28-09-2025

9610ZMD801302425001 MD

PHYSICS

1) is a unit vector then c = ?

(1) 0.15
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) In the diagram shown in figure :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct

3) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) (ex cosx) = ?

(1) ex(cosx + sinx)

(2) ex(cosx – sinx)
(3) ex(sinx – cosx)
(4) None of these
5)

If y = 2x3–15x2+36x+11 then which of following is correct :-

(1) There is a maxima at x = 3

(2) There is a maxima at x = 2
(3) The maximum value of y is 49
(4) The minimum value of y is 35

6) For the given (y – x) graph Find the value of .

(1) 170
(2) 150
(3) 200
(4) 120

7) A rocket is fired upward from the earth's surface such that it creates an acceleration of 19.6
m/sec2. If after 5 sec its engine is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from earth's
surface would be :-

(1) 245 m
(2) 490 m
(3) 980 m
(4) 735 m

8) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A boy wants to jump from building A to building B height of building A is 39.2 m and building B is
19.6 m. Distance between buildings is 20 m. Assuming boy jumps horizontally, then calculate
minimum velocity with which boy has to jump to land safely on building B :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 9.8 m/s
(4) 19.6 m/s

10) A bird is flying towards south with a velocity 40 km/h and a train is moving with a velocity 40
km/h towards east. What is the velocity of the bird w.r.t. an obserber in the train?

(1) 40 km/h. N–E

(2) 40 km/h. S–E
(3) 40 km/h. S–W
(4) 40 km/h. N–W

11)

On an planet particle is thrown with a velocity . Then match the list.

List-I List-II
(P) Time of flight (1) 3
Time when particle is moving at an angle of 53° with horizontal in upwards
(Q) (2) 10
direction.
(R) Range of the particle (3) 50
(S) Maximum height of the particle (4) 60
(1) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 3
(2) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4
(3) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 1
(4) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 3
12) Eight persons of same mass travels with same speed u along a regular octagon of side 'd' such
that each one always faces the other. After how much time will they meet each other. (each angle of
regular octagon is 135°)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Find speed of projection 'u' for object B so that B collides with object A.

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 20/ m/s
(4) 10 m/s

14) A particle is projected horizontally with a speed of from some height at At what
time will its velocity make angle with the initial velocity

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 2.5 sec

15) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A physical quantity A is related to four observations a, b, c and d as follows, . The

percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 2% respectively. What is the
percentage error in the quantity A ?

(1) 12%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 14%

17) Two wooden blocks are moving on a smooth horizontal surface such that mass m remains
stationary with respect to block of mass M as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force P is:-

(1) (M + m)g tan β

(2) g tan β
(3) mg cos β
(4) (M + m)g cosec β

18) A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck; the coefficient of static friction
between the block and the surface is 0.6. The force of friction on the block if the acceleration of the
truck is 5 ms–2 is :-

(1) 5.88 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 0.88 N
(4) 10.88 N

19) The diagram below shows the horizontal forces on a 20.0 kg mass. The force are constant in
time. If the mass starts from rest, how far has it traveled in the horizontal direction after 3.00s ?
(1) 4.50 m
(2) 6.75 m
(3) 9.00 m
(4) 25.5 m

20) In the diagram shown; block A of mass 2 kg is hanging from the string passing over a smooth
pulley and block B is placed on the top of a table. If the reaction of the table is 10 N, mass of block B

is : (g=10m/s2)

(1) 1 kg
(2) 2 kg
(3) 3 kg
(4) 4 kg

21) A body of mass 2 kg has an initial speed of 5 ms–1. A force acts on it for some time in the
direction of motion. The force time graph is shown in figure. The final speed of the body:-

(1) 9.25 ms–1

(2) 5 ms–1
(3) 14.3 ms–1
(4) 4.25 ms–1

22) Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m. Which of
the following statements is true ? (counted from the bottom)

(1) The force on the 3rd coin due to all the coins on its top is equal to 3mg (downwards).
(2) The force on the 6th coin due to the 7th coin is 4mg (downwards)
(3) The reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin is 3mg (upwards).
(4) The total force on the 10th coin is 9mg (downwards)

23) The minimum value of force F required to keep the block stationary is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The

magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively :-

(1)

(2) g,g

(3)

(4)
g,

25) A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the
same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly :

(1) 0 kg m/s
(2) 4.2 kg m/s
(3) 2.1 kg m/s
(4) 1.4 kg m/s

26) Assertion : In rectilinear motion when velocity is positive distance travelled increases and when
velocity is negative distance travelled decreases.
Reason : Distance is length of the path covered by a particle.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

27) A gun of mass 10kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 g and the velocity of
the bullet when it leaves the gun is 300 ms–1. The average force required to hold the gun while firing
is

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 240 N

28) A vernier callipers has 20 division on vernier scale which coincide with 18 division on main scale
of 1mm each the least count of the instrument is–

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.02 mm

29) What is the reading of micrometer screw gauge shown in figure – [L.C. = 0.01 mm]

(1) 3.30 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

30) Two projectiles are projected with velocity vA, vB at angles θA (from horizontal) and θB (from
vertical) as shown in the figure below, such that vA > vB but having same horizontal component of
velocity. Which of the following can not be correct ?

(1) TA > TB
(2) HA > HB
(3) RA > RB
(4) RB > RA

31) A glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth. The glass rod acquires a charge of +19.2×10–19 C. Find
the number of electrons lost by glass rod :-

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 12

32) A ball of mass 1g and charge 10–8 C moves from a point A (VA = 600 V) to a point B whose
potential is zero. Velocity of the ball at point B is 20 cms–1. Velocity of the ball at point A is :–

(1) 16.7 ms–1

(2) 16.7 cms–1
(3) 2.8 ms–1
(4) 2.8 cms–1

33) Three concentric spherical shells A, B and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface charge
densities σ, –σ and σ respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then, for
c = a+b, we have :-

(1) VC = VB = VA
(2) VC = VA ≠ VB
(3) VC = VB ≠ VA
(4) VC ≠ VB ≠ VA

34) In a certain region of space, the potential is given by : V = k[2x2 – 2y2 + z2]. The electric field at
the point (1, 1, 1) has magnitude =

(1) 6k
(2) 2k√6
(3) 2k√3
(4) 4k√3

35)

The electric field at A due to dipole p is perpendicular to . The angle θ is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) tan–12
tan–1
(4)
36) Three point charges 2q, –q and –q are located respectively at (0, a, a), (0, a, –a) and (0, 0, –a) as
shown. The dipole moment of this distribution is :-

(1)
2qa in the y–z plane at tan–1 with z-axis

(2)
in the y–z plane at tan–1 with z-axis
(3) in the x–y plane at tan–1 (4) with y-axis
(4) 4qa in the x–y plane at tan–1 (4) with y-axis

37) In an electric field shown in figure three equipotential surfaces are shown. If function of electric
field is E = 2x2V/m, and given that V1 – V2 = V2 – V3, then we have

(1) x1 = x2
(2) x1 > x2
(3) x2 > x1
(4) data insufficient

38) 1000 identical drops of mercury are charged each to a potential of 1 V each. They join to form a
single drop. The potential of this drop will be

(1) 0.01 V
(2) 0.1 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 100 V

39) Considering a group of positive charges, which of the following statements is correct?

Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a point but net electric field can be zero at that
(1)
point.
Net potential of the system at a point can be zero but net electric field can't be zero at that
(2)
point.
(3) Both the net potential and the net field can be zero at a point.
(4) Both the net potential and the net electric field cannot be zero at a point.

40)

Two very small dipoles are kept as shown in figure.

The interactional potential energy of two dipole is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

41) The ratio of charge on left surface of plate A to the charge on the right surface of plate B is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A point charge of 10 C is placed at a distance 2m from the centre of an uncharged conducting
sphere of radius 1m. Find the potential at the centre of the sphere due to induced charges on sphere
:

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 0
(4) 15

43) A hollow metallic sphere P is charged to a potential V volt. Another metallic sphere Q is charged
to a potential V/2. If Q is placed inside P and they are connected by a metallic wire, then
(1) charge will flow from P to Q until the potential becomes 3V/4
(2) whole charge will flow from P to Q
(3) the whole charge will flow from Q to P
(4) no charge flows

44) The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the ring is 2λ, – 2λ, λ and – λ respectively. The
magnitude of electric field at the centre is :

(Here )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

45)

A ring has total charge Q. Find work done by external agent to move –Q charge from point A to
centre of ring :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY
1) For the reaction N2O5 (g) → 2 NO2 (g) + O2 (g), rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as 6.25 ×
10–3 mol L–1 s–1. The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as :

(1) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

2) The rate of the reaction 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2

can be written in three ways

= k [N2O5]

= k' [N2O5]

= k" [N2O5]
The relationship between k and k' and between k and k" are

(1) k' = 2k ; k" = k

(2)
k' = 2k ; k" =
(3) k' = 2k ; k" = 2k
(4) k' = k ; k" = k

3) The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by
Rate = k [A]n [B]m
On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to
the earlier rate of the reaction will be

(1) m + n
(2) (n–m)
(3) 2(n–m)

(4)

4) The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr
NO(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ NOBr2(g) ;
NOBr2(g) + NO(g) → 2NOBr (g)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

5) The plot between concentration versus time for a zero order reaction is represented by
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A first order reaction is carried out starting with 10 mol L–1 of the reactant. It is 40% complete in
one hour. If the same reaction is carried out with an initial concentration of 5 mol L–1, the percentage
of the reaction that is completed in one hour will be

(1) 40%
(2) 80%
(3) 20%
(4) 60%

7) Half-lives of a first order and a zero order reaction are same. Then the ratio of the initial rates of
the first order reaction to that of zero order reaction is
(1)

(2) 2 × 0.693
(3) 0.693

(4)

8) The time taken for 10% completion of a first order reaction is 20 mins. Then for 19% completion,
the reaction will take

(1) 40 mins
(2) 60 mins
(3) 30 mins
(4) 50 mins

9) The initial rates of reaction 3 A + 2 B + C → Products, at different initial concentrations are given
below:

Initial rate, Ms–1 [A]0 , M [B]0, M [C]0, M

5.0 × 10–3 0.010 0.005 0.010

5.0 × 10–3 0.010 0.005 0.015

1.0 × 10–2 0.010 0.010 0.010

1.25 × 10–3 0.005 0.005 0.010

The order with respect to the reactants A, B and C are respectively
(1) 3, 2, 0
(2) 3, 2, 1
(3) 2, 2, 0
(4) 2, 1, 0

10) The following graph shows how t1/2 (half-life) of a reactant R changes with the initial reactant
concentration a0

The order of the reaction will be

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
11) A plot of log t1/2 versus log C0 is given below

The conclusion that can be drawn from this graph is

(1)
Order = 1, t1/2 =

(2)
Order = 1, t1/2 =

(3)
Order = 0, t1/2 =

(4)
Order = 2, t1/2 =

0
12) For a reaction A + B → Products, rate law is = k [A] . The concentration of A left after

time t when t = is

(1)

(2) [A]0 × e

(3)

(4)

13) For an endothermic reaction, where ΔH represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ/mol, the
minimum value for the energy of activation will be

(1) less than ΔH

(2) zero
(3) more than ΔH
(4) equal to ΔH

14) The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different reactions are 1016. e–2000/T and 1015 . e–1000/T
respectively. The temperature at which k1 = k2 is

(1) 1000 K
(2)

(3) 2000 K

(4)

15) Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The
plot that follows Arrhenius equation is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The reaction, X → product, follows first order kinetics. In 40 minutes, the concentration of X
changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M, then the rate of reaction when concentration of X is 0.01 M is

(1) 1.73 × 10–4 M/min

(2) 3.47 × 10–5 M/min
(3) 3.47 × 10–4 M/min
(4) 1.73 × 10–5 M/min

17) The rate constant of the reaction at temperature 200 K is 10 times less than the rate constant at
400 K. What is the activation energy of the reaction ?

