Prosthodontics Module Exam

Q1. According to the Bizygometric width rule, the width of the maxillary central
incisor is approximately what proportion of the bizygometric width?
●​ A) 1/10
●​ B) 1/12
●​ C) 1/14
●​ D) 1/16
●​ E) 1/18

Q2. What is the main problem frequently encountered with tooth-supported

overdentures?
●​ A) Excessive resorption of alveolar ridge
●​ B) Reduced support of the prosthesis
●​ C) Various breakdown of the overlaid teeth
●​ D) Decreased proprioceptive response compared to complete dentures
●​ E) Difficulty in fabrication

Q3. What is the recommended amount of preparation reduction on the lingual aspect
for an anterior All-Ceramic crown?
●​ A) 0.5 mm
●​ B) 1.0 mm
●​ C) 1.5 mm - 2.0 mm
●​ D) 3.0 mm
●​ E) No reduction is needed

Q4. What is the minimum recommended distance between two adjacent implants in
the arch to preserve the inter-implant bone crest?
●​ A) 1.0 mm
●​ B) 1.5 mm
●​ C) 3.0 mm
●​ D) 5.0 mm
●​ E) 7.0 mm

Q5. How is "Osseointegration" best defined?

●​ A) The formation of fibrous tissue between the implant and bone
●​ B) A direct structural and functional connection between ordered living bone and the
surface of a load-carrying implant
●​ C) The mechanical locking of an implant into the cancellous bone only
●​ D) The chemical bonding of titanium to periodontal ligaments
●​ E) The healing of the gingiva around the implant collar

Q6. Which of the following best describes the concept of "Lingualized Occlusion"?
 ●​ A) Maxillary buccal cusps contact mandibular central fossae
●​ B) Mandibular lingual cusps contact maxillary central fossae
●​ C) Only the maxillary lingual cusp contacts the mandibular central fossa
●​ D) Teeth are set with a steep cusp angle of 45 degrees
●​ E) There is no contact in centric occlusion

Q7. A patient requests a bridge in the anterior region for cosmetic reasons. Which
pontic design is most esthetic and hygienic for this area?
●​ A) Sanitary (Hygienic) pontic
●​ B) Saddle pontic
●​ C) Ridge lap pontic
●​ D) Modified ridge lap pontic
●​ E) Ovate pontic (if socket preservation allowed) or Modified Ridge Lap

Q8. What is the most critical factor for the retention of a Complete Denture (CD)?
●​ A) Gravity
●​ B) Interfacial surface tension and atmospheric pressure
●​ C) Muscle control
●​ D) The type of teeth used
●​ E) The weight of the denture base

Q9. If a mandibular ridge is severely resorbed (atrophic) and thin, which impression
technique is indicated?
●​ A) Mucostatic technique
●​ B) Compressive technique
●​ C) Selective pressure technique (Admix technique)
●​ D) Closed mouth technique
●​ E) Pick-up impression

Q10. When restoring a tooth treated with a root canal, the length of the post should
ideally be:
●​ A) 5 mm
●​ B) 8 mm
●​ C) Equal to the crown length
●​ D) Two-thirds of the length of the root
●​ E) One-third of the length of the root

Q11. What is the minimum acceptable crown-to-root ratio for a tooth to serve as an
abutment?
●​ A) 1:2
●​ B) 2:3
●​ C) 1:1
●​ D) 2:1
●​ E) 3:1
Q12. At what level of mouth opening do the temporomandibular (TMJ) ligaments
typically restrict/limit pure rotational movement and initiate translation?
●​ A) 0–5 mm
●​ B) 10 mm
●​ C) 20–25 mm
●​ D) Beyond 40 mm
●​ E) They never restrict movement

Q13. In a 35-year-old patient with a missing maxillary lateral incisor and an abundance
of bone width and height, which type of implant is indicated?
●​ A) Subperiosteal implant
●​ B) Transosteal implant
●​ C) Root form (Endosteal) implant
●​ D) Ramus frame implant
●​ E) Blade implant

Q14. A patient has undergone partial palatal resection due to carcinoma. What is the
most common functional problem they will experience without obturation?
●​ A) Excessive salivation
●​ B) Nasal reflux of fluids and hypernasal speech
●​ C) Temporomandibular joint pain
●​ D) Burning sensation
●​ E) Loss of taste

Q15. What is a main characteristic feature of Denture Stomatitis?

