23-11-2025

9610ZMD801302425005 MD

PHYSICS

1) The diagram shows a capacitor C and resistor R connected in series to an ac source. V1 and V2 are
voltmeters and A is an ammeter :

Consider the following statements :-

I. Readings in A and V2 are always in phase
II. Reading in V1 is ahead in phase with reading in V2
III. Readings in A and V1 are always in phase.
Which of these statements are/is correct

(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) I and II only
(4) II and III only

2) For the circuit as shown in figure, if the value of rms current is 2.2 A, the power factor of the box
is

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

3) A bulb of 60W glows with a d.c. and A.C. source shown in circuit ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively. If a soft
iron rod inserted in the inductor of both the circuit then which is correct regarding glow of both the
bulbs:-

(a) Glow of bulbs of circuit ‘A’ decreases

(b) Glow of bulb of circuit ‘B’ remains same
(c) Glow of bulb of circuit ‘A’ reamins same
(d) Glow of bulb of circuit ‘B’ decreases

(1) a, b
(2) c, d
(3) b, c
(4) a, d

4) The charge on a parallel plate capacitor varies as The plates are very large and
close together (area = A, separation = d) neglecting the edge effects. The displacement current
through the capacitor will be ______.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) In the following sequences, decreasing order of wavelength of EM radiations is:-

(1) Infra-red waves, Radio waves, X-rays, visible light

(2) Radio waves, Infra-red waves, Visible light, X-rays
(3) Radio waves, Visible light, Infra-red waves, X-rays
(4) X-rays, Visible light, Infra-red waves, Radio waves

6) In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field vector and magnetic field vector are given as
and , respectively. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Assume that lamp radiates power P uniformly in all directions. The magnitude of electric field
strength at a distance r from the lamp is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC with frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit. Then for
what frequency point, the circuit is inductive?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All points

9) The r.m.s value of potential difference V shown in the figure is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) An alternating voltage is applied to a series LCR circuit. If the current leads the voltage by 45°,
then (tan45° = l)

(1) XL = XC – R
(2) XL = XC + R

(3)

(4)

11) Oscillating magnetic field in a plane EMW is given by By = 8 × 10–6 sin (5000 πx – 3 × 1011 πt)T.
Expression for oscillating electric field will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Which of the following statement is correct regarding the AC circuit shown in the figure ?

(1) The rms value of current through the circuit is irms = .

(2)
The phase difference between source emf and current is ϕ = cos–1 .
(3) Average power dissipated in the circuit is 2500 W
(4) The rms value of current through the circuit is irms = 50 A.

13) During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium.

(1) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero.

(2) Electric energy density is double of the magnetic energy density.
(3) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density.
(4) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density.

14) Electric flux between plates of parallel plate capacitor varies as ϕ = 2t2 – 3t + 1. Then correct
graph for displacement current and time is as –

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity on a perfectly reflecting

surface is

(1) Ic
(2) Ic2

(3)

(4)

16) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b and

c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When speed of liquid is zero everywhere, pressure difference at any two points
depends on equation P1 – P2 = ρg (h2 – h1)

Statement II : In ventury tube shown In the light of

the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

18) The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice the excess pressure inside a second soap
bubble. The ratio between the volume of the first and the second bubble is :

(1) 1 : 9
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 81
(4) 1 : 27

19) A capillary tube is immersed vertically in water and the height of the water column is x. When
this arrangement is taken into a mine of depth d, the height of the water column is y. If R is the

radius of the earth, the ratio is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) In an experiment, a small steel ball falls through a liquid at a constant speed of 10 cm/s. If the
steel ball is pulled upward with a force equal to twice its effective weight, how fast will it move
upward ?

(1) 10 cm/s
(2) 5 cm/s
(3) 20 cm/s
(4) Zero

21) A planet of small mass m moves around the sun of mass M along an elliptical orbit such that its
minimum and maximum distance from sun are r and R respectively. Its period of revolution will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The kinetic energy of a satellites in an orbit close to the surface of the earth is E. What should be
its kinetic energy so that it escapes from the gravitational field of the earth?

(1) 4 E
(2) E
(3) 2 E
(4) E

23) The rotation of the earth having radius R about its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at
latitude angle 60° feels weightless. The duration of the day in such case will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) A sphere has a hollow cavity of one third of its total volume. It is filled with a liquid of specific
gravity 1.2. The sphere floats in water with four fifths of its volume submerged. The specific gravity
of the material of the sphere is :-

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.5

25) Capillary rise and shape of droplets on a plate due to surface tension are shown in column II.

Column I Column I

Adhesive forces
(A) is greater than (P)
cohesive forces

Cohesive forces
(B) is greater than (Q)
adhesive forces

A mercury drop is pressed

Pressure at A >
(C) (R) between two parallel plates
pressure at B
of glass

Pressure at B >
(D) (S)
Pressure at A

(1) (A)-P; (B)-Q, R, S; (C)-P, S; (D)-Q, R

(2) (A)- Q; (B)-P, R, S; (C)-Q, R; (D)-P, S
(3) (A)-Q; (B)-R, S; (C)-Q, R; (D)-P, S
(4) (A)-P; (B)-P, R; (C)-Q, S; (D)-S

26) Consider a tank containing a liquid of density ρ with a small hole in its side at a height y1, from
the bottom. The air above the liquid, whose surface is at height y2, is at pressure P. The velocity of

fluid at A1, is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) If two uniform spherical drops of a liquid having same mass, radius, and falling freely with a
terminal velocity of m/s, coalesce to form a bigger drop, then the terminal velocity with which
the bigger drop falls is :-

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) None of these

28) Rank in order, from highest to lowest, the liquid heights ha to hd. The air flow is from left to right.
The liquid columns are not drawn to scale:-

(1) ha > hb = hd > hc

(2) hb = hd > hc > ha
(3) hd > hc > hb > ha
(4) hb > hd > hc > ha

29) Spheres of iron and lead having same mass are completely immersed in water. Density of lead is
more than that of iron. Apparent loss of weight is W1 for iron sphere and W2 for lead sphere. Then

is:-

(1) = 1
(2) between 0 and 1
(3) = 0
(4) > 1

30) The workdone in increasing the length of a one metre long wire of cross-sectional area 1 mm2
through 1 mm will be (Y = 2 x 1011 Nm–2) :

(1) 0.1 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 250 J

31)

Two wires of the same material and length but diameter in the ratio 1 : 2 are stretched by the same
force. The ratio of potential energy per unit volume for the two wires when stretched will be:

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 16 : 1

32) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The radii of two planets are respectively R1 and R2 and their densities are respectively ρ1 & ρ2 the
ratio of the acceleration due to gravity at their surface is–

g1: g2 =
(1)

(2) g1: g2 =
(3) g1: g2 =
(4) g1: g2 =

34) A tunnel is dug across the diameter of earth, a ball is released from the surface of Earth into the

tunnel. The velocity of ball when it is at a distance from centre of earth is (where R = radius of
Earth and M = mass of Earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Two masses of 16 Kg and 25 kg are placed 18m apart. Find the distance from 16 kg particle
where net gravitational force is zero :-

(1) 4 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 20 m

36) Orbital radius of a satellite S of earth is four times that of a communication satellite C. Period of
revolution of S is :-

(1) 4 days
(2) 8 days
(3) 16 days
(4) 32 days

37) The ratio of kinetic energy of a planet at perigee and apogee during its motion around the sun in
elliptical orbit of eccentricity e is :

(1) 1 : e

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Let V and E represent the gravitational potential and field at a distance r from the centre of a
uniform solid sphere. Consider the two statements : -
(A) The plot of V against r is discontinuous.
(B) The plot of E against r is discontinuous.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct but (B) is wrong.
(3) (B) is correct but (A) is wrong.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are wrong.

39) If acceleration due to gravity at 32 km depth for earth is 9.7 m/s2, then at what height value of g
will be same?

(1) At 32 km
(2) At 64 km
(3) At 16 km
(4) At 128 km

40) More amount of sugar is obtained in 1 kg weight : -

(1) at north pole

(2) at equator
(3) between pole and equator
(4) at south pole

41) The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth's surface is v0.
The orbital velocity of a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the radius, is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Figure shows a planet in an elliptical orbit around the sun S. Where is the kinetic energy of the
planet maximum?.

(1) P1
(2) P2
(3) P3
(4) P4

43)

If an object of mass m is taken from the surface of earth (radius R) to a height 5R without changing
its kinetic energy, then the work done is :

(1) 2mgR
(2) mgR

(3)

(4)
44) Identical - size lead(11.3 g/cc) and aluminium (2.7g/cc) cubes are suspended at different depths
by two wires in a large vat of water as shown. Choose correct

(1) Both experience different buoyant force.

(2) Tension is greater in wire connected to aluminium.
(3) Aluminium cube experience greater force on its lower face.
(4) Difference in pressure between the upper and lower surface is same for both.

45)

Water stands at a depth H in a large, open tank whose side walls are vertical. A hole is made in one
of the walls at a depth h below the water surface. (a) At what distance R from the foot of the wall
does the emerging stream strike the floor ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 4

CHEMISTRY

1) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Haber process I. Fe catalyst
B. Wacker oxidation II. PdCl2
C. Wilkinson catalyst III. [(PPh3)3RhCl]
D. Ziegler catalyst IV. TiCl4 with Al(C2H5)3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

2) The correct one for d-orbital is :

(1) (n–1)d1–9ns1
(2) (n–1)d1–10ns1–2
(3) (n–1)d1–5
(4) (n–1)d1–10ns2

3) Zr(Z = 40) and Hf(Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :

(1) belonging to same group

(2) diagonal relationship
(3) lanthanoid contraction
(4) having similar chemical properties

4) Which of the following electronic configuration would be associated with the highest magnetic
moment ?

