct.

Final Answer : (4)

123) Solution : Enzymes which catalyse hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic bond
belongs to the class hydrolases.
Final Answer : (3)

124) Solution : All statements are correct.

Final Answer : (4)

125) Explanation: They used radioactive labeling of DNA and protein in bacteriophages to
show that only DNA enters the bacterial cell and directs virus replication.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

126) Explanation: This is a property of proteins, not genetic material.

Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

127) Explanation: Each new DNA molecule has one parental and one new strand.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

128) Explanation: DNA ligase seals the gaps between Okazaki fragments on the lagging
strand.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

129) Explanation: DNA polymerases add nucleotides in the 5' to 3' direction only.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

130) Explanation: Replication begins at a specific location called the origin of replication.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

131) Explanation: E. coli replicates its 4.6 million base pairs in ~18 minutes, requiring ~2000
bp/sec polymerization rate.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

132) Concept :
Solution: In semi-conservative replication, each daughter DNA has one parental and one new
strand.
Final Answer : (2)

133) Solution: Used radiolabeled P (DNA) and S (protein) in bacteriophages.

Final Answer : (3)

134) Concept :
Solution: UGA is a stop codon along with UAG and UAA.
Final Answer : (3)

135) Concept :
Solution: Introns are non-coding regions that are spliced out before translation.
Final Answer : (3)

136) Concept :
Solution: Pyrophosphate (PPi) has 2 phosphate group.
Final Answer : (2)

137) Concept :
Solution: AUG is a start codon.
Final Answer : (1)

138) Concept :
Solution: Both replication and transcription require a DNA template, but only replication
needs RNA primers and Okazaki fragments.
Final Answer : (2)

139) Concept :
Solution: In prokaryotes, DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers using its 5' → 3'
exonuclease activity and fills the gap with DNA nucleotides.
Final Answer : (1)

140) Explanation: DNA contains phosphorus, and radioactive phosphorus 32P, 32P was used to
label DNA, distinguishing it from protein.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

141) Explanation: TMV has RNA as its genetic material, unlike most viruses that have DNA.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

142) Explanation: The 2'-OH group in RNA makes it more reactive and less stable.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

143) Concept :
Solution: Multiple codons can specify the same amino acid.
Final Answer : (2)

144) Concept :
Solution: Complementary base pairing with U replacing T.
Final Answer : (1)

145) Concept : Packing of DNA

Solution: The solenoid is a 30 nm fiber, not 10 nm.
Final Answer : (1)

146) Concept : DNA structure

Solution: Purines (A, G) are larger; pairing with pyrimidines (T, C) maintains helix uniformity.
Final Answer : (1)

147) Concept : DNA structure

Solution: 1 turn = 10 bp → 1800 bp / 10 = 180 turns.
Final Answer : (2)

148) Concept : DNA packing

Solution: Prokaryotic genes are continuous, no introns present.
Final Answer : (2)

149) Concept : Types of RNA

Solution: Classic roles of mRNA, tRNA, rRNA as per central dogma.
Final Answer : (1)

150) Solution : All four statements about DNA are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

151) Explanation: Identifying the structure of Adenine.

Concept: Nitrogenous Bases
Solution: The molecule shown in the diagram is Adenine. It is a purine (double-ring structure)
and is a fundamental component of both RNA and DNA.
Final Answer: Option (3)

152)

Explanation : The question is asking about to identify the main enzyme for DNA replication
from a list options.
Concept : This question is based on DNA replication.
Solution : DNA dependent polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is
5' → 3'. The main enzyme is DNA polyonerase -III.
Answer : (2)

153) Concept : DNA replication

Solution : On template 5' → 3' replication is discontinuous. DNA replication is highly accurate.
Final Answer : (2)

154) Solution : The function of DNA polymerase enzyme is to add nucleotides in chain of new
DNA.
Final Answer : (4)
155) Solution : Both (A) and (R) are correctly explaining why O2 is not evolved.
Final Answer : (1)

156) Solution : Reason does not explain why O2 is major limiting factor.
As CO2 is 0.03 - 0.04 in atmosphere, not upto 0.05.
Final Answer : (2)

157) Solution : KOH absorbs CO2 from the test tube.

Final Answer : (2)

158) Solution : CO2 is limiting as it is 0.03 - 0.04 in atmosphere.

Final Answer : (1)

159) Solution : T.W. Engelmann did the interesting experiment.

Final Answer : (2)

160) Solution : (4) Incorrect : 36 ATP → 36 ADP.

Final Answer : (4)

161) Solution: Light satisfaction occurs at 10% of fall sunlight.

Final Answer : (4)

162)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the correct statements among the given
options that represent the key scientific contributions and evidence provided by the botanist
Julius von Sachs.

Concept : This question is based on Early Experiments.

Solution :
(A) Production of glucose when plant grows - Yes
Sachs showed that plants synthesize organic compounds like glucose during growth, which is
a result of photosynthesis.
(B) Green substance in plants is located in special bodies - Yes
He was the first to show that chlorophyll is located in specialized structures (chloroplasts) in
cells.
(E) Glucose is usually stored as starch - Yes
Sachs proved that starch is the storage form of photosynthetic products like glucose in leaves.

Final Answer : option (1)

163) Solution: Monocotyledon plants lacks secondary growth, due to lack of secondary
meristem.
Final Answer: (2)
164) Solution: Trichomes are multicellular.
Final Answer: (3)

165) Solution: Pericycle, vascular bundle and pith.

Final Answer: (2)

166) Solution: Epidermis, root hairs, stomata.

Final Answer: (1)

167) Solution: Dicot leaf the veins vary in thickness in reticulate venation.
Final Answer: (1)

168) Solution: Bulliform cells - large, colourless, empty cells on adaxial surface.
Final Answer: (3)

169) Solution: (C) correct - dicot stem.

Final Answer: (3)

170) Solution: Exarch xylem in root and endarch xylem in stem.

Final Answer: (1)

171) Explaining :
• Micropropagation → identical plantlets
• Somatic hybridisation → fusion of protoplasts
• Totipotency → regeneration capacity
Final Answer : (1)

172) Explaining : • cryIAc & cryIIAb → cotton bollworm

• cryIAb → corn borer
Final Answer : (1)

173) Explaining : RNAi acts post-transcriptionally by blocking translation, not transcription.

Final Answer : (2)

174) Explaining : Protoplast fusion requires naked cells (without cell wall).
Final Answer : (2)

175) Explaining : Golden Rice is β-carotene (Vitamin A precursor) enriched.

Final Answer : (2)

176) Explaining : Insulin, being a polypeptide hormone, is broken down by digestive enzymes
in the gastrointestinal tract, so it must be injected.
Final Answer : (1)

177) Explaining : C-peptide helps fold proinsulin correctly, but is removed before insulin
becomes nature and active .
Final Answer : (2)

178) Explaining : a–i, b–ii, c–iii

(a) PCR — (i) Detect HIV in suspected patients
(b) ELISA — (ii) Detect antigens or antibodies in infections
(c) Autoradiography with DNA probe — (iii) Detect mutated genes in clones
Final Answer : (1)

179) Explaining : Over 95% of transgenic animals are mice. Transgenic animals can be used
for toxicity testing. Being transgenic animals, has no co-relation with life span
Final Answer : (2)

180) Explaining : Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced milk enriched with human alpha
lactalbumin
Final Answer : (2)