●​ A) White patches on the tongue
●​ B) Generalized inflammation and erythema (redness) of the denture-bearing mucosa
●​ C) Ulceration of the lip
●​ D) Gingival recession
●​ E) Hard palate tori growth

Q16. If a patient wants the placement of anterior 6 teeth purely for esthetics, which
type of artificial teeth would you select?
●​ A) Acrylic teeth with flat cusps
●​ B) Porcelain teeth or highly characterized composite/acrylic teeth
●​ C) Metal-occlusal teeth
●​ D) Non-anatomic teeth
●​ E) Cross-linked acrylic with 0-degree cusps

Q17. Which instrument is used to record the relation of the maxilla to the hinge axis
(arbitrary or kinematic)?
●​ A) Articulator
●​ B) Facebow
●​ C) Surveyor
 ●​ D) Pantograph
●​ E) Boley gauge

Q18. What is the definition of "Metamerism" in the context of shade selection?

●​ A) Colors appearing the same under all light sources
●​ B) A color appearing different under different light sources (e.g., natural vs.
fluorescent)
●​ C) The transparency of the enamel
●​ D) The saturation of the hue
●​ E) The brightness of the color

Q19. What is the most important advantage of a Resin-Bonded Bridge (Maryland

Bridge)?
●​ A) Maximum retention
●​ B) Minimal tooth reduction (conservative preparation)
●​ C) Ability to span long edentulous spaces
●​ D) High resistance to fracture
●​ E) Can be used on mobile teeth

Q20. If the "F" sound is pronounced like "V" or the patient has trouble saying "Fifty",
what is likely the error?
●​ A) The lower lip is not contacting the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors properly
●​ B) The maxillary incisors are set too far palatally
●​ C) The vertical dimension is too low
●​ D) The occlusal plane is canted
●​ E) The posterior teeth are set too buccally

Q21. Immediate dentures are indicated for which of the following reasons?
●​ A) To allow for complete bone healing before insertion
●​ B) To save the patient from the embarrassment of edentulism
●​ C) Because they are cheaper than conventional dentures
●​ D) Because they require fewer adjustments
●​ E) To increase ridge resorption

Q22. For displacement of gingival tissues in an impression for a Fixed Partial Denture
(FPD), which method is most commonly used?
●​ A) Cotton rolls
●​ B) Impression compound
●​ C) Retraction cord
●​ D) Suction tips
●​ E) Rubber dam

Q23. Which radiographic technique is best for visualizing the Inferior Alveolar Nerve
canal prior to implant placement?
 ●​ A) MRI
●​ B) CT / CBCT (Cone Beam Computed Tomography)
●​ C) Periapical X-ray
●​ D) Occlusal X-ray
●​ E) Bitewing X-ray

Q24. In an ovoid-shaped edentulous arch, what is the minimum number of implants

often recommended for a fixed full-arch prosthesis (All-on-X concept)?
●​ A) 8
●​ B) 6
●​ C) 4
●​ D) 2
●​ E) 1

Q25. Which temporary crown is most commonly indicated for children?

●​ A) Stainless steel crown
●​ B) Cellulose acetate
●​ C) Polycarbonate
●​ D) Cast metal
●​ E) Ceramic

Q26. To record the coronoid process in an impression, which area must be molded?
●​ A) Distobuccal flange of the maxilla
●​ B) Distobuccal flange of the mandible
●​ C) Labial frenum
●​ D) Lingual flange
●​ E) Hamular notch

Q27. The maxillary anterior rim should be contoured to be parallel to which line?
●​ A) Frankfort horizontal plane
●​ B) Interpupillary line
●​ C) Ala-tragus line
●​ D) Camper’s plane
●​ E) Occlusal plane

Q28. Which implant material is considered the most biocompatible?

●​ A) Pure Titanium (CP Ti)
●​ B) Titanium alloys (Ti-6Al-4V)
●​ C) Stainless steel
●​ D) Cobalt-Chromium
●​ E) Gold

Q29. A patient complains of "shifting ulcers" a few days after denture insertion. What
is the most likely cause?
 ●​ A) Unbalanced occlusion (premature contacts)
●​ B) Increased Occlusal Vertical Dimension (OVD)
●​ C) Ridge resorption
●​ D) Allergy to acrylic
●​ E) Rough denture base

Q30. What is a primary advantage of Metal-Ceramic restorations (PFM)?