(1) [Ar]3d8
(2) [Ar]3d3
(3) [Ar]3d6
(4) [Ar]3d7

5) Which of the following element is transition metal ?

(1) Pt
(2) Zn
(3) Hg
(4) Cd

6) Basic properties of and are in the order

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) The magnetic moment of Mn in ionic state is , then Mn is in

(1) +2 state
(2) +3 state
(3) +4 state
(4) +5 state

8) Following are ferromagnetic

(1) Cu ; Ag ; Au
(2) Fe ; Co ; Ni
(3) Zn ; Cd ; Hg
(4) Ca ; Sr ; Ba

9) Which of the following lanthanoids shows +2 oxidation state besides the characteristic oxidation
state +3 of lanthanoids ?
(i) Ce (ii) Eu (iii) Yb (iv) Ho

(1) i & ii
(2) ii & iii
(3) iii & iv
(4) i & iv

10) Consider the following statement :

(i) is least basic among hydroxides of lanthanides.
(ii) and posses almost the same ionic radii.
(iii) can act as an oxidising agent.
Which of the above true ?

(1) (i) & (iii)

(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) Only (i)

11) Identify which of the following compound is 2° alcohol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Identify 1° alcohol having chiral carbon also

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) True statement for vinylic alcohol is/are

(1) It may be 3° Alcohol of

(2) No resonance & lone pair of oxygen
(3) It is enol form

(4)

is vinylic alcohol

14)
Find product 'C' is

(1) CH3CH=CH2

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3CH2CH2–Cl

15) Reimer–Tieman formylation reaction involves addition of :-

(1) Chloroform on phenoxide ion

(2) Trichloromethyl carbanion on phenoxide ion
(3) Dichlorocarbene on phenoxide ion
(4) Hydroxide ion on phenol

16) Which is Kolbe-Schmitt reaction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence

CH3CH2OH A B C
are given by the set

(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(2) C2H5Br, CH≡CH, CH2=CHBr
(3) C2H5Br, CH2=CH2, CH2Br—CH2Br
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, BrCH2—CH2Br

18) Alkyl halides can be obtained by all methods excepts

(1) CH3—CH2—OH + HCl

(2) CH2 = CH—CH3 + HBr ——→

(3) C2H5OH + NaCl ——→

(4) CH3—CH2—OH + NaBr

19) p, s and t-alcohols can be distinguished by :-

(1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

(2) Tollen's reagent
(3) Lucas test
(4) Lassaigne's test

20) Which of the following compounds shows intramolecular hydrogen bonding :-

(1) p–Nitrophenol
(2) Ethanol
(3) o–Nitrophenol
(4) Methanamine
21)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Deoxygenation of phenol can be achieved by distillation with :-

(1) Raney nickel

(2) Lithium aluminium hydride
(3) Sodium borohydride
(4) Zinc dust

23) Phenol on treatment with dil HNO3 at low temp (298 K) gives two products P and Q. P is steam
volatile but Q is not. P and Q are respectively.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces
which one of the following functional group ?

(1) –CHCl2
(2) –CHO
(3) –CH2Cl
(4) –COOH

25) The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which of the following gives 2°-alcohol ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B and C are correct

(2) A and B are correct
(3) A and C are correct
(4) B and D are correct

28) Which alcohol produces turbidity with Lucas reagent most slowly

(1) 2–Butanol
(2) t–Butyl alcohol
(3) Isobutyl alcohol
(4) Diphenyl methanol

29) Best method to convert alcohol into alkyl chloride is -

(1) ROH + SOCl2 → R–Cl + SO2 + HCl

(2) R–OH + PCl3 → R–Cl
(3) R–OH + PCl5 → R–Cl
(4) R–OH + HCl → R–Cl + H2O

30) The major product in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Reaction given below is an example of

(1) Wolff-Kishner reduction

(2) Clemmensen reduction
(3) Rosenmund reaction
(4) Stephen reduction

32) Which of the following will not give D.N.P. test ?

(1) CH3–CHO
(2) CH3–CO–CH3
(3) CH3–O–CH3

(4)
33) When acetaldehyde is heated with fehling's solution it gives a precipitate of

(1) Cu
(2) CuO
(3) Cu2O
(4) Cu2O

34) The reagent used for the separation of acetaldehyde from acetophenone is :-

(1) NaHSO3
(2) C6H5NH–NH2
(3) NH2–OH
(4) NaOH + I2

35) When pentanone-2 reacts with methyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis it gives :-

(1) 2°alcohol
(2) Ether
(3) 1°alcohol
(4) 3°alcohol

36)
What is "P" ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Match List-I with List-II.

 List-I List-II

(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelilnskyreaction

(b) (ii) Gattermann-Koch Reaction

R–CH2–OH + R'COOH
(c) (iii) Haloform reaction

(d) (iv) Esterification

R–CH2–COOH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

38) Assertion : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and
ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Reason : There is a weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of the dipole-
dipole interactions.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

39)
Identify final product 'Z' :-

(1) CHI3
(2) HC≡CH

(3)

(4) H2C=CH2

40) Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following ?

(1) Glycol with KOH

(2) Zn-Hg with HCl
(3) LiAlH4
(4) H2 and Pt as catalyst

41) Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :

(1) Cross Aldol condensation

(2) Aldol condensation
(3) Cannizzaro's reaction
(4) Cross Cannizzaro's reaction

42) Compare the rate of HCN addition to the following aldehydes are in the order ?

(1) ii > i > iii

(2) i > ii > iii
(3) iii > ii > i
(4) iii > i > ii

43) Which of the following do not give Cannizzaro reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Which of the following will not undergo aldol condensation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion (A): The taproot system is commonly found in dicot plants.

Reason (R): It originates from the radicle and forms lateral roots.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

2) Statement I: Adventitious roots arise from parts other than the radicle.
Statement II: In maize and sugarcane, stilt roots provide mechanical support.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

3) Match the following floral terms with their descriptions:

 Column I Column II
A. Epipetalous (i) Stamens attached to petals
B. Polyandrous (ii) Free stamens
C. Epiphyllous (iii) Stamens attached to perianth
D. Monadelphous (iv) Filaments united in one bundle
(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(3) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

4) Assertion (A): Epigynous flowers have inferior ovaries.

Reason (R): The thalamus grows upward and encloses the ovary completely.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

5) Statement I: In Imbricate aestivation, one petal is completely internal and one completely
external.
Statement II: In Vexillary aestivation, the posterior petal is largest and outermost.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement I true, II false
(4) Statement I false, II true

6) Which of the following statements about the perianth is incorrect?

(1) Perianth occurs when sepals and petals are indistinguishable.

(2) It is found in lily and maize.
(3) It is collectively called the androecium.
(4) Its units are termed tepals.

7) Identify the types of placentation in the given diagrams (A to E) :-

(1) A–Marginal, B–Axile, C–Perietal, D–Free central, E–Basal

(2) A–Marginal, B–Basal, C–Perietal, D–Free central, E–Axile
(3) A–Parietal, B–Basal, C–Marginal, D–Free central, E–Axile
(4) A–Parietal, B–Axile, C–Marginal, D–Free central, E–Twisted

8) The maize grain has an embryo with one large, shield shaped cotyledon known as :-

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Scutellum
(3) Endosperm
(4) Coleorhiza

9) In which of the fruit, well developed fruit wall with a hard or stony endocarp is found :-

(1) Caryopsis as in Pea

(2) Drupe as in Mango
(3) Berry as in Date
(4) Pome as in Apple

10) Identify the position of gynoecium in the given diagram A to C and select the flower in which

they are found :-

(1) A - Epigynous, Mustard ; B - Perigynous, Plum; C - Hypogynous, Guava

(2) A - Hypogynous, Cucumber; B-Perigynous, Mango ; C - Epigynous, Apple
(3) A - Hypogynous, China rose ; B Perigynous, Peach ; C - Epigynous - Cucumber
(4) A - Epigynous, Guava ; B - Hypogynous, Brinjal; C - Perigynous - Rose

11) Assertion (A): In racemose inflorescence, flowers are borne in acropetal succession.
Reason (R): In racemose, the main axis terminates in a flower.

(1) A and R both true, R explains A

(2) A true, R false
(3) A false, R true
(4) Both are false

12) The central axis of pinnately compound leaf is called:

(1) Petiole
(2) Rachis
(3) Stipule
(4) Leaf lamina

13) Assertion (A): The pericarp of mango is differentiated into three layers.
Reason (R): Mango is a drupe with dry mesocarp.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

14) Match the family with its fruit type:

A Malvaceae i Legume

B Fabaceae ii Capsule

C Poaceae iii Berry

D Solanaceae iv Caryopsis
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

15) Identify the incorrect match:

(1) Liliaceae – Actinomorphic flower

(2) Solanaceae – Epipetalous stamens
(3) Fabaceae – Zygomorphic flowers
(4) Cruciferae – Epiphyllous stamens

16) Study of different kinds of organisms and their diversities with relationship among them is called
?

(1) Taxonomy
(2) Systematics
(3) Classification
(4) Identification

17)

Match the column-I with column-II for wheat classification and select the correct option using codes
given below:

Column-I Column-II
A. Family (i) Poales
B. Order (ii) Angiospermae
C. Class (iii) Poaceae
D. Division (iv) Monocotyledonae
(1) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (i)
(2) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iii)
(3) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii)
(4) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (i)

18)

Arrange the following taxa in the box in decreasing order of their common features :-

Mammalia, Carnivora, Felis, Chordata, Felidae

(1) Chordata → Mammalia → Carnivora → Felidae → Felis
(2) Felis → Felidae → Carnivora → Mammalia → Chordata
(3) Felis → Carnivora → Felidae → Mammalia → Chordata
(4) Chordata → Mammalia → Felidae → Carnivora → Felis

19) As we go lower from kingdom to species the number of common characteristics :-

(1) goes on increasing

(2) goes on decreasing
(3) First goes on increasing then decreasing
(4) First goes on decreasing then increasing

20) Which of the following characters of living beings is not the defining property ?

