1.

Which of the following is not one of the four steps of the customer acquisition
process?
A. Marketing communications
B. Sales process
C. Price determination
D. Market sensing
2. What is the main goal of Digital Marketing communications within customer
acquisition?
A. Setting up offline stores
B. Drawing attention to the brand and connecting with customers
C. Conducting financial analysis
D. Developing logistics processes
3. Which statement correctly describes the difference between corporate and
marketing communications?
A. Corporate focuses on product sales, marketing focuses on image
B. Corporate targets stakeholders; marketing targets customers
C. Marketing involves shareholders, corporate involves customers
D. Both focus on internal communication
4. What is the Zero Moment of Truth (ZMOT)?
A. The time after purchase when customers review a product
B. The first online impression that shapes a consumer’s buying decision
C. The moment the product is shipped
D. The evaluation after service delivery
5. Which step in the Digital Marketing communications funnel aligns with motivation
to act?
A. Reach
B. Attention
C. Interest
D. Activation

6. The RAIA model consists of:

A. Reach, Attention, Interest, Activation
B. Reach, Action, Interest, Awareness
C. Recognise, Attract, Inspire, Activate
D. Reach, Awareness, Interaction, Action
7. What do attention signals in digital marketing indicate?
A. That users voluntarily engaged with a brand expression
B. That customers completed a purchase
 C. That the campaign has failed
D. That customer loyalty decreased
8. A soft conversion in digital campaigns is best illustrated by:
A. A completed purchase
B. A newsletter sign-up or video view
C. A payment confirmation
D. A product delivery

9. What does SMART stand for in setting communication objectives?

A. Simple, Marketable, Affordable, Realistic, Time-bound
B. Specific, Measurable, Assignable, Realistic, Time-bound
C. Strategic, Motivational, Accurate, Relevant, Timely
D. Specific, Marketed, Achievable, Reliable, Targeted
10. In Figure 5.2, which variable of the RAIA model corresponds to brand
knowledge?
A. Reach
B. Attention
C. Interest
D. Activation
11. The main purpose of Hero Content is to:
A. Make the brand stand out and attract attention
B. Provide FAQ information
C. Update product manuals
D. Maintain routine communication
12. What is Hub content designed to do?
A. Provide detailed technical specifications
B. Engage specific audience interests and shape perception
C. Offer constant updates
D. Replace advertising completely
13. Hygiene content refers to:
A. Up-to-date product information that answers customer queries
B. Hero content about brand values
C. Paid advertising
D. Viral social media posts

14. The “communications mix” refers to:

A. The combination of tools used to achieve communication objectives
B. The blend of HR and sales tactics
 C. A type of public relations method
D. The list of product prices
15. Native advertising can be defined as:
A. Paid ads unrelated to the context of the website
B. Ads that blend seamlessly into the surrounding content
C. Random pop-up ads
D. Traditional print banners
16. What is media convergence?
A. The merging of multiple media platforms such as print and online
B. The isolation of digital and offline campaigns
C. Using only social media
D. Mixing prices and channels
17. Cross-media optimisation aims to:
A. Increase offline-only exposure
B. Reinforce messages by integrating offline and online media
C. Eliminate print marketing
D. Focus solely on mobile

18. What is the final goal of multimedia brand consistency?

A. A uniform representation of the brand across channels
B. More promotional content
C. Cheaper digital tools
D. Shorter campaigns

19. Which method in Table 5.1 has both strong short-term and long-term brand
effects?
A. Display advertising
B. Content marketing
C. Affiliate marketing
D. Paid search
20. What is real-time dialogue in marketing plans used for?
A. Adjusting and fine-tuning campaigns based on live feedback
B. Building offline partnerships
C. Training internal staff
D. Tracking only sales metrics
21. An A/B test helps marketers:
A. Compare two versions of a campaign element to find the better
performer
B. Choose target markets
 C. Build brand loyalty
D. Measure emotional attachment
22. The Customer-Based Brand Equity (CBBE) model by Keller begins with:
A. Brand identity
B. Brand resonance
C. Brand response
D. Brand relationships
23. Which step in the CBBE model focuses on brand feelings?
A. Brand identity
B. Brand response
C. Brand resonance
D. Brand meaning
24. What does brand salience mean?
A. The extent to which consumers recognise and recall a brand
B. The level of advertising spend
C. The number of sales
D. The diversity of the product line
25. Brand imagery refers to:
A. Customer complaints
B. Visual design only
C. How people think about and perceive a brand
D. The physical appearance of stores
26. What is brand resonance?
A. The emotional bond and long-term relationship between customer and
brand
B. The awareness level of a brand
C. The number of purchases per week
D. A promotional slogan
27. What is share of voice in branding?
A. The brand’s percentage of total category advertising spend
B. The market share in revenue
C. The tone of brand communication
D. The reach of a viral post