(1) 1842.4 R
(2) 921.2 R
(3) 460.6 R
(4) 230.3 R

18) The half-life of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled. The
order of reaction is

(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

19) Consider the following statements :

(i) Increase in concentration of reactant increases the rate of zero order reaction.
(ii) Rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = 0.
(iii) Rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = ∞.
(iv) In k vs T is a straight line.
(v) In k vs 1/T is a straight line.
Correct statements are :

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

20) Which of the following plot will be linear?

(1) ln k versus T with –ve slope

(2)
k versus with –ve slope

(3)
ln k versus with –ve slope

(4)
ln k versus with +ve slope.

21) Column-I Column-II

(A) Zero order reactions (p) t1/2 ∝

(B) First order reactions (q) t100% = [A]0/k
(C) Second order reactions (r) Involves at least two reactants
(D) Pseudounimolecular reactions (s) [A]t = [A]0 e–kt

(1) A-s , B-q , C-p , D-r

(2) A-p , B-r , C-q , D-s
(3) A-q , B-s , C-p , D-r
(4) A-r , B-p , C-s , D-q

22) The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10°C rise of temperature. If the temperature is
raised by 50°C, the rate of the reaction increases by about :

(1) 24 times
(2) 32 times
(3) 64 times
(4) 10 times

23) 75 % of the first order reaction was completed in 32 min. 50 % of the reaction was completed in

(1) 24 min.
(2) 8 min.
(3) 16 min.
(4) 4 min.

24) The rate constant, the activation energy and the Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at
25°C are 3.0 × 10–4 s–1, 104.4 kJ mol–1, and 6.0 × 1014 s–1 respectively. The value of the rate constant
as T → ∞ is

(1) 2.0 × 1018 s–1

(2) 6.0 × 1014 s–1
(3) Infinity
(4) 3.6 × 1030 s–1

25) 25 g of a solute of molar mass 250 g mol–1 is dissolved in 100 ml of water to obtain a solution
whose density is 1.025 g mol–1. The molarity and molality of the solution are respectively

(1) 0.75 and 1

(2) 0.82 and 1
(3) 1 and 0.8
(4) 1 and 0.75

26) Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL.
The molarity of the solution is

(1) 1.78 M
(2) 4.00 M
(3) 2.05 M
(4) 3.22 M

27) An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. the value
of X is nearly

(1) 14
(2) 3.2
(3) 1.4
(4) 2

28) The molarity of 900 g of water is

(1) 50 M
(2) 55.5 M
(3) 5 M
(4) cannot be calculated

29) The mole fraction of a gas dissolved in a solvent is given by Henry’s law. If the Henry’s law
constant for a gas in water at 298 K is 5.55 × 107 Torr and the partial pressure of the gas is 200
Torr, then what is the amount of the gas dissolved in 1.0 kg of water ?

(1) 2.0 × 10–4 mol

(2) 2.5 × 10–5 mol
(3) 3.7 × 10–6 mol
(4) 1.2 × 10–8 mol

30) The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298
K and 5 atm pressure is

(1) 4.0 × 10–4

(2) 4.0 × 10–5
(3) 5.0 × 10–4
(4) 4.0 × 10–6

31) The amount of solute (molar mass 60 g mol–1) that must be added to 180 g of water so that the
vapour pressure of water is lowered by 10% is

(1) 30 g
(2) 60 g
(3) 120 g
(4) 12 g

32) At 80°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘A’ is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid ‘B’ is 1000
mm Hg. If a mixture solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ boils at 80°C and 1 atm pressure, then amount of ‘A’ in
the mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm Hg)
(1) 48 mol percent
(2) 50 mol percent
(3) 52 mol percent
(4) 34 mol percent

33) Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. The mixture has a vapour pressure of 400 mm at 300
K when mixed in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 and a vapour pressure of 350 mm when mixed in the molar
ratio of 1 : 2 at the same temperature. The vapour pressure of the two pure liquids X and Y
respectively are

(1) 250 mm, 550 mm

(2) 350 mm, 450 mm
(3) 550 mm, 250 mm
(4) 500 mm, 500 mm

34) If two substances A and B have pA° : pB° = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution 1 : 2, then
mole fraction of A in vapours is

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.52
(4) 0.2

35) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing non-volatile solute is
0.0125. The molality of the solution is

(1) 0.70
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.60
(4) 0.80

36) If x1 and x2 represent the mole fraction of a component A in the vapour phase and liquid mixture
respectively and pA° and pB° represent vapours pressures of pure A and pure B, then total vapour
pressure of the liquid mixture is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The osmotic pressure of this
solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar
mol–1 K–1) :

(1) 51022 g mol–1

(2) 122044 g mol–1
(3) 31011 g mol–1
(4) 61038 g mol–1

38) A 5.25% solution of a substance is isotonic with a 1.5% solution of urea (molar mass = 60 g
mol–1) in the same solvent. If the densities of both the solutions are assumed to be equal to 1.0 g
cm–3, molar mass of the substance will be

(1) 210.0 g mol–1

(2) 90.0 g mol–1
(3) 115.0 g mol–1
(4) 105.0 g mol–1

39) The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an
aqueous NaCl solution that could be used in the blood stream?

(1) 0.15 mol/L

(2) 0.30 mol/L
(3) 0.60 mol/L
(4) 0.45 mol/L

40) A solution containing 1.8 g of a compound (empirical formula CH2O) in 40 g of water is observed
to freeze at –0.465°C. The molecular formula of the compound is (Kf of water = 1.86 kg K mol–1)

(1) C2H4O2
(2) C6H12O6
(3) C4H8O4
(4) C5H10O5

41) A solution containing 0.10 g of non-volatile solute X (molar mass : 100) in 200 g of benzene
depresses the freezing point of benzene by 0.25°C while 0.50 g of another non-volatile solute Y in
100 g of benzene also depresses the freezing point of benzene by 0.25°C. What is the molecular
mass of Y ?

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 150
(4) 1000

42) The mass of glucose that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce the same
lowering of vapour pressure as produced by dissolving 1 g of urea in the same quantity of water is

(1) 1 g
(2) 3 g
(3) 6 g
(4) 8 g

43) A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol–1) boils at 100.18°C at the atmospheric pressure. If Kf and
Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol–1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at

(1) –6.54°C
(2) –0.654°C
(3) 6.54°C
(4) 0.654°C

44) When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide

(1) freezing point is raised

(2) freezing point is lowered
(3) freezing point does not change
(4) boiling point does not change

45) A solution containing 50 g of ethylene glycol in 200 g water is cooled to –9.3°C. The amount of
ice that will separate out will be (Kf = 1.86 Km–1)

(1) 18.71 g
(2) 28.71 g
(3) 38.71 g
(4) 48.71 g

BIOLOGY

1) In Vallisneria, pollination occurs through:

Male flowers releasing pollen grains on to the water surface, which are carried passively by
(1)
water currents and female flowers reach the water surface by the elongation of stalk.
(2) Pollen tubes elongating through water to directly penetrate submerged stigmas.
(3) Insects transfer pollen between male and female flowers.
(4) Wind dispersing pollen grains to female flowers emerging above the water.
2) Find the correct labelles for the following picture.

(1) A—Pedicel, B—Drupe

(2) A—Achene, B—Thalamus
(3) A-Thalamus, B—Achene
(4) A—Endosperm, B—Perisperm

3) Identify the correct statement regarding the endosperm in angiosperm:

(a) it is typically triploid.
(b) it develops from fusion of male gamete and the egg cell.
(c) its primary function is to provide nourishment to developing embryo.
(d) it is always completely consumed by developing embryo.
Choose correctd combination

(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) a and d
(4) b and c

4) In general seeds are the products of fertilisation, a few flowering plants such as some species
of Asteraceal and grasses, have evolved a special mechanism, to produce seeds without fertilisation,
called.

(1) Apomixis
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Megasporogenesis
(4) Syngamy

5) Find the correct sequence of stages of embryogeny in a dicotyledonous plants

(1) Zygote → Heart-shaped → Globular embryo → mature embryo

(2) Zygote → Proembryo → globular embryo → Heart-shaped → mature embryo
(3) Zygote → mature embryo → globular embryo
(4) PEN → Proembryo → globular embryo → Mature embryo

6) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Integuments of ovules harden as tough protective fruit wall in angiosperms

(2) The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat
As the seed matures, its water content is increased and may contain 90-95 per cent moisture by
(3)
mass)
(4) Seed of Lupinus germinated and flowered after 20,000 years of dormancy.

7) Which alphabet represents scutellum, epiblast and coleorhiza in the given figure?

Shoot apex Radicle Scutellum

(1) A E G

(2) C E A

(3) E C A

(4) B A G
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons, where:
I: The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which terminates with
the plumule or stem tip.
II: The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its lower end
in the radicle or root tip.

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
(4) Both I and II are false

9) How many of the given statements are correct?

I. Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
II. When insect pollinated flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence.
III. Animals are attracted to flowers by colour and/or fragrance.
IV. The relationship between plants and their animal pollinators is one of the best examples of
mutualism.