(1) Response to stimulus

(2) Metabolism
(3) Cellular Organization
(4) Growth

21) Read the following statements, find out which statements are incorrect :-
(A) Growth is defining feature of living organisms.
(B) Biology is a story of evolution of living organisms on earth.
(C) Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characters of growth.
(D) Only few chemical reactions occuring in our body is called metabolism.

(1) A, C, D
(2) B, D
(3) A, D
(4) B, C

22) Find out which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Living organism are self replicating, evolving and self regulating.
(2) Adaptation and homeostasis are very important character of living.
(3) Brain dead coma patient has self consciousness.
(4) Consciousness is most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organism.
23) Read the following statements and select the correct ones :-
(A) Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characters of growth.
(B) Response to stimuli is the defining property of living organisms.
(C) Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the body in isolated cell free system.
(D) All organisms are not aware of their surroundings.

(1) B and C
(2) A and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

24) Both the words in biological name, when printed in italics, indicate :-

(1) Now they are living fossil

(2) Now they are extinct
(3) Their Latin origin
(4) They are Universal

25) Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive events for

(1) Algae and higher plants

(2) Higher plants and animals
(3) Liverworts, dicots and ferns
(4) Bacteria and Amoeba

26) Assertion (A): Alleles segregate during gamete formation.

Reason (R): This segregation ensures each gamete carries only one allele for a trait.

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

27) Assertion (A): Test cross involves crossing a dominant phenotype with a recessive parent.
Reason (R): It helps determine whether the dominant organism is homozygous or heterozygous

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

28) Statement I: Law of Dominance explains appearance of only one parental trait in F₁.
Statement II: Law of Segregation explains reappearance of both parental traits in F₂.

(1) Both statements I and II are true

(2) Both statements I and II are false
(3) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false and Statement II is true

29) Assertion (A): Incomplete dominance shows an intermediate phenotype.

Reason (R): Neither allele is completely dominant over the other.

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

30) Which is incorrect regarding co-dominance?

(1) Both alleles express equally in F₁ generation

(2) It is shown in ABO blood grouping.
(3) Dominant allele masks recessive one completely
(4) IA and IB are co-dominant.

31) Statement I: Mendel’s “factors” were later identified as genes located on chromosomes.
Statement II: Chromosomes and genes both occur in pairs and usually segregate independently
during meiosis.

(1) Both I and II are true

(2) Both I and II are false
(3) I is true and II is false
(4) I is false and II is true

32) Which of the following is incorrect regarding chromosomal theory of inheritance?

(1) Genes are located on chromosomes

(2) Homologous chromosomes segregate during anaphase I.
(3) Chromosomes occur in pairs in germ cells.
(4) Chromosomes occur in pairs in diploid cells.

33) Which organism did Thomas Hunt Morgan use to study linkage?

(1) Drosophila melanogaster

(2) Pisum sativum
(3) Mus musculus
(4) Arabidopsis thaliana

34) Statement I: Genes located on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together.
Statement II: Such physical association of genes is termed linkage.

(1) Both I and II are true

(2) I true, II false
(3) I false, II true
(4) Both false

35) Morgan observed 1.3 % recombination between yellow and white genes. What does it
indicate?

(1) Genes are unlinked

(2) Genes are tightly linked
(3) Genes are on different chromosomes
(4) Genes are loosely linked

36) Assertion: Crossing over produces recombinant types.

Reason: It occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

(1) Both A and R true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R true
(3) A true R false
(4) A false R true

37) Choose the incorrect statement regarding polygenic inheritance.

(1) Involves multiple genes

(2) Shows continuous variation
(3) Recessive alleles mask dominant ones completely
(4) Phenotype depends on number of dominant alleles

38) In humans, skin colour is controlled by three genes A, B, C. The lightest skin genotype is:

(1) AABBCC
(2) AABbcc
(3) aabbcc
(4) AaBbCc

39) Assertion: A pleiotropic gene affects more than one phenotypic trait.
Reason: A single gene may control enzyme involved in different metabolic pathways.

(1) Both A and R true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R true
(3) A true R false
(4) A false R true

40) Phenylketonuria is caused by defect in gene coding for enzyme:

(1) Tyrosinase
(2) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(3) Amylase
(4) Lactase
41) Statement I: In humans, male is heterogametic.
Statement II: Male produces two types of sperms (X and Y Type).

(1) Both I and II true

(2) I true II false
(3) I false II true
(4) Both false

42)

A. Grasshopper 1. XY type

B. Humans 2. XO type

C. Birds 3. ZW type
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1
(3) A-1, B-3, C-2
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1

43) Choose the incorrect statement for honeybee sex determination

(1) Females develop from fertilised eggs.

(2) Males develop from unfertilised eggs.
(3) Males are diploid
(4) Mechanism is haplodiploid.

44) Assertion: Males determine sex of child in humans.

Reason: Males produce sperms carrying either X or Y chromosome.

(1) Both A and R true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R true
(3) A true R false
(4) A false R true

45) In birds, the female is:

(1) Homogametic (XX)

(2) Heterogametic (ZW)
(3) Triploid
(4) Haploid

46) Statement-I: Mutation causes changes in DNA sequence.

Statement-II: Mutations can be induced by UV rays or chemicals.

(1) Both I and II true

(2) I true II false
(3) I false II true
(4) Both false

47) Which statement about mutation is incorrect?

(1) Point mutation involves change of a single base pair.

(2) Frame-shift mutation results from deletion/insertion.
(3) Mutation never causes cancer.
(4) UV rays are mutagens.

48) Assertion: Pedigree analysis is useful in humans.

Reason: Controlled crosses cannot be performed in humans.

(1) Both A and R true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R true
(3) A true R false
(4) A false R true

49)

A. Haemophilia 1. Autosomal recessive qualitative

B. Sickle-cell anaemia 2. X-linked recessive

C. Thalassemia 3. Autosomal recessive quantitative defect

(1) A-2, B-1, C-3
(2) A-2, B-1, C-1
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2

50) Identify the incorrect statement about colour blindness.

(1) It is a sex-linked recessive disorder.

(2) Genes are located on Y chromosome.
(3) Occurs mostly in males.
(4) Carrier females pass gene to sons.

51) Assertion: Haemophilia is rare in females.

Reason: For a female to be haemophilic, father must be haemophilic and mother carrier.

(1) Both A and R true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R true
(3) A true R false
(4) A false R true

52) Sickle-cell anaemia results from which mutation in mRNA of β-globin gene?
(1) GAG → GUG
(2) GAA → GCA
(3) CAA → CAG
(4) GUG → GAG

53) Given diagram shows Morgan's experiment between body colour and eye colour, what will be

true for this experiment :-

(1) The strength of linkage between y and w is higher

(2) Crossing over between y and w is higher
(3) The strength of linkage between y and w is low
(4) All the above

54) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct
identification.

(1) C- ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ females, XX males

55) Which of the following symbols and its representation is incorrect :-

(1)
= Normal male

(2)
= Carrier female of sex linked dominant disease

(3)
= Death of female individual

(4)
= Sex unspecified

56) Herbert Boyer's significant contribution to biotechnology was:

(1) Discovery of the structure of DNA.

(2) Invention of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
(3) Use of restriction enzymes to create recombinant DNA.
(4) Discovery of mRNA in eukaryotic cells.

57) Which of the following techniques are used in genetic engineering?

(A) Use of restriction enzymes
(B) Gel electrophoresis
(C) PCR
(D) Hybridization

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B and D only
(3) A and D only
(4) All of the above

58) Which of the following products can be manufactured using bioprocess engineering techniques?

(1) Vaccines
(2) Enzymes
(3) Antibiotics
(4) All of the above

59) Statement I: An alien piece of DNA introduced into a host cell can replicate independently even
without an origin of replication.
Statement II: For an alien DNA to be maintained in the host and inherited by progeny cells, it must
be integrated into a chromosome that contains an origin of replication.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

60) Which of the following best explains why DNA ligase was crucial in the first successful
construction of recombinant DNA by Cohen and Boyer?

(1) It cleaves DNA at specific sites to remove antibiotic resistance genes.

(2) It integrates recombinant DNA into the bacterial chromosome.
(3) It seals the sugar-phosphate backbone between vector and insert DNA.
(4) It unwinds the DNA double helix for replication.

61) Which of the following correctly represents the sequential steps in genetically modifying an
organism, as outlined in NCERT?

(1) Isolation of host cell → Vector selection → Ligation → Expression

(2) Identification of desired gene → Introduction into host → Maintenance and inheritance
(3) Transformation → Isolation → Amplification
(4) Isolation of protein → Cloning → Gene transfer

62) How is the restriction enzyme EcoRI named, based on the NCERT naming convention?

(1) 'Eco' from Escherichia coli, 'R' from recognition site, 'I' for enzyme type.
(2) 'E' from genus Escherichia, 'co' from coli, 'R' from strain RY13, 'I' for first enzyme isolated.
(3) 'Eco' from ecological role, 'R' from restriction, 'I' for insertion.
(4) 'E' from Escherichia, 'co' from colony, 'R' from resistance, 'I' for isozyme.