●​ A) Minimal tooth reduction
●​ B) Superior esthetics compared to all-ceramic
●​ C) Combination of esthetic and strength properties
●​ D) Less ridge resorption
●​ E) Low cost

Q31. For the replacement of a maxillary lateral incisor where the patient has high
esthetic demands, which margin design is preferred for an all-ceramic crown?
●​ A) Supragingival and knife-edge
●​ B) Subgingival and shoulder (or heavy chamfer)
●​ C) Supragingival and shoulder
●​ D) Subgingival and feather-edge
●​ E) Equigingival and bevel

Q32. When using a mandibular 1st molar as an abutment, X-rays showing which root
configuration offer the best support?
●​ A) Divergent roots
●​ B) Convergent roots
●​ C) Conical roots
●​ D) Fused roots
●​ E) Short, tapered roots

Q33. A patient with a "Pendulous Ridge" requires an impression. Which technique is

best?
●​ A) Window technique (or surgical removal)
●​ B) Selective impression technique
●​ C) Pressure technique
●​ D) Alginate in a stock tray
●​ E) Closed mouth technique

Q34. How can you manage a patient who is anxious and gagging during impression
taking?
●​ A) Lean the headrest far back
●​ B) Ask the patient to hold their breath
●​ C) Control the consistency and amount of impression material (avoid overload)
●​ D) Use a slower setting material
●​ E) Use a larger tray
Q35. A patient presents with diastemas (spaces) between all anterior teeth. To
maintain the existing diastema in a fixed prosthesis, which connector is used?
●​ A) Rigid connector
●​ B) Loop connector
●​ C) Split Pontic Connector
●​ D) Tenon-Mortise Connector
●​ E) Cross Pin and Wing Connector

Q36. What is a "Pier Abutment"?

●​ A) An abutment with an edentulous space on only one side (cantilever)
●​ B) An abutment with edentulous spaces on both sides
●​ C) A terminal abutment
●​ D) An implant abutment
●​ E) A tilted abutment

Q37. What is the maximum acceptable convergence (taper) towards the occlusal
surface for a prepared tooth?
●​ A) 6 degrees
●​ B) 10 degrees
●​ C) 20 degrees
●​ D) 30 degrees
●​ E) 0 degrees

Q38. For a fresh extraction socket, which pontic design is indicated?

●​ A) Saddle
●​ B) Ridge lap
●​ C) Sanitary
●​ D) Modified ridge lap / Ovate (if preparing socket)
●​ E) Conical

Q39. According to the Misch classification, what does FP-3 denote?

●​ A) Overdenture completely supported by implants
●​ B) Fixed prosthesis that replaces the crown only
●​ C) Fixed prosthesis that replaces the crown and a portion of the root/soft tissue
(using pink porcelain/acrylic)
●​ D) Removable partial denture
●​ E) Single unit implant crown

Q40. When are surgical obturators typically fabricated and inserted?

●​ A) Within one week of surgery
●​ B) 2 - 3 months after surgery
●​ C) Immediately after the lesion is excised (at the time of surgery)
●​ D) Prior to resection of the lesion
●​ E) After complete wound healing
Q41. Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE) is classified as which type of impression material?
●​ A) Elastomer
●​ B) Mucostatic (Rigid / Impression Paste)
●​ C) Hydrocolloid
●​ D) Reversible
●​ E) Thermoplastic

Q42. All of the following are indications for a Metal Crown EXCEPT:
●​ A) Heavy occlusal forces
●​ B) Posterior teeth where esthetics is not a concern
●​ C) High esthetic requirement in the anterior zone
●​ D) Need for maximum retention on short teeth
●​ E) Parafunctional habits (bruxism)

Q43. Which bridge design relies on macromechanical retention (e.g., perforated

wings)?
●​ A) Rochette Bridge
●​ B) Maryland Bridge
●​ C) Conventional 3-unit FPD
●​ D) Cantilever Bridge
●​ E) Fiber-reinforced bridge

Q44. The "Master Groove" or land area is typically recorded in the impression of
which jaw?
●​ A) Maxilla only
●​ B) Mandible only
●​ C) Both Maxilla and Mandible (during border molding)
●​ D) Neither
●​ E) Only for partial dentures

Q45. Which area is considered the primary stress-bearing area of the mandible?
●​ A) The crest of the alveolar ridge
●​ B) The buccal shelf
●​ C) The retromolar pad
●​ D) The genial tubercles
●​ E) The lingual flange