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

10) Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A): The flowers, pollinated by wind or water, produce an enormous amount of pollen
when compared to the number of ovules available for pollination.
Reason (R): Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and
water pollination.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
(2) (A) is True but (R) is False
(3) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

11) There is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryo sac.
Three cells are grouped together at the chalazal end
(a) Three cells are grouped together at the chalazal end and constitute the egg apparatus.
(b) The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of one synergid and two egg cells.
(c) The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the chalazal tip called filiform apparatus.

(1) Only b is correct

(2) Only c is correct
(3) Only a and c are correct
(4) a, b and c are incorrect

12) The given figure shows a typical anatropous ovule. What do A, B, C and D represent ?

(1) A - Hilum, B - Funicle, C - Nucellus, D - Micropyle

(2) A - Hilum, B - Outer integument, C - Nucellus, D - Micropyle
(3) A - Hilum, B - Outer integument, C - Embryo sac, D - Micropyle
(4) None of these
13) Go through the following statements :
l. Flowers are bisexual and and homogamous maturing anther and stigma of a flowers at the same
time.
II. Cleistogamy (bisexual flowers remain closed).
III. Anther and stigma of hermaphrodite flower mature in bud condition.
The above contrivances favour :

(1) Allogamy
(2) Autogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Cross pollination

14) Match the column I and II.

Column-I Column-II

A. Pollen bank P. –196°C

B. Generative cell Q. Abundant food reserve

C. Vegetative cell R. Spindle shaped cell

D. Parthenium S. Allergy
(1) A – R, B – P, C – Q, D – S
(2) A – Q, B – R, C – P, D – S
(3) A – P, B – R, C – Q, D – S
(4) A – Q, B – P, C – R, D – S

15) In a leaf cell of angiosperm contain 100 chromosome, the number of chromosome in egg cell,
pollen grain, endosperm and integument would be

(1) 50, 50, 100, 100

(2) 50, 50, 150, 100
(3) 50, 50, 50, 100
(4) 50, 100, 100, 150

16) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Microsporangia P. Megasporogenesis 1. Embryo sac

B. Ovule Q. Microsporogenesis 2. Malegametophyte

C. Aril R. Endothecium 3. Litchi

D. Stomium S. Integument 4. Dehiscence

(1) A-Q-2, B-P-1, C-S-3, D-R-4
(2) A-P-2, B-Q-1, C-S-3, D-R-4
(3) A-R-3, B-S-2, C-Q-4, D-P-1
(4) A-S-2, B-R-3, C-P-1, D-Q-4

17) Select the true statements for pollen grain .

(i) The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes.
(ii) It has a prominent two-layered wall.
(iii) The hard outer layer called the exine is made up of sporopollenin which is one of the most
resistant organic material known.
(iv) Exine of pollen grain has prominent apertures called germ pores where cellulose and pectin is
absent.
(v) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of cellulose and pectin.
(vi) The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the intine which made up of cellulose and pectin.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)

18) The functional megaspore mothercell undergoes -

(1) 4 meiotic divisions to form mature embryo sac.

(2) 1 meiotic and 3 mitotic divisions to form mature embryo sac.
(3) 4 mitotic divisions to form mature embryo sac.
(4) 1 mitotic division and 3 meiotic divisions to form mature embryo sac.

19) Consider the following five statements (a-e) and select the option which includes all the incorrect
ones only :-
(a) Vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food reserve and a large irregularly shaped nucleus.
(b) Over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollengrains are shed at 3-celled stage.
(c) Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid nitrogen (196°C).
(d) Members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae the pollen grains are viable for months.

(1) a and d
(2) b and c
(3) b and d
(4) a and c

20) The correct sequence of layers in the wall of an anther from inside to outside is:

(1) Tapetum - Middle layers - Endothecium - Epidermis

(2) Epidermis - Endothecium - Tapetum - Middle layers
(3) Epidermis - Endothecium - Middle layers - Tapetum
(4) Tapetum - Endothecium – Middle layers - Epidermis

21) Assertion (A): Embryo development precedes endosperm development in most plants.
Reason (R): Endosperm provides nutrition for the growing embryo.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

22)
What is the ploidy of the polar nuclei in the embryo sac?

(1) Haploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Tetraploid

23) A typical anther shows -

a. Two lobes with two theca
b. Each lobe as dithecous
c. All cells in a given microsporangium as potential PMC
d. Thousands of microspores per microsporangium
Out of these statements

(1) b is incorrect
(2) a and b are correct
(3) c and d are incorrect
(4) a, b, c and d are correct

24) Find out the correct order (w.r.t. development of male gametophyte)

(1) D A C B
(2) D B A C
(3) D C B A
(4) A B C D

25) Refer the given characteristics of some flowers :

I. Light and non-sticky pollen grains.
II. Exserted stigmas and anthers.
III. Large, often feathery stigmas.
IV. Flowers colourless, odourless and nectarlexs.
Above features are the characteristics of :

(1) Anemophily
(2) Hydrophily
(3) Entomophily
(4) Zoophily

26) How many microspore mother cells will give rise to 512 microspores after reduction division?

(1) 512
(2) 128
(3) 64
(4) 96

27) Match the following floral parts with their functions:

Floral Part Function

(A) Ovary (i) Develops into fruit
(B) Anther (ii) Produces male gametophytes
(C) Ovule (iii) Develops into seed
(D) Stigma (iv) Receives pollen grains
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

28) "In Western countries a large number of ______ product in the form of tablets and ______ are
available in market. Pollen consumption claimed to increase the ______ of athelete." The words to fill
blanks in sequential order are:

(1) Pistil, syrup, power

(2) Stamen, food, sexual urge
(3) Carpel, youghurt, labido
(4) Pollen, syrup, performance

29) Identify the labelling of given diagrams and choose correct option for it.
(1) 1 – Zygote, 2 – Megaspore dyad, 3 – Nucellus, 4 – Nucleus, 5 – Megaspore tetrad
(2) 1 – Nucellus, 2 – MMC, 3 – Nucleus, 4 – Megaspore tetrad, 5 – Megaspore dyad
(3) 1 – Nucleus, 2 – MMC, 3 – Nucellus, 4 – Megaspore tetrad, 5 – Megaspore dyad
(4) 1 – MMC, 2 – Nucellus, 3 – Megaspore dyad, 4 – Nucleus, 5 – Megaspore tetrad

30) Apple, strawberry and cashew nut thalamus contribute to fruit formation such condition is called
-

(1) Apomixis
(2) Polyembryony
(3) Parthenocarpy
(4) Parthenogenesis

31) Which of the following best defines an organ?

(1) A structure formed by only one type of tissue

(2) A structure formed by many tissues arranged in a specific pattern
(3) A structure formed by a group of cells only
(4) A structure formed by several organ systems

32) ​

Column I Column II

A Secretion and absorption

(I)
B Ducts of glands

(II) A Wall of fallopian tube

B Bowman’s capsule
(III) A Alveolar epithelium
B Skin

(IV) A Endothelium
B Alveolar epithelium

Which of the following is most appropriate option:-

(1) III – A – Correct; B – Correct
(2) I – A – Correct; B – Correct
(3) IV - A – correct; B – incorrect
(4) II – A – Correct; B – correct

33) The following are parts of the cockroach digestive system:

A. Ileum
B. Pharynx
C. Rectum
D. Gizzard
E. Oesophagus
F. Colon
G. Crop
Which of the following sequences represents the correct order of food passage from mouth to anus?

(1) B → E → G → D → A → F → C
(2) B → G → E → D → A → C → F
(3) B → E → D → G → A → F → C
(4) B → D → E → G → A → F → C

34) A scientist examines a tissue made of tall cells with nuclei located at the base and tiny hair-like
projections on the upper surface. This tissue is most likely found in the:

(1) Alveoli of lungs

(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Kidney tubules
(4) Lining of the stomach

35) In cockroaches, tegmina refer to:

(1) Tough, leathery forewings attached to the mesothorax.

(2) Thin and delicate forewings arising from the prothorax.
(3) Soft hindwings used for flying, arising from the metathorax.
(4) Hard wing protecting the hindwings, arising from the metathorax.

36) Read the following statements about cockroach and identify the correct option:
A. The head of cockroach is formed by the fusion of six segments and is highly mobile due to a
flexible neck.
B. Forewings (tegmina) are thin, membranous and used for flight.
C. Anal styles are present in males but absent in females.
D. In females, the 7th sternum is boat-shaped and forms part of the brood pouch along with the 8th
and 9th sterna.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

37) Identify the correct pair related to cockroach anatomy:

(1) Anal cerci – Found on the 9th segment, short and unjointed.
(2) Anal styles – Found only in males, thread-like structures.
(3) Tegmina – Transparent membranous hindwings.
(4) Hypopharynx – Acts as an upper lip during feeding.

38) Choose the correct pair related to reproductive organs in cockroach:

(1) Testes – Present in 2nd to 6th abdominal segments

(2) Ovaries – Connected directly to kidneys
(3) Spermatophores – Bundles of sperms
(4) Mesorchium – Connects ovaries to the dorsal body wall

39) Choose the option that is correctly matched for cockroach structures:
A. Brood pouch – 7th, 8th, and 9th sterna in females
B. Anal cerci – Present in both sexes, jointed and sensory in function
C. Anal styles – Male-specific, short and thread-like
D. Hypopharynx – Acts as a tongue inside the mouth cavity

(1) Only A
(2) A and C
(3) B and D
(4) A, B, C, and D

40) In cockroaches, the actual site of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange is:

(1) Spiracles
(2) Tracheal tubes
(3) Tracheoles
(4) Hemolymph

41) Identify the correct adaptations displayed by frogs:

(1) Camouflage and hibernation but no aestivation.

(2) Hibernation and aestivation but no camouflage.
(3) All hibernation, aestivation and camouflage.
(4) Camouflage and aestivation but no hibernation.

42) Match the column A with Column B :-

Column A Column B
A. Pink, sac-like structures i. Lungs
B. Openings for air intake ii. Nostrils
C. Gaseous exchange during hibernation iii. Skin
D. Helps in air passage to lungs iv. Buccal cavity
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) B-i, C-ii, A-iii, D-iv
(3) A-i, C-ii, D-iii, B-iv
(4) D-i, B-ii, A-iii, C-iv

43) The mucus-secreting goblet cells lining the digestive tract are:

(1) Unicellular exocrine glands

(2) Multicellular exocrine glands
(3) Multicellular endocrine glands
(4) Unicellular endocrine glands

44) Choose the correct option regarding A and B:

(1) A secretes histamine, B secretes collagen.

(2) A produces fibers, B releases histamine.
(3) A is involved in immunity, B in fat storage.
(4) A and B both store fat.
45) What is Bidder’s canal in frogs?