63) Match the enzymes (Column I) with their descriptions or characteristics (Column II):

Column I Column II

A. Hind II 1. Adds methyl groups to DNA to protect from cleavage

B. DNA ligase 2. Cuts DNA at a specific 6 base pair recognition sequence

C. Methylase enzyme 3. Joins cut DNA fragments by sealing sugar-phosphate backbone

Named based on genus (Escherichia), species (coli), strain

D. EcoRI 4.
and order of isolation
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

64) Assertion (A): The origin of replication is essential for the multiplication of recombinant DNA in
the host cell.
Reason (R): Origin of replication is the site where DNA polymerase initiates transcription.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

65) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the separation of DNA fragments using
gel electrophoresis?

(1) DNA fragments move toward the cathode because they are negatively charged.
(2) Larger DNA fragments move faster through the gel matrix than smaller fragments.
(3) Agarose gel acts as a molecular sieve, separating DNA fragments based on size.
(4) DNA is positively charged and thus moves toward the negative electrode.

66) If a mixture of DNA fragments of sizes 500 bp, 1,000 bp, and 1,500 bp are run on an agarose gel,
which of the following is true?

(1) All fragments migrate the same distance.

(2) The 1,500 bp fragment moves the farthest.
(3) The 500 bp fragment migrates the farthest toward the anode.
(4) DNA fragments do not migrate under electric field.

67) Which of the following would be best used to visualize DNA bands after electrophoresis?

(1) Methylene blue staining

(2) Coomassie brilliant blue
(3) UV light after ethidium bromide staining
(4) Gram staining

68) The process of cutting out a specific DNA band from the agarose gel and purifying it for further
use is known as ______.

(1) Hybridisation
(2) Ligation
(3) Transformation
(4) Elution

69) Match the Column (Correct–Incorrect Match):

Column I Column II
(Feature) (Function/Description)

A. Origin of replication (i) Enables antibiotic resistance to host bacterium

B. Selectable marker (ii) Provides site for DNA polymerase to begin replication

C. Restriction site (iii) Allows identification of recombinant cells

D. Ampicillin resistance (iv) Site for insertion of foreign DNA

(1) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(2) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(3) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iv)
(4) A–(iv), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iii)

70) Arrange the following steps of PCR in the correct sequential order:
A. Annealing of primers
B. Denaturation of DNA
C. Extension of primers using Taq polymerase
D. Amplification cycle is repeated multiple times

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) B → A → C → D
(3) B → C → A → D
(4) C → A → B → D

71) A major advantage of barrier method is that they:

(1) Cause hormonal imbalance

(2) Have significant side effects
(3) Offer protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
(4) Require surgery

72)

Match the following methods with their limitations:

 Column I Column II

A. Periodic abstinence i. May fail due to pre-ejaculatory fluid

B. Coitus interruptus ii. May cause discomfort or breakage if misused

C. Lactational amenorrhea iii. Effective only up to 6 months after childbirth

D. Barrier methods iv. Needs accurate knowledge of menstrual cycle

(1) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i

73) Read the following Statements:

A. MTP is performed to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to contraceptive failure or rape.
B. MTP is illegal under all circumstances in India.
C. Continuation of some pregnancies may be harmful or fatal to the mother or foetus.
D. Amniocentesis is sometimes misused to determine the sex of the unborn child.
How many statements are correct?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Which age group is reported to have higher incidences of STIs?

(1) 5–14 years

(2) 15–24 years
(3) 25–50 years
(4) Above 40 years

75) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) ZIFT uses zygotes formed in the lab and transfers them to the fallopian tube.
(2) ICSI involves direct injection of sperm into an ovum.
(3) GIFT transfers sperm into the uterus of the female.
(4) IUI is a type of artificial insemination.

76)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I(Organisms) List-II(Mode of Nutrition)

A. Euglenoid I. Saprophytic
B. Dinoflagellate II. Stiff cellulose plates
C. Slime mould III. Parasitic
D. Entamoeba IV. Pellicle

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

77) Which of the following is a incorrect statement?

(1) Bacteria vast majority are heterotrophic organisms.

Kingdom Protista has brought together Chlamydomonas, Chlorella (earlier placed in Algae
(2)
within Plants and both having cell walls)
The Mycoplasma are organisms that completely lack a cell wall. They are the smallest living
(3)
cells known and cannot survive without oxygen.
(4) The cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plants.

78) Statement-I: Sexual spores are called ascospores which are produced endogenously in sac like
asci (singular ascus).
Statement-II : The basidiospores are exogenously produced on the basidium (pl.: basidia).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct.

79) Assertion : Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.

Reason : They also reproduce by a sort of sexual reproduction by adopting a primitive type of DNA
transfer from one bacterium to the other.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

80) Find the incorrect match :-

Column-I Column-II
(1) Ustilago belongs to class basidiomycetes
(2) Agaricus belongs to class basidiomycetes
(3) Puccinia smut
(4) Alternaria sexual cycle is not found
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Which of the following are characters of dinoflagellates?

(i) They are planktonic golden yellow algae with soap-box like structure.
(ii) Red dinoflagellates undergo such rapid multiplication and toxins released by such large numbers
may even kill other marine animals such as fishes.
(iii) They appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red depending on the main pigments present in their
cells.
(iv) They are biflagellated organisms with pellicle.
(v) Gonyaulax undergo such rapid multiplication that they make the sea appear red (red tides).

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)

82) Which statement is incorrect regarding fungi?

(1) Stored food is glycogen and oil

(2) Fungi are haploid in nature
(3) Higher fungi are more advanced than lower fungi in complexity of sex organs
(4) Haplontic life cycle and zygotic meiosis occurs in most fungi

83) Which of the following is not a sexual spore?

(a)Aplanospores
(b) Ascospore
(c) Basidiospore
(d) Oospore
(e) Zoospores

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Only (a) and (e)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (e)

84) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ascomycetes ?

(i) Neurospora, used in biochemical and genetic work, is a member of this class.
(ii) They are mostly multicellular, e.g., Yeast, or rarely unicellular, e.g., Penicillium.
(iii) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic, or coprophilous.
(iv) Some examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps, and Neurospora.

(1) Both (i) and (ii)

(2) Only (ii)
(3) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(4) All of these

85) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about class basidiomycetes ?
(i) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is not common.
(ii) They grow in soil, on logs, stumps, and in living plants as parasites (rusts and smuts).
(iii) The asexual spores are generally not found.
(iv) Common members: Agaricus, Ustilago, Puccinia.

(1) Only (i)

(2) Both (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(4) All of these

86) Assertion: A new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and caused potato spindle tuber
disease. It was found to be a free RNA; it lacked the protein coat that is found in viruses, hence the
name viroid.
Reason: The most notable diseases caused by prions are bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)
commonly called mad cow disease in cattle and its analogous variant Creutzfeldt–Jacob disease
(CJD) in humans.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

87) Find out correctly matched virus with its typical host.

(1) TMV – Animal

(2) Influenza virus – Plant
(3) Bacteriophage – Bacteria
(4) HIV – Plant

88) Which of the following statements about lichens is correct?

(1) Lichens consist of fungus (mycobiont) and alga/cyanobacterium (phycobiont)

(2) Lichens are true plants
(3) Lichens can grow in heavily polluted areas
(4) Lichens reproduce only sexually

89) Identify A,B,C and D and select the right option :-

 A B C D

(1) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres

(2) Head Collar Sheath Tail fibres

(3) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

(4) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Cr–Jacob disease a Deuteromycetes p Survive with or without oxygen

ii Mycoplasma b Prions q Ascomycetes

iii Conidia c Smallest living organism r Single standard RNA

iv Truffles d Virus s Asexual spore

v Mumps e Edible t Abnormally folded protein

(1) i-a-q, ii-b-s, iii-d-t, iv-e-q, v-a-r
(2) i-e-p, ii-b-s, iii-d-r, iv-c-q, v-a-t
(3) i-d-p, ii-b-s, iii-e-r, iv-c-q, v-a-t
(4) i-b-t, ii-c-p, iii-a-s, iv-e-q, v-d-r
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 2 4 4 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 4 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 3 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 2 2 1 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 4 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 3 4 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 1 2 1 3 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : To find the phase difference between the reading of ammeter and voltmeter
Concept : This question is based on phase or diagram
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

2) Explaining : To find power factor of box

Concept : This question is based on power factor

Solution :

(100)2 = (100)2+(100–XC)2

⇒
For RC-circuit

⇒
So, power factor of the box in

Final Answer : (1)

3) Explaining : To predict the brightness of bulbs

Concept : This question is based on power consumed by bulbs
Solution :
⇒ R is independent of XL
⇒ When L increases, XL and Z also increase i.e. current decrease in second case B.
Final Answer : (2)

4) Explaining : To find displacement current

Concept : This question is based on displacement current

Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

5) Explaining : To arrange the EM radiation in decreasing order of wavelength

Concept : This question is based on EM spectrum
Solution :
Order of
Final Answer : (2)

6) Explaining : to find the direction of propagation of EMW

Concept : This question is based on Direction of propagation
Solution :
Direction of propagation,

Final Answer : (2)

7) Explaining : To find the peak value of electric field

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Intensity, = average energy

density × velocity =

Final Answer : (3)

8) Explaining : To predict the nature of circuit

Concept : This question is based on
XL > XC Inductive
XL > XC Capacitive
Solution :
At A : XC > XL
At B : XC = XL
At C : XC < XL
Final Answer : (3)

9) Explaining : to find the r.m.s. value

Concept : This question is based on RMS value
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

10) Explaining : To find the relation between reactance of circuit and resistance.
Concept : This question is based on for ϕ = 45° and current leading the voltage, XC > XL.

Solution :
R = X C – XL XL = XC – R
Final Answer : (1)

11) Explaining : To find the equation for oscillating electric field.

Concept : This question is based on equation of EMW.

Solution : = v = = = 6 × 107 m/s

E = B × 6 × 107 = 480
Final Answer : (4)

12) Explaining : To choose the correct statement from the options regarding AC circuit
shown in figure.
Concept : This question is based on resonance in AC circuit.
Solution : Case of series R–L–C resonance.