Answer Key
●​ Q1: D (1/16)
●​ Q2: C (Carious breakdown of the overlaid teeth)
●​ Q3: B or C (Typically 1.0 - 1.5mm is required for adequate clearance; check your
specific notes, but structural durability requires ~1mm+)
●​ Q4: C (3.0 mm)
●​ Q5: B (Direct structural and functional connection)
●​ Q6: C (Maxillary lingual cusp contacts mandibular central fossa)
●​ Q7: D (Modified ridge lap is standard for hygiene/esthetics; Ovate is best if tissue is
managed)
●​ Q8: B (Interfacial surface tension and atmospheric pressure)
●​ Q9: C (Selective pressure / Admix)
●​ Q10: D (Two-thirds of the length of the root)
●​ Q11: C (1:1)
●​ Q12: D (The past paper option says "Beyond 40mm", though physiologically
ligaments tighten earlier. Go with D based on your group's past keys).
●​ Q13: C (Root form implant)
●​ Q14: B (Nasal reflux / Hypernasality)
●​ Q15: B (Generalized inflammation/redness)
●​ Q16: B (Porcelain or aesthetic resin)
●​ Q17: B (Facebow)
●​ Q18: B (Colors appear different under different lights)
●​ Q19: B (Minimal tooth reduction)
●​ Q20: A (Lower lip should contact Incisal edges of max incisors)
●​ Q21: B (Saves patient from embarrassment)
●​ Q22: C (Retraction cord)
●​ Q23: B (CBCT)
●​ Q24: C (4)
●​ Q25: A (Stainless steel crown)
●​ Q26: A (Distobuccal flange of maxilla)
●​ Q27: B (Interpupillary line)
●​ Q28: A (Pure titanium)
●​ Q29: A (Unbalanced occlusion)
●​ Q30: C (Aesthetic and strength properties)
●​ Q31: B (Subgingival and shoulder)
●​ Q32: A (Divergent roots)
●​ Q33: A (Window technique)
●​ Q34: C (Control consistency and amount)
●​ Q35: B (Loop Connector)
●​ Q36: B (Edentulous space on both sides)
●​ Q37: C (20 degrees - Note: 6 degrees is ideal, but 20 is often the "clinical maximum"
acceptable)
●​ Q38: D (Modified ridge lap / Ovate)
●​ Q39: C (Replaces crown + root + soft tissue)
●​ Q40: C (Immediately after excision)
●​ Q41: B (Mucostatic)
●​ Q42: C (High esthetic requirement)
●​ Q43: A (Rochette Bridge uses perforated wings)
●​ Q44: C (Both/General master cast fabrication)
●​ Q45: B (Buccal shelf)
Prosthodontics Module OSPE
Station 1: Anatomical Landmarks & Impressions
Scenario: You are presented with a diagnostic cast or clinical picture of the mandibular
ridge.
●​ Q1: Identify the Retromolar Pad area.
●​ Q2: What are the surrounding anatomical structures?
●​ Q3: What is its importance in a Complete Denture (CD)?

Station 2: Impression Procedures

Scenario: An image or setup showing border molding material on a custom tray.
●​ Q1: Identify the procedure.
●​ Q2: Name the anatomical landmarks that require relieving in the maxilla and
mandible during this stage.
●​ Q3: Name the materials commonly used for this procedure.

Station 3: Fixed Prosthodontics (Post & Core)

Scenario: You are shown an X-ray or diagram of a tooth treated with a post.
●​ Q1: Identify the procedure/restoration shown (Post and Core).
●​ Q2: Give 3 indications and 3 contraindications for this procedure.
●​ Q3: Define the "Ferrule Effect" and its importance.
●​ Q4: Differentiate between a Zirconia post and a Fiber post.

Station 4: Crown Preparations & Margins

Scenario: Images showing different finish lines (Chamfer, Shoulder, Knife-edge).
●​ Q1: Identify the Chamfer margin and Shoulder margin.
●​ Q2: Give the indications and advantages for each.
●​ Q3: What are the criteria for margin placement (Supragingival vs. Subgingival)?

Station 5: The Facebow

Scenario: A Facebow assembly is displayed on the table.
●​ Q1: Identify the instrument.
●​ Q2: Name its parts (e.g., bite fork, ear piece, transfer jig).
●​ Q3: List 5 indications for its use.

Station 6: Resin Bonded Bridges

Scenario: An image of a metal framework bridge with perforated wings (Rochette Bridge).
●​ Q1: Identify this specific type of prosthesis. * Q2: Name 3 advantages of this design.
●​ Q3: Name 3 indications.
●​ Q4: Identify Fiber Reinforced Bridge (if shown) and list its indications.
Station 7: Implants
Scenario: An image of a dental implant (screw type) and an abutment.
●​ Q1: Identify the type of implant shown (e.g., Root form Endosteal). * Q2: Name 3 to 5
parts of the implant assembly.
●​ Q3: Classify the bone quality (D1 - D4) relevant to implant placement.
●​ Q4: What are the relative contraindications for implants?

Station 8: Provisional Crowns

Scenario: A setup with temporary crown materials.
●​ Q1: Identify the Stainless Steel Crown (SSC).
●​ Q2: List the types of provisional crowns according to materials.
●​ Q3: What are the advantages of placing a provisional crown?