(1) Part of the urinary bladder.

(2) A channel that connects vasa efferentia to the urinogenital duct.
(3) A segment of the cloaca.
(4) A storage site for urine.

46) How many of the following is/are correct about cockroaches.

(i) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.
(ii) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule about 4/8’’ (6mm) long.
(iii) Malpighian tubules have glandular and ciliated cells which help in excretion of uric acid through
hindgut.
(iv) The brain is represented by supra-oesphageal ganglion in head region.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

47) Frogs help maintain ecological balance because they:

(1) Are predators and prey in the food chain.

(2) Produce large amounts of oxygen.
(3) Live in water only.
(4) Spread seeds in forests.

48) The thorax and abdomen of a cockroach contain how many segmental ganglia?

(1) Thorax – 2, Abdomen – 7

(2) Thorax – 3, Abdomen – 4
(3) Thorax – 3, Abdomen – 6
(4) Thorax – 2, Abdomen – 6

49) Statement-I : In male frogs, the testes are attached to the kidneys by a fold of peritoneum
called mesorchium.
Statement-II : Vasa efferentia from testes open directly into the cloaca, bypassing Bidder’s canal
and the urinogenital duct.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true

50) Which of the following is correct about the figure given below -
 A B

A – Bone: having solid and pliable ground substance which resists compression; B – Dense
(1) regular connective tissue: collagen fibres present in rows between many parallel bundles of
fibres.
A – Cartilage: provides structural frame to the body; B – Dense irregular connective tissue:
(2)
fibroblasts and fibres oriented differently.
A – Bone: provides structural frame to the body; B – Dense irregular connective tissue: fibres
(3)
oriented differently.
A – Cartilage: hard and mineralized; B – Dense regular connective tissue: collagen fibres
(4)
arranged irregularly.

51) Assertion (A): The vision in cockroach is simple with high resolution and high sensitivity.
Reason (R): They have only one single lens per eye, which produces a single clear image of an
object.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

52)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Squamous epithelium forms the lining of blood vessels and alveoli in the lungs.
(2) Cuboidal epithelium consists of a single layer of tall and slender cells.
The epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule of nephron has microvilli to increase surface
(3)
area for absorption.
Ciliated epithelium lines the inner surfaces of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(4)
to help movement of particles or ova.

53) How many of the following statements about frog’s heart are incorrect?
a. Frog’s heart has three chambers and is enclosed by a pericardium.
b. Sinus venosus joins the left atrium to pour deoxygenated blood.
c. Ventricle opens into conus arteriosus on the ventral side.
d. Conus arteriosus carries blood away from the heart.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

54) The above figure is associated with diagrammatic representation of internal organs of frog.
Identify A to C

(1) A – Gall bladder, B – Lungs, C – Kidney

(2) A – Liver, B – Fat bodies, C – Kidney
(3) A – Gall bladder, B – Fat bodies, C – Kidneys
(4) A – Liver, B – Kidney, C – Gall bladder

55) Statement I: The cockroach heart is a muscular tube located mid-dorsally with 13 chambers.
Statement II: Blood enters the heart through ostia and is pumped forward to the head region.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

56) In male cockroach, the genital pouch is bounded dorsally and ventrally by:

(1) 9th & 10th sterna dorsally; 8th sternum ventrally

(2) 9th & 10th terga dorsally; 9th sternum ventrally
(3) 9th & 10th cerci dorsally; 8th sternum ventrally
(4) 8th & 9th terga dorsally; 10th sternum ventrally

57) Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II
(1) Gap junctions (i) Perform cementing to keep neighboring cells together.
(2) Tight junctions (ii) Helps to stop substances from leaking across the tissue.
(3) Adhering junctions (iii) Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
 Main function is to provide protection against chemical and
(4) Compound epithelium (iv)
mechanical stresses.
(1) (1)–(iii), (2)–(ii), (3)–(i), (4)–(iv)
(2) (1)–(ii), (2)–(iii), (3)–(iv), (4)–(i)
(3) (1)–(iv), (2)–(i), (3)–(iii), (4)–(ii)
(4) (1)–(i), (2)–(iv), (3)–(ii), (4)–(iii)

58) Dense irregular connective tissue differs from dense regular in having:

(1) Collagen fibres arranged parallelly

(2) Collagen fibres oriented differently
(3) No fibroblasts present
(4) Absence of collagen fibres

59) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frog.

(1) Testes- Vasa efferentia- kidney-seminal vesicle- urinogenital duct- cloaca.

(2) Testes- vasa efferentia- bidder’s canal- ureter- cloaca.
(3) Testes- vasa efferentia- kidney- bidder’s canal- urinogenital duct- cloaca.
(4) Testes- bidder’s canal- kidney- vasa efferentia- urinogenital duct- cloaca.

60) Smooth muscles are called involuntary muscles because:

(1) They are striated

(2) They are under conscious control
(3) Their functioning cannot be directly controlled
(4) They are multi-nucleated

61) Assartion (A): Rudolf Virchow formulated ‘Omnis cellula e cellula’.

Reason (R): All cells arise from pre-existing cells.

(1) A and R true, R explains A

(2) A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

62) Assertion (A): Mitochondria are considered semi-autonomous organelles capable of limited
protein synthesis.
Reason (R): Mitochondria contain their own circular DNA and 70S ribosomes.

(1) A and R true, R explains A

(2) A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) Both false

63) Certain organism are labelled as A, B and C. according to their sizes where A is 0.1 μm; B is
1-2μm; C is 10-12μm.
Recognize A, B, C

(1) A - Bacteria, B - Virus, C - Plant cell

(2) A - PPLO, B - Typical bacteria, C - Typical eukaryotic cell
(3) A - Virus, B - PPLO, C - Bacteria
(4) A - Virus, B - PPLO, C - eukaryotic cell

64) Which of the following is an example of active transport across the plasma membrane?

(1) Entry of O₂ into cells

(2) Movement of water by osmosis
(3) Na⁺/K⁺ pump maintaining ionic balance
(4) Facilitated diffusion of glucose

65) Statement-I: Rough ER has ribosomes on its cytosolic face.

Statement-II: Rough ER primarily synthesizes lipids and steroid hormones.

(1) Both true

(2) Both false
(3) I true, II false
(4) I false, II true

66) Statement-I: Golgi cis face receives vesicles from ER.

Statement-II: Trans face is where secretory vesicles bud off for release.

(1) Both true

(2) Both false
(3) I true, II false
(4) I false, II true

67) Statement-I: Plasmodesmata connect cytoplasm of neighbouring plant cells.

Statement-II: They allow movement of small molecules and signalling molecules between cells.

(1) Both true

(2) Both false
(3) I true, II false
(4) I false, II true

68) Statement-I: Centrioles are present in most plant cells.

Statement-II: Centrioles serve as basal bodies for cilia and flagella in animal cells.

(1) Both true

(2) Both false
(3) I false, II true
(4) I true, II false
69) Which are true?
1. Lysosomes contain hydrolases active at acidic pH.
2. Vacuole in plant cells is bounded by tonoplast.
3. Peroxisomes contain enzymes for oxidative reactions (e.g., catalase).
4. Golgi cisternae are branched and interconnected tubular network identical in all cells.

(1) 1, 2, 3 only
(2) 1 and 4 only
(3) 2, 3, 4 only
(4) All four

70) Which statements are correct?

1. Chloroplasts have 70S ribosomes.
2. Chloroplast inner membrane encloses the stroma and thylakoid system.
3. Mitochondrial matrix contains components for protein synthesis.
Chloroplast thylakoid lumen is the site of Calvin cycle.

(1) 1 and 2 only

(2) 1, 2 and 3 only
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) All except 4

71) Choose correct statements:

1. Fluid mosaic model explains lateral mobility of proteins/lipids in membrane.
2. Integral proteins are easily washed off.
3. Peripheral proteins do not span the lipid bilayer.
4. Cholesterol helps stablize membrane structure.

(1) 1 and 3 only

(2) 1, 3 and 4 only
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) All four

72) Function of mitochondria primarily is:

(1) Photosynthesis
(2) ATP generation by oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Storage of lipids
(4) Intracellular digestion

73) Major function of Golgi apparatus is:

(1) ATP synthesis

(2) Packaging and modification of proteins/lipids for secretion or targeting
(3) DNA replication
(4) Protein translation
74) Match the following:
A. Peroxisome → (i) Conversion of stored fats into sugars
B. Glyoxysome → (ii) Photorespiration in plants, β-oxidation of fatty acids

(1) A-i, B-ii

(2) A-ii, B-i
(3) Both A and B = ii
(4) Both A and B = i

75) According to the fluid mosaic model, the plasma membrane is:

(1) A rigid double-layer of lipids with fixed proteins.

(2) A phospholipid bilayer with proteins embedded and capable of lateral movement.
(3) A single lipid layer with proteins arranged externally.
(4) A uniform sheet of carbohydrates covering proteins and lipids.

76) Which of the following cytoskeletal elements are correctly matched with their primary function?

(1) Microtubules – Cell shape and spindle fiber formation

(2) Microfilaments – Mechanical support
(3) Intermediate filaments – Structural stability of cell
(4) All of the above

77) Assertion (A): Fluidity of plasma membrane is important for endocytosis and growth.
Reason (R): Phospholipid reduces fluidity of the plasma membrane.

(1) Both true, R explains A

(2) Both true, R not explains A
(3) A true, R false
(4) Both are false

78) Function of tonoplast in plant vacuoles is to:

(1) Control transport into vacuole and maintain ion homeostasis

(2) Synthesize proteins
(3) Form spindle fibres during mitosis
(4) Anchor ribosomes

79) Which of the following are membrane-bound organelles?

1. Lysosome
2. Ribosome
3. Peroxisome
4. Plastid

(1) 1 and 2 only

(2) 1, 3 and 4 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) All four

80) Which are involved in protein modification/processing (choose best set)?

1. Rough ER
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Lysosome
4. Nucleolus

(1) 1 and 2 only

(2) 1, 2 and 3 only
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) All four

81) Consider the following flowchart:

Endocytosis → Formation of vesicle → Fusion with lysosome → _____ → Enzymatic digestion of
contents → Exocytosis of waste
What should fill “?”

(1) Formation of Autophagosome

(2) Formation of residual body
(3) Formation of heterophagosome
(4) Formation of suicidal bag

82) Arrange by increasing size (smallest → largest):

1. Virus
2. Mycoplasma
3. Typical bacterium
4. Eukaryotic cell

(1) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(2) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
(3) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
(4) 3 → 1 → 2 → 4

83) Order events in secretory protein processing:

1. Translation on RER-bound ribosome.
2. Glycosylation in Golgi.
3. Protein modification in ER.
4. Budding of secretory vesicle from trans face of Golgi.