Irms =
ϕ = 0°

Pavg =
Final Answer : (3)

13) Explaining : To compare the energy density of electric and magnetic field in a EMW.
Concept : This question is based on energy density.
Solution : In an em wave, energy is equally divided between the electric and the magnetic
fields.
Final Answer : (4)

14) Explaining : To predict the correct graph for displacement current.

Concept : This question is based on Displacement current, .

Solution : ϕ = 2t2 – 3t + 1
displacement current = id

=ε
0

id = ε0(4t - 3)
graph will be straight line with positive slope and negative y-intercept.
Final Answer : (3)

15)

Explaining the Question : The question asks for the pressure exerted by an electromagnetic
wave with a given intensity when it hits a perfectly reflecting surface. It wants to know how
the intensity of the wave relates to the pressure on that surface.
Concept : The core concept involves the momentum carried by electromagnetic waves and
how this momentum transfer creates pressure on a surface. When light reflects off a surface, it
changes direction and imparts twice the momentum compared to being absorbed, resulting in
a pressure difference.

Solution : For a perfectly absorbing surface, radiation pressure is given by For

a perfectly reflecting surface, the pressure is doubled because momentum reverses direction:

where: - is the intensity of the electromagnetic wave in W/m², - is the speed

of light in m/s.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that pressure relates to force per unit area, and force relates to
the rate of momentum transfer. When reflection happens, the change in momentum doubles
compared to absorption.

Final answer : (3)

16) Explaining : The question asks for the ratio of the increase in length for two
wires (steel and brass) suspended vertically. The ratio of their original lengths

is radii is b , and Young's moduli is . The diagram shows that the steel
wire supports mass M, and the brass wire supports mass M + 2M = 3M.
Concept : This question is based on The extension ( ) of a wire under tensile stress is

given by Young's Modulus equation:

where F is the tension (force), L is the original length, A is the cross-sectional area ( ), and
Y is the Young's Modulus.

The ratio of extensions is calculated as:

Solution :

Given :

Final Answer : (2)

17) Explaining : The question presents two statements about fluid dynamics and asks for the
correct choice.
Statement I: When the speed of liquid is zero everywhere (v1 = v2 = 0 the pressure difference
at any two points depends on the equation
Statement II: In the Venturi tube shown, the relationship between velocities and height
difference is .
Concept : The problem uses the Bernoulli's Equation for an ideal fluid flow

Solution :

Applying Bernoulli's equation

=
[h1 & h2 are height of point from any reference level]
Given V1 = V2 = 0 (for statement-1)
∴ P1 – P2 = ρg(h2 – h2)
For statement-2

P1 – P2 = ρgh

Hence answer (4)

Final Answer : (4)

18) Explaining : The excess pressure inside a first soap bubble (r1) is thrice the excess
pressure inside a second soap bubble (r2). We need to find the ratio of their volumes (V1/V2).

Concept : The Excess Pressure ( ) inside a soap bubble is given by the formula: .
where T is the surface tension and r is the radius of the bubble.
Solution :

r2 = 3r1
Final Answer : (4)

19) Explaining : A capillary tube is immersed in water and the height of the column is x at the
surface of the Earth. When the arrangement is taken to a mine of depth d, the height becomes

y. The question asks for the ratio , given R is the radius of the Earth.
Concept : This problem involves two concepts: Capillary Rise and the Variation of
Acceleration due to Gravity (g) with Depth.

Capillary Rise (h): The height of liquid in a capillary tube is given by:
1. Since the surface tension (T), contact angle ( ), liquid density ( ), and capillary radius (r)

are constant, the height is inversely proportional to g :

Therefore,
2. Variation of g with Depth (gd) : The acceleration due to gravity at a depth d inside the Earth

is:

Substituting the expression for

Solution :
Acceleration due to gravity changes with the depth

Pressure, P = ρgh, hence ratio, is .

Final Answer : (1)

20) Explaining : A small steel ball falls through a liquid at a constant terminal speed of v = 10
cm/s. The upward force on it is the sum of the viscous force (Fv) and the buoyant force
(effective weight, Weff).
Concept : The problem uses the condition of Terminal Velocity and Stokes' Law.
1. Effective Weight (Weff): The force pulling the ball down is its actual weight (Mg) minus the
buoyant force (Fth). So, Weff=Mg-Fth.
2. Viscous Force (Fv) : According to Stokes' Law, where is the coefficient of
viscosity, r is the radius, and v is the speed.
Case 1 (Falling, down):

Case 2 (Pulled Upward, up): The upward pulling force (F) and the buoyant force (Fth) act
upward. The weight (Mg) and the viscous force (Fv) act downward.
Solution :
 th upthrust OR bouyant force

When ball falls down

mg = th + Fv
mg – th = 6πηrv ...(i)
When ball is pulled upward
F + th = mg + Fv
2mg + th = mg + 6πηrv'
th – mg = 6πηrv' ...(ii)
for (i) and (ii)
v' = v = 10 m/s
Final Answer : (1)

21) Explanation of Question

The problem asks for the period of revolution (T) of a planet of small mass m orbiting a large
sun of mass M in an elliptical orbit, given the minimum distance r and maximum distance R
from the sun.
Concept
The period of revolution (T) for an object in an elliptical orbit is given by Kepler's Third Law:
a is the semi-major axis. For an elliptical orbit, the semi-major axis is half the sum of the
minimum and maximum distances:
a=2(r+R)​
Solution

(Kepler's Law)

and

Hence,
Final Answer : (3)

22) Explanation of Question

A satellite in an orbit close to the surface of the earth has kinetic energy E. The question asks
for the kinetic energy required for the satellite to escape from the gravitational field of the
earth.
Concept
1. Orbital Kinetic Energy (E): For a satellite in a stable orbit, the kinetic energy is half the
magnitude of the gravitational potential energy ∣U∣.

2. Escape Kinetic Energy (Eescape​): The minimum kinetic energy required to escape is equal to
the magnitude of the gravitational potential energy ∣U∣.
 Eescape
Solution

Eescape
Eescape​ = 2E
Final Answer : (3) The kinetic energy required for the satellite to escape from the
gravitational field of the earth should be 2E.

23) Explanation of Question

The Earth (radius R) speeds up its rotation such that a man at a latitude angle of 60∘ feels
weightless. The question asks for the duration of the day (T), which is the new period of
rotation.
Concept
For a body at latitude λ on the rotating Earth, the effective gravity (g′) is:
g′ = g − ω2Rcos2λ
For weightlessness, g′=0. The duration of the day (T) is related to the angular velocity (ω) by:
T = 2π/ ω
Solution
1. Apply the weightlessness condition at λ=60∘:
g=ω2Rcos260∘
Since cos60°=1/2:
g=ω2R/4
2. Solve for ω:
ω2=4g/R​
3. Find the period of rotation T:

T = 2π/ ω ​= T =
Final Answer : (1)

24) Explanation of Question

A sphere has a hollow cavity of one third of its total volume (Vc​=V/3). The cavity is filled with a
liquid of specific gravity 1.2.
The sphere floats in water with four fifths of its volume submerged (Vin​=4V/5). The question
asks for the specific gravity of the sphere's material.
Concept
For a floating body, the total weight equals the buoyant force (weight of displaced fluid):
Solution
Mg = Fb

Final Answer : (1) 0.6

25) Explanation of Question
A matching problem relating fluid forces (Adhesive vs. Cohesive) in Column I to observed
phenomena or conditions in Column II.
Concept
1. Adhesion > Cohesion :
Liquid wets the surface, leading to a concave meniscus (capillary rise).
2. Cohesion > Adhesion
Liquid avoids the surface, leading to a convex meniscus (capillary depression). Mercury
on glass is an example of this.
3. Pressure: Pressure is always greater on the concave side of a liquid surface due to surface
tension.
Solution
When cohesive forces are greater then adhesive forces shape of meniscus is concave from
liquid side and pressure is greater in concave side due to surface tension.
Final Answer : (1)

26) Explanation of Question

To find velocity at hole in closed container.
Concept
Apply Bernoulli's Principle between the surface (Point 2) and the hole (Point 1):
Assume v2​≈0. P2​=P and P1​=Pa​.
Solution

Final Answer : (3)

27) Explanation of Question

Two identical drops falling with certain terminal velocity coalesce to form a single drop. Find
the new terminal velocity.
Concept
Terminal Velocity Assuming Stokes' Law and equilibrium,
Solution

and

Final Answer : (2)

28) Explanation of Question

Rank the liquid heights
ha​ to hd​ in manometers connected to a horizontal tube with varying cross-sections, where air
flows from left to right.
Concept
1. Continuity: Flow speed (v) is highest where the area (A) is smallest.
2. Bernoulli's Principle: Pressure (P) is lowest where the speed (v) is highest.
3. Manometer Height: The liquid level (h) is highest where the pressure (P) is lowest.
Solution
hb > hd > hc > ha. The liquid level is higher where the pressure is lower. The pressure is lower
where the flow speed is higher. The flow speed is highest in the narrowest tube, zero in the
open air.
Final Answer : (4)

29) Explanation of Question

Spheres of iron (ρ1​) and lead (ρ2​) have the same mass (m) and are completely immersed in
water. Lead has a greater density than iron (ρ2​>ρ1​). The apparent loss of weight is
W1​ (iron) and W2​ (lead). Find the ratio W1​/W2​.
Concept
The apparent loss of weight (W) is the buoyant force (FB​), which equals the weight of the
displaced water. Since the spheres have the same mass (m), their volume (V) is inversely
proportional to their density (ρ): V=m/ρ.
Thus, the apparent loss of weight is inversely proportional to the sphere's density (W∝1/ρ).
Solution

Final Answer : (4)

30) Explanation of Question

Calculate the work done (W) in increasing the length (Δl=1 mm) of a wire with length L=1 m,
area A = 1 mm2
Concept
The work done in stretching the wire is stored elastic potential energy (W):

Solution

= 0.1 J
Final Answer : (1)

31) Explanation of Question

Two wires of the same material and length are stretched by the same force . Their diameters
are in the ratio 1:2. Find the ratio of potential energy per unit volume
Concept

The total potential energy density (PED) in a wire is (stress)2.