28. According to Byron Sharp, brands grow by:

A. Limiting advertising
B. Increasing continuous reach and share of voice
 C. Targeting only loyal buyers
D. Reducing content output

29. Which two methods primarily build long-term brand relationships?

A. Paid search and SEO
B. Social media marketing and content marketing
C. Email marketing and affiliate marketing
D. Promotions and sponsorship
30. Social branding means:
A. Using social media to influence customer knowledge, attitude, and
behaviour
B. Selling products via influencers
C. Building websites
D. Offline promotion

31. Which factor makes social media essential for digital branding?
A. It excludes user participation
B. It enables wide reach, conversations, and reputation management
C. It removes brand control completely
D. It only benefits B2B firms
32. Which of the following is not a primary use of social media for brands?
A. Brand communication
B. Service provision
C. Reputation management
D. Manufacturing

33. The “always-on” strategy in social media refers to:

A. Continuous and consistent brand communication over time
B. Posting once a year
C. Campaigning only during sales
D. Using only paid media
34. Influencer marketing success depends primarily on:
A. Matching influencers authentically with the brand
B. Choosing the influencer with the most followers
C. Paying the highest fees
D. Using only macro influencers
35. Micro influencers are valuable because they:
A. Have millions of followers
B. Are highly trusted in niche communities
 C. Cost the most to hire
D. Create viral memes

36. What is the main risk of over-controlling influencer content?

A. Higher costs
B. Loss of authenticity and audience engagement
C. Increased reach
D. Too many conversions

37. The “Share a Coke” campaign is an example of:

A. Encouraging consumer-generated content and earned media
B. Paid advertising
C. SEO optimisation
D. Internal branding
38. What is newsjacking?
A. Using current events to boost social media exposure
B. Writing press releases
C. Avoiding news topics
D. Buying TV ads
39. Which type of moment in newsjacking is predictable and public?
A. Mapped moment
B. Mounting moment
C. Manifest moment
D. Micro moment

40. According to Tucker (2014), viral videos with over 4 million views often:
A. Lead to massive sales
B. Lose persuasive effectiveness
C. Always create loyalty
D. Increase retention
41. The popularity rate of a video measures:
A. The ratio of views in the second month to views in the first 10 days
B. The number of likes per day
C. The ratio of comments to likes
D. The number of paid promotions

42. Reputation management aims to:

A. Influence perceptions of reliability and quality through active
engagement
B. Increase SEO ranking only
 C. Replace advertising
D. Focus purely on price cuts
43. Thought leadership in social media means:
A. Being recognised as an authority or expert in a particular field
B. Sharing memes and jokes
C. Selling through emotion
D. Running A/B tests
44. Employee advocacy contributes to:
A. Expanding brand reach through employees’ personal networks
B. Reducing HR costs
C. Limiting employee posts
D. Replacing paid ads entirely
45. Which organisation is cited for training employees in positive online advocacy?
A. L’Oréal
B. Coca-Cola
C. Zara
D. Nike
46. Lead nurturing refers to:
A. Converting potential leads into paying customers through consistent
communication
B. Gathering random emails
C. Reducing lead cost
D. Managing HR systems

47. In the content marketing cycle, which is the first step?

A. Researching customer information needs
B. Creating content
C. Measuring results
D. Promoting content

48. The primary objective of content marketing is to:

A. Attract and retain customers with relevant information
B. Replace traditional media
C. Focus solely on SEO
D. Collect data only
49. What does social content mean?
A. Viral advertising
B. Combining content marketing with social media engagement
 C. Paid influencer videos
D. Corporate PR messages

50. According to the new content revenue model, free content acts as:
A. A teaser to attract customers to purchase more valuable information or
products
B. A way to reduce business profit
C. A replacement for sales
D. A pure cost center