(1) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(2) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
(3) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
(4) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3

84) Which of the following statements about nuclear structure is incorrect?

(1) The nuclear envelope consists of two membranes with perinuclear space between them.
(2) Outer nuclear membrane is continuous with rough ER and bears ribosomes.
(3) Nucleolus is membrane-bound and synthesizes mRNA.
(4) Chromatin is composed of DNA, histones, and non-histone proteins.

85) A 9+2 arrangement of microtubules is seen in:

(1) Centriole core

(2) Bacterial flagellum
(3) Eukaryotic cilium/flagellum axoneme
(4) Mitotic spindle microtubules

86) Which statement about mesosomes is correct?

(1) They are membrane-bounded organelles unique to eukaryotes.

(2) They help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and its distribution to daughter cells.
They are infoldings of plasma membrane in eukaryotes associated with respiration and cell wall
(3)
formation.
(4) They are storage vesicles for pigments in cyanobacteria only.

87) Which of the following correctly contrasts prokaryotic vs eukaryotic ribosomes?

(1) Prokaryotic 70S (40S+30S), Eukaryotic 80S (50S+30S).

(2) Prokaryotic 70S (50S+30S), Eukaryotic 80S (60S+40S).
(3) Both have identical sizes 70S each.
(4) Prokaryotes have no ribosomes.

88) Which statement about chromosomes centromere position is FALSE.

(1) Metacentric: centromere centrally located giving equal arms.

(2) Acrocentric: centromere near one end producing very short p arm and long q arm.
(3) Telocentric: centromere absent
(4) Submetacentric: centromere slightly off centre.

89) Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

A. Cristae 1. Membrane folds increasing inner membrane area (mitochondria)

B. Cisternae (Golgi) 2. Flattened sacs of Golgi apparatus

C. Thylakoid 3. Membrane enclosing vacuole (plant)

D. Tonoplast 4. Site of light reactions (chloroplast)

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(3) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
90) Which are correct about Golgi apparatus?
A. Made of flattened cisternae.
B. Cis face receives vesicles from ER.
C. Trans face releases vesicles.
D. Site for glycoprotein and glycolipid formation.

(1) A, B, C only
(2) All
(3) A and B only
(4) C and D only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 1 2 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 4 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 3 2 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 3 4 1 2 4 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 1 4 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 2 1 2 1 4 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 3 2 3 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 2 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : To find unit vector of a given vector

Concept : This question is based on unit vector

Solution :

magnitude of unit vector is one.

Final Answer : (2)

2) Explaining : To find resultant using polygon law

Concept : This question is based on polygon law
Solution :
Apply polygon law,
We get and
Final Answer : (4)

3) Explaining : To find cosines of the vector

Concept : This question is based on Direction cosines (Resolution of vector in 3D)
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

4) Explaining : To find differentiation using chain rule

Concept : This question is based on Based on

Solution :

(ex cosx)

= ex (cosx) + cosx. (ex)

= ex (–sinx) + cosx(ex)
= ex (cosx – sinx)
Final Answer : (2)

5) Explaining : To find maxima or minima of a given function

Concept : This question is based on Based on at any value of x
 &
Solution :
y = 2x3–15x2+36x+11

x = 2,3

at x = 2; Maxima

at x= 3; =+6 > 0 ; Minima

max value ;
at x = 2 y = 2×8-(15×4)+72+11
y = 39
min. value
at x = 3; y = 2×27-15×9+36×3+11
y = 38
Final Answer : (2)

6) Explaining : To find area of x-y curve

Concept : This question is based on Area =

Solution :

= 120
Final Answer : (4)

7)

Explaining : a = 19.6 m/s2 , time till the engine is on t1 = 5 sec g = 9.8 m//s2
Ask : Maximum height of the rocket from earth's surface
Concept : This question is based on equations of motion with constant acceleration

Solution :
Given,
Resultant velocity of the rocket after 5 sec

Height achieved after 5 sec,

 On switching off the engine it goes up to height where its velocity becomes zero.

∴ Total height of rocket

Final Answer : (4)

8)

Explaining :
given : v - x graph
ask : a - x graph
Concept : This question is based on graphical analysis

Solution :
From given v – x graph

Equation is v =
⇒ v = –3x + 30

as a =
⇒ a = (–3x + 30) (–3)
⇒ a = 9x – 90

Final Answer : (1)

9) Question Explanation
A boy jumps horizontally from a building of height 39.2 m to another building of height 19.6 m,
20 m away. We need to find the minimum horizontal velocity required for a safe landing.

Concept Used
Projectile Motion

Formulas Used
 Time of free fall:

A. Horizontal motion:

Solution:

A. Given: h = 39.2 - 19.6 = 19.6 m, d = 20 m, g = 9.8 m/s²

B. Time to fall:

C. Minimum velocity:

Final Answer: Option (1)

10)

Explaining :
given : vB = 40 km/hr (South), vT = 40km/h (East)
ask : velocity of the bird w.r.t. an observer in the train
Concept : This question is based on Relative motion

Magnitude of vector
Solution :

=
Final Answer : (3)

11)

Explaining :
Given : velocity vector
Ask : Matching the parameters with their corresponding values.
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

time when vy = 0
20 – 4t = 0
t=5
T = 2 × t = 10 sec

tan 53° =

t = 3 sec
R = ux × T
= 6 × 10 = 60 m

Final Answer : (1)

12)

Explaining : no. of particles :

given : 8, shape : Regular octagon
ask : time for the particle to meet at the centre.
Concept : This question is based on relative motion
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

13)
Explaining :
given : particles projected upwards with angles 30° and 60°.
ask : speed of projection for object B
Concept : This question is based on projectile motion
• For collision, relative displacement between A & B should be zero.
• S = Vrel×t
• At the time of collision, A and B will be at same height at same time so their vertical
component of velocity should be same.
Solution :

For collision
(VA)y = (VB)y
20 sin 30º = u sin 60º

20 × =u

u= m/s
Final Answer : (3)

14)

Explaining :

Given : Initial horizontal velocity

Ask : Time when the particles velocity make 60° angle with initial velocity.
Concept : This question is based on Horizontal projectile velocity
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

15) Explaining : To find the L.C. of Verneir Callipers

Concept : This question is based on L.C. of Vernier Calliper is 1 M. S.D – 1 V.S.D
Solution : 1 MSD = x cm
nVSD = (n – 1) MSD
L.C. = 1 M.S.D – 1 V.S.D

L.C. =

L.C. = cm
Final Answer : (3)

16) Explaining : To find maximum percentage error in physical quantity 'A' which is related to

a, b, c and d as A = .
Concept : This question is based on Concept - 1 : The relative error in product or quotient of
quantities is equal to sum relative errors in individual quantities.
Concept - 2 : The maximum relative error in a quantity raised to power (n) is n times the
relative error in quantity itself.

Solution :

Percentage error =
percentage error in A = 14%.
Final Answer : (4) 14%

17) Asking About :

The external force P required to keep mass m stationary with respect to mass M.

Concept :
• The system is on a smooth surface, meaning no friction.
• Mass m experiences a downward gravitational force mg.
• To keep m stationary relative to M, the system must move with an acceleration.
• Using Newton's second law in a non-inertail frame, we balance forces along the inclined
plane.

Formula :
• Acceleration of the system :

Calculation/Explanation :

• Force balance on m along the incline :

mgsinβ = macosβ

P = (M + m)g tan β

18)
 Explaining : Given : mass of block m = 1 kg, μs = 0.6, acceleration of truck a = 5 m/s2
Ask : Force of friction on the block.
Concept : This question is based on friction.
Formula : fs,max = μsN, normal force N = mg
Solution : The force on the block due to acceleration of the truck will be opposite to the
acceleration of the truck and will be F = ma = 1 × 5 = 5 N.
While the limiting friction
ƒL = μR = μmg = 0.6 × 1× 9.8 = 5.88 N
As applied force F < ƒL, the block will remain at rest in the truck and force of friction will be
equal to applied force of 5 N (and not ƒL) in the direction of acceleration of the truck.
Final Answer : (2)

19)

Explaining : Given : m = 20 kg, t = 3 sec, initial velocity = 0

F1 = 70N, F2 = 100 N
Ask : Distance travelled by a mass in horizontal direction.
Concept : This question is based on Newton's second law of motion.
Solution : Acceleration, a = (100 – 70) / 20

a= ⇒S= m
Final Answer : (2)

20)

Explaining : Given : mass of block A is 2 kg, Reaction force of the table on block B is 10N.
Ask : The mass of block B.
Concept : This question is based on equilibrium with pulley system.
Solution : FBD of block 'B'

⇒ mB = 3 kg

Final Answer : (3)

21)

Explaining : Given : Graph between force and time is given,

m = 2 kg, v = 5 m/s (initial speed)
Ask : Final speed of the body.
Concept : This question is based on Impulse–momentum theorem.
Solution : I = ΔP = m(v–u) = area of F – t graph
m (v – u) = 18.625
v = 14.3 m/s
Final Answer : (3)
22)

Explain : Ten identical coins are stacked on a table. identify the true statement about the
forces acting between these coins

Concept : Forces in Equilibrium

Formula : (since the coins are in equilibrium).

Calculation :

(1) is wrong 3rd coin has seven coins on its top which exert a force 7 mg on it.
(2) is correct. 6th coin has four coins, placed over it. Thus 7th coin exerts a force 4mg on 6th coin
(downwards)
(3) is wrong, As what is explained in (2), the reaction of 6th coin on the 7th coin is 4 mg
(upwards)
(4) is wrong. 10th coin, which is the topmost coin, experiences a reaction force of mg (upwards)
from all the coins below it.

23)

Explaining : Given : mass of block = m, coefficient of friction = μ

Ask : Minimum value of force needed to keep the block stationary against vertical wall.
Concept : This question is based on block against vertical surface.
Formula : Friction force f = μN

Solution :

Fminsinθ + f = mg
Fminsinθ + µFmincosθ = mg
Fmin(sinθ + µcosθ) = mg
Final Answer : (2)

24)

Explain Question: We need to find acceleration of A and B immediately after cutting the
string.

Concept: This question is based on cutting of string.

Solution: When the string is cut, each block experiences different acceleration, modified by
their individual masses.

∴ T = mg
After cutting the string :-

Final Answer: Option 1 is correct.

25)

Explaining : Given : m = 0.15 kg, ball dropped from height h = 10m

Ask : The magnitude of the impulse imparted to the ball.
Concept : This question is based on Impulse–momentum theorem.
Formula : Velocity of ball just before hitting the ground .