Solution
PED = OR

Final Answer : (3)

32) Question Explanation: A body is projected upwards from the Earth's surface with a
velocity equal to one-fourth of the escape velocity (νe/4). The question asks for the maximum
height it reaches.

Concept Involved: Conservation of Mechanical Energy. The total energy (Kinetic + Potential)
of the body remains constant.

Solution: By applying the conservation of energy principle, the initial total energy equals the
final total energy at maximum height 'h'.

Initial Energy (Ei) = Final Energy (Ef) Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf . Since

the escape velocity is , the initial kinetic energy becomes

. Substituting this back into the energy equation:

15(R + h) = 16R ⇒ 15h = R ⇒ h =

Final Answer: (3)

33) Question Explanation: The question asks for the ratio of acceleration due to gravity (g1 :
g2) on the surfaces of two planets with radii R1, R2 and densities r1, r2.

Concept Involved: Acceleration due to gravity and relation between mass,

density, and volume

Solution: The acceleration due to gravity on a planet's surface is . The mass of the

planet can be written as Mp = Volume × density = . Substituting this into the equation

for g: . So, g is directly proportional to the product of the

radius and density (g ∝ Rpρ) . The ratio is: g1 : g2 = R1ρ1 : R2ρ2.

Final Answer: (4)

34) Question Explanation: A ball is dropped into a tunnel dug across the Earth's diameter.
The question asks for its velocity when it is at a distance R/2 from the center.

Concept Involved: Conservation of Mechanical Energy and Gravitational Potential inside the
Earth.

Solution: The gravitational potential inside the Earth at a distance x from the center is given

by . Initial position: at the surface, x = R. Initial velocity νi = 0. Initial

Potential Energy: Ui = mV(R) = . Final position: at x = R/2.

Let the final velocity be v. Final Potential Energy: Uf = mV(R) =

. By
conservation of energy:

Initial Energy = Final Energy Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf

Final Answer: (1)

35) Question Explanation: Two masses, 16 kg and 25 kg, are 18 m apart. The question asks
for the point where the net gravitational force is zero.

Concept Involved: Newton's Law of Gravitation. The net force is zero when the forces from
the two masses are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

Solution: Let the masses be m1 = 16 kg and m2 = 25 kg. The distance between them is r = 18
m.
Let the point of zero force be at a distance x from m1. Its distance from m2 will be (18 – x).

At this point, the magnitudes of the forces are equal: ,

where M is a test mass. . Taking the square root of both sides: .

4(18 – x) = 5x . 72 – 4x = 5x . 72 = 9x ⇒ x – 8 m.
Alternatively, using the direct formula for the null point from mass m1:

.
Final Answer: (2)

36) Question Explanation: A satellite S has an orbital radius four times that of a
communication satellite C. The question asks for the period of revolution of S.

Concept Involved: Kepler's Third Law (T2 ∝ R3). A communication satellite is a geostationary
satellite with a period of 1 day (24 hours).

Solution: Let TS and RS be the period and radius for satellite S. Let TC and RC be the period
and radius for the communication satellite C.
We are given RS = 4RC. The period of a communication (geostationary) satellite is TC = 1 day.

From Kepler's Third Law: . . TS = 8TC = 8 × 1 day = 8 days.

Final Answer: (2)

37) Question Explanation: For a planet in an elliptical orbit with eccentricity 'e', the question
asks for the ratio of its kinetic energy at perigee (closest point) to that at apogee (farthest
point).

Concept Involved: Conservation of Angular Momentum in an elliptical orbit.

Solution: Let the velocities at perigee and apogee be VP and VA, and the distances be rP and rA.
The distances are given by rP = a(1 – e) and rA = a(1 + e), where 'a' is the semi-major axis.
By conservation of angular momentum: L = mvr = constant.

mVPrP = mVArA .

The ratio of kinetic energies is: .

Final Answer: (3)

38) Explaining : choose correct option

Concept : This question is based on graph of intensity & potential v is 'r'
Solution :
As we know V vs r & g vs r curve for uniform solid sphere are given by
Both curve are continuous.
Final Answer : (4)

39) Explaining : Find height

Concept : This question is based on d = 2h
Solution :
For small value of height & depth
d = 2h ⇒ h = d/2 ⇒ h = 16 km
Final Answer : (3)

40) Explaining : choose correct

Concept : This question is based on gp > ge
Solution :
g' = g – ω2Re cos2 λ
At poles λ = 90°, cos90° = 0
At equator λ = 0, cos 0° = 1
∴ gpoles > gequator
Final Answer : (2)

41) Explaining : find Vorbital

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
Given, R1 = Re

R 2 = Re +
The orbital velocity of satellite is

Now

Final Answer : (3)

42) Explaining : choose correct option

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
Here angular momentum is conserved.
According to it,
or or
 At the point P4, the value of R is minimum and hence velocity is maximum or KE is maximum.
Final Answer : (4)

43) Explaining : Find WD

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Work done,

Substituting

Final Answer : (3)

44) EXPLANATION : To compare forces on two blocks of same volume of different materials
submerged in fluid.
CONCEPT : buoyant force and pressure in static fluid.
SOLUTION :
1. buoyant force is given by fluid displaced ,so it will be same.
2. here buoyant force is same but weight are different , so to maintain equilibrium tension will
be different.
3. force on lower surface will be given by F= PA, so more force will be on lead block due to
depth .
4. Pressure difference will be due to length of the block which will se same.
Final Answer : (4)

45) EXPLANATION : To find range of water flow from a hole in open water tank.
CONCEPT : Bernoulli theorem
SOLUTION :
Range = Tv
where h is measured from open surface

, here height is taken of hole from base

Range =
Final Answer : (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : Process and catalyst

Concept : This question is based on process and catalyst
Solution : Catalyst and process.
Final Answer : (3)

47)

Explaining : General electronic configuration

Concept : This question is based on general electronic configuration
Solution : (n–1)d1–10ns1–2
Final Answer : (2)

48)

Explaining : Size
Concept : This question is based on size
Solution : Lanthanoid contraction
Final Answer : (3)

49)

Explaining : Magnetic moment

Concept : This question is based on magnetic moment
Solution :
[Ar]3d6 (4 unpaired electrons) would be associated with the highest magnetic moment.

n is number of unpaired electrons.

Final Answer : (3)

50)

Explaining : Bohr's classification

Concept : This question is based on Bohr's classification
Solution :
Group 12 elements (Zn, Cd, Hg) are d-block elements but not transition element due to their
full filled (n–1)d10ns2 electronic configuration.
Final Answer : (1)

51) Explaining : Basic property

Concept : This question is based on basic property
Solution :
Ti; Zr; Hf are in Group 4.
Metal oxides are basic, and basic character increases down the group.
Final Answer : (1)

52) Explaining : Magnetic moment

Concept : This question is based on magnetic moment.
Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

53) Explaining : Magnetic character

Concept : This question is based on magnetic character
Solution : Fe, Co, Ni
Final Answer : (2)

54) Explaining : Oxidation states

Concept : This question is based on oxidation states
Solution :
Eu = +2 ; +3
Yb = +2 ; +3
Final Answer : (2)

55) Explaining : Properties of elements

Concept : This question is based on properties of elements
Solution : La(OH)3 is most basic.
Final Answer : (2)

56)

Explaining : Find 2° alcohol.

Concept : This question is based on 2° alcohol.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

57)

Explaining : Find 1° alcohol.

Concept : This question is based on 1° alcohol.
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

58)

Explaining : True statement for vinylic Alcohol.

Concept : This question is based on Tautomerism
Solution :
Vinyl alcohol is enol form of Acetaldehyde.

Final Answer : (3)

59)

Explaining : Find A, B, C product.

Concept : This question is based on mixed concepts.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

60)

Explaining : Reimer–Tieman reaction.

Concept : This question is based on intermediate formed.
Solution :
Reimer Tieman Reaction
Phenoxide ion attack over Dichlorocarbene.
Final Answer : (3)

61) Explaining : Kolbe's Schmitt reaction.

Concept : This question is based on Kolbe's Schmitt reaction.
Solution :
FACT :
When phenol is treated with CO2 and alkali NaOH then salicylic acid is formed and reaction is
called as Kolbe's Schmitt reaction

Final Answer : (3)

62)

Explaining : Find A, B, C product.

Concept : This question is based on mixed concepts.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

63)

Explaining : Formation of R-X.

Concept : This question is based on formation of R-X.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

64)

Explaining : Lucas test.

Concept : This question is based on lucas test.
Solution : 1°, 2°, 3° Alcohols can be distinguished by Lucas test.
Final Answer : (3)

65)

Explaining : Which shows I.M.H. bonding.

Concept : This question is based on H-bonding.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

66) Explaining : Product of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on SNAE reaction of acid derivative
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

67)

Explaining : Deoxygenation of phenol.

Concept : This question is based on Deoxygenation of phenol
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

68)

Explaining : Find P & Q product.

Concept : This question is based on nitration.
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

69)

Explaining : Reimer-tieman reaction.

Concept : This question is based on Reimer-tieman reaction.
Solution :
Reimer Tieman reaction

+ CHCl3 + NaOH
Final Answer : (2)

70)

Explaining : Intermediate 'A'.

Concept : This question is based on phenol formation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : Find A & B.