Station 9: Esthetics & Tooth Selection

Scenario: An image showing different face shapes (Round vs. Square) next to tooth
moulds.
●​ Q1: What do you understand from the picture regarding tooth selection?
●​ Q2: What are the Biometric guidelines (Geometric Theory) in the selection of
artificial teeth for complete dentures?

Station 10: Special Impression Techniques

Scenario: A tray with a "window" cut out over the anterior ridge.
●​ Q1: Identify the technique (Window Technique).
●​ Q2: What are the indications and objectives of this technique?

Viva Voce Topics (Bonus Section)

These were listed in your images as Viva topics—be prepared to discuss them verbally.
1.​ Tooth Setup: Principles of setting upper anterior teeth.
2.​ Impressions: Classification (Mucostatic vs. Mucocompressive), RVD, OVD, and
Centric Relation (CR).
3.​ Denture Bearing Areas: Primary vs. Secondary stress-bearing areas.
4.​ FPD: Pontic types (Sanitary, Ridge Lap, Ovate), Retainer types, PFM vs. All-Ceramic
disadvantages.

Answer Key
Station 1 (Retromolar Pad)
●​ Anatomy: A triangular pad of soft tissue at the posterior end of the mandibular
residual ridge.
 ●​ Surroundings: Bounded by the pterygomandibular raphe, buccinator, and superior
constrictor muscles.
●​ Importance: It contains glandular tissue and attachments that do not resorb; it is a
primary support area and determines the height of the occlusal plane (posterior
reference point).

Station 2 (Border Molding)

●​ Material: Low fusing impression compound (Green stick) or heavy body elastomer.
●​ Landmarks to Relieve: Frenums (labial, buccal, lingual).
●​ Purpose: To record the functional width and depth of the sulcus.

Station 3 (Post & Core)

●​ Ferrule Effect: A 1.5–2mm band of sound tooth structure (dentin) above the gumline
that the crown grips. It prevents vertical root fracture.
●​ Indication: Endodontically treated tooth with >50% loss of coronal structure.
●​ Contraindication: Adequate remaining tooth structure, curved/short roots, active
inflammation.

Station 4 (Margins)
●​ Chamfer: Indicated for PFM (metal collar) and some All-Ceramic (Zirconia). Distinct,
easy to identify, conserves structure.
●​ Shoulder: Indicated for All-Ceramic (Porcelain jacket) or PFM (porcelain butt margin)
to provide bulk for porcelain strength.
●​ Knife-edge: Indicated for tilted teeth or metal crowns (very conservative but indistinct
margin).

Station 5 (Facebow)
●​ Identification: Facebow (likely Ear-bow type).
●​ Parts: Bite fork, U-shaped frame, Ear pieces (condylar rods), Transfer jig/assembly,
Orbital pointer.
●​ Indications: To record the relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis, for diagnostic
mounting, when changing VDO, or for complex full-mouth rehabilitation.

Station 6 (Rochette Bridge)

●​ Identification: Resin Bonded Bridge with perforated metal wings (macromechanical
retention).
●​ Advantages: Minimal preparation, reversible, no anesthesia needed.
●​ Disadvantages: Wings can debond, metal show-through (greying).

Station 7 (Implant)
●​ Type: Endosteal Root Form Implant.
●​ Parts: Fixture (Implant body), Cover screw, Healing abutment, Prosthetic abutment,
Fixing screw, Crown.
●​ Bone Quality:
 ○​ D1: Dense cortical (Oak) – Anterior Mandible.
○​ D2: Porous cortical + Coarse trabecular (Pine) – Posterior Mandible.
○​ D3: Thin cortical + Fine trabecular (Balsa) – Anterior Maxilla.
○​ D4: Fine trabecular (Styrofoam) – Posterior Maxilla.

Station 8 (Provisional Crowns)

●​ SSC: Indicated for primary molars or badly broken down permanent molars.
●​ Materials: Polycarbonate, Cellulose acetate, Acrylic resin (PMMA), Bis-acryl
composite.
●​ Advantages: Protects pulp, maintains space (prevents drifting), esthetics, checks
occlusion.

Station 9 (Face Shapes/Biometrics)

●​ Concept: Leon Williams' Geometric Theory (Law of Harmony).
●​ Guideline: The shape of the maxillary central incisor should be the inverse of the
shape of the face (Square face = Square tooth; Round face = Round tooth) to create
harmony.

Station 10 (Window Technique)

●​ Indication: Hyperplastic or "Flabby" ridges (fibrous tissue) usually in the anterior
maxilla.
●​ Objective: To record the flabby tissue in a static (rest) state without compression to
prevent rebound dislodgement of the denture.