Solution : Velocity just before striking the ground

If it reaches the same height, speed remains same after collision only the direction changes.

=
= 4.2 kg m/s
Final Answer : (2)

26)

Explaining : Assertion : Reason type question.

Concept : Positive and negative sign with velocity represents direction of motion.
Solution : Either velocity is positive or negative distance travelled by a body is always
positive, Hence assertion is wrong.
Final Answer : (4)

27) Explaining : Find average fore

Concept : This question is based on F = Nmv [N = number of bullets/sec]
Solution :
F = Nmν
= 4 × 20 × 10–3 × 300
= 24 N
Final Answer : (3)

28) Explaining : Find least count of vernier callipers

Concept : This question is based on L.C. = 1 MSD - 1 VSD
MSD Main Scale Division
VSD Vernier Scale Division
Solution :
20 VSD = 18 MSD

LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

= 0.1 mm
Final Answer : (1)

29) Explaining : Find reading of screw gauge

Concept :
Reading = (n × pitch + f × L.C.)
n = main scale reading
f = circular scale reading
Solution :
n=3
pitch = 1mm
f = 30
L.C. = 0.01 mm
Reading = 3×1mm + 30×0.01 mm = 3.30 mm
Final Answer : (1)

30) Explaining : Two projectiles are projected with velocity vA, vB at angles θA (from
horizontal) and θB (from vertical) as shown in the figure below, such that vA > vB but having
same horizontal component of velocity. Which of the following can not be correct ?
Concept : This question is based on ground to ground projectile motion
Solution :
Same horizontal component
VAcos θA = VBsin θB …(1)
VA > VB …(2)
More the vertical component of velocity more the vertical height more the time taken.

θ2 > θ1
so sin θ2 > sin θ1
also VA sin θ2 > VB sin θ2
Final Answer : (4)

31) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about a glass rod acquires a charge of ⇒ Q = +19.2 × 10–19 C (After being
rubbed with a silk cloth)
To find : No. of electrons lost by glass rod ⇒ N = ?

Concept:
Question is based on quantization of electric charge.

Solution :
Magnitude of charge obtained by the glass rod

⇒
⇒ 19.2 × 10–19 C = N × 1.6 × 10–19C

⇒
⇒ N = 12 number of electrons
Since, the glass rod has acquired positive charge. So, there is lack (deficied) of electrons in the
rod. Thus, this number of electrons were lost by the rod.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

32) Explaining : To find the speed of charged ball as given condition.

Concept : This question is based on C.O.M.E. ⇒ K + U = Const.
Solution :
Formula : Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf

Theory :

Calculation :

16.7 cm/s
Final Answer : (2)

33) Explaining : To find the relation b/w potential of given shells.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

for c = a + b ⇒ VC = VA ≠ VB

C = a + b ⇒ VA = VC
Final Answer : (2)

34) Explaining : To find the electric field from given potential v/s position eqn.
Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : ⇒ Ex = –4 × 1 = –4k

⇒ Ey = 4 × 1 = 4k

⇒ Ez = – 2 × 1 = –2k
Final Answer : (1)

35) Explaining : To find the specific value of angle of position vector with dipole moment as
given.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

tanα =

α+θ= ⇒ tan2θ = 2 ⇒ tanθ = ⇒ θ = tan–1

Final Answer : (4)

36) Explaining : To find net dipole moment as given system.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : (0, a, a); (0, a, –a); (0, 0, –a)

and tan–1 with z-axis in y-z plane.

Final Answer : (2)

37) Explaining : To find relation b/w potential difference & distance as given diagram.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : (given)
As we go along positive x-axis, electric field increases, E.F.L. becomes denser so distance so
distance between equal potential surfaces.
Decreases is
Final Answer : (2)
38) Explaining : To find potential of combined drop as given condition.
Concept : This question is based on electric charge & volume of drops remain conserve.

Solution :

= 100 V
Final Answer : (4)

39) Explaining : To find the correct statements regarding potential & field.
Concept : This question is based on if electric field is zero then potential may or may not be
zero.
If potential is zero then field may or may not be zero.
Solution : Since potential of positive charge is always positive & electric field is a vector. So
two electric field can be get cancelled if it has same magnitude & opposite direction.
Final Answer : (1)

40) Explaining : To find the potential energy of system given of two dipoles.
Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : cos 180°

Final Answer : (2)

41) Explaining : To find the charges on the plates as given.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

42) Explaining : To find the potential at the centre of sphere due to induced charge as given.
Concept : This question is based on potential inside conductor is constant.
Solution :Net potential of the sphere due to the induced charge is zero. Therefore, potential is
due to the point charge only, equal to potential at the centre of the sphere.

Final Answer : (3)

43) Explaining : To find the flow of charge in b/w hollow concentric spheres as given.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : When P & Q are connected by a metallic wire, they will come at same potential

which is possible only when whole charge resides on outer shell. Final
Answer : (3)

44) Explaining : To find electric field at the centre as given.

Concept : This question is based on E.F. due to are

Solution :

For θ = π/2, E =

Enet =
Final Answer : (1)

45) Question Explain:

A ring with total charge Q is given. The task is to find the work done by an external agent in
moving a charge –Q from point A to the center of the ring.
Concept Based:
Work done by an external agent equals the change in potential energy. This is calculated using
electric potential due to a ring on its axis at two different positions.
 Formula Used:

Electric potential on axis of ring:

Work done: W = – Q(V0 – VA)
Calculation:

At center O:

At point A: (since A is at distance from center)

Work done:

Final Answer: Option (2)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining : Find rate of formation of NO2 ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of disappearance & appearance
Solution :

Rate =

Given = 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

Rate of formation of NO2

= = –2
= 2 × 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
= 12.50 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
= 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1
Rate of formation of O2
= 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
= 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
Final Answer : (3)

47)

Explaining : Find relationship between k', k'' & k'

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction
Solution :

Rate =

∴ k [N2O5] = k' [N2O5] = k" [N2O5]

or = = k" .

Hence, k' = 2k and k" =

Final Answer : (2)

48)

Explaining : Find ratio of new rate/earlier rate = ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction.
Solution :
Earlier rate = k an bn
New rate = k (2 a)n (2)m

= 2n . 2–m = 2n–m
Final Answer : (3)

49)

Explaining : Find order of reaction?

Concept : This question is based on order of reaction.
Solution :
Rate = k [NOBr2] [NO] ...(i)

From step I, Keq =

or [NOBr2] = Keq [NO] [Br2]
Substituting in eqn. (i), we get
Rate = k Keq [NO]2 [Br2] = k' [NO]2 [Br2]
Hence, order with respect to NO is 2.
Final Answer : (3)

50)

Explaining : Find correct graph?

Concept : This question is based on graph.
Solution :

0
For zero order reaction, k = {[A] – [A]}
or [A] = –kt + [A]0. Thus, plot of [A] vs 1is
linear with –ve slope (= –k).
Final Answer : (2)

51)

Explaining : Find percentage?

Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution : For a first order reaction, time taken for a definite fraction to complete is
independent of initial concentration. In other words, in same time, same % age of reaction will
be completed.
Final Answer : (1)

52)

Explaining : Find ratio of initial rate of 1st order to zero order

Concept : This question is based on half-life
Solution :

t1/2 for 1st order reaction =

t1/2 for zero order reaction =

Initial rate for 1st order reaction (r1) = k [A]0
Initial rate for zero order reaction (r0) = k'

But (Given)

∴ = 2 × 0.693, i.e., = 2 × 0.693

Final Answer : (2)

53)

Explaining : Find time?

Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :

t=

∴ 20 =

or 20 = …(i)

In 2nd case, t =

= …(ii)

Eqn. (ii) / Eqn. (i) gives = 2 or t = 40 mins

Final Answer : (1)

54)

Explaining : Find order with respect to A, B & C?

Concept : This question is based on order of reaction.
Solution :
Suppose order w.r.t. A, B and Care α, β and γ respectively. Then .
5.0 × 10–3 = (0.010)α (0.005)β (0.010)γ ... (i)
5.0 × 10–3 = (0.010)α (0.005)β (0.015)γ ... (ii)
1.0 × 10–2 = (0.010)α (0.010)β (0.010)γ ... (iii)
1.25 × 10–3 = (0.005)α (0.005)β (0.010)γ ... (iv}
Dividing (i) by (ii),

1= or =1= ∴ γ = 0.
Dividing (i) by (ii),

= (2)β or 2 = (2)β = 2β
or 2β = 2 or β = 1
Dividing (i) by (iv), 4 = (2)α or α = 2
∴ Orders w.r.t. A, B and C are 2, 1, 0.
Final Answer : (4)

55)

Explaining : Find order of reaction?

Concept : This question is based on half life?
Solution :

For n = 2,
Final Answer : (3)

56)

Explaining : Find order & t1/2 ?

Concept : This question is based on order of reaction.
Solution :
t1/2 ∞ (C0)1–n or t1/2 = (K = constant)
∴ log t1/2 = log K + (1–n) log C0 (y = mx + c)
Thus, plot of log t1/2 vs log C0 will be linear with slope = 1–n. But as graph is parallel to log C
axis, slope = 0, i.e., 1 – n = 0 or n = 1. Hence, it is a reaction of 1st order and for 1st order

reactions, t1/2 =
Final Answer : (2)

57)

Explaining : Find concentration of a left?

Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :
The given rate law shows that it is a reaction of 1st order. For 1st order reactions, [A]t = [A]0 e–kt

0
When t = , [A]t = [A]0 = [A] e–1 =
Final Answer : (1)
58)

Explaining : Find energy of activation?

Concept : This question is based on endothermic reaction.
Solution :
Ea > ΔH

Final Answer : (3)

59)

Explaining : Find temperature?

Concept : This question is based on arrhenius equation.
Solution :
k1 = 1016 e–2000/T, k2 = 1015 e–1000/ T
When k1 = k2, 1016 e–2000/T = 1015 e–1000/T
or 10 e–2000/T = e–1000/T
Taking natural logarithm of both sides, we get

or

or = 2.303

or T =
Final Answer : (4)

60)

Explaining : Find correct graph.

Concept : This question is based on arrhenius equation.
Solution :

Thus, as T increases, the exponential factor in the denominator decreases

or increases. Hence, k increases exponentially as T increases.
Final Answer : (1)

61)
Explaining : Find rate of reaction?
Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :

min–1

Rate = k [A] = min–1 × 0.01 M

= 3.47 × 10–4 M/min
Final Answer : (3)

62)

Explaining : Find activation energy.