Concept : This question is based on mixed concepts.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

72)
Explaining : Find 2° alcohol.
Concept : This question is based on 2° alcohol formation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

73)

Explaining : Lucas reagent reaction.

Concept : This question is based on lucas test.
Solution :

{Reactivity towards Lucas Reagent

⇒ 3° > 2° > 1°
Final Answer : (3)

74)

Explaining : Darzenis process.

Concept : This question is based on Darzenis process.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

75)

Explaining : Find major product.

Concept : This question is based on dehydration.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

76)

Explaining : Clemmensen reduction.

Concept : This question is based on Clemmensen reduction.
Solution :
Zn–Hg + conc. HCl
⇓
Clemmensen reduction reagent
Final Answer : (2)

77)

Explaining : D.N.P. test.

Concept : This question is based on D.N.P. test..
Solution : Aldehyde/Ketone → gives DNP test while ether does not.
Final Answer : (3)

78)

Explaining : Reaction of acetaldehyde.

Concept : This question is based on reaction with Fehling's solution.
Solution : Cu2O
Final Answer : (3)

79)

Explaining : Reaction with NaHSO3.

Concept : This question is based on reaction with NaHSO3.
Solution :

Aromatic Ketone does not react with NaHSO3

Final Answer : (1)

80)
Explaining : Ketone reaction with RMgX.
Concept : This question is based on RMgX reaction.
Solution :

Ketone + G.R. → 3° Alcohol

Final Answer : (4)

81)

Explaining : Find product 'P' ?

Concept : This question is based on ketone reaction with NH3 & its derivative.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

82)

Explaining : Match the column.

Concept : This question is based on mixed concepts.
Solution : (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Final Answer : (4)

83)

Explaining : Assertion-reason type question.

Concept : This question is based on mixed concepts.
Solution :

H-bonding is strong molecular association which is in Alcohol, Carboxylic acid but not in
Aldehyde/Ketone, Hydrocarbon, ether
Final Answer : (1)

84)

Explaining : Find product.

Concept : This question is based on iodoform reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

85)

Explaining : Clemmensen reduction.

Concept : This question is based on Clemmensen reduction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

86)

Explaining : Reaction of carbonyl compounds.

Concept : This question is based on mixed.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

87)

Explaining : Rate of HCN addition.

Concept : This question is based on Rate of NAR.
Solution :

Reactivity towards NAR ∝

 So order → (ii) > (i) > (iii)
Final Answer : (1)

88)

Explaining : Cannizzaro reaction.

Concept : This question is based on Cannizzaro reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

89)

Explaining : Most reactive towards NAR.

Concept : This question is based on NAR.
Solution :
Reactivity of carbonyl compounds towards NAR depends on steric and electronic effects.
NAR reactivity :

―M of ―NO2 Increase (+)ve charge on sp2 C of

Final Answer : (4)

90)

Explaining : Aldol condensation.

Concept : This question is based on aldol reaction.
Solution :

⇒ No α-Hydrogen, So it will not undergo aldol condensation.

Final Answer : (4)

BIOLOGY
91) Explaining: Taproot system arises from radicle and persists in dicots, explaining the
statement.
Concept: Root System — Types of Roots
Final Answer: (1)

92) Explaining: Adventitious roots arise from stems or leaves; stilt roots give support.
Concept: Adventitious Roots and Modifications
Final Answer: (1)

93) Explaining: Epipetalous (petals), Polyandrous (free), Epiphyllous (perianth),

Monadelphous (one bundle).
Concept: Androecium — Attachment and Cohesion
Final Answer: (1)

94) Explaining: Ovary enclosed by thalamus → inferior ovary → epigynous condition.

Concept: Position of Ovary — Types of Flowers
Final Answer: (1)

95) Explaining: Imbricate and Vexillary are correctly defined.

Concept: Aestivation — Corolla Patterns
Final Answer: (1)

96) Explaining: Androecium is the male whorl, not perianth.

Concept: Perianth Structure
Final Answer: (3)

97) Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

98) Solution : The embryo is small and situated in a groove at one end of the endosperm. It
consists of one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as scutellum and a short axis with a
plumule and a radicle. The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are called
coleoptile and coleorhiza respectively.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

99) Solution : Drupe fruits : The fruits in mango and coconut develop from monocarpellary
gynoecium and superior ovary and are one seeded. e.g. Mango, Coconut. In mango the
outermost cover or thin rind is called epicarp. Middle edible fleshy part is mesocarp and the
inner stony hard endocarp.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

100)

Solution : (A) Hypogynous Flower : When gynoecium occupies the highest position while the
other parts like petals, sepals and stamens are situated below the ovary, then the flower is
called hypogynous and in this condition ovary will be superior. e.g. Mustard, China rose,
Brinjal, Mango.
(B) Perigynous Flower : In it thalamus grows upwardly and form a cup shaped structure. On
the margin or rim of thalamus floral parts are attached except gynoecium, which lies at the
basal part or in the centre. So, in this condition gynoecium is situated below the other floral
parts. But ovary in this condition is said to be half inferior. e.g. Rose, Plum, Peach.
(C) Epigynous Flower : When the margin of thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary
completely and getting fused with it and other parts of flower like petals, sepals & stamens are
situated above the ovary, then the ovary is said to be inferior and rest of the floral parts
superior. e.g. Guava, Apple, Cucumber and the ray florets and disc florets of sunflower.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

101) Explaining : In racemose...main axis continues to grow...flowers borne laterally in

acropetal order.
RACEMOSE –
• Position of flower : Lateral
• Growth of Peduncle : Unlimited (Indefinite)
• Floral axis (Peduncle) doesn't terminate in a flower
• Arrangement of flowers : Acropetal
• (i.e. younger flower towards apex and • older flower towards base of floral axis)
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

102) Explaining : Rachis represents the midrib of the leaf as in neem.

Final Answer : (2)

103) Solution: In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a
middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

104) Explaining : Malvaceae – capsule

Fabaceae – legume
Poaceae — Caryopsis
Solanaceae – berry
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)
105) Explaining : Cruciferae has tetradynamous, not epiphyllous stamens.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

106) Explaining : Systematics = Taxonomy + Phylogeny

Final Answer : (2)

107) Explaining : Family - Poaceae, Order - Poales, Class - Dicot, Division - Angiospermae
Final Answer : (3)

108) Explaining : Felis → Felidae → Carnivora → Mammalia → Chordata

Final Answer : (2)

109) Explaining : Common characters increases from kingdom to species.

Final Answer : (1)

110) Explaining : Growth is not defining feature as non-living also exhibit growth by
accumulation of substances.
Final Answer : (4)

111) Explaining : All chemical reactions occuring in a body is referred to as metabolism.

Intrinsic growth is defining feature of living organisms
Final Answer : (3)

112) Explaining : Brain dead coma patient do not has self consciousness.
Final Answer : (3)

113) Explaining : All organisms are aware of their surrounding.

Final Answer : (3)

114) Explaining : Italised biological name indicate their latin origin

Final Answer : (3)

115) Explanation: In unicellular organisms like Bacteria and Amoeba, growth = reproduction
One cell grows and divides into two - so growth and reproduction happen together (mutually
inclusive).
Final Answer : (4)

116) Explaining: Segregation law ensures single allele per gamete.

Concept: Law of Segregation
Final Answer: (1)
117) Explaining: Test cross confirms genotype using recessive parent.
Concept: Test Cross — Definition and Purpose
Final Answer: (1)

118) Explaining: Both describe two laws of inheritance correctly.

Concept: Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance
Final Answer: (1)

119) Explaining: In incomplete dominance, heterozygote shows blended phenotype (e.g., pink
in Snapdragon).
Concept: Incomplete Dominance
Final Answer: (1)

120) Explaining: In co-dominance, masking doesn’t occur.

Concept: Co-dominance
Final Answer: (3)

121) Explaining: Sutton and Boveri correlated gene behaviour with chromosome behaviour.
Concept: Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
Final Answer: (1)

122) Explaining: Chromosomes occur in homologous pairs in diploid cells, not in germ cells.
Concept: Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
Final Answer: (3)

123) Explaining: Morgan used fruit fly due to short life cycle and visible sexes.
Concept: Linkage and Recombination in Drosophila
Final Answer: (1)

124) Explaining: Linked genes are physically associated on same chromosome.

Concept: Linkage
Final Answer: (1)

125) Explaining: Lower recombination = tighter linkage (distance small).

Concept: Linkage Strength and Recombination Frequency
Final Answer: (2)

126) Explaining: Crossing-over is the cytological basis of recombination.

Concept: Crossing Over and Recombination
Final Answer: (1)

127) Explaining: In polygenic traits each dominant allele has additive effect.
Concept: Polygenic Inheritance
Final Answer: (3)

128) Explaining: All recessives alleles in the genotype give minimum melanin.
Concept: Polygenic Trait – Human Skin Colour
Final Answer: (3)

129) Explaining: Phenylketonuria gene affects mental (brain related) and pigment (skin and
hair color) traits.
Concept: Pleiotropy
Final Answer: (1)

130) Explaining: Mutation prevents conversion of phenylalanine → tyrosine.

Concept: Pleiotropy – PKU
Final Answer: (2)

131) Explaining: XY males → heterogametic due to X and Y gametes.

Concept: Sex Determination in Humans
Final Answer: (1)

132) Explaining: Grasshopper – XO, Humans – XY, Birds – ZW.

Concept: Different Sex Determination Mechanisms
Final Answer: (1)

133) Explaining: Males are haploid, not diploid.

Concept: Haplodiploid Sex Determination in Honey Bee
Final Answer: (3)

134) Explaining: Female always contributes X; male contributes X/Y.

Concept: XY Sex Determination Mechanism
Final Answer: (1)

135) Explaining: Female birds = ZW → heterogametic.