Concept : This question is based on activation energy.
Solution : -
At T1 = 200 K, if k1 = k, then
at T2 = 400 K, k2 = 10 k

or Ea = 921.2 R
Final Answer : (2)

63)

Explaining : Find order of reaction?

Concept : This question is based on half life.
Solution :

or 2 = (2)n–1
Final Answer : (3)

64)

Explaining : Find correct statement?

Concept : This question is based on collision theory.
Solution :
Rate of a zero order reaction is independent of concentration. Hence, (i) is wrong.
k=
When Ea = 0, k = A.
When Ea = ∞ , k ≠ A.
Plot of 1n k vs 1/T is a straight line.
Hence, only (ii) and (v) are correct.
Final Answer : (2)
65)

Explaining : Find correct statement?

Concept : This question is based on arrhenius equation.
Solution :

ln k = In A – . Hence, plot of ln k versus is linear with slope = – .

Final Answer : (3)

66)

Explaining : Evaluate match the column.

Concept : This question is based on different order of reaction.
Solution :

0
zero order → t100% = [A] /k (q) second order → t1/2 ∝ .
–kt
First order → [A] = [A]0 e (s) Pseudounimolecular reactions → Involves at least two reactants
Final Answer : (3)

67)

Explaining : Find rate of reaction?

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction.
Solution :

Alternatively, as rate of reaction is doubled for every 10° rise in temperature, increase in
reaction rate = 25 = 32 times.
Final Answer : (2)

68)

Explaining : Find t50% ?

Concept : This question is based on First order reaction.
Solution : 75% of reaction is completed in two half-lives, i.e. , 2 × t1/2 = 32 min or t1/2 = 16
min
Final Answer : (3)

69)

Explaining : Find K?
Concept : This question is based on arrhenius equation
Solution : . As T → ∞, k = A = 6.0 × 1014 s–1
Final Answer : (2)

70)

Explaining : Find molarity & molality ?

Concept : This question is based on concentration terms
Solution :

Moles of solute =
Solvent (water) = 100 ml = 100 g = 0.1 kg (d = 1 g mL–1)

Molality = = 1 mol kg–1 = 1m

Mass of solution = 125 g

Volume of solution = = 122 ml = 0.122 L

Molarity = = 0.8 mol L–1 = 0.82 M

Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : Find molarity ?

Concept : This question is based on Concentration terms.
Solution : -
Total mass of the solution = 1000 + 120 = 1120 g

Total volume of the solution =

= 2.05 M
Final Answer : (3)

72)

Explaining : Find value of X

Concept : This question is based on concentration.
Solution :

Taking n1 = moles (Mol. mass of C6H6 = 78)

Final Answer : (2)

73)
Explaining : Find molarity
Concept : This question is based on concentration terms.
Solution :
Molarity is number of moles per litre

900 g H2O = 900 mL of H2O

∴ Molarity = = 55.5 M
Final Answer : (2)

74)

Explaining : Find amount of gas dissolved?

Concept : This question is based on Henry's law
Solution :
By Henry’s law, pA = KH × xA

or

But

∴
= 2.0 × 10–4 mole.
Final Answer : (1)

75)

Explaining : Find number of moles of N2 ?

Concept : This question is based on Henry's law.
Solution :

= mole fraction of N2 in air × Total pressure of air

= 0.8 × 5 atm = 4 atm
∴ or
This means that in one mole of water, no. of moles of N2 dissolved = 4 × 10–5
∴ In 10 moles of water, no. of moles of N2 dissolved = 4 × 10–4.
Final Answer : (1)

76)

Explaining : Find amount of solute?

Concept : This question is based on relative lowering in vapour pressure.
Solution :
If po = 100 mm, ps = 100 – 10 = 90 min
or
Final Answer : (2)

77)

Explaining : Find amount of A in mixture?

Concept : This question is based on Raoult's law
Solution :
ptotal (at 80°C) = 760 mm

∴ 1000 + xA(520 – 1000) = 760

∴ 480 xA = 240
or xA = 0.50, i.e., 50 mol percent.
Final Answer : (2)

78)

Explaining : Find vapour pressure of pure liquid X & Y ?

Concept : This question is based on Raoult's law
Solution :
Molar ratio of 1:1 means xX = xY = 0.5

∴
or …(i)

Molar ratio of 1:2 means, ,

∴
or …(ii)
Eqn. (ii) – Eqn. (i) gives
Putting in (i), we get
Final Answer : (3)

79)

Explaining : Find mole fraction of A in vapours.

Concept : This question is based on mole fraction.
Solution :
In solution, if xA = x, xB = 2x
and if ,
∴ pA = x × p, pB = 2x × 2p = 4x × p
∴ Ptotal = 5xp
Mole fraction in vapour phase

Final Answer : (4)

80)

Explaining : Find molality of solution.

Concept : This question is based on Relative lowering of vapour pressure.
Solution :
Relative lowering of vapour pressure = mole fraction of the solute in the solution,

i.e.,
Molality = n2 when n1 = 1000/18 mole
= 55.55 mole

or or

or
Final Answer : (1)

81)

Explaining : Find total vapour pressure.

Concept : This question is based on mole fraction.
Solution :

Mole fraction in the vapour phase

But

Hence, or
Final Answer : (2)

82)

Explaining : Find molar mass of protein ?

Concept : This question is based on osmotic pressure.
Solution :

or

= 61038 g mol–1
Final Answer : (4)
83)

Explaining : Find molar mass.

Concept : This question is based on Isotonic solution.
Solution :
Isotonic solutions have the same molar concentration. Hence,
Molar conc. of the substance = Molar conc. of urea

(100 g solution = 100 mL as d = 1 g mL–1)

∴
Final Answer : (1)

84)

Explaining : Find concentration.

Concept : This question is based on osmotic pressure.
Solution :
NaCl sol. used should be isotonic with blood stream. For NaCl, i = 2. π = i CRT

= 0.15 mol L–1.

Final Answer : (1)

85)

Explaining : Find molecular formula?

Concept : This question is based on ΔTf.
Solution :

E.F. mass CH2O = 30 ∴

∴ Molecular formula = 6 × CH2O = C6H12O6
Final Answer : (2)

86)

Explaining : Find (Mw)y = ?

Concept : This question is based on ΔTf.
Solution :

or
= 1000.
Final Answer : (4)

87)

Explaining : Find mass of glucose.

Concept : This question is based on Relative lowering of vapour pressure.
Solution :

As (po – ps)/po is same in the two cases

or w2 = 3 g
Final Answer : (2)

88)

Explaining : Find Tf ?
Concept : This question is based on ΔTf
Solution :
ΔTb = Kb × m ∴ 0.18 = 0.512 × m

∴ Tf = –0.654°C
Final Answer : (2)

89)

Explaining : Find correct statement

Concept : This question is based on freezing point.
Solution :
KI reacts with HgI2 to form a complex as

Thus, number of ions decreases in the solution.

Hence, depression in freezing point is less, i.e., actual freezing point is raised.
Final Answer : (1)

90)

Explaining : Find amount of ice separate?

Concept : This question is based on ΔTf.
Solution :
We have to calculate mass of liquid water that is present in the solution. The remaining will
freeze as ice.
 or w1 = 161.29 g
∴ Ice separated out = 200 – 161.29 = 38.71 g
Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY

91) Solution : Male flowers releasing pollen grains on to the water surface, which are carried
passively by water currents and female flowers reach the water surface by the elongation of
stalk.
Final Answer : (1)

92) Solution : A—Achene, B—Thalamus

Final Answer : (2)

93) Solution : endosperm in angiosperm -

It is typically triploid. it develops from fusion of male gamete and the polar nuclei.
Its primary function is to provide nourishment to developing embryo. It is may be or not
completely consumed by developing embryo.
Final Answer : (1)

94) Solution : A few flowering plants such as some species of asteraceal and grasses, have
evolved a special mechanism, to produce seeds without fertilisation, called apomixis.
Final Answer : (1)

95) Solution : Zygote → Proembryo → globular embryo → Heart-shaped → mature embryo.

Final Answer : (2)

96) Solution : As the seed matures, its water content is decreased and may contain 10-15 per
cent moisture by mass).
Seed of Lupinus germinated and flowered after 10,000 years of dormancy.
Final Answer : (2)

97) Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

98) Solution : I: The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl,
which terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
II: The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its
lower end in the radicle or root tip.
Final Answer : (3)

99) Solution : IV. The relationship between plants and their animal pollinators is one of the
best examples of mutualism but it is not shown by all plants.
Final Answer : (4)

100) Solution : Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
Final Answer : (3)

101) Solution : (a) Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the
egg apparatus.
(b) The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of one synergid and two egg cells.
(c) The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform
apparatus.
Final Answer : (4)

102) Solution : A - Hilum, B - Funicle, C - Nucellus, D - Micropyle

Final Answer : (1)
 103) Solution : Autogamy - (Self pollination) → Pollination occur in a bisexual flower and this
phenomenon occurs in all given statements.
Final Answer : (2)

104) Solution : A – P, B – R, C – Q, D – S

Column-I Column-II

A. Pollen bank P. –196°C

B. Generative cell R. Spindle shaped cell

C. Vegetative cell Q. Abundant food reserve

D. Parthenium S. Allergy
Final Answer : (3)

105) Solution : Leaf cell (2n) = 100, n = 100/2 = 50

Hence, egg cell (n) = 50
Pollen grain (n) = 50
Endosperm (3n) = 3 × 50 = 150
Integument (2n) = 2 × 50 = 100
Final Answer : (2)

106) Solution : A-Q-2, B-P-1, C-S-3, D-R-4

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Microsporangia Q. Microsporogenesis 2. Malegametophyte

B. Ovule P. Megasporogenesis 1. Embryo sac

C. Aril S. Integument 3. Litchi

D. Stomium R. Endothecium 4. Dehiscence

Final Answer : (1)

107) Solution : (i) The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes.
(ii) It has a prominent two-layered wall.
(iii) The hard outer layer called the exine is made up of sporopollenin which is one of the most
resistant organic material known.
(iv) Exine of pollen grain has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is
absent.
(v) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin.
(vi) The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the intine which made up of cellulose and
pectin.
Final Answer : (4)

108) Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

109) Solution :
(b) Over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollengrains are shed at 2-celled stage.
(c) Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid nitrogen (-196°C).
Final Answer : (2)

110) Solution : Tapetum - Endothecium – Middle layers - Epidermis

Final Answer : (4)

111) Solution : Endosperm provides nutrition for the developing embryo. Hence
its development precedes embryo development in most plants. Hence endosperm development
precedes embryo development in most plants.
Final Answer : (4)

112) Solution : The two polar nuclei are haploid, present in the central cell of the embryo sac.
Final Answer : (1)

113) Solution : A typical anther shows -

a. Two lobes with two theca each
b. Each lobe as dithecous
c. All cells in a given microsporangium as potential PMC
d. Thousands of microspores per microsporangium
Final Answer : (4)
114) Solution :

→ → →

Final Answer : (2)

115) Solution : Charactera of Anemophily (Wind pellinated flowers) are -

I. Light and non-sticky pollen grains.
II. Exserted stigmas and anthers.
III. Large, often feathery stigmas.
IV. Flowers colourless, odourless and nectarlexs.
Final Answer : (1)

116) Solution : 4 Microspores are produce from = 1 microspore mother cell.

1 Microspores are produce from = microspore mother cell.

512 Microspores are produce from = = 128 microspore mother cell.

Final Answer : (2)

117) Solution : Ovary → Fruit, Anther → Male gametophytes, Ovule → Seed, Stigma →
Receives pollen.
Final Answer : (1)

118) Solution : In Western countries a large number of Pollen product in the form of tablets
and syrup are available in market. Pollen consumption claimed to increase
the performance of athelete.
Final Answer : (4)

119) Solution : 1 – Nucleus, 2 – MMC, 3 – Nucellus, 4 – Megaspore tetrad, 5 – Megaspore

dyad
Final Answer : (3)

120) Solution : Development of fruit other than ovary is called parthenocarpy, such fruits are
also called false fruit.
Final Answer : (3)
121) Explaining : An organ is made of different types of tissues working together in an
organized way to perform a specific function.
Final Answer : (2)

122) Solution : I – This is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in
kidneys and its main functions are secretion and absorption.
Final Answer : (2)

123) Solution: Food in cockroach passes in this order: Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum.
Final Answer : (1)

124) Solution: The presence of cilia on tall cells indicates ciliated columnar epithelium,
from the Fallopian tube.
Final Answer : (2)

125) Solution: Tegmina are thick, protective forewings of cockroach, located on the
mesothorax, which help shield the hindwings during rest.
Final Answer : (1)

126) Solution: A – Correct, head has six fused segments with great mobility.
B – Incorrect, forewings are leathery and protective, not used for flight.
C – Correct, anal styles are male-specific.
D – Correct, 7th sternum helps form brood pouch in females.
Final Answer : (3)

127) Solution: Anal styles are male-specific, thread-like structures.

Anal cerci are jointed and present in both sexes.
Tegmina are leathery forewings, not transparent.
Hypopharynx acts like a tongue, not an upper lip.
Final Answer : (2)

128) Solution : Spermatophores are bundles of sperms released during copulation.

Testes are present in 4th to 6th segments.
Ovaries are not connected to kidneys.
Mesorchium connects testes, not ovaries.
Final Answer : (3)

129) Solution: Brood pouch: Correct, formed by 7th, 8th, and 9th sterna in females.
Anal cerci: Correct, found in both sexes and are jointed sensory appendages.
Anal styles: Correct, male-specific, short, thread-like structures.
Hypopharynx: Correct, works like a tongue to help in food manipulation.
Final Answer : (4)
 130) Solution: The tracheoles are the finest branches of the respiratory system where direct
diffusion of gases between air and body cells takes place. Spiracles and tracheal tubes only
act as passageways for air movement.
Final Answer : (3)

131) Solution: Frogs use camouflage to blend with their surroundings and avoid predators.
During extreme summer, they go into aestivation (summer sleep) to prevent dehydration.
In harsh winter, they enter hibernation (winter sleep) to survive the cold.
Final Answer : (3)

132) Solution :

Column A Column B
A. Pink, sac-like structures i. Lungs
B. Openings for air intake ii. Nostrils
C. Gaseous exchange during hibernation iii. Skin
D. Helps in air passage to lungs iv. Buccal cavity
Final Answer : (1)

133) Solution: Goblet cells are single-celled glands that release mucus through ducts or
directly on surfaces.
Final Answer : (1)

134) Solution: A (Fibroblast): Produces collagen and elastic fibers.

B (Mast cell): Releases histamine and other mediators during allergic.
Final Answer : (2)

135) Solution: Bidder’s canal receives sperm from vasa efferentia and communicates with the
urinogenital duct.
Final Answer : (2)

136) Solution : Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule about 3/8’’ (8mm) long.
Final Answer : (3)

137) Solution: Frogs act as both predators (insects) and prey (birds, snakes), maintaining
food web balance.
Final Answer : (1)

138) Solution: Thorax: 3 ganglia (one in each thoracic segment).

Abdomen: 6 ganglia (one in each abdominal segment).
Final Answer : (3)

139) Explaining : Statement-I is correct: The mesorchium attaches testes to the kidneys.
Statement-II is incorrect: Vasa efferentia do not open directly into the cloaca; they first pass
into Bidder’s canal, then the urinogenital duct, and finally reach the cloaca.
Final Answer : (3)

140) Explaining : A (Bone): Solid and pliable ground substance resists compression;
specialized connective tissue.
B (Dense irregular connective tissue): Collagen fibres arranged differently between
fibroblasts.
Final Answer : (3)

141) Explaining : Cockroach has compound eyes with many ommatidia → mosaic vision.
Mosaic vision results in less resolution and more sensitivity, not high resolution.
Cockroach does not have a single lens per eye; each ommatidium contributes to a part of the
image.
Final Answer : (3)

142) Solution: (2) is incorrect because cuboidal epithelium consists of cube-shaped cells,
not tall and slender cells.
All other statements are correct.
Final Answer : (2)

143) Solution: Incorrect statement: (b) – Sinus venosus opens into the right atrium, not
the left atrium.
All other statements (a, c, d) are correct.
Final Answer : (1)

144) Solution : A – Gall bladder, B – Fat bodies, C – Kidneys

Final Answer : (3)

145) Solution : Cockroach heart is dorsal with 13 chambers; blood enters via ostia and is
pumped forward—this explains the heart’s structure and function.
Final Answer : (1)

146) Solution : In male cockroach, the genital pouch is bounded dorsally by 9th & 10th
terga and ventrally by 9th sternum.
Final Answer : (2)

147) Solution : Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. Adhering
junctions perform cementing to keep neighboring cells together. Gap junctions facilitate the
cells to communicate with each other. Compound epithelium provide protection against
chemical and mechanical stresses.
Final Answer : (1)

148) Solution - Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid
ground substance.
Final Answer : (2)

149) Solution : Testes- vasa efferentia- kidney- bidder’s canal- urinogenital duct- cloaca.
Final Answer : (3)

150) Solution: Smooth muscles work automatically and cannot be consciously controlled.
Final Answer : (3)

151) Solution : Virchow proposed the phrase meaning cells come from cells.
Final Answer : (1)

152) Solution : Presence of DNA and 70S ribosomes enables some mitochondrial protein
synthesis — explains semi-autonomy.
Final Answer : (1)

153) Solution : A - PPLO, B - Typical bacteria, C - Typical eukaryotic cell

Final Answer : (2)

154) Solution : O₂ enters by simple diffusion (no ATP).

Water → osmosis (passive).
Glucose via carrier → facilitated diffusion (passive).
Na⁺/K⁺ pump uses ATP → classic active transport.
Final Answer : (3)

155) Solution : RER has ribosomes and is for protein synthesis; SER synthesizes
lipids/steroids.
Final Answer : (3)

156) Solution : Cis = receiving, Trans = maturing/shipping face.

Final Answer : (1)

157) Solution : Both statements are correct descriptions of plasmodesmata.

Final Answer : (1)

158) Solution : Centrioles mostly absent in higher plant cells; they form basal bodies in
animal cells.
Final Answer : (3)

159) Solution : 1–3 correct. Statement 4 is wrong — Golgi morphology varies and cisternae
are unbranched.
Final Answer : (1)
160) Solution : - All statements are correct.
Final Answer : (2)

161) Solution : Statement 2 is false — integral proteins are not easily removed.
Final Answer : (2)

162) Solution : Mitochondria = site of aerobic respiration and ATP production.

Final Answer : (2)

163) Solution : Golgi modifies and sorts proteins/lipids for dispatch.

Final Answer : (2)

164) Solution: Peroxisomes: H2O2 breakdown, photorespiration, fatty acid oxidation.

Glyoxysomes: Found in germinating seeds; convert fats → sugars (glyoxylate cycle).
Final Answer : (2)

165) Solution : Singer & Nicolson’s fluid mosaic model describes a quasi-fluid phospholipid
bilayer with mobile proteins and carbohydrates.
Final Answer : (2)

166) Solution : All three cytoskeletal components contribute differently: microtubules

(transport/shape), microfilaments (motility), intermediate filaments (mechanical strength).
Final Answer : (4)

167) Solution : Cholesterol regulates fluidity (increases or decreases).

Final Answer : (3)

168) Solution : Tonoplast (vacuolar membrane) contains transporters for ions, metabolites.
Final Answer : (1)

169) Solution : Ribosome is non-membrane bound.

Final Answer : (2)

170) Solution : RER synthesizes secretory/membrane proteins; Golgi modifies and sorts them.
Lysosomes digest; nucleolus makes rRNA.
Final Answer : (1)

171) Solution: Lysosomes release hydrolytic enzymes to digest vesicle contents with in
heterophagosome before exocytosis of waste.
Final Answer : (3)
172) Solution : Viruses (≈0.02–0.2 μm) < Mycoplasma (~0.3 μm) < bacteria (~1–5 μm) <
eukaryotic cells (10–20 μm).
Final Answer : (1)

173) Solution : Protein synthesized on RER → Protein modification in ER → further

modification (glycosylation) in Golgi → secretory vesicles bud from trans face of Golgi.
Final Answer : (3)

174) Solution : Nucleolus is not membrane-bound, and it synthesizes rRNA, not mRNA.
Final Answer : (3)

175) Solution : Classic axonemal structure: 9 peripheral doublets + 2 central singlets.

Final Answer : (3)

176) Solution : Mesosomes = infolded plasma membrane in prokaryotes implicated in cell

wall formation, respiration/DNA distribution
Final Answer : (2)

177) Solution : -
Final Answer : (2)

178) Solution : Telocentric chromosomes (centromere at terminal end).

Final Answer : (3)

179) Solution : Match definitions to organelle structures/functions.

Final Answer : (4)

180) Solution : A. Made of flattened cisternae.

B. Cis face receives vesicles from ER.
C. Trans face releases vesicles.
D. Site for glycoprotein and glycolipid formation.
Final Answer : (2)