Concept: Female Heterogamety in Birds
Final Answer: (2)

136) Explaining: Physical and chemical mutagens cause DNA alteration.

Concept: Mutation and Mutagens
Final Answer: (1)

137) Explaining: Some mutations are linked with cancer cells.

Concept: Types of Mutation
Final Answer: (3)
138) Explaining: Family records replace crossing experiments.
Concept: Pedigree Analysis
Final Answer: (1)

139) Explaining: Haemophilia is X-linked; SCA autosomal recessive qualitative; Thalassemia

quantitative.
Concept: Mendelian Disorders Classification
Final Answer: (1)

140) Explaining: Genes are on X chromosome, not Y.

Concept: Sex-Linked Recessive Disorders
Final Answer: (2)

141) Explaining: Double mutant combination rarely survives.

Concept: X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
Final Answer: (1)

142) Explaining: Glu → Val substitution at 6th codon = GAG → GUG.

Concept: Point Mutation in Sickle Cell Anaemia
Final Answer: (1)

143) Explaining: 1.3% recombination implies high linkage strength.

Concept: Low recombination = strong linkage.
Solution: Strength of linkage is high between y and w.
Final Answer : (1)

144) Explaining: In birds (C), males are ZZ, females are ZW.
Concept: Sex determination systems.
Solution: Option (1) matches correct identification.
Final Answer : (1)

145) Explaining: Carrier females are found in X-linked recessive disease, not in dominant
disease.
Concept: Pedigree chart symbols.
Final Answer : (2)

146) Explaining : Boyer studied restriction enzymes and their ability to cut DNA at specific
sites, enabling the formation of recombinant DNA.
Final Answer : (3)

147) Explaining : A, B, and C are core tools of genetic engineering. Hybridization is not a
genetic engineering technique; it's a conventional breeding method.
Final Answer : (1)
148) Explaining : Bioprocess engineering is used for large-scale production of all these
products under sterile conditions.
Final Answer : (4)

149) Explaining :
• Statement I is incorrect: Alien DNA cannot replicate without an origin of replication.
• Statement II is correct: Integration into a host chromosome with ori allows replication and
inheritance.
Final Answer : (3)

150) Explaining : DNA ligase joins the cut ends of DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester
bonds, enabling formation of stable recombinant molecules.
Final Answer : (3)

151) Explaining : NCERT clearly outlines 3 steps:

1. Identification of DNA with desirable genes
2. Introduction into host
3. Maintenance in host and inheritance in progeny
Final Answer : (2)

152) Explaining : From NCERT:

• 'E' → Escherichia (genus)
• 'co' → coli (species)
• 'R' → strain RY13
• 'I' → first enzyme isolated from that strain.
Final Answer : (2)

153) Explaining : A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

• Hind II cuts DNA at a specific 6 bp recognition sequence (2).
• DNA ligase joins DNA fragments (3).
• Methylase enzyme adds methyl groups (1).
• EcoRI is named by genus, species, strain, order (4).
Final Answer : (1)

154) Explaining : The origin of replication is required for DNA replication, not transcription.
Transcription is the synthesis of RNA.
Final Answer : (3)

155) Explaining :
• DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate groups.
• It moves toward the anode (+) in an electric field.
• Agarose gel acts as a sieve: smaller fragments travel farther.
Final Answer : (3)

156) Explaining : Smaller the DNA fragment, farthest it moves.

 Final Answer : (3)

157) Explaining : Ethidium bromide intercalates into DNA and fluoresces under UV light,
allowing visualization.
Final Answer : (3)

158) Explaining : The process of cutting out a specific DNA band from the agarose gel and
purifying it for further use is known as elution
Final Answer : (4)

159) Explaining : Write correct match according to option 1

Final Answer : (1)

160) Explaining : B → A → C → D

Step Process

DNA is heated (~94–96°C) → double-stranded DNA

B. Denaturation
separates

Temp lowered (~50–65°C) → primers bind to their

A. Annealing
complementary sequences

Taq polymerase (from Thermus aquaticus) extends

C. Extension
primers (~72°C)

The cycle is repeated ~30–40 times to amplify the

D. Repeat
desired DNA
Final Answer : (2)

161) Solution : Barrier methods like condoms prevent direct contact between sexual partners,
stopping the exchange of body fluids. This not only prevents pregnancy but also protects
against sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, gonorrhea, and syphilis.
Final Answer : (3)

162) Solution : A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii

Periodic abstinence — Needs accurate knowledge of menstrual cycle
Coitus interruptus — May fail due to pre-ejaculatory fluid
Lactational amenorrhea — Effective only up to 6 months after childbirth
Barrier methods — May cause discomfort or breakage if misused
Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution : MTP is legal in India under certain conditions.

Final Answer : (3)

164) Solution : STIs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group 15–24
years.
Final Answer : (2)

165) Solution : GIFT transfers gametes into the fallopian tube, not the uterus.
Final Answer : (3)

166) Concept: Modes of nutrition and structural features in Protists and slime molds.
Explanation: Euglenoid → Flexible pellicle instead of a rigid cell wall → IV.
Dinoflagellate → Have stiff cellulose plates (armored plates) → II.
Slime mould → Saprophytic (feed on decaying matter) → I Entamoeba → Parasitic → III.
Final Answer : (2)

167) Concept: Bacterial diversity and characteristics of Mycoplasma.

Explanation: Mycoplasma indeed lack a cell wall and are the smallest living cells.
However, they are facultative or obligate anaerobes (some can survive without oxygen).
So the part "cannot survive without oxygen" is incorrect.
Final Answer : (3)

168) Concept: Types of fungal sexual spores.

Explanation: Ascospores → sexual spores formed endogenously in asci.
Basidiospores → sexual spores formed exogenously on basidia.
Both statements accurately describe the reproduction of Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes.
Final Answer : (4)

169) Concept: Modes of reproduction in bacteria.

Explanation: Assertion: Bacteria reproduce mainly by binary fission → True.
Reason: Bacteria can exchange DNA through conjugation (primitive sexual reproduction) →
True.
But conjugation is not the reason for reproduction by fission, so Reason is not the
correct explanation.
Final Answer : (2)

170) Concept: Classification of fungi.

Explanation: Ustilago → basidiomycetes (smut fungus) → Correct
Agaricus → basidiomycetes → Correct
Puccinia → rust fungus, not smut → Incorrect match
Alternaria → sexual cycle not found → Correct
Final Answer : (3)

171) Concept: General features of dinoflagellates (Protista group).

Explanation: Very often, red dinoflagellates (Example: Gonyaulax) undergo such rapid
multiplication that they make the sea appear red (red tides). Toxins released by such large
numbers may even kill other marine animals such as fishes.
They have a pellicle is incorrect.
They are planktonic golden yellow algae with soap-box like structure is incorrect.
Final Answer : (4)

172) Concept: Fungal structure and life cycle

Explanation: Fungi store food as glycogen, are mostly haploid, and show haplontic life cycles.
Higher fungi (Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes) are more complex in morphology but not
necessarily in sexual organ complexity, so option 3 is incorrect.
Final Answer : (3)

173) Concept: Fungal reproduction – sexual vs asexual spores

Explanation: Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores
(non-motile)., whereas ascospore, basidiospore, oospore, and zygospore are sexual
spores.
Final Answer : (2)

174) Concept: Class Ascomycetes (sac fungi)

Explanation: Ascomycetes produce ascospores in sac-like asci.
They are mostly multicellular, saprophytic or parasitic, and include Penicillium,
Aspergillus, Neurospora, Claviceps.
Statement (ii) is partly wrong because Yeast is unicellular, not multicellular.
Final Answer : (3)

175) Concept: Basidiomycetes – club fungi

Explanation: Basidiomycetes have sexual reproduction through basidiospores, branched
septate mycelium, and include Agaricus (edible), Ustilago (smut), Puccinia (rust).
(i) is incorrect; vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common.
Final Answer : (3)

176) Concept: Structure of prions and viroids

Explanation: Viroids are naked RNA molecules without a protein coat, unlike viruses.
In modern medicine certain infectious neurological diseases were found to be transmitted by
an agent consisting of abnormally folded protein. The agent was similar in size to viruses.
These agents were called prions.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation
Final Answer : (2)

177) Explanation: Bacteriophages specifically infect bacteria.

TMV infects plants.
Influenza virus and HIV infect animals/humans.
Final Answer : (3)

178) Explanation: Lichens are a symbiotic association between a fungus (mycobiont)

and algae/cyanobacteria (phycobiont).
They are sensitive to pollution, hence good bioindicators.
Reproduction can be both sexual and asexual.
 Final Answer : (1)

179)

Question Explanation:

Identifying parts of a bacteriophage.

Concept:

Bacteriophage structure.

Solution:

The image shows a bacteriophage, a virus that infects bacteria. The labeled parts are:

A. A: Head (capsid), which contains the genetic material.

B. B: Collar, a small protein structure connecting the head and sheath.

C. C: Sheath, a contractile structure that surrounds the tail tube.

D. D: Tail fibres, which help in attaching to the host cell.

Therefore, the correct option is the one that correctly matches these parts. The table shows
that option (2) correctly identifies A as the Head, B as the Collar, C as the Sheath, and D as the
Tail fibres.

Final Answer: (2) Head, Collar, Sheath, Tail fibres

180) Solution : i-b-t, ii-c-p, iii-a-s, iv-e-q, v-d-r

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Cr–Jacob disease b Prions t Abnormally folded protein

ii Mycoplasma c Smallest living organism p Survive with or without oxygen

iii Conidia a Deuteromycetes s Asexual spore

iv Truffles e Edible q Ascomycetes

v Mumps d Virusr r Single standard RNA

Final Answer